Surgical Tech (Appleton And Lange) Part 12

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Compression of the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist is known as

    • Dupuytren's contracture
    • Carpel tunnel syndrome
    • Ganglia
    • Volkmann's contracture
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About This Quiz

Appleton and Lange part 12 Questions 1100 thru 1199

Surgical Technology Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    What procedure is used intraoperatively and postoperatively to determine blood flow in a vessel?

    • Anteriogram

    • Swan-Ganz

    • Doppler ultrasound

    • Angioscopy

    Correct Answer
    A. Doppler ultrasound
    Explanation
    Doppler ultrasound is a procedure used both intraoperatively and postoperatively to determine blood flow in a vessel. It utilizes sound waves to measure the velocity and direction of blood flow. This non-invasive technique allows healthcare professionals to assess the patency and adequacy of blood flow in real-time, aiding in the diagnosis and management of various vascular conditions. Doppler ultrasound is commonly used in surgeries and postoperative care to monitor blood flow and detect any abnormalities or complications that may arise.

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  • 3. 

    The term in situ graft represents the use of a (n)

    • Autograft

    • Biograft

    • Dacron graft

    • Filamentous velour

    Correct Answer
    A. Autograft
    Explanation
    An autograft refers to the use of tissue from the patient's own body for transplantation or grafting. This means that the tissue used for the graft is taken from one part of the patient's body and transferred to another part, ensuring compatibility and reducing the risk of rejection. Autografts are commonly used in various medical procedures, including skin grafts, bone grafts, and blood vessel grafts. They are preferred over other types of grafts, such as biografts or dacron grafts, as they have a higher success rate and lower risk of complications.

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  • 4. 

    Orthopedic surgery prepping

    • Is done under sterile conditions

    • Is done the day before surgery

    • Is eliminated

    • Is increased in time only

    Correct Answer
    A. Is done under sterile conditions
    Explanation
    Orthopedic surgery prepping is done under sterile conditions to minimize the risk of infection and ensure a safe surgical environment. Sterile conditions involve the use of sterile instruments, gloves, gowns, and drapes, as well as the proper cleaning and disinfection of the surgical site. This is crucial to prevent the introduction of bacteria or other microorganisms that could lead to post-operative complications. Maintaining sterile conditions during surgery is a standard practice in all surgical procedures, including orthopedic surgeries.

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  • 5. 

    Joint reconstruction is known as

    • Arthrodesis

    • Arthroplasty

    • Arthrotomy

    • Arthropexy

    Correct Answer
    A. Arthroplasty
    Explanation
    Arthroplasty is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical reconstruction or replacement of a joint. It involves removing damaged or diseased parts of the joint and replacing them with artificial components. Arthrodesis is the fusion of a joint, arthrotomy is the surgical incision into a joint, and arthropexy is the surgical fixation of a joint. However, none of these options accurately describe the process of joint reconstruction as arthroplasty does.

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  • 6. 

    Which orthopedic hip procedure is indiscted for patients with degenerative joint disease or rheumatoid arthritis?

    • AO external fixation

    • Total hip arthroplasty

    • Femoral endoprosthesis

    • Modular endoprosthesis

    Correct Answer
    A. Total hip arthroplasty
    Explanation
    Total hip arthroplasty is indicated for patients with degenerative joint disease or rheumatoid arthritis. This procedure involves replacing the damaged hip joint with an artificial joint, which can help alleviate pain and improve mobility. It is a commonly performed surgery for patients with these conditions, providing long-term relief and improved quality of life. The other options listed, AO external fixation, femoral endoprosthesis, and modular endoprosthesis, are not typically used for these specific conditions.

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  • 7. 

    What catheter is used to remove thrombi or emboli from vascular structures?

    • Gruntzig

    • Fogarty

    • Swan-Ganz

    • Foley

    Correct Answer
    A. Fogarty
    Explanation
    The Fogarty catheter is commonly used to remove thrombi or emboli from vascular structures. It is a flexible, balloon-tipped catheter that can be inserted into the affected blood vessel. Once in place, the balloon is inflated, creating a seal and allowing the physician to gently pull out the clot or embolus. This catheter is specifically designed for this purpose and has been widely used in medical practice for many years.

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  • 8. 

    Decreased bone mass results in a condition called

    • Osteoporosis

    • Osteomyelitis

    • Ossification

    • Ecchymosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteoporosis
    Explanation
    Decreased bone mass is a characteristic feature of osteoporosis, a condition in which the bones become weak and brittle. Osteoporosis increases the risk of fractures and is commonly seen in older individuals, especially postmenopausal women. Osteomyelitis is a bone infection, ossification is the process of bone formation, and ecchymosis refers to the discoloration of the skin caused by bleeding underneath. None of these conditions directly result from decreased bone mass.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is used to control bleeding beneath the skull and around the spinal cord?

    • Webril

    • Gauze sponges

    • Cottonoid

    • Kitners

    Correct Answer
    A. Cottonoid
    Explanation
    Cottonoid is used to control bleeding beneath the skull and around the spinal cord. Cottonoids are small, absorbent cotton balls or pads that are designed to be used in surgical procedures to control bleeding and absorb fluids. They are often used in neurosurgery to help control bleeding in delicate areas such as the brain and spinal cord. Their absorbent nature and soft texture make them ideal for this purpose, as they can be easily placed in tight spaces and can effectively stop bleeding.

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  • 10. 

    A total hip replacement would be indicated when the patient has

    • Degenerative hip joint disease

    • Hip fracture

    • Congenital hip dislocation

    • Hip cancer

    Correct Answer
    A. Degenerative hip joint disease
    Explanation
    A total hip replacement is indicated when a patient has degenerative hip joint disease. This condition occurs when the cartilage in the hip joint wears away, causing pain, stiffness, and difficulty in movement. The purpose of a total hip replacement is to replace the damaged joint with an artificial joint, relieving pain and improving mobility. Hip fracture, congenital hip dislocation, and hip cancer may require different treatments or interventions, but they do not necessarily warrant a total hip replacement.

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  • 11. 

    A lateral curvature of the spine is

    • Kyphosis

    • Scoliosis

    • Lordosis

    • Orthosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Scoliosis is the correct answer because it refers to a lateral curvature of the spine. Kyphosis refers to an excessive outward curvature of the upper back, while lordosis refers to an excessive inward curvature of the lower back. Orthosis refers to a device used to support or correct the alignment of a body part, but it is not specifically related to a curvature of the spine.

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  • 12. 

    A rotator cuff repair is called a

    • Bankart

    • Keller

    • McBride

    • Silver

    Correct Answer
    A. Bankart
    Explanation
    A rotator cuff repair is called a Bankart.

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  • 13. 

    The intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels is known as

    • Angiography

    • Angioplasty

    • Angioscopy

    • Arthrectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Angioscopy
    Explanation
    Angioscopy refers to the intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels. This technique allows surgeons to directly visualize the inside of blood vessels during a surgical procedure. Angiography, on the other hand, involves the use of X-rays and contrast dye to visualize blood vessels. Angioplasty is a procedure to open blocked or narrowed blood vessels, and arthrectomy is the surgical removal of plaque or fatty deposits from the arteries. Therefore, angioscopy is the correct answer as it specifically relates to the endoscopic visualization of internal vessels during surgery.

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  • 14. 

    Removal of atherosclerotic plaque from a major artery is termed

    • Embolectomy

    • Aneurysmectomy

    • Enddarterectomy

    • Thrombectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Enddarterectomy
    Explanation
    Endarterectomy is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical removal of the inner lining of an artery, specifically to remove atherosclerotic plaque. This procedure is done to improve blood flow and reduce the risk of complications associated with atherosclerosis, such as heart attacks or strokes. Embolectomy is the removal of an embolus (a blood clot or other foreign material) from a blood vessel, aneurysmectomy is the surgical removal of an aneurysm, and thrombectomy is the removal of a blood clot from a blood vessel.

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  • 15. 

    The technique applied to the patient who is unable to be weaned from cardiopulmonary bypass is

    • IAPB

    • VADs

    • Pacemaker

    • A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. A and B
    Explanation
    The technique applied to the patient who is unable to be weaned from cardiopulmonary bypass is A and B, which refers to the use of IAPB (Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump) and VADs (Ventricular Assist Devices). These techniques are used to provide mechanical support to the heart and assist with its pumping function when the patient is unable to be successfully weaned off the cardiopulmonary bypass machine. The pacemaker, on the other hand, is not typically used in this scenario as it primarily helps regulate the heart's electrical activity rather than providing mechanical support.

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  • 16. 

    What is the proper wrapping procedure utilizing an Esmarch bandage?

    • Start at the distal end of the extremity

    • Start at the proximal end of the extremity

    • Start after the cuff is inflated

    • Start at the incision site

    Correct Answer
    A. Start at the distal end of the extremity
    Explanation
    The proper wrapping procedure utilizing an Esmarch bandage begins at the distal end of the extremity. This is because starting at the distal end allows for proper compression and ensures that the bandage is applied evenly and securely. Starting at the proximal end or after the cuff is inflated may result in uneven compression or inadequate coverage. Starting at the incision site may introduce the risk of contamination or disruption of the wound. Therefore, starting at the distal end is the correct procedure for wrapping with an Esmarch bandage.

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  • 17. 

    The ideal candidate for a noncemented total hip arthroplasty is

    • Young and healthy person

    • Young with arthritis

    • Old and healthy

    • Old with osteoporotic bone disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Young and healthy person
    Explanation
    A noncemented total hip arthroplasty involves the use of a prosthetic hip joint that is not fixed in place with cement. This type of procedure is typically recommended for younger patients who are healthy and have strong bone density. Older individuals with osteoporotic bone disease may not have the necessary bone strength to support the implant without the use of cement. Similarly, while young individuals with arthritis may benefit from a hip replacement, the noncemented approach may not be suitable if their bone density is compromised. Therefore, the ideal candidate for a noncemented total hip arthroplasty is a young and healthy person.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is a disadvantage of arthroscopic surgery?

    • Less inflammatory response

    • Decreased recovery time

    • Reduced complications

    • Scarring of articular surface

    Correct Answer
    A. Scarring of articular surface
    Explanation
    Arthroscopic surgery is a minimally invasive procedure that allows surgeons to visualize, diagnose, and treat joint problems. However, one disadvantage of arthroscopic surgery is the potential for scarring of the articular surface. This scarring can occur due to the insertion of instruments into the joint during the surgery, which may lead to the formation of scar tissue. Scarring of the articular surface can affect joint function and mobility, causing pain and stiffness. Therefore, it is considered a disadvantage of arthroscopic surgery.

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  • 19. 

    After surgery on a shoulder, the arm may be bound against the side of the arm for

    • Comfort

    • Abduction

    • Immobilization

    • Mobilization

    Correct Answer
    A. Immobilization
    Explanation
    After surgery on a shoulder, the arm may be bound against the side of the arm for immobilization. This is done to restrict movement and provide stability to the shoulder joint, allowing it to heal properly. Immobilization helps prevent further injury, reduces pain, and promotes the recovery process. It also helps in reducing swelling and inflammation, allowing the tissues to heal. By immobilizing the arm, the patient can avoid putting strain on the surgical site and minimize the risk of complications.

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  • 20. 

    A fixation device that provides maximum holding and rigid fixation of a fracture by tightening bone fragments together is called a (n)

    • Compression plate and screws

    • Intramedullary nailing

    • Ilizarov technique

    • Interlocking nail fixation

    Correct Answer
    A. Compression plate and screws
    Explanation
    A compression plate and screws are used as a fixation device to provide maximum holding and rigid fixation of a fracture by tightening bone fragments together. The compression plate is placed on the surface of the bone and screws are inserted through the plate and into the bone to hold it in place. This technique allows for compression of the fractured bone fragments, promoting better healing and stability.

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  • 21. 

    An infection in bone is termed

    • Osteomalacia

    • Osteomyelitis

    • Osteitis

    • Osteoporosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteomyelitis
    Explanation
    Osteomyelitis is the correct answer because it refers to an infection in the bone. Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by softening of the bones due to a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium. Osteitis refers to inflammation of the bone, which may or may not be caused by an infection. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, typically caused by loss of bone density.

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  • 22. 

    A tumor arising from the covering of the brain is a (n)

    • Hemangioblastoma

    • Angioma

    • Meningioma

    • Glioma

    Correct Answer
    A. Meningioma
    Explanation
    A meningioma is a tumor that originates from the covering (meninges) of the brain. It is typically a slow-growing tumor that is usually benign, meaning it is not cancerous. Meningiomas can cause symptoms such as headaches, seizures, and changes in cognitive function depending on their size and location. Treatment options for meningiomas include surgical removal, radiation therapy, and sometimes observation if the tumor is small and not causing significant symptoms.

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  • 23. 

    A drug used intraoperatively for its antispasmodic effect on the smooth muscle of the vessel wall is

    • Ringer's lactate

    • Papaverine hydrochloride

    • Physiosol

    • Protamine sulfate

    Correct Answer
    A. Papaverine hydrochloride
    Explanation
    Papaverine hydrochloride is a drug that is used intraoperatively for its antispasmodic effect on the smooth muscle of the vessel wall. This means that it helps to relax and prevent spasms in the smooth muscle of blood vessels, which can be beneficial during surgical procedures. Ringer's lactate, Physiosol, and protamine sulfate do not have the same antispasmodic effect on smooth muscle, making papaverine hydrochloride the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    An abnormal localized dilatation of an artery resulting from mechanical pressure of blood on a weakened wall is called

    • Atherosclerosis

    • Arteriosclerosis

    • Collateral circulation

    • Aneurysm

    Correct Answer
    A. Aneurysm
    Explanation
    An aneurysm is an abnormal localized dilatation of an artery caused by the mechanical pressure of blood on a weakened wall. Atherosclerosis is the buildup of plaque in the arteries, arteriosclerosis is the hardening and thickening of the arterial walls, and collateral circulation refers to the development of alternative blood vessels to bypass a blockage. However, none of these options describe the specific condition of an abnormal localized dilatation of an artery caused by blood pressure on a weakened wall, which is an aneurysm.

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  • 25. 

    All of the following are considered good methods of maintaining strict asepsis within an orthopedic surgical suite EXCEPT

    • Isolation units

    • Laminar flow rooms

    • Charcoal masks

    • Isolation bubble systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Charcoal masks
    Explanation
    Charcoal masks are not considered a good method of maintaining strict asepsis within an orthopedic surgical suite. Asepsis refers to the absence of bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms that can cause infection. Isolation units, laminar flow rooms, and isolation bubble systems are all effective methods of maintaining asepsis as they help to control the airflow and limit the introduction of contaminants. Charcoal masks, on the other hand, are primarily used to filter out odors and gases and do not provide the same level of protection against microorganisms.

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  • 26. 

    Electrical stimulation is artificially applied postoperative electrical current that influences

    • Osteomalacia

    • Osteogenesis

    • Osteoporosis

    • Osteoarthritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteogenesis
    Explanation
    Electrical stimulation refers to the application of electrical current after a surgery to stimulate bone growth. This process is known as osteogenesis. Osteogenesis is the formation of new bone tissue, which is exactly what electrical stimulation aims to promote. Therefore, the correct answer is osteogenesis.

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  • 27. 

    During a vascular procedure, monitoring the activated clotting time intraoperatively provides useful data for judging the need for reversal or addition of

    • Angiovist

    • Papaverine

    • Heparin

    • Protamine sulfate

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    During a vascular procedure, monitoring the activated clotting time (ACT) intraoperatively is important to assess the patient's coagulation status. Heparin is commonly used as an anticoagulant during these procedures to prevent blood clot formation. By monitoring the ACT, healthcare professionals can determine if the patient's blood is adequately anticoagulated or if additional heparin is needed. If the ACT is too high, it may indicate that the patient is at risk of bleeding, and reversal agents like protamine sulfate can be administered to counteract the effects of heparin. Therefore, heparin is the correct answer as it is directly related to monitoring and managing coagulation during vascular procedures.

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  • 28. 

    What is the treatment of choice for capturing emboli that arise from the pelvis or lower extremities?

    • Permacath

    • Greenfield filter

    • Vas-cath

    • Porto-cath

    Correct Answer
    A. Greenfield filter
    Explanation
    The treatment of choice for capturing emboli that arise from the pelvis or lower extremities is a Greenfield filter. A Greenfield filter is a type of medical device that is inserted into the vena cava to catch and prevent blood clots from traveling to the lungs. It is commonly used in patients who are at high risk for developing deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. The filter works by trapping the emboli and preventing them from reaching the lungs, thus reducing the risk of life-threatening complications.

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  • 29. 

    Harrington rods are used to treat

    • Femoral fracture

    • Scoliosis

    • Talipes deformity

    • Congenital hip dislocation

    Correct Answer
    A. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Harrington rods are commonly used in the treatment of scoliosis. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by an abnormal curvature of the spine, often in an "S" or "C" shape. Harrington rods are surgical implants that are attached to the spine to correct and stabilize the curvature. They help to straighten the spine and prevent further progression of the deformity. Other conditions listed, such as femoral fracture, talipes deformity, and congenital hip dislocation, may require different treatment methods and would not typically involve the use of Harrington rods.

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  • 30. 

    An immobilization device used after total hip arthroplasty is

    • Adduction pillow

    • Abduction pillow

    • Sling

    • Splint

    Correct Answer
    A. Abduction pillow
    Explanation
    An abduction pillow is a type of immobilization device commonly used after total hip arthroplasty. This pillow is designed to keep the legs separated and in an abducted position, which helps to prevent dislocation of the hip joint and promotes proper healing. The abduction pillow provides support and stability to the hip joint while allowing for comfortable positioning and movement. It is an important tool in the post-operative care of patients who have undergone total hip arthroplasty.

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  • 31. 

    A dorsal angulated fracture of the distal radius is commonly called a (n)

    • Pott's fracture

    • Os calcis

    • Olecranon fracture

    • Colles' fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Colles' fracture
    Explanation
    A dorsal angulated fracture of the distal radius is commonly called a Colles' fracture. This fracture occurs when the radius bone in the forearm breaks near the wrist joint and the broken end of the bone is displaced towards the back of the hand. It is named after Abraham Colles, an Irish surgeon who first described this type of fracture in the early 19th century. Colles' fracture is a common injury, often caused by falling onto an outstretched hand, and it is characterized by a specific fracture pattern in the distal radius.

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  • 32. 

    Seamless tubular cotton that stretches to fit a contour and is used for padding is called

    • Ace bandage

    • Webril

    • Sheet wadding

    • Stockinette

    Correct Answer
    A. Stockinette
    Explanation
    Stockinette is a seamless tubular cotton fabric that has the ability to stretch and conform to the shape of the body. It is commonly used for padding and providing support in various medical applications. The other options, such as Ace bandage, Webril, and sheet wadding, do not specifically refer to a seamless tubular cotton fabric that stretches and is used for padding. Therefore, stockinette is the correct answer.

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  • 33. 

    Which fracture most commonly occurs in childhood?

    • Spiral

    • Compound

    • Greenstick

    • Comminuted

    Correct Answer
    A. Greenstick
    Explanation
    Greenstick fractures are the most common type of fractures that occur in childhood. This type of fracture happens when the bone bends and cracks but does not break completely. This is because children's bones are more flexible and have a higher amount of collagen, which allows them to bend rather than break. Greenstick fractures are typically seen in long bones, such as the forearm, and are more common in younger children due to their bone structure and level of activity.

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  • 34. 

    A procedure done to correct recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder that involves reattachment of the rim of the glenoid fossa is called a

    • Bankart

    • Putti-Platt

    • Bristow

    • Monteggia

    Correct Answer
    A. Bankart
    Explanation
    Bankart procedure is a surgical technique used to correct recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder. It involves reattaching the rim of the glenoid fossa, which is the socket of the shoulder joint. This procedure helps to stabilize the shoulder joint and prevent future dislocations. The other options, Putti-Platt, Bristow, and Monteggia, are not specifically related to the reattachment of the glenoid fossa rim in the context of shoulder dislocation.

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  • 35. 

    A prosthetic implant that allows gliding and shifting motions resembling normal range of motion is generally termed a

    • Nonconstrained implant

    • Constrained implant

    • Methylmethacrylate fixation

    • Biofixation

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonconstrained implant
    Explanation
    A nonconstrained implant refers to a prosthetic implant that enables gliding and shifting motions similar to the normal range of motion. This type of implant allows for more natural movement and flexibility, mimicking the function of the original joint. In contrast, a constrained implant restricts motion and is used in cases where stability is a priority, such as in patients with weak or damaged ligaments. Methylmethacrylate fixation and biofixation are unrelated to the concept of a nonconstrained implant and are not the correct answers.

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  • 36. 

    In vascular surgery, the term in situ graft references the use of a (n)

    • Autogenous graft

    • Heterogeneous graft

    • Allograft

    • Synthetic graft

    Correct Answer
    A. Autogenous graft
    Explanation
    The term "in situ graft" in vascular surgery refers to the use of an autogenous graft. An autogenous graft is a type of graft that is taken from the patient's own body, such as a blood vessel or a piece of tissue. This type of graft is often preferred because it has a lower risk of rejection and better long-term outcomes compared to other types of grafts, such as heterogeneous grafts (taken from a different species), allografts (taken from another human), or synthetic grafts (made from artificial materials).

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  • 37. 

    Baker's cysts are found in the

    • Popliteal fossa

    • Interdigital fossa

    • Intercarpal joints

    • Olecranon fossa

    Correct Answer
    A. Popliteal fossa
    Explanation
    Baker's cysts are found in the popliteal fossa. The popliteal fossa is a shallow depression located at the back of the knee joint. It is the space behind the knee where various structures, such as blood vessels, nerves, and lymph nodes, pass through. Baker's cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are fluid-filled sacs that form in the popliteal fossa. They are usually a result of underlying knee joint conditions, such as arthritis or a meniscal tear. These cysts can cause pain, swelling, and stiffness in the knee area.

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  • 38. 

    Surgery on the medial malleolus would be of the

    • Fibula

    • Jaw

    • Tibia

    • Radius

    Correct Answer
    A. Tibia
    Explanation
    The medial malleolus is a bony prominence located on the inner side of the ankle. It is formed by the lower end of the tibia bone. Therefore, surgery on the medial malleolus would involve the tibia bone, not the fibula, jaw, or radius.

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  • 39. 

    Plaster is ready for application

    • When air bubbles cease to rise

    • When air bubbles begin to rise

    • After 2 minutes of submersion

    • After 10 minutes of submersion

    Correct Answer
    A. When air bubbles cease to rise
    Explanation
    When air bubbles cease to rise, it indicates that the plaster is ready for application. This is because when the plaster is mixed with water, air bubbles get trapped within it. As the plaster sets, these air bubbles rise to the surface and eventually stop appearing. This is a sign that the plaster has reached the desired consistency and is ready to be applied.

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  • 40. 

    In a total hip replacement, which structure is reamed?

    • Acetabulum

    • Greater trochanter

    • Lesser trochanter

    • Femoral head

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetabulum
    Explanation
    In a total hip replacement, the structure that is reamed is the acetabulum. This involves removing the damaged or diseased bone and cartilage from the socket of the hip joint. The acetabulum is then reshaped using a reamer to prepare it for the placement of the artificial socket component. This allows for a proper fit and stability of the new hip joint.

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  • 41. 

    A flexion deformity at the proximal joint of the four lateral toes is called

    • Valgus

    • Exostosis

    • Hammer toe

    • Bunion

    Correct Answer
    A. Hammer toe
    Explanation
    A flexion deformity at the proximal joint of the four lateral toes is called a hammer toe. This condition is characterized by the abnormal bending of the toe at the middle joint, causing it to resemble a hammer. It often results from muscle imbalances and can cause pain, discomfort, and difficulty in wearing shoes. Treatment options include wearing appropriate footwear, using orthotics, doing exercises to stretch and strengthen the toe muscles, and in severe cases, surgery may be required to correct the deformity.

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  • 42. 

    Water temperature for plaster cast application is

    • 50 - 55 degrees F

    • 70 - 75 degrees F

    • 85 - 90 degrees F

    • 95 - 100 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    A. 70 - 75 degrees F
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 70 - 75 degrees F. This temperature range is ideal for applying a plaster cast because it allows the plaster to set properly without causing discomfort or burns to the patient. If the water temperature is too low, the plaster may not set properly, and if it is too high, it can cause burns or discomfort. Therefore, maintaining a water temperature of 70 - 75 degrees F is crucial for a successful plaster cast application.

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  • 43. 

