CST Practice Exam Quiz!
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The primary function of a certified surgical technologist is to assist surgeons and other medical practitioners in operating rooms. They help patients get ready to undergo surgical procedures. For you to qualify and become a surgical technologist, you need to ensure that you pass the CST exam. Give it a shot and see how well prepared you are to tackle the finals. All the best!
- 1.What is the best shielding against gamma rays?
- A.
Tin
- B.
Lead
- C.
Steel
- D.
Rubber
- 2.Which of the following is an acceptable placement area for the electrosurgical ground pad for a patient in the lithotomy position?
- A.
Upper arm
- B.
Upper buttock
- C.
Anterior thigh
- D.
Posterior shoulder
- 3.What is the position of choice for breast surgery?
- A.
Prone
- B.
Dorsal Recumbent
- C.
Lateral
- D.
Lithotomy
- 4.When an anesthetized patient's position is changed from lithotomy to supine, the patient's leg shold be lowered slowly to prevent:
- A.
Hypertension
- B.
Laryngospasm
- C.
Respiratory
- D.
Circulatory depression
- 5.Hair removed during preparation for cranial surgery should be:
- A.
Discarded
- B.
Sent to pathology
- C.
Saved for possible transplant
- D.
Saved because it is personal property
- 6.Which of the following increases air contamination in the operating room?
- A.
Restricting traffic
- B.
Damp dusting with a germicidal solution
- C.
Air pressure less than in the outside hall
- D.
Air pressure greater than in the outside hall
- 7.
- A.
Uniform standarization
- B.
Prevention of cross-contamination
- C.
Identification of operating room personnel
- D.
Prevention of contamination of personal clothing
- 8.
- A.
15 to 19 degrees C (59 to 66 degrees F)
- B.
20 to 24 degrees C (68 to 75 degrees F)
- C.
25 to 29 degrees C (77 to 84 degrees F)
- D.
30 to 34 degrees C (86 to 93 degrees F)
- 9.The lower leg of a patient in the lateral position for kidney surgery should be:
- A.
Flexed
- B.
Extended
- C.
Abducted
- D.
Externally Rotated
- 10.What is the position of choice for dilation and curettage?
- A.
Sims
- B.
Supine
- C.
Kraske
- D.
Lithotomy
- 11.
- A.
Drape with an opening that allows exposure of the operative site
- B.
Drape split in the middle, resulting in two tails
- C.
Drape used to cover the operating table, instrument table, and body regions
- D.
Self-adhering plastic drape used to cover and extremity
- 12.The scrub cap is applied by operating room personnel:
- A.
After application of the scrub suit
- B.
After application of the mask
- C.
Before application of the scrub suit
- D.
Before entering an unrestricted area
- 13.Which item is required when setting up for a D&C?
- A.
Stirrups
- B.
Cell-saver unit
- C.
Cassette holder
- D.
Electrosurgery unit
- 14.What is the usual position chosen for hemorrhoidectomy?
- A.
Lateral
- B.
Jack-knife
- C.
Knee-chest
- D.
Supine
- 15.
- A.
Under the cuff of the glove
- B.
Outer side of the sterile glove
- C.
Cutted edge nearest the glove palm
- D.
Folded edges of the cuff of the glove
- 16.What position of choice for a transurethral porstatectomy (TURP)?
- A.
Sims
- B.
Lateral
- C.
Lithotomy
- D.
Supine
- 17.Which of the following is a normal adult white blood cell count?
- A.
1000 to 2000
- B.
5000 to 9000
- C.
12000 to 15000
- D.
20000 to 25000
- 18.Which of the following is the ideal immediate preoperative enviroment for a patient?
- A.
Room dimly lighted and quiet
- B.
Room brightly lighted and quiet
- C.
Overhead light on and door open
- D.
Cool room, patient covered with wool blanket
- 19.Which of the following itens should be used to transport a patient in traction?
- A.
Bed
- B.
Stretcher
- C.
Wheelchair
- D.
Fracture table
- 20.If the adult patient refuses a blood transfusion, the hospital SHOULD:
- A.
Give no blood
- B.
Give blood only in an emergency
- C.
Give blood only after sedation
- D.
Perform no operation that may require a transfusion
- 21.Which of the following is the most common straight cathether used prior to laparsocopic gynecological surgery in the OR?
- A.
Foley
- B.
Pezzer
- C.
Malecot
- D.
Robinson
- 22.
- A.
Hold the drapes high until directly over the patient
- B.
Protect the gloved hands by cuffing the drapes
- C.
Readjust the drapes as necessary after placement
- D.
Place the drapes on a dry area
- 23.
- A.
The patient is asked to sign the operative permit after the surgeon has explained the procedure
- B.
The circulator is ultimately responsible for obtaining the signed consent
- C.
The patient is asked to read the entire form after signing it
- D.
The operative permit is witnessed by one member of the patient's family
- 24.
- A.
Leg, foot to knee
- B.
Leg, foot to hip
- C.
Arm, fingers to shoulder
- D.
Arm, fingers to elbow
- 25.Which item may be used in positioning a patient for a total hip replacement?
- A.
Stirrups
- B.
Wilson frame
- C.
Andrews frame
- D.
Beanbag
- 26.
- A.
Laser mask and goggles with clear lenses
- B.
Laser mask and goggles with amber-tinted lenses
- C.
Laser mask and goggles with green-tinted lenses
- D.
Laser mask and goggles with blue-tinted lenses
- 27.The surgical technologist ciruclator should use the open glove technique to preform which of the following procedures?
- A.
Catheterization and tying sterile team member's gown
- B.
Counting sponges and catheterization
- C.
Preoperative skin prep and catherization
- D.
Preoperative shave and prep
- 28.The one sterile item used with an electrosurgical unit is the:
- A.
Power unit
- B.
Grounding pad
- C.
Electrosurgical pencil
- D.
Grounding cable
- 29.
- A.
Placed in a separate basin
- B.
Wiped with a saline sponge
- C.
Returned to the Mayo stand
- D.
Wiped with an alcohol sponge
- 30.A Russian tissue forcep is used to:
- A.
Cut
- B.
Grasp
- C.
Clamp
- D.
Retract
- 31.In which procedure is a microscope used?
- A.
Tracheostomy
- B.
Radical neck
- C.
Tonsillectomy
- D.
Stapedectomy
- 32.What action should be taken first if a countable item is lost?
- A.
The patient's wound is reopened
- B.
X-ray of the operative site is ordered immediately
- C.
X-ray of the operative site is ordered in teh post anesthesia recovery room.
- D.
A count is repeated immediately
- 33.
- A.
Patellectomy
- B.
ORIF hip
- C.
Arthroscopy of shoulder
- D.
Femoral popliteal bypass
- 34.
- A.
Allen
- B.
Lakey
- C.
Heaney
- D.
Bulldog
- 35.Bleeding during a transurethral resection prostate (TURP) is controlled by:
- A.
Gelfoam
- B.
Irrigation
- C.
Cauterization
- D.
Suture ligature
- 36.Bellucci scissors are used in which of the following specialties?
- A.
Gynecology
- B.
Otorhinolaryngology
- C.
General
- D.
Plastic and reconstructive
- 37.In strabismus sugery, what is the first tissue layer that must be incised?
- A.
Iris
- B.
Cornea
- C.
Scelera
- D.
Conjunctiva
- 38.Which of the following would MOST likely be used to stabilize a cervical fracture?
- A.
Harrington rod
- B.
Hoffman device
- C.
Steinmann pinns
- D.
Crutchfield tongs
- 39.A device used to measure fluid pressure is known as a:
- A.
Urometer
- B.
Manometer
- C.
Spirometer
- D.
Thermometer
- 40.Which of th efollowin procdures is the removal of the entire orbital contant, including the periosteum?
- A.
Recession
- B.
Resection
- C.
Evisceration
- D.
Extenteraton
- 41.What is the suturing technique in which short lateral stitches are taken beneath the epithelial layer of skin?
- A.
Purse-string
- B.
Traction
- C.
Mattress
- D.
Subcuticular
- 42.Which of the following is a monofilament suture?
- A.
Silk
- B.
Cotton
- C.
Dacron
- D.
Polypropylene (Prolene)
- 43.To revascularize the heart muscle, a graft may be anastomosed between which of the following two vessels?
- A.
Aorta and coronary artery
- B.
Aorta and superior vena cava
- C.
Carotid artery and pulmonary vein
- D.
Pulmonary artery and coronary artery
- 44.What is the PRIMARY purpose of chest tubes?
- A.
Irrigate the chest
- B.
Eliminate chest leaks
- C.
Prevent pulmonary emboli
- D.
Re-establish negative pressure
- 45.Which of the following catheters is used for embolectomies?
- A.
Foley
- B.
Fogarty
- C.
Malecot
- D.
Angiocath
- 46.
- A.
Adaptic
- B.
Collodion
- C.
Steri-strip
- D.
Elastoplast
- 47.
- A.
All counts must be done
- B.
Omit counts, but document on the operative record
- C.
Only an intial count is required
- D.
The circulator should request anesthesia to count
- 48.Which of the following instruments is used to graps the base of the hemorrhoid during a hemorrhoidectomy?
- A.
Allis
- B.
Allen
- C.
Kocher
- D.
Mosquito
- 49.In which of the following prostatic approaches is a resectoscope used?
- A.
Perineal
- B.
Suprapubic
- C.
Retropubic
- D.
Transurethral
- 50.Which of the following clamps has no teeth?
- A.
Heaney
- B.
Kelly
- C.
Allis
- D.
Kocher
- 51.Which of the following instruments should be on a set-up for a TURP?
- A.
Lithotrite
- B.
Urethrotome
- C.
Resectoscope
- D.
Gaylor biopsy forceps
- 52.Which of the following arteries is Most commonly used in taking a blood pressure reading?
- A.
Radial
- B.
Femoral
- C.
Brachial
- D.
Popiteal
- 53.Which of the following retractors may be used during a cholecystectomy?
- A.
Senn
- B.
Bennett
- C.
Jennings
- D.
Harrington
- 54.What type of incision is usually used for an open cholecystectomy?
- A.
McBurney's
- B.
Pfannenstiel
- C.
Lower Midline
- D.
Right Subcostal
- 55.Which procedure requires an incision in the suprasternal notch?
- A.
Laparoscopy
- B.
Bronshoscopy
- C.
Esophagoscopy
- D.
Mediastinoscopy
- 56.Antiembolism stockings are used to:
- A.
Slow circulation
- B.
Prevent thrombus
- C.
Immobilize extremities
- D.
Keep legs warm
- 57.The diagnostic procedure that examines the interior surface to the trachea and bronchi is:
- A.
Bronchoscopy
- B.
Laryngoscopy
- C.
Esophargoscopy
- D.
Mediastinoscopy
- 58.Immediately before a hemorrhoidectomy, which of the following procedures might be preformed on the patient in the operating room?
- A.
Cystoscopy
- B.
Culdoscopy
- C.
Proctoscopy
- D.
Laparoscopy
- 59.Sponges that have been added to the sterile field after a procedure is in progress is counted by the:
- A.
Circulatory only
- B.
Scrub person only
- C.
Surgeon
- D.
Circulator and scrub person
- 60.When can a specimen be passed to the circulator from the sterile field?
- A.
When a surgeon grants permission
- B.
Immediately after excision
- C.
Immediately after it is placed in a bowl of formalin
- D.
Whenever the circulator requests the specimen
- 61.When a hernia is strangulated, which of the following instrument sets is added to the general abdominal set-up?
- A.
Rectal set
- B.
Gallbladder set
- C.
Common duct set
- D.
Gastrointestinal set
- 62.Removing a cataract by ultrasonic vibration and aspiration is called:
- A.
Laser surgery
- B.
Phacomulsification
- C.
Extracapsular extraction
- D.
Intracapsular extraction
- 63.Which surgical treatment is used to repair a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm?
- A.
Endarterectomy
- B.
Debridement with irrigation
- C.
Excision with graft placement
- D.
Portacaval shunt
- 64.What is the procedure for the removal of excess skin in the face and neck?
- A.
Rhinoplasty
- B.
Rhytidectomy
- C.
Cheiloplasty
- D.
Blepharoplasty
- 65.Which of the following rongeurs is used to expand the antrostomy in a Caldwell-Luc procedure?
- A.
Cushing
- B.
Bethune
- C.
Kerrison
- D.
Stille-Leur
- 66.How are kidney stones sent to the lab?
- A.
In a dry container
- B.
In formalin
- C.
In alcohol
- D.
In saline
- 67.When can a specimen be passed to the circulator from the sterile field?
- A.
When the surgeon grants permission
- B.
Immediately after excision
- C.
Immediately after it is placed in a bowl of formalin
- D.
Whenever the circulator request it
- 68.Which of the following is a pecimen container used in a flexible or rigid bronshosopy?
- A.
Ellik
- B.
Chest bottle
- C.
Luken's
- D.
Suction canister
- 69.Which of the following procedures is used for an embolectomy?
- A.
Endarterectomy
- B.
Balloon catheterization
- C.
Aneurysmectomy
- D.
Fasciotomy
- 70.Which of the following instruments may be used to extend the arteriotomy during femoral-femoral bypass?
- A.
Straight Mayo
- B.
Potts-Smith
- C.
Jorgenson
- D.
Stevens tenotomy
- 71.
- A.
A reduce pain by compressin the nerve to the affected area
- B.
Allow the surgeon more operating room time
- C.
Reduce blood loss by restricting circulation to the operative site
- D.
Create topical anesthesia to the affected area
- 72.Which of the following should be included on an orthopedic set-up?
- A.
Smith perforator
- B.
Potts-Smith scissors
- C.
Periosteal elevator
- D.
Heaney needle holder
- 73.
- A.
Allis
- B.
Mixter
- C.
Babcock
- D.
Mosquito
- 74.
- A.
Remain sterile until the patient leaves teh room
- B.
Be pulled away from the sterile field by the circulator after skin closure
- C.
Be completely empties after skin closure
- D.
Be considered unsterile once the dressing is applied
- 75.Which of the following procedures is used to visualize the cystic, hepatic, and common ducts?
- A.
Barium enema
- B.
Cholangiography
- C.
Intravenous pyelography
- D.
Upper gastrointestinal series
- 76.The instrument used to remove the laminae during a laminectomy is a(n):
- A.
Gouge
- B.
Cutter
- C.
Rongeur
- D.
Elevator
- 77.Which of the following items would be used for sponging around the spinal cord?
- A.
Cottonoids
- B.
Gauze sponges
- C.
Peanut dissector
- D.
Laparotomy sponges
- 78.Which of the following is the active electrode on the electrosurgical unit?
- A.
Wall plug
- B.
Grounding pad
- C.
Pencil
- D.
Voltage intensity dial
- 79.Which of the following instruments would be used for a common bile duct exploration?
- A.
Fogarty clamp
- B.
Randall forceps
- C.
Pennington clamp
- D.
Forester ring forceps
- 80.Glove powder is normally wiped from the gloved hand because it has the potential to cause:
- A.
Dehiscence and/or evisceration
- B.
Infections
- C.
Adhesions and/or granulomas
- D.
Contamination
- 81.When a cholecystectomy isperformed, what anatomical structure must always be preserved?
- A.
Cystic duct
- B.
Cystic vein
- C.
Common duct
- D.
Cystic artery
- 82.
- A.
Ask the surgeon if the or she desires a count
- B.
Accept the circultor's decision and continue with case set-up
- C.
Insist that an initial count be performed
- D.
Count sponges with the other scrubbed surgical technologists
- 83.Once spinous process is exposed during a laminectomy, the next instrument needed to remove the process is the:
- A.
Kerrison ronguer
- B.
Pituitary ronguer
- C.
Double-action rongeur
- D.
Periosteal elevator
- 84.
- A.
Grasping
- B.
Crushing
- C.
Exposure
- D.
Hemostasis
- 85.In order to prevent a loop colostomy from sliding back into the abdominal cavity, it may be supported with a(n):
- A.
Stone clamp
- B.
Adaptic gauze
- C.
Montgomery strap
- D.
Plastic or glass rod
- 86.Which of the following operations is performed to correct hearing loss due to defects in the eardrum?
- A.
Otoplasty
- B.
Myringotomy
- C.
Mastoidectomy
- D.
Tympanoplasty
- 87.In preparation for a cranial aneurysm, which of the following pieces of equipment would MOST likely be used?
- A.
Microscope
- B.
Cryoprobe
- C.
Jordan Day drill
- D.
Crutchfield tongs
- 88.A perforator is used for which of the following procedures?
- A.
Cordotomy
- B.
Craniotomy
- C.
Laminectomy
- D.
Spinal fusion
- 89.Which is the most common complication of a stangulated hernia?
- A.
Shock
- B.
Necrosis
- C.
Infection
- D.
Hemorrhage
- 90.A resectoscope is used to resect the:
- A.
Ovaries
- B.
Prostate
- C.
Vas deferens
- D.
Fallopian tubes
- 91.
- A.
0-1 Dexon
- B.
5-0 to 6-0 Vicryl
- C.
25- or 26-gauge stainless steel wire
- D.
35- or 40-gauge stainless steel wire
- 92.Retention sutures are advantageous when the patient is:
- A.
A child
- B.
Athletic
- C.
Thin
- D.
Obese
- 93.Which of the following retractors would be used during a femoral embolectomy?
- A.
Weitlaner
- B.
Skin hook
- C.
Harrington
- D.
Balfour
- 94.A three-way Foley catheter is inserted following a transurethral prostate resction (TURP) in order to:
- A.
Irrigate and facilitate hemostasis
- B.
Prevent the patient from getting out of bed
- C.
Keep accurate input and output records
- D.
Keep the perineal area dry
- 95.An instrument used for placement of cottonoid strips during craniotomy is:
- A.
Bayonet forceps
- B.
Russian forceps
- C.
Kelly clamp
- D.
Angled DeBakey clamp
- 96.
- A.
Show that moisture entered the pack
- B.
Guarantee the sterility of the pack
- C.
Verify that the pack was properly wrapped
- D.
Confirm that the pack has been exposed to the sterilization process
- 97.
- A.
Upside down
- B.
Right side up
- C.
On their sides
- D.
Rightly stacked
- 98.What has the most accurate method of checking the effectiveness of an autoclave?
- A.
Heat indicators
- B.
Swab culture tests
- C.
Heat-sensitive tape
- D.
Biological controls
- 99.
- A.
Bacillus subtilis
- B.
Clostridium perfringens
- C.
Myocabacterium tuberculosis
- D.
Bacillus stearothermophilus
- 100.Which of the following destroys vegetative organisms and spores?
- A.
Germicide
- B.
Antiseptic
- C.
Sterilizing agent
- D.
Bacteriostatic agent
- 101.Whicof the following solutions should be used for disinfecting endoscopic instruments?
- A.
Iodophors
- B.
Ethyl alcohol 70%
- C.
Phenolic compounds
- D.
Activated glutaraldehyde
- 102.Which of the following is the MOST resistant to the sterilization processes?
- A.
Virus
- B.
Spore
- C.
Spirochete
- D.
Tubercle bacillus
- 103.Bacteria can be reduced in the operating room by:
- A.
A aeration of rooms overnight
- B.
Daily damp dusting of all surfaces
- C.
Reducing air exchange in the room
- D.
Maintaining humidity level above 70%
- 104.
- A.
A damp mop or wet vacuum with viricidal solution
- B.
Wet vacuum with a viricidal solution
- C.
Damp mop or wet vacuum with a detergent-disinfectant solution
- D.
Dry vacuum, then damp mop with a detergent-disinfectant solution
- 105.For completely effective steam sterilization, the surface of the instrument should be:
- A.
Free of oil and grease
- B.
Oiled before sterilization
- C.
Dry before placing them in the autoclave
- D.
Moistened before placing them in the autoclave
- 106.The safest method for placing a blade on a knife handle is with a:
- A.
A mixter
- B.
Gloved hand
- C.
Needle holder
- D.
Tissue forceps
- 107.
- A.
1 Minute
- B.
3 Minutes
- C.
5 Minutes
- D.
7 Minutes
- 108.One factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization is:
- A.
Indirect contact
- B.
Gravity displacement
- C.
Humidty
- D.
Saturated steam
- 109.On Which of the following would an antiseptic be used?
- A.
Skin surface
- B.
Anesthesia masks
- C.
Intravenous tubing
- D.
Operating room table
- 110.
- A.
Only areas that have been splashed with blood or debris
- B.
All walls with a disinfection solution
- C.
All walls from the floor up to a 5-foot level with a disinfectant solution
- D.
All walls from the floor up to 5-foot level with a viricdal solution
- 111.The time of exposure to achieve sterilization may be decreased if the:
- A.
Instruments are wet
- B.
Pressure is decreased
- C.
Temperature is increased
- D.
Drying cycle is elminated
- 112.Which of the following variables influences the aeration time necessary following ethylene oxide sterilization?
- A.
Time of exposure to the gas
- B.
Porosity of the item sterilized
- C.
Temperature of the gas used
- D.
Concentration of the gas in the sterilizer
- 113.
- A.
With one basin stacked inside the other and separated by impervious material
- B.
With one basin on its side and the other upside down
- C.
With one basin stacked inside the other and wrapped in a towel
- D.
With on basin stacked inside the other and separated by a towel
- 114.
- A.
A division of the nucleus
- B.
Dessication of the nucleus
- C.
Coagulation of cell protein
- D.
Destruction of the cell membrane
- 115.When a flank approach is used for a nephrectomy, which muscles are involved?
- A.
Serratus anterior and trapezius
- B.
Gluteus maximus and pectoralis major
- C.
Latissmus dorsi and internal oblique
- D.
Transverse abdominis and rectus abdominis
- 116.Which of the following types of connective tisue fastens muscle to the bone?
- A.
Tendon
- B.
Ligament
- C.
Cartilage
- D.
Areolar
- 117.Which of the following types of muscle is found in the walls of the viscera?
- A.
Smooth
- B.
Cardiac
- C.
Striated
- D.
Skeletal
- 118.A major function of the colon is to:
- A.
Reabsorb water
- B.
Secrete hormones
- C.
Secrete digestive enzymes
- D.
Absorb the products of digestion
- 119.Herniation of the rectum through a weakened posterior vaginal wall is known as:
- A.
Rectocele
- B.
Cystocele
- C.
Variocele
- D.
Enterocele
- 120.A fluid-filled sac or cavity that prevents friction within a joint is known as a:
- A.
Bursa
- B.
Tendon
- C.
Ganglion
- D.
Ligament
- 121.Cancer cells MOST often migrate to other parts of the body through which of the following systems?
- A.
Skeletal
- B.
Lymphatic
- C.
Endocrine
- D.
Respiratory
- 122.The vermiform appendix originates from the:
- A.
Cecum
- B.
Ileum
- C.
Sigmoid colon
- D.
Ascending colon
- 123.
- A.
Chordee
- B.
Epispadius
- C.
Phimosis
- D.
Hypospadius
- 124.What lies between the lung and the chest wall?
- A.
Mediastinum
- B.
Aortic arch
- C.
Pleura
- D.
Pericardial cavity
- 125.The gastrocnemius is located in the:
- A.
Arm
- B.
Calf
- C.
Back
- D.
Thigh
- 126.What is the opening in the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes?
- A.
Foramen ovale
- B.
Foramen magnum
- C.
Mental foramen
- D.
Obturator foramen
- 127.Growth in the length of a long bone occurs at the:
- A.
Diaphysis
- B.
Medullary canal
- C.
Epiphyseal plate
- D.
Articular cartilage
- 128.The oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells is a function of:
- A.
Albumin
- B.
Hemoglobin
- C.
Hematocrit
- D.
Prothrombin
- 129.The parathyroid glan regulates:
- A.
Protein
- B.
Calcium
- C.
Sodium
- D.
Bicarbonate
- 130.Which of the following pathological conditions may be caused by an excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain?
- A.
Hydrocephalus
- B.
Encephalocele
- C.
Cranial bifida
- D.
Craniosynostosis
- 131.Hepatits B (serum hepatitis) is caused by a:
- A.
Yeast
- B.
Virus
- C.
Protozan
- D.
Bacterium
- 132.Aerobic organisms are BEST characterized as:
- A.
Pathogenic
- B.
Non-pathogenic
- C.
Oxygen-requiring
- D.
Non-oxygen-requiring
- 133.Which of the following is associated with secondary intention would healing?
- A.
Suture line
- B.
Delayed healing
- C.
Wound dehiscence
- D.
Healing without complication
- 134.When a break aseptic technique occurs, the scrub should:
- A.
Notify the circulator and leave the decision to him/her
- B.
Notify the person who broke the technique and correct the problem
- C.
Notify the OR supervisor and leave the decision to him/her
- D.
Say nothing
- 135.An inanimate object the harbors and transmits a disease is a:
- A.
Fomite
- B.
Vector
- C.
Carrier
- D.
Arthropod
- 136.During a procedure, the surgical technoloigst touches an unsterile item with a sterile glove. What should be done?
- A.
Change the glove at once
- B.
Break scrub and rescrub
- C.
Wait until closing to change the glove
- D.
Ask the circulator what to do
- 137.When two individuals in sterile attire pass one another in the sterile field, they should:
- A.
Pass back-to-back
- B.
Both face the wall
- C.
Pass side-to-side
- D.
Both face the sterile field
- 138.What is the local tissue reaction of the body to injury?
- A.
Fever
- B.
Infection
- C.
Inflammation
- D.
Immune reaction
- 139.Which of the following characterize bacteria of the genus Clostridium?
- A.
Aerobic
- B.
Anaerobic
- C.
Coagulase-negative
- D.
Nonspore-forming
- 140.Which of the following organisms normally found on the skin can cause wound infections?
- A.
Bacillus botulinum
- B.
Staphylococcus aureus
- C.
Diplococcus pneumoniae
- D.
Streptococcus penumoniae
- 141.Cleaning the operating room prior to the first scheduled procedure of the day should:
- A.
Include flat surfaces of tables and equipment
- B.
Be done with a dry towel
- C.
Be done with an antiseptic
- D.
Concentrate on anesthetic equipment
- 142.Which of the following methods of oxygen administration provides the HIGHEST concentration oxygen?
- A.
Tent
- B.
Face Mask
- C.
Nasal catheter
- D.
Endoctracheal tube
- 143.For patient recovering from general anesthesia, which of the following complications of vomiting would be considered the MOST dangerous?
- A.
Pain
- B.
Aspiration
- C.
Dehydration
- D.
Wound disruption
- 144.Sodium bicarbonate is administered to treat which of the following?
- A.
Acidosis
- B.
Alkalosis
- C.
Hypotension
- D.
Hypertension
- 145.In an emergency, which of the following drugs may used to raise the patient's blood pressure?
- A.
Morphine sulfate
- B.
Procaine (Novocaine)
- C.
Succinylcholine (Anectine)
- D.
Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
- 146.Which of the following drugs neutralizes the action of heparin?
- A.
Calcium chloride
- B.
Protamine sulfate
- C.
Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
- D.
Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- 147.
- A.
Local infiltration
- B.
Topical application
- C.
Intravenous injection
- D.
Intramuscular injection
- 148.A form of contrast media used within the body that is visible when exposed to x-ray is:
- A.
Exogenous
- B.
Radiopaque
- C.
Radiolucent
- D.
Endogenous
- 149.Which of the following vasoconstrictors is used to prolong the action of local anesthetics?
- A.
Heparin
- B.
Ergonovine (Ergotrate)
- C.
Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
- D.
Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
- 150.Which of the following solutions is used to identify diseased areas for the cold conization of the cervix?
- A.
Lugol's
- B.
Fluorescein
- C.
Methylene blue
- D.
Indigo carmine
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