CST Practice Exam Quiz!

150 Questions | Total Attempts: 4526

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CST Practice Exam Quiz!

The primary function of a certified surgical technologist is to assist surgeons and other medical practitioners in operating rooms. They help patients get ready to undergo surgical procedures. For you to qualify and become a surgical technologist, you need to ensure that you pass the CST exam. Give it a shot and see how well prepared you are to tackle the finals. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the best shielding against gamma rays?
    • A. 

      Tin

    • B. 

      Lead

    • C. 

      Steel

    • D. 

      Rubber

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is an acceptable placement area for the electrosurgical ground pad for a patient in the lithotomy position?
    • A. 

      Upper arm

    • B. 

      Upper buttock

    • C. 

      Anterior thigh

    • D. 

      Posterior shoulder

  • 3. 
    What is the position of choice for breast surgery?
    • A. 

      Prone

    • B. 

      Dorsal Recumbent

    • C. 

      Lateral

    • D. 

      Lithotomy

  • 4. 
    When an anesthetized patient's position is changed from lithotomy to supine, the patient's leg shold be lowered slowly to prevent:
    • A. 

      Hypertension

    • B. 

      Laryngospasm

    • C. 

      Respiratory

    • D. 

      Circulatory depression

  • 5. 
    Hair removed during preparation for cranial surgery should be:
    • A. 

      Discarded

    • B. 

      Sent to pathology

    • C. 

      Saved for possible transplant

    • D. 

      Saved because it is personal property

  • 6. 
    Which of the following increases air contamination in the operating room?
    • A. 

      Restricting traffic

    • B. 

      Damp dusting with a germicidal solution

    • C. 

      Air pressure less than in the outside hall

    • D. 

      Air pressure greater than in the outside hall

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Uniform standarization

    • B. 

      Prevention of cross-contamination

    • C. 

      Identification of operating room personnel

    • D. 

      Prevention of contamination of personal clothing

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      15 to 19 degrees C (59 to 66 degrees F)

    • B. 

      20 to 24 degrees C (68 to 75 degrees F)

    • C. 

      25 to 29 degrees C (77 to 84 degrees F)

    • D. 

      30 to 34 degrees C (86 to 93 degrees F)

  • 9. 
    The lower leg of a patient in the lateral position for kidney surgery should be:
    • A. 

      Flexed

    • B. 

      Extended

    • C. 

      Abducted

    • D. 

      Externally Rotated

  • 10. 
    What is the position of choice for dilation and curettage?
    • A. 

      Sims

    • B. 

      Supine

    • C. 

      Kraske

    • D. 

      Lithotomy

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Drape with an opening that allows exposure of the operative site

    • B. 

      Drape split in the middle, resulting in two tails

    • C. 

      Drape used to cover the operating table, instrument table, and body regions

    • D. 

      Self-adhering plastic drape used to cover and extremity

  • 12. 
    The scrub cap is applied by operating room personnel:
    • A. 

      After application of the scrub suit

    • B. 

      After application of the mask

    • C. 

      Before application of the scrub suit

    • D. 

      Before entering an unrestricted area

  • 13. 
    Which item is required when setting up for a D&C?
    • A. 

      Stirrups

    • B. 

      Cell-saver unit

    • C. 

      Cassette holder

    • D. 

      Electrosurgery unit

  • 14. 
    What is the usual position chosen for hemorrhoidectomy?
    • A. 

      Lateral

    • B. 

      Jack-knife

    • C. 

      Knee-chest

    • D. 

      Supine

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Under the cuff of the glove

    • B. 

      Outer side of the sterile glove

    • C. 

      Cutted edge nearest the glove palm

    • D. 

      Folded edges of the cuff of the glove

  • 16. 
    What position of choice for a transurethral porstatectomy (TURP)?
    • A. 

      Sims

    • B. 

      Lateral

    • C. 

      Lithotomy

    • D. 

      Supine

  • 17. 
    Which of the following is a normal adult white blood cell count?
    • A. 

      1000 to 2000

    • B. 

      5000 to 9000

    • C. 

      12000 to 15000

    • D. 

      20000 to 25000

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is the ideal immediate preoperative enviroment for a patient?
    • A. 

      Room dimly lighted and quiet

    • B. 

      Room brightly lighted and quiet

    • C. 

      Overhead light on and door open

    • D. 

      Cool room, patient covered with wool blanket

  • 19. 
    Which of the following itens should be used to transport a patient in traction?
    • A. 

      Bed

    • B. 

      Stretcher

    • C. 

      Wheelchair

    • D. 

      Fracture table

  • 20. 
    If the adult patient refuses a blood transfusion, the hospital SHOULD:
    • A. 

      Give no blood

    • B. 

      Give blood only in an emergency

    • C. 

      Give blood only after sedation

    • D. 

      Perform no operation that may require a transfusion

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is the most common straight cathether used prior to laparsocopic gynecological surgery in the OR?
    • A. 

      Foley

    • B. 

      Pezzer

    • C. 

      Malecot

    • D. 

      Robinson

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Hold the drapes high until directly over the patient

    • B. 

      Protect the gloved hands by cuffing the drapes

    • C. 

      Readjust the drapes as necessary after placement

    • D. 

      Place the drapes on a dry area

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      The patient is asked to sign the operative permit after the surgeon has explained the procedure

    • B. 

      The circulator is ultimately responsible for obtaining the signed consent

    • C. 

      The patient is asked to read the entire form after signing it

    • D. 

      The operative permit is witnessed by one member of the patient's family

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Leg, foot to knee

    • B. 

      Leg, foot to hip

    • C. 

      Arm, fingers to shoulder

    • D. 

      Arm, fingers to elbow

  • 25. 
    Which item may be used in positioning a patient for a total hip replacement?
    • A. 

      Stirrups

    • B. 

      Wilson frame

    • C. 

      Andrews frame

    • D. 

      Beanbag

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Laser mask and goggles with clear lenses

    • B. 

      Laser mask and goggles with amber-tinted lenses

    • C. 

      Laser mask and goggles with green-tinted lenses

    • D. 

      Laser mask and goggles with blue-tinted lenses

  • 27. 
    The surgical technologist ciruclator should use the open glove technique to preform which of the following procedures?
    • A. 

      Catheterization and tying sterile team member's gown

    • B. 

      Counting sponges and catheterization

    • C. 

      Preoperative skin prep and catherization

    • D. 

      Preoperative shave and prep

  • 28. 
    The one sterile item used with an electrosurgical unit is the:
    • A. 

      Power unit

    • B. 

      Grounding pad

    • C. 

      Electrosurgical pencil

    • D. 

      Grounding cable

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Placed in a separate basin

    • B. 

      Wiped with a saline sponge

    • C. 

      Returned to the Mayo stand

    • D. 

      Wiped with an alcohol sponge

  • 30. 
    A Russian tissue forcep is used to:
    • A. 

      Cut

    • B. 

      Grasp

    • C. 

      Clamp

    • D. 

      Retract

  • 31. 
    In which procedure is a microscope used?
    • A. 

      Tracheostomy

    • B. 

      Radical neck

    • C. 

      Tonsillectomy

    • D. 

      Stapedectomy

  • 32. 
    What action should be taken first if a countable item is lost?
    • A. 

      The patient's wound is reopened

    • B. 

      X-ray of the operative site is ordered immediately

    • C. 

      X-ray of the operative site is ordered in teh post anesthesia recovery room.

    • D. 

      A count is repeated immediately

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Patellectomy

    • B. 

      ORIF hip

    • C. 

      Arthroscopy of shoulder

    • D. 

      Femoral popliteal bypass

  • 34. 
    • A. 

      Allen

    • B. 

      Lakey

    • C. 

      Heaney

    • D. 

      Bulldog

  • 35. 
    Bleeding during a transurethral resection prostate (TURP) is controlled by:
    • A. 

      Gelfoam

    • B. 

      Irrigation

    • C. 

      Cauterization

    • D. 

      Suture ligature

  • 36. 
    Bellucci scissors are used in which of the following specialties?
    • A. 

      Gynecology

    • B. 

      Otorhinolaryngology

    • C. 

      General

    • D. 

      Plastic and reconstructive

  • 37. 
    In strabismus sugery, what is the first tissue layer that must be incised?
    • A. 

      Iris

    • B. 

      Cornea

    • C. 

      Scelera

    • D. 

      Conjunctiva

  • 38. 
    Which of the following would MOST likely be used to stabilize a cervical fracture?
    • A. 

      Harrington rod

    • B. 

      Hoffman device

    • C. 

      Steinmann pinns

    • D. 

      Crutchfield tongs

  • 39. 
    A device used to measure fluid pressure is known as a:
    • A. 

      Urometer

    • B. 

      Manometer

    • C. 

      Spirometer

    • D. 

      Thermometer

  • 40. 
    Which of th efollowin procdures is the removal of the entire orbital contant, including the periosteum?
    • A. 

      Recession

    • B. 

      Resection

    • C. 

      Evisceration

    • D. 

      Extenteraton

  • 41. 
    What is the suturing technique in which short lateral stitches are taken beneath the epithelial layer of skin?
    • A. 

      Purse-string

    • B. 

      Traction

    • C. 

      Mattress

    • D. 

      Subcuticular

  • 42. 
    Which of the following is a monofilament suture?
    • A. 

      Silk

    • B. 

      Cotton

    • C. 

      Dacron

    • D. 

      Polypropylene (Prolene)

  • 43. 
    To revascularize the heart muscle, a graft may be anastomosed between which of the following two vessels?
    • A. 

      Aorta and coronary artery

    • B. 

      Aorta and superior vena cava

    • C. 

      Carotid artery and pulmonary vein

    • D. 

      Pulmonary artery and coronary artery

  • 44. 
    What is the PRIMARY purpose of chest tubes?
    • A. 

      Irrigate the chest

    • B. 

      Eliminate chest leaks

    • C. 

      Prevent pulmonary emboli

    • D. 

      Re-establish negative pressure

  • 45. 
    Which of the following catheters is used for embolectomies?
    • A. 

      Foley

    • B. 

      Fogarty

    • C. 

      Malecot

    • D. 

      Angiocath

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      Adaptic

    • B. 

      Collodion

    • C. 

      Steri-strip

    • D. 

      Elastoplast

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      All counts must be done

    • B. 

      Omit counts, but document on the operative record

    • C. 

      Only an intial count is required

    • D. 

      The circulator should request anesthesia to count

  • 48. 
    Which of the following instruments is used to graps the base of the hemorrhoid during a hemorrhoidectomy?
    • A. 

      Allis

    • B. 

      Allen

    • C. 

      Kocher

    • D. 

      Mosquito

  • 49. 
    In which of the following prostatic approaches is a resectoscope used?
    • A. 

      Perineal

    • B. 

      Suprapubic

    • C. 

      Retropubic

    • D. 

      Transurethral

  • 50. 
    Which of the following clamps has no teeth?
    • A. 

      Heaney

    • B. 

      Kelly

    • C. 

      Allis

    • D. 

      Kocher

  • 51. 
    Which of the following instruments should be on a set-up for a TURP?
    • A. 

      Lithotrite

    • B. 

      Urethrotome

    • C. 

      Resectoscope

    • D. 

      Gaylor biopsy forceps

  • 52. 
    Which of the following arteries is Most commonly used in taking a blood pressure reading?
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Femoral

    • C. 

      Brachial

    • D. 

      Popiteal

  • 53. 
    Which of the following retractors may be used during a cholecystectomy?
    • A. 

      Senn

    • B. 

      Bennett

    • C. 

      Jennings

    • D. 

      Harrington

  • 54. 
    What type of incision is usually used for an open cholecystectomy?
    • A. 

      McBurney's

    • B. 

      Pfannenstiel

    • C. 

      Lower Midline

    • D. 

      Right Subcostal

  • 55. 
    Which procedure requires an incision in the suprasternal notch?
    • A. 

      Laparoscopy

    • B. 

      Bronshoscopy

    • C. 

      Esophagoscopy

    • D. 

      Mediastinoscopy

  • 56. 
    Antiembolism stockings are used to:
    • A. 

      Slow circulation

    • B. 

      Prevent thrombus

    • C. 

      Immobilize extremities

    • D. 

      Keep legs warm

  • 57. 
    The diagnostic procedure that examines the interior surface to the trachea and bronchi is:
    • A. 

      Bronchoscopy

    • B. 

      Laryngoscopy

    • C. 

      Esophargoscopy

    • D. 

      Mediastinoscopy

  • 58. 
    Immediately before a hemorrhoidectomy, which of the following procedures might be preformed on the patient in the operating room?
    • A. 

      Cystoscopy

    • B. 

      Culdoscopy

    • C. 

      Proctoscopy

    • D. 

      Laparoscopy

  • 59. 
    Sponges that have been added to the sterile field after a procedure is in progress is counted by the:
    • A. 

      Circulatory only

    • B. 

      Scrub person only

    • C. 

      Surgeon

    • D. 

      Circulator and scrub person

  • 60. 
    When can a specimen be passed to the circulator from the sterile field?
    • A. 

      When a surgeon grants permission

    • B. 

      Immediately after excision

    • C. 

      Immediately after it is placed in a bowl of formalin

    • D. 

      Whenever the circulator requests the specimen

  • 61. 
    When a hernia is strangulated, which of the following instrument sets is added to the general abdominal set-up?
    • A. 

      Rectal set

    • B. 

      Gallbladder set

    • C. 

      Common duct set

    • D. 

      Gastrointestinal set

  • 62. 
    Removing a cataract by ultrasonic vibration and aspiration is called:
    • A. 

      Laser surgery

    • B. 

      Phacomulsification

    • C. 

      Extracapsular extraction

    • D. 

      Intracapsular extraction

  • 63. 
    Which surgical treatment is used to repair a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm?
    • A. 

      Endarterectomy

    • B. 

      Debridement with irrigation

    • C. 

      Excision with graft placement

    • D. 

      Portacaval shunt

  • 64. 
    What is the procedure for the removal of excess skin in the face and neck?
    • A. 

      Rhinoplasty

    • B. 

      Rhytidectomy

    • C. 

      Cheiloplasty

    • D. 

      Blepharoplasty

  • 65. 
    Which of the following rongeurs is used to expand the antrostomy in a Caldwell-Luc procedure?
    • A. 

      Cushing

    • B. 

      Bethune

    • C. 

      Kerrison

    • D. 

      Stille-Leur

  • 66. 
    How are kidney stones sent to the lab?
    • A. 

      In a dry container

    • B. 

      In formalin

    • C. 

      In alcohol

    • D. 

      In saline

  • 67. 
    When  can a specimen be passed to the circulator from the sterile field?
    • A. 

      When the surgeon grants permission

    • B. 

      Immediately after excision

    • C. 

      Immediately after it is placed in a bowl of formalin

    • D. 

      Whenever the circulator request it

  • 68. 
    Which of the following is a pecimen container used in a flexible or rigid bronshosopy?
    • A. 

      Ellik

    • B. 

      Chest bottle

    • C. 

      Luken's

    • D. 

      Suction canister

  • 69. 
    Which of the following procedures is used for an embolectomy?
    • A. 

      Endarterectomy

    • B. 

      Balloon catheterization

    • C. 

      Aneurysmectomy

    • D. 

      Fasciotomy

  • 70. 
    Which of the following instruments may be used to extend the arteriotomy during femoral-femoral bypass?
    • A. 

      Straight Mayo

    • B. 

      Potts-Smith

    • C. 

      Jorgenson

    • D. 

      Stevens tenotomy

  • 71. 
    • A. 

      A reduce pain by compressin the nerve to the affected area

    • B. 

      Allow the surgeon more operating room time

    • C. 

      Reduce blood loss by restricting circulation to the operative site

    • D. 

      Create topical anesthesia to the affected area

  • 72. 
    Which of the following should be included on an orthopedic set-up?
    • A. 

      Smith perforator

    • B. 

      Potts-Smith scissors

    • C. 

      Periosteal elevator

    • D. 

      Heaney needle holder

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      Allis

    • B. 

      Mixter

    • C. 

      Babcock

    • D. 

      Mosquito

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Remain sterile until the patient leaves teh room

    • B. 

      Be pulled away from the sterile field by the circulator after skin closure

    • C. 

      Be completely empties after skin closure

    • D. 

      Be considered unsterile once the dressing is applied

  • 75. 
    Which of the following procedures is used to visualize the cystic, hepatic, and common ducts?
    • A. 

      Barium enema

    • B. 

      Cholangiography

    • C. 

      Intravenous pyelography

    • D. 

      Upper gastrointestinal series

  • 76. 
    The instrument used to remove the laminae during a laminectomy is a(n):
    • A. 

      Gouge

    • B. 

      Cutter

    • C. 

      Rongeur

    • D. 

      Elevator

  • 77. 
    Which of the following items would be used for sponging around the spinal cord?
    • A. 

      Cottonoids

    • B. 

      Gauze sponges

    • C. 

      Peanut dissector

    • D. 

      Laparotomy sponges

  • 78. 
    Which of the following is the active electrode on the electrosurgical unit?
    • A. 

      Wall plug

    • B. 

      Grounding pad

    • C. 

      Pencil

    • D. 

      Voltage intensity dial

  • 79. 
    Which of the following instruments would be used for a common bile duct exploration?
    • A. 

      Fogarty clamp

    • B. 

      Randall forceps

    • C. 

      Pennington clamp

    • D. 

      Forester ring forceps

  • 80. 
    Glove powder is normally wiped from the gloved hand because it has the potential to cause:
    • A. 

      Dehiscence and/or evisceration

    • B. 

      Infections

    • C. 

      Adhesions and/or granulomas

    • D. 

      Contamination

  • 81. 
    When a cholecystectomy isperformed, what anatomical structure must always be preserved?
    • A. 

      Cystic duct

    • B. 

      Cystic vein

    • C. 

      Common duct

    • D. 

      Cystic artery

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Ask the surgeon if the or she desires a count

    • B. 

      Accept the circultor's decision and continue with case set-up

    • C. 

      Insist that an initial count be performed

    • D. 

      Count sponges with the other scrubbed surgical technologists

  • 83. 
    Once spinous process is exposed during a laminectomy, the next instrument needed to remove the process is the:
    • A. 

      Kerrison ronguer

    • B. 

      Pituitary ronguer

    • C. 

      Double-action rongeur

    • D. 

      Periosteal elevator

  • 84. 
    • A. 

      Grasping

    • B. 

      Crushing

    • C. 

      Exposure

    • D. 

      Hemostasis

  • 85. 
    In order to prevent a loop colostomy from sliding back into the abdominal cavity, it may be supported with a(n):
    • A. 

      Stone clamp

    • B. 

      Adaptic gauze

    • C. 

      Montgomery strap

    • D. 

      Plastic or glass rod

  • 86. 
    Which of the following operations is performed to correct hearing loss due to defects in the eardrum?
    • A. 

      Otoplasty

    • B. 

      Myringotomy

    • C. 

      Mastoidectomy

    • D. 

      Tympanoplasty

  • 87. 
    In preparation for a cranial aneurysm, which of the following pieces of equipment would MOST likely be used?
    • A. 

      Microscope

    • B. 

      Cryoprobe

    • C. 

      Jordan Day drill

    • D. 

      Crutchfield tongs

  • 88. 
    A perforator is used for which of the following procedures?
    • A. 

      Cordotomy

    • B. 

      Craniotomy

    • C. 

      Laminectomy

    • D. 

      Spinal fusion

  • 89. 
    Which is the most common complication of a stangulated hernia?
    • A. 

      Shock

    • B. 

      Necrosis

    • C. 

      Infection

    • D. 

      Hemorrhage

  • 90. 
    A resectoscope is used to resect the:
    • A. 

      Ovaries

    • B. 

      Prostate

    • C. 

      Vas deferens

    • D. 

      Fallopian tubes

  • 91. 
    • A. 

      0-1 Dexon

    • B. 

      5-0 to 6-0 Vicryl

    • C. 

      25- or 26-gauge stainless steel wire

    • D. 

      35- or 40-gauge stainless steel wire

  • 92. 
    Retention sutures are advantageous when the patient is:
    • A. 

      A child

    • B. 

      Athletic

    • C. 

      Thin

    • D. 

      Obese

  • 93. 
    Which of the following retractors would be used during a femoral embolectomy?
    • A. 

      Weitlaner

    • B. 

      Skin hook

    • C. 

      Harrington

    • D. 

      Balfour

  • 94. 
    A three-way Foley catheter is inserted following a transurethral prostate resction (TURP) in order to:
    • A. 

      Irrigate and facilitate hemostasis

    • B. 

      Prevent the patient from getting out of bed

    • C. 

      Keep accurate input and output records

    • D. 

      Keep the perineal area dry

  • 95. 
    An instrument used for placement of cottonoid strips during craniotomy is:
    • A. 

      Bayonet forceps

    • B. 

      Russian forceps

    • C. 

      Kelly clamp

    • D. 

      Angled DeBakey clamp

  • 96. 
    • A. 

      Show that moisture entered the pack

    • B. 

      Guarantee the sterility of the pack

    • C. 

      Verify that the pack was properly wrapped

    • D. 

      Confirm that the pack has been exposed to the sterilization process

  • 97. 
    • A. 

      Upside down

    • B. 

      Right side up

    • C. 

      On their sides

    • D. 

      Rightly stacked

  • 98. 
    What has the most accurate method of checking the effectiveness of an autoclave?
    • A. 

      Heat indicators

    • B. 

      Swab culture tests

    • C. 

      Heat-sensitive tape

    • D. 

      Biological controls

  • 99. 
    • A. 

      Bacillus subtilis

    • B. 

      Clostridium perfringens

    • C. 

      Myocabacterium tuberculosis

    • D. 

      Bacillus stearothermophilus

  • 100. 
    Which of the following destroys vegetative organisms and spores?
    • A. 

      Germicide

    • B. 

      Antiseptic

    • C. 

      Sterilizing agent

    • D. 

      Bacteriostatic agent

  • 101. 
    Whicof the following solutions should be used for disinfecting endoscopic instruments?
    • A. 

      Iodophors

    • B. 

      Ethyl alcohol 70%

    • C. 

      Phenolic compounds

    • D. 

      Activated glutaraldehyde

  • 102. 
    Which of the following is the MOST resistant to the sterilization processes?
    • A. 

      Virus

    • B. 

      Spore

    • C. 

      Spirochete

    • D. 

      Tubercle bacillus

  • 103. 
    Bacteria can be reduced in the operating room by:
    • A. 

      A aeration of rooms overnight

    • B. 

      Daily damp dusting of all surfaces

    • C. 

      Reducing air exchange in the room

    • D. 

      Maintaining humidity level above 70%

  • 104. 
    • A. 

      A damp mop or wet vacuum with viricidal solution

    • B. 

      Wet vacuum with a viricidal solution

    • C. 

      Damp mop or wet vacuum with a detergent-disinfectant solution

    • D. 

      Dry vacuum, then damp mop with a detergent-disinfectant solution

  • 105. 
    For completely effective steam sterilization, the surface of the instrument should be:
    • A. 

      Free of oil and grease

    • B. 

      Oiled before sterilization

    • C. 

      Dry before placing them in the autoclave

    • D. 

      Moistened before placing them in the autoclave

  • 106. 
    The safest method for placing a blade on a knife handle is with a:
    • A. 

      A mixter

    • B. 

      Gloved hand

    • C. 

      Needle holder

    • D. 

      Tissue forceps

  • 107. 
    • A. 

      1 Minute

    • B. 

      3 Minutes

    • C. 

      5 Minutes

    • D. 

      7 Minutes

  • 108. 
    One factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization is:
    • A. 

      Indirect contact

    • B. 

      Gravity displacement

    • C. 

      Humidty

    • D. 

      Saturated steam

  • 109. 
    On Which of the following would an antiseptic be used?
    • A. 

      Skin surface

    • B. 

      Anesthesia masks

    • C. 

      Intravenous tubing

    • D. 

      Operating room table

  • 110. 
    • A. 

      Only areas that have been splashed with blood or debris

    • B. 

      All walls with a disinfection solution

    • C. 

      All walls from the floor up to a 5-foot level with a disinfectant solution

    • D. 

      All walls from the floor up to 5-foot level with a viricdal solution

  • 111. 
    The time of exposure to achieve sterilization may be decreased if the:
    • A. 

      Instruments are wet

    • B. 

      Pressure is decreased

    • C. 

      Temperature is increased

    • D. 

      Drying cycle is elminated

  • 112. 
    Which of the following variables influences the aeration time necessary following ethylene oxide sterilization?
    • A. 

      Time of exposure to the gas

    • B. 

      Porosity of the item sterilized

    • C. 

      Temperature of the gas used

    • D. 

      Concentration of the gas in the sterilizer

  • 113. 
    • A. 

      With one basin stacked inside the other and separated by impervious material

    • B. 

      With one basin on its side and the other upside down

    • C. 

      With one basin stacked inside the other and wrapped in a towel

    • D. 

      With on basin stacked inside the other and separated by a towel

  • 114. 
    • A. 

      A division of the nucleus

    • B. 

      Dessication of the nucleus

    • C. 

      Coagulation of cell protein

    • D. 

      Destruction of the cell membrane

  • 115. 
    When a flank approach is used for a nephrectomy, which muscles are involved?
    • A. 

      Serratus anterior and trapezius

    • B. 

      Gluteus maximus and pectoralis major

    • C. 

      Latissmus dorsi and internal oblique

    • D. 

      Transverse abdominis and rectus abdominis

  • 116. 
    Which of the following types of connective tisue fastens muscle to the bone?
    • A. 

      Tendon

    • B. 

      Ligament

    • C. 

      Cartilage

    • D. 

      Areolar

  • 117. 
    Which of the following types of muscle is found in the walls of the viscera?
    • A. 

      Smooth

    • B. 

      Cardiac

    • C. 

      Striated

    • D. 

      Skeletal

  • 118. 
    A major function of the colon is to:
    • A. 

      Reabsorb water

    • B. 

      Secrete hormones

    • C. 

      Secrete digestive enzymes

    • D. 

      Absorb the products of digestion

  • 119. 
    Herniation of the rectum through a weakened posterior vaginal wall is known as:
    • A. 

      Rectocele

    • B. 

      Cystocele

    • C. 

      Variocele

    • D. 

      Enterocele

  • 120. 
    A fluid-filled sac or cavity that prevents friction within a joint is known as a:
    • A. 

      Bursa

    • B. 

      Tendon

    • C. 

      Ganglion

    • D. 

      Ligament

  • 121. 
    Cancer cells MOST often migrate to other parts of the body through which of the following systems?
    • A. 

      Skeletal

    • B. 

      Lymphatic

    • C. 

      Endocrine

    • D. 

      Respiratory

  • 122. 
    The vermiform appendix originates from the:
    • A. 

      Cecum

    • B. 

      Ileum

    • C. 

      Sigmoid colon

    • D. 

      Ascending colon

  • 123. 
    • A. 

      Chordee

    • B. 

      Epispadius

    • C. 

      Phimosis

    • D. 

      Hypospadius

  • 124. 
    What lies between the lung and the chest wall?
    • A. 

      Mediastinum

    • B. 

      Aortic arch

    • C. 

      Pleura

    • D. 

      Pericardial cavity

  • 125. 
    The gastrocnemius is located in the:
    • A. 

      Arm

    • B. 

      Calf

    • C. 

      Back

    • D. 

      Thigh

  • 126. 
    What is the opening in the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes?
    • A. 

      Foramen ovale

    • B. 

      Foramen magnum

    • C. 

      Mental foramen

    • D. 

      Obturator foramen

  • 127. 
    Growth in the length of a long bone occurs at the:
    • A. 

      Diaphysis

    • B. 

      Medullary canal

    • C. 

      Epiphyseal plate

    • D. 

      Articular cartilage

  • 128. 
    The oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells is a function of:
    • A. 

      Albumin

    • B. 

      Hemoglobin

    • C. 

      Hematocrit

    • D. 

      Prothrombin

  • 129. 
    The parathyroid glan regulates:
    • A. 

      Protein

    • B. 

      Calcium

    • C. 

      Sodium

    • D. 

      Bicarbonate

  • 130. 
    Which of the following pathological conditions may be caused by an excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain?
    • A. 

      Hydrocephalus

    • B. 

      Encephalocele

    • C. 

      Cranial bifida

    • D. 

      Craniosynostosis

  • 131. 
    Hepatits B (serum hepatitis) is caused by a:
    • A. 

      Yeast

    • B. 

      Virus

    • C. 

      Protozan

    • D. 

      Bacterium

  • 132. 
    Aerobic organisms are BEST characterized as:
    • A. 

      Pathogenic

    • B. 

      Non-pathogenic

    • C. 

      Oxygen-requiring

    • D. 

      Non-oxygen-requiring

  • 133. 
    Which of the following is associated with secondary intention would healing?
    • A. 

      Suture line

    • B. 

      Delayed healing

    • C. 

      Wound dehiscence

    • D. 

      Healing without complication

  • 134. 
    When a break aseptic technique occurs, the scrub should:
    • A. 

      Notify the circulator and leave the decision to him/her

    • B. 

      Notify the person who broke the technique and correct the problem

    • C. 

      Notify the OR supervisor and leave the decision to him/her

    • D. 

      Say nothing

  • 135. 
    An inanimate object the harbors and transmits a disease is a:
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Vector

    • C. 

      Carrier

    • D. 

      Arthropod

  • 136. 
    During a procedure, the surgical technoloigst touches an unsterile item with a sterile glove. What should be done?
    • A. 

      Change the glove at once

    • B. 

      Break scrub and rescrub

    • C. 

      Wait until closing to change the glove

    • D. 

      Ask the circulator what to do

  • 137. 
    When two individuals in sterile attire pass one another in the sterile field, they should:
    • A. 

      Pass back-to-back

    • B. 

      Both face the wall

    • C. 

      Pass side-to-side

    • D. 

      Both face the sterile field

  • 138. 
    What is the local tissue reaction of the body to injury?
    • A. 

      Fever

    • B. 

      Infection

    • C. 

      Inflammation

    • D. 

      Immune reaction

  • 139. 
    Which of the following characterize bacteria of the genus Clostridium?
    • A. 

      Aerobic

    • B. 

      Anaerobic

    • C. 

      Coagulase-negative

    • D. 

      Nonspore-forming

  • 140. 
    Which of the following organisms normally found on the skin can cause wound infections?
    • A. 

      Bacillus botulinum

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • C. 

      Diplococcus pneumoniae

    • D. 

      Streptococcus penumoniae

  • 141. 
    Cleaning the operating room prior to the first scheduled procedure of the day should:
    • A. 

      Include flat surfaces of tables and equipment

    • B. 

      Be done with a dry towel

    • C. 

      Be done with an antiseptic

    • D. 

      Concentrate on anesthetic equipment

  • 142. 
    Which of the following methods of oxygen administration provides the HIGHEST concentration oxygen?
    • A. 

      Tent

    • B. 

      Face Mask

    • C. 

      Nasal catheter

    • D. 

      Endoctracheal tube

  • 143. 
    For patient recovering from general anesthesia, which of the following complications of vomiting would be considered the MOST dangerous?
    • A. 

      Pain

    • B. 

      Aspiration

    • C. 

      Dehydration

    • D. 

      Wound disruption

  • 144. 
    Sodium bicarbonate is administered to treat which of the following?
    • A. 

      Acidosis

    • B. 

      Alkalosis

    • C. 

      Hypotension

    • D. 

      Hypertension

  • 145. 
    In an emergency, which of the following drugs may used to raise the patient's blood pressure?
    • A. 

      Morphine sulfate

    • B. 

      Procaine (Novocaine)

    • C. 

      Succinylcholine (Anectine)

    • D. 

      Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

  • 146. 
    Which of the following drugs neutralizes the action of heparin?
    • A. 

      Calcium chloride

    • B. 

      Protamine sulfate

    • C. 

      Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

    • D. 

      Neostigmine (Prostigmin)

  • 147. 
    • A. 

      Local infiltration

    • B. 

      Topical application

    • C. 

      Intravenous injection

    • D. 

      Intramuscular injection

  • 148. 
    A form of contrast media used within the body that is visible when exposed to x-ray is:
    • A. 

      Exogenous

    • B. 

      Radiopaque

    • C. 

      Radiolucent

    • D. 

      Endogenous

  • 149. 
    Which of the following vasoconstrictors is used to prolong the action of local anesthetics?
    • A. 

      Heparin

    • B. 

      Ergonovine (Ergotrate)

    • C. 

      Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

    • D. 

      Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

  • 150. 
    Which of the following solutions is used to identify diseased areas for the cold conization of the cervix?
    • A. 

      Lugol's

    • B. 

      Fluorescein

    • C. 

      Methylene blue

    • D. 

      Indigo carmine