Surgical Tech ( Appleton & Lange) Part 1

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Surgical Technