Surgical Tech (Appleton And Lange) Part 12

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Surgical Technology Quizzes & Trivia

Appleton and Lange part 12 Questions 1100 thru 1199


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A drug used intraoperatively for its antispasmodic effect on the smooth muscle of the vessel wall is

    • A.

      Ringer's lactate

    • B.

      Papaverine hydrochloride

    • C.

      Physiosol

    • D.

      Protamine sulfate

    Correct Answer
    B. Papaverine hydrochloride
    Explanation
    Papaverine hydrochloride is a drug that is used intraoperatively for its antispasmodic effect on the smooth muscle of the vessel wall. This means that it helps to relax and prevent spasms in the smooth muscle of blood vessels, which can be beneficial during surgical procedures. Ringer's lactate, Physiosol, and protamine sulfate do not have the same antispasmodic effect on smooth muscle, making papaverine hydrochloride the correct answer.

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  • 2. 

    Compression of subclavian vessels and brachial plexus at the superior aperture of the thorax is known as

    • A.

      Thymoma

    • B.

      Pectus excavatum

    • C.

      Thoracic outlet syndrome

    • D.

      Pectus carinatum

    Correct Answer
    B. Pectus excavatum
    Explanation
    Compression of the subclavian vessels and brachial plexus at the superior aperture of the thorax is known as thoracic outlet syndrome. Pectus excavatum is a condition where the breastbone is sunken into the chest. Thymoma is a tumor that develops in the thymus gland. Pectus carinatum is a condition where the breastbone protrudes outward.

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  • 3. 

    In vascular surgery, the term in situ graft references the use of a (n)

    • A.

      Autogenous graft

    • B.

      Heterogeneous graft

    • C.

      Allograft

    • D.

      Synthetic graft

    Correct Answer
    A. Autogenous graft
    Explanation
    The term "in situ graft" in vascular surgery refers to the use of an autogenous graft. An autogenous graft is a type of graft that is taken from the patient's own body, such as a blood vessel or a piece of tissue. This type of graft is often preferred because it has a lower risk of rejection and better long-term outcomes compared to other types of grafts, such as heterogeneous grafts (taken from a different species), allografts (taken from another human), or synthetic grafts (made from artificial materials).

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  • 4. 

    The surgery scheduled as "Greenfield filter insertion" indicates a diagnosis of

    • A.

      Emboli formation

    • B.

      Venous stasis

    • C.

      Arteriovascular occlusion

    • D.

      Kidney failure

    Correct Answer
    A. Emboli formation
    Explanation
    The surgery scheduled as "Greenfield filter insertion" indicates a diagnosis of emboli formation. This procedure involves the insertion of a Greenfield filter, which is a type of device used to prevent blood clots or emboli from traveling to the lungs. Therefore, the presence of this surgery suggests that the patient has a condition involving the formation of emboli, such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.

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  • 5. 

    The intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels is known as

    • A.

      Angiography

    • B.

      Angioplasty

    • C.

      Angioscopy

    • D.

      Arthrectomy

    Correct Answer
    C. Angioscopy
    Explanation
    Angioscopy refers to the intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels. This technique allows surgeons to directly visualize the inside of blood vessels during a surgical procedure. Angiography, on the other hand, involves the use of X-rays and contrast dye to visualize blood vessels. Angioplasty is a procedure to open blocked or narrowed blood vessels, and arthrectomy is the surgical removal of plaque or fatty deposits from the arteries. Therefore, angioscopy is the correct answer as it specifically relates to the endoscopic visualization of internal vessels during surgery.

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  • 6. 

    During a vascular procedure, monitoring the activated clotting time intraoperatively provides useful data for judging the need for reversal or addition of

    • A.

      Angiovist

    • B.

      Papaverine

    • C.

      Heparin

    • D.

      Protamine sulfate

    Correct Answer
    C. Heparin
    Explanation
    During a vascular procedure, monitoring the activated clotting time (ACT) intraoperatively is important to assess the patient's coagulation status. Heparin is commonly used as an anticoagulant during these procedures to prevent blood clot formation. By monitoring the ACT, healthcare professionals can determine if the patient's blood is adequately anticoagulated or if additional heparin is needed. If the ACT is too high, it may indicate that the patient is at risk of bleeding, and reversal agents like protamine sulfate can be administered to counteract the effects of heparin. Therefore, heparin is the correct answer as it is directly related to monitoring and managing coagulation during vascular procedures.

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  • 7. 

    A low-molecular-weight protein that, when combined with heparin, causes a loss of anticoagulant activity postoperatively is

    • A.

      Papaverine

    • B.

      Protamine sulfate

    • C.

      Tromethamine

    • D.

      Angiovist

    Correct Answer
    B. Protamine sulfate
    Explanation
    Protamine sulfate is a low-molecular-weight protein that can bind to heparin, resulting in the formation of a stable complex. This complex neutralizes the anticoagulant activity of heparin, making protamine sulfate an effective antidote for heparin overdose or to reverse the effects of heparin during surgery. Therefore, when combined with heparin, protamine sulfate causes a loss of anticoagulant activity postoperatively.

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  • 8. 

    What is the purpose for the surgical creation of an arteriovenous fistula?

    • A.

      Hemodialysis

    • B.

      Insertion of Greenfield filter

    • C.

      Peritoneal dialysis

    • D.

      Placement of Javid shunt

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemodialysis
    Explanation
    The purpose for the surgical creation of an arteriovenous fistula is for hemodialysis. An arteriovenous fistula is a surgical connection made between an artery and a vein, usually in the arm. This connection allows for easier access to the bloodstream during hemodialysis, a procedure used to filter waste and excess fluid from the blood in individuals with kidney failure. By creating an arteriovenous fistula, the blood can be easily withdrawn from the body, filtered through a dialysis machine, and then returned to the body. This helps to maintain proper kidney function and manage the symptoms of kidney failure.

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  • 9. 

    Conservative treatment of occlusive dissease involving recanalization to restore the lumen of a vessel is called

    • A.

      Polytetrafluoroethylene prosthetic (PTFE)

    • B.

      Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)

    • C.

      Greenfield filter

    • D.

      Endarterectomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
    Explanation
    Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) is the correct answer because it involves the conservative treatment of occlusive disease by recanalizing and restoring the lumen of a vessel. PTA is a minimally invasive procedure in which a balloon catheter is used to widen narrowed or blocked blood vessels. This procedure helps to improve blood flow and relieve symptoms caused by the occlusion. The other options, such as polytetrafluoroethylene prosthetic (PTFE), Greenfield filter, and endarterectomy, are not specifically related to the conservative treatment of occlusive disease involving recanalization.

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  • 10. 

    What catheter is used to remove thrombi or emboli from vascular structures?

    • A.

      Gruntzig

    • B.

      Fogarty

    • C.

      Swan-Ganz

    • D.

      Foley

    Correct Answer
    B. Fogarty
    Explanation
    The Fogarty catheter is commonly used to remove thrombi or emboli from vascular structures. It is a flexible, balloon-tipped catheter that can be inserted into the affected blood vessel. Once in place, the balloon is inflated, creating a seal and allowing the physician to gently pull out the clot or embolus. This catheter is specifically designed for this purpose and has been widely used in medical practice for many years.

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  • 11. 

    What procedure is used intraoperatively and postoperatively to determine blood flow in a vessel?

    • A.

      Anteriogram

    • B.

      Swan-Ganz

    • C.

      Doppler ultrasound

    • D.

      Angioscopy

    Correct Answer
    C. Doppler ultrasound
    Explanation
    Doppler ultrasound is a procedure used both intraoperatively and postoperatively to determine blood flow in a vessel. It utilizes sound waves to measure the velocity and direction of blood flow. This non-invasive technique allows healthcare professionals to assess the patency and adequacy of blood flow in real-time, aiding in the diagnosis and management of various vascular conditions. Doppler ultrasound is commonly used in surgeries and postoperative care to monitor blood flow and detect any abnormalities or complications that may arise.

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  • 12. 

    Removal of atherosclerotic plaque from a major artery is termed

    • A.

      Embolectomy

    • B.

      Aneurysmectomy

    • C.

      Enddarterectomy

    • D.

      Thrombectomy

    Correct Answer
    C. Enddarterectomy
    Explanation
    Endarterectomy is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical removal of the inner lining of an artery, specifically to remove atherosclerotic plaque. This procedure is done to improve blood flow and reduce the risk of complications associated with atherosclerosis, such as heart attacks or strokes. Embolectomy is the removal of an embolus (a blood clot or other foreign material) from a blood vessel, aneurysmectomy is the surgical removal of an aneurysm, and thrombectomy is the removal of a blood clot from a blood vessel.

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  • 13. 

    An abnormal localized dilatation of an artery resulting from mechanical pressure of blood on a weakened wall is called

    • A.

      Atherosclerosis

    • B.

      Arteriosclerosis

    • C.

      Collateral circulation

    • D.

      Aneurysm

    Correct Answer
    D. Aneurysm
    Explanation
    An aneurysm is an abnormal localized dilatation of an artery caused by the mechanical pressure of blood on a weakened wall. Atherosclerosis is the buildup of plaque in the arteries, arteriosclerosis is the hardening and thickening of the arterial walls, and collateral circulation refers to the development of alternative blood vessels to bypass a blockage. However, none of these options describe the specific condition of an abnormal localized dilatation of an artery caused by blood pressure on a weakened wall, which is an aneurysm.

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  • 14. 

    What is the treatment of choice for capturing emboli that arise from the pelvis or lower extremities?

    • A.

      Permacath

    • B.

      Greenfield filter

    • C.

      Vas-cath

    • D.

      Porto-cath

    Correct Answer
    B. Greenfield filter
    Explanation
    The treatment of choice for capturing emboli that arise from the pelvis or lower extremities is a Greenfield filter. A Greenfield filter is a type of medical device that is inserted into the vena cava to catch and prevent blood clots from traveling to the lungs. It is commonly used in patients who are at high risk for developing deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. The filter works by trapping the emboli and preventing them from reaching the lungs, thus reducing the risk of life-threatening complications.

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  • 15. 

    What intraoperative test determines the needed reversal or addition of heparin?

    • A.

      Arterial blood gases (ABGs)

    • B.

      ACT

    • C.

      APPT

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. ACT
    Explanation
    The intraoperative test that determines the needed reversal or addition of heparin is ACT (Activated Clotting Time). ACT measures the time it takes for blood to clot after the addition of a specific activator. By monitoring ACT levels during surgery, healthcare professionals can assess the effectiveness of heparin and adjust the dosage accordingly to maintain appropriate anticoagulation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) and APPT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) are not specific tests for determining the reversal or addition of heparin.

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  • 16. 

    What drug is used intraoperatively in a topical manner for its direct effect on the muscle of the vessel wall?

    • A.

      Papaverine hydrochloride

    • B.

      Heparin

    • C.

      Topical thrombin

    • D.

      Protamine sulfate

    Correct Answer
    A. Papaverine hydrochloride
    Explanation
    Papaverine hydrochloride is used intraoperatively in a topical manner for its direct effect on the muscle of the vessel wall. It is a vasodilator that works by relaxing the smooth muscle in blood vessels, leading to increased blood flow. This can be beneficial during surgery, as it helps to prevent or treat vasospasm and maintain adequate blood supply to the tissues. Heparin, topical thrombin, and protamine sulfate do not have direct effects on the muscle of the vessel wall like papaverine hydrochloride does.

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  • 17. 

    The technique applied to the patient who is unable to be weaned from cardiopulmonary bypass is

    • A.

      IAPB

    • B.

      VADs

    • C.

      Pacemaker

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    The technique applied to the patient who is unable to be weaned from cardiopulmonary bypass is A and B, which refers to the use of IAPB (Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump) and VADs (Ventricular Assist Devices). These techniques are used to provide mechanical support to the heart and assist with its pumping function when the patient is unable to be successfully weaned off the cardiopulmonary bypass machine. The pacemaker, on the other hand, is not typically used in this scenario as it primarily helps regulate the heart's electrical activity rather than providing mechanical support.

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  • 18. 

    What is the most common acquired valvular lesion?

    • A.

      Mitral regurgitation

    • B.

      Mitral stenosis

    • C.

      Tricuspid valve regurgitation

    • D.

      Aortic insufficiency

    Correct Answer
    B. Mitral stenosis
    Explanation
    Mitral stenosis is the narrowing of the mitral valve, which is responsible for regulating blood flow between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart. It is the most common acquired valvular lesion, often caused by rheumatic fever, a complication of untreated strep throat. The narrowing of the valve restricts blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and heart palpitations. If left untreated, mitral stenosis can lead to more severe complications, such as heart failure.

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  • 19. 

    What drug is used to effect coronary thrombolysis in the cardiac catheterization laboratory?

    • A.

      Tissue plasminogen activator

    • B.

      Heparin

    • C.

      Streptokinase

    • D.

      A and C

    Correct Answer
    D. A and C
    Explanation
    Tissue plasminogen activator and streptokinase are drugs used to effect coronary thrombolysis in the cardiac catheterization laboratory.

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  • 20. 

    The term in situ graft represents the use of a (n)

    • A.

      Autograft

    • B.

      Biograft

    • C.

      Dacron graft

    • D.

      Filamentous velour

    Correct Answer
    A. Autograft
    Explanation
    An autograft refers to the use of tissue from the patient's own body for transplantation or grafting. This means that the tissue used for the graft is taken from one part of the patient's body and transferred to another part, ensuring compatibility and reducing the risk of rejection. Autografts are commonly used in various medical procedures, including skin grafts, bone grafts, and blood vessel grafts. They are preferred over other types of grafts, such as biografts or dacron grafts, as they have a higher success rate and lower risk of complications.

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  • 21. 

    Which suture is commonly used to attach tendon to bone?

    • A.

      Wire

    • B.

      Cotton

    • C.

      Chromic

    • D.

      Vicryl

    Correct Answer
    A. Wire
    Explanation
    Wire is commonly used to attach tendon to bone because it provides a strong and secure fixation. The use of wire allows for a stable connection between the tendon and bone, which is important for proper healing and function. Wire is often chosen for its durability and ability to withstand tension and stress. Additionally, wire can be easily manipulated and tightened, making it a preferred choice for attaching tendons to bone during surgical procedures.

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  • 22. 

    Seamless tubular cotton that stretches to fit a contour and is used for padding is called

    • A.

      Ace bandage

    • B.

      Webril

    • C.

      Sheet wadding

    • D.

      Stockinette

    Correct Answer
    D. Stockinette
    Explanation
    Stockinette is a seamless tubular cotton fabric that has the ability to stretch and conform to the shape of the body. It is commonly used for padding and providing support in various medical applications. The other options, such as Ace bandage, Webril, and sheet wadding, do not specifically refer to a seamless tubular cotton fabric that stretches and is used for padding. Therefore, stockinette is the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    What is the proper wrapping procedure utilizing an Esmarch bandage?

    • A.

      Start at the distal end of the extremity

    • B.

      Start at the proximal end of the extremity

    • C.

      Start after the cuff is inflated

    • D.

      Start at the incision site

    Correct Answer
    A. Start at the distal end of the extremity
    Explanation
    The proper wrapping procedure utilizing an Esmarch bandage begins at the distal end of the extremity. This is because starting at the distal end allows for proper compression and ensures that the bandage is applied evenly and securely. Starting at the proximal end or after the cuff is inflated may result in uneven compression or inadequate coverage. Starting at the incision site may introduce the risk of contamination or disruption of the wound. Therefore, starting at the distal end is the correct procedure for wrapping with an Esmarch bandage.

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  • 24. 

    Fracture of the patella may be repaired with all of the following hardware EXCEPT

    • A.

      Buttress plate

    • B.

      Bone screws

    • C.

      Tension band

    • D.

      Circumferential loop

    Correct Answer
    A. Buttress plate
    Explanation
    A fracture of the patella can be repaired using hardware such as bone screws, tension band, and circumferential loop. These options provide stability and support to the fractured bone. However, a buttress plate is not typically used for patella fractures. A buttress plate is commonly used for fractures in other bones, such as the femur or tibia, where it acts as a support to prevent collapse or displacement of the bone. Therefore, a buttress plate is not an appropriate hardware option for repairing a patella fracture.

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  • 25. 

    A variation of bunionectomy, in which the surgeon includes resection of the proximal third of the phalanx and possible silicone implant is called a

    • A.

      McBride procedure

    • B.

      Keller arthroplasty

    • C.

      Bankart procedure

    • D.

      Metatarsal osteotomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Keller arthroplasty
    Explanation
    Keller arthroplasty is a surgical procedure that involves the resection of the proximal third of the phalanx and the possible use of a silicone implant. This procedure is commonly used as a variation of bunionectomy to treat bunions or hallux valgus deformities. It aims to correct the alignment of the big toe and alleviate pain and discomfort. The McBride procedure, Bankart procedure, and metatarsal osteotomy are different surgical procedures used for other conditions and not specifically related to the resection of the proximal third of the phalanx.

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  • 26. 

    Baker's cysts are found in the

    • A.

      Popliteal fossa

    • B.

      Interdigital fossa

    • C.

      Intercarpal joints

    • D.

      Olecranon fossa

    Correct Answer
    A. Popliteal fossa
    Explanation
    Baker's cysts are found in the popliteal fossa. The popliteal fossa is a shallow depression located at the back of the knee joint. It is the space behind the knee where various structures, such as blood vessels, nerves, and lymph nodes, pass through. Baker's cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are fluid-filled sacs that form in the popliteal fossa. They are usually a result of underlying knee joint conditions, such as arthritis or a meniscal tear. These cysts can cause pain, swelling, and stiffness in the knee area.

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  • 27. 

    Benign outpouchings of synovium from intercarpal joints are called

    • A.

      Ganglia

    • B.

      Exostosis

    • C.

      Polyps

    • D.

      Synovitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Ganglia
    Explanation
    Ganglia are benign outpouchings of synovium from intercarpal joints. They are commonly found on the wrists and hands and appear as small, fluid-filled cysts. Ganglia are often painless, but they can cause discomfort or limit movement if they press on nearby nerves or tendons. Treatment options include observation, aspiration to remove the fluid, or surgical removal if necessary. Exostosis refers to abnormal bony growths, polyps are abnormal tissue growths, and synovitis is inflammation of the synovial membrane.

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  • 28. 

    Compression of the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist is known as

    • A.

      Dupuytren's contracture

    • B.

      Carpel tunnel syndrome

    • C.

      Ganglia

    • D.

      Volkmann's contracture

    Correct Answer
    B. Carpel tunnel syndrome
    Explanation
    Compression of the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist is known as carpal tunnel syndrome. This condition occurs when the median nerve, which runs through a narrow passageway called the carpal tunnel, becomes compressed or squeezed. This can cause symptoms such as pain, numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand and fingers. Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly caused by repetitive hand and wrist movements, injury, or certain medical conditions such as arthritis. Treatment options include wrist splinting, medication, physical therapy, and in severe cases, surgery.

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  • 29. 

    A fixation device that provides maximum holding and rigid fixation of a fracture by tightening bone fragments together is called a (n)

    • A.

      Compression plate and screws

    • B.

      Intramedullary nailing

    • C.

      Ilizarov technique

    • D.

      Interlocking nail fixation

    Correct Answer
    A. Compression plate and screws
    Explanation
    A compression plate and screws are used as a fixation device to provide maximum holding and rigid fixation of a fracture by tightening bone fragments together. The compression plate is placed on the surface of the bone and screws are inserted through the plate and into the bone to hold it in place. This technique allows for compression of the fractured bone fragments, promoting better healing and stability.

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  • 30. 

    In a total hip replacement, which structure is reamed?

    • A.

      Acetabulum

    • B.

      Greater trochanter

    • C.

      Lesser trochanter

    • D.

      Femoral head

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetabulum
    Explanation
    In a total hip replacement, the structure that is reamed is the acetabulum. This involves removing the damaged or diseased bone and cartilage from the socket of the hip joint. The acetabulum is then reshaped using a reamer to prepare it for the placement of the artificial socket component. This allows for a proper fit and stability of the new hip joint.

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  • 31. 

    A dorsal angulated fracture of the distal radius is commonly called a (n)

    • A.

      Pott's fracture

    • B.

      Os calcis

    • C.

      Olecranon fracture

    • D.

      Colles' fracture

    Correct Answer
    D. Colles' fracture
    Explanation
    A dorsal angulated fracture of the distal radius is commonly called a Colles' fracture. This fracture occurs when the radius bone in the forearm breaks near the wrist joint and the broken end of the bone is displaced towards the back of the hand. It is named after Abraham Colles, an Irish surgeon who first described this type of fracture in the early 19th century. Colles' fracture is a common injury, often caused by falling onto an outstretched hand, and it is characterized by a specific fracture pattern in the distal radius.

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  • 32. 

    The ideal candidate for a noncemented total hip arthroplasty is

    • A.

      Young and healthy person

    • B.

      Young with arthritis

    • C.

      Old and healthy

    • D.

      Old with osteoporotic bone disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Young and healthy person
    Explanation
    A noncemented total hip arthroplasty involves the use of a prosthetic hip joint that is not fixed in place with cement. This type of procedure is typically recommended for younger patients who are healthy and have strong bone density. Older individuals with osteoporotic bone disease may not have the necessary bone strength to support the implant without the use of cement. Similarly, while young individuals with arthritis may benefit from a hip replacement, the noncemented approach may not be suitable if their bone density is compromised. Therefore, the ideal candidate for a noncemented total hip arthroplasty is a young and healthy person.

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  • 33. 

    A total hip replacement would be indicated when the patient has

    • A.

      Degenerative hip joint disease

    • B.

      Hip fracture

    • C.

      Congenital hip dislocation

    • D.

      Hip cancer

    Correct Answer
    A. Degenerative hip joint disease
    Explanation
    A total hip replacement is indicated when a patient has degenerative hip joint disease. This condition occurs when the cartilage in the hip joint wears away, causing pain, stiffness, and difficulty in movement. The purpose of a total hip replacement is to replace the damaged joint with an artificial joint, relieving pain and improving mobility. Hip fracture, congenital hip dislocation, and hip cancer may require different treatments or interventions, but they do not necessarily warrant a total hip replacement.

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  • 34. 

    All of the follwing are frames used to attain the prone position during orthopedic surgery EXCEPT

    • A.

      Alvarado

    • B.

      Wilson

    • C.

      Andres

    • D.

      Hastings

    Correct Answer
    A. Alvarado
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Alvarado. The question asks for the frame that is NOT used to attain the prone position during orthopedic surgery. The other options listed (Wilson, Andres, and Hastings) are all frames that can be used to achieve the prone position. Since Alvarado is the only option that is not used for this purpose, it is the correct answer.

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  • 35. 

    Which harware could not be used to repair a tibial plateau fracture?

    • A.

      Blade plate

    • B.

      Buttress plate

    • C.

      Dynamic compression screws

    • D.

      Ambi compression plate

    Correct Answer
    D. Ambi compression plate
    Explanation
    An ambulatory compression plate is not suitable for repairing a tibial plateau fracture because it is designed for use in the forearm and not specifically for the tibia. The other options listed - blade plate, buttress plate, and dynamic compression screws - are all commonly used in the treatment of tibial plateau fractures.

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  • 36. 

    A flexion deformity at the proximal joint of the four lateral toes is called

    • A.

      Valgus

    • B.

      Exostosis

    • C.

      Hammer toe

    • D.

      Bunion

    Correct Answer
    C. Hammer toe
    Explanation
    A flexion deformity at the proximal joint of the four lateral toes is called a hammer toe. This condition is characterized by the abnormal bending of the toe at the middle joint, causing it to resemble a hammer. It often results from muscle imbalances and can cause pain, discomfort, and difficulty in wearing shoes. Treatment options include wearing appropriate footwear, using orthotics, doing exercises to stretch and strengthen the toe muscles, and in severe cases, surgery may be required to correct the deformity.

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  • 37. 

    Joint reconstruction is known as

    • A.

      Arthrodesis

    • B.

      Arthroplasty

    • C.

      Arthrotomy

    • D.

      Arthropexy

    Correct Answer
    B. Arthroplasty
    Explanation
    Arthroplasty is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical reconstruction or replacement of a joint. It involves removing damaged or diseased parts of the joint and replacing them with artificial components. Arthrodesis is the fusion of a joint, arthrotomy is the surgical incision into a joint, and arthropexy is the surgical fixation of a joint. However, none of these options accurately describe the process of joint reconstruction as arthroplasty does.

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  • 38. 

    What is the name of a shoulder positioning device used to position a shoulder for surgery?

    • A.

      Alvarado

    • B.

      McConnell

    • C.

      Andres

    • D.

      Hastings

    Correct Answer
    B. McConnell
    Explanation
    McConnell is the correct answer because it is the name of a shoulder positioning device commonly used in surgery. This device helps to stabilize and position the shoulder during surgical procedures, allowing for better access and precision. Other options provided, such as Alvarado, Andres, and Hastings, are not known to be specific shoulder positioning devices used in surgery.

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  • 39. 

    Osteogenesis or bone growth can be induced by

    • A.

      Bone grafting, autogenous

    • B.

      Bone grafting, homogeneous

    • C.

      Hormone installation

    • D.

      Electrical stimulation

    Correct Answer
    D. Electrical stimulation
    Explanation
    Electrical stimulation has been shown to promote osteogenesis or bone growth. When an electrical current is applied to the site of a bone injury or fracture, it can enhance the production of bone cells and accelerate the healing process. This stimulation helps to increase blood flow, promote the formation of new blood vessels, and stimulate the activity of bone-forming cells called osteoblasts. As a result, electrical stimulation can be an effective method for inducing bone growth and aiding in the healing of bone injuries.

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  • 40. 

    An infection in bone is termed

    • A.

      Osteomalacia

    • B.

      Osteomyelitis

    • C.

      Osteitis

    • D.

      Osteoporosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteomyelitis
    Explanation
    Osteomyelitis is the correct answer because it refers to an infection in the bone. Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by softening of the bones due to a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium. Osteitis refers to inflammation of the bone, which may or may not be caused by an infection. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, typically caused by loss of bone density.

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  • 41. 

    A surgical procedure designed to stiffen or fuse a joint is called

    • A.

      Arthropexy

    • B.

      Arthroplasty

    • C.

      Joint fixation

    • D.

      Arthrodesis

    Correct Answer
    D. Arthrodesis
    Explanation
    Arthrodesis is the correct answer because it refers to a surgical procedure that involves fusing or stiffening a joint. This procedure is typically done to treat severe joint pain or instability. The other options, arthropexy, arthroplasty, and joint fixation, do not specifically refer to the process of stiffening or fusing a joint.

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  • 42. 

    A lateral curvature of the spine is

    • A.

      Kyphosis

    • B.

      Scoliosis

    • C.

      Lordosis

    • D.

      Orthosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Scoliosis is the correct answer because it refers to a lateral curvature of the spine. Kyphosis refers to an excessive outward curvature of the upper back, while lordosis refers to an excessive inward curvature of the lower back. Orthosis refers to a device used to support or correct the alignment of a body part, but it is not specifically related to a curvature of the spine.

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  • 43. 

    Harrington rods are used to treat

    • A.

      Femoral fracture

    • B.

      Scoliosis

    • C.

      Talipes deformity

    • D.

      Congenital hip dislocation

    Correct Answer
    B. Scoliosis
    Explanation
    Harrington rods are commonly used in the treatment of scoliosis. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by an abnormal curvature of the spine, often in an "S" or "C" shape. Harrington rods are surgical implants that are attached to the spine to correct and stabilize the curvature. They help to straighten the spine and prevent further progression of the deformity. Other conditions listed, such as femoral fracture, talipes deformity, and congenital hip dislocation, may require different treatment methods and would not typically involve the use of Harrington rods.

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  • 44. 

    A rotator cuff repair is called a

    • A.

      Bankart

    • B.

      Keller

    • C.

      McBride

    • D.

      Silver

    Correct Answer
    A. Bankart
    Explanation
    A rotator cuff repair is called a Bankart.

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  • 45. 

    The congenital deformity known as clubfoot is surgically referred to as

    • A.

      Talipes valgus

    • B.

      Talipes varus

    • C.

      Hallux valgus

    • D.

      Exostosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Talipes varus
    Explanation
    Talipes varus is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical term for the congenital deformity known as clubfoot. Clubfoot is a condition where a baby's foot is twisted out of shape or position. Talipes varus specifically describes a clubfoot that is turned inward and downward. Talipes valgus, on the other hand, refers to a foot that is turned outward and downward. Hallux valgus is a different condition that involves the deviation of the big toe away from the midline of the foot. Exostosis is the medical term for a bony growth on the surface of a bone.

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  • 46. 

    The most frequent site of cartilage tears in the knee joint are at the

    • A.

      Collateral ligament

    • B.

      Cruciate ligament

    • C.

      Lateral meniscus

    • D.

      Medical meniscus

    Correct Answer
    D. Medical meniscus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the medial meniscus. The medial meniscus is a C-shaped piece of cartilage located on the inner side of the knee joint. It is more commonly injured compared to the lateral meniscus due to its anatomical position and greater stability. The medial meniscus is subjected to more stress and pressure during movements, making it more prone to tears. These tears can occur as a result of sudden twisting or pivoting movements, degenerative changes, or wear and tear over time.

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  • 47. 

    An abduction pillow would be used to 

    • A.

      Immobilize hip joints after hip surgery

    • B.

      Stabilize a femoral fracture

    • C.

      Immobilize the tibia postsurgery

    • D.

      Rotate the hips outward after hip reconstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Immobilize hip joints after hip surgery
    Explanation
    An abduction pillow is specifically designed to immobilize the hip joints after hip surgery. This is important because after surgery, it is crucial to prevent any movement or rotation of the hip joints in order to promote proper healing and prevent complications. The abduction pillow helps to keep the hips in a specific position, ensuring that the hip joints stay immobilized and stable during the recovery period.

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  • 48. 

    A Free Lock compression screw system is indicated for correction of a (n) ____________ fracture.

    • A.

      Hip

    • B.

      Wrist

    • C.

      Elbow

    • D.

      Cervical

    Correct Answer
    A. Hip
    Explanation
    A Free Lock compression screw system is specifically designed and indicated for the correction of hip fractures. This system is not used for fractures in other areas such as the wrist, elbow, or cervical spine. Therefore, the correct answer is hip.

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  • 49. 

    Decreased bone mass results in a condition called

    • A.

      Osteoporosis

    • B.

      Osteomyelitis

    • C.

      Ossification

    • D.

      Ecchymosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteoporosis
    Explanation
    Decreased bone mass is a characteristic feature of osteoporosis, a condition in which the bones become weak and brittle. Osteoporosis increases the risk of fractures and is commonly seen in older individuals, especially postmenopausal women. Osteomyelitis is a bone infection, ossification is the process of bone formation, and ecchymosis refers to the discoloration of the skin caused by bleeding underneath. None of these conditions directly result from decreased bone mass.

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  • 50. 

    Place the stages of fracture healing in order: (1) hematoma formation (2) remodeling (3) fibrin network formation (4) callus formation  (5) invasion of osteoblasts

    • A.

      1,3,5,4,2

    • B.

      1,2,5,4,3

    • C.

      1,3,2,4,5

    • D.

      5,3,4,1,2

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,3,5,4,2
    Explanation
    The correct order of stages in fracture healing is as follows: (1) hematoma formation, (3) fibrin network formation, (5) invasion of osteoblasts, (4) callus formation, and (2) remodeling. Initially, a hematoma forms at the site of the fracture. This is followed by the formation of a fibrin network that acts as a scaffold for the subsequent stages. Osteoblasts then invade the area and begin to lay down new bone, leading to callus formation. Finally, the bone undergoes remodeling to restore its original shape and strength.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 18, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Tigger28384

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