    Limb exsanguination is accomplished by using

    • Limb elevation

    • Tourniquet application

    • Kling bandage

    • Esmarch bandage

    Correct Answer
    A. Esmarch bandage
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Esmarch bandage because it is specifically designed for exsanguination of a limb. The Esmarch bandage is a long, narrow strip of rubber or latex that is wrapped tightly around the limb to compress the blood vessels and force the blood out of the limb. This allows for a bloodless surgical field and helps prevent excessive bleeding during procedures. Limb elevation, tourniquet application, and Kling bandage may also be used in certain situations, but they are not specifically designed for exsanguination.

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  • 44. 

    In orthopedic surgery, the viewing of the progression of a procedure on a television screen is known as

    • Image intensification

    • Radiography

    • Portable filming

    • X-ray

    Correct Answer
    A. Image intensification
    Explanation
    Image intensification refers to the process of enhancing the visibility of an image on a television screen during orthopedic surgery. This technique allows surgeons to have a clearer and more detailed view of the procedure being performed. By using image intensification, surgeons can accurately assess the progress of the surgery and make any necessary adjustments or corrections. This technology is commonly used in orthopedic surgeries to improve surgical precision and patient outcomes.

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  • 45. 

    To provide decompression of the spinal roots and vertebral alignment following a thoracolumbar spinal fusion, which of the following may be used for fixation?

    • Harrington rods

    • Luque rods

    • Dwyer devices

    • A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. A and B
    Explanation
    Harrington rods and Luque rods may be used for fixation to provide decompression of the spinal roots and vertebral alignment following a thoracolumbar spinal fusion. Both of these devices are commonly used in spinal surgeries to stabilize the spine and promote fusion. Harrington rods are metal rods that are attached to the spine using hooks and screws, while Luque rods are curved rods that are also attached to the spine using hooks and screws. By using these fixation devices, the spinal roots can be decompressed and the vertebral alignment can be maintained, promoting proper healing and stability of the spine.

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  • 46. 

    Which operative procedure facilitates the draining of a subdural hematoma?

    • Cranioplasty

    • Hypophysectomy

    • Craniosyntosis

    • Burr holes

    Correct Answer
    A. Burr holes
    Explanation
    Burr holes are small holes drilled into the skull to facilitate the draining of a subdural hematoma. This procedure involves inserting a drainage tube through the burr holes to remove the accumulated blood and relieve pressure on the brain. It is a minimally invasive technique that allows for the evacuation of the hematoma and can be performed under local anesthesia. Cranioplasty is a surgical procedure to repair a defect or deformity of the skull, while hypophysectomy involves the removal of the pituitary gland. Craniosynostosis is a condition characterized by the premature fusion of the skull bones, which may require surgical correction but is not directly related to draining a subdural hematoma.

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  • 47. 

    The surgery scheduled as "Greenfield filter insertion" indicates a diagnosis of

    • Emboli formation

    • Venous stasis

    • Arteriovascular occlusion

    • Kidney failure

    Correct Answer
    A. Emboli formation
    Explanation
    The surgery scheduled as "Greenfield filter insertion" indicates a diagnosis of emboli formation. This procedure involves the insertion of a Greenfield filter, which is a type of device used to prevent blood clots or emboli from traveling to the lungs. Therefore, the presence of this surgery suggests that the patient has a condition involving the formation of emboli, such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.

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  • 48. 

    A surgical procedure designed to stiffen or fuse a joint is called

    • Arthropexy

    • Arthroplasty

    • Joint fixation

    • Arthrodesis

    Correct Answer
    A. Arthrodesis
    Explanation
    Arthrodesis is the correct answer because it refers to a surgical procedure that involves fusing or stiffening a joint. This procedure is typically done to treat severe joint pain or instability. The other options, arthropexy, arthroplasty, and joint fixation, do not specifically refer to the process of stiffening or fusing a joint.

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  • 49. 

    An abduction pillow would be used to 

    • Immobilize hip joints after hip surgery

    • Stabilize a femoral fracture

    • Immobilize the tibia postsurgery

    • Rotate the hips outward after hip reconstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Immobilize hip joints after hip surgery
    Explanation
    An abduction pillow is specifically designed to immobilize the hip joints after hip surgery. This is important because after surgery, it is crucial to prevent any movement or rotation of the hip joints in order to promote proper healing and prevent complications. The abduction pillow helps to keep the hips in a specific position, ensuring that the hip joints stay immobilized and stable during the recovery period.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 18, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Tigger28384
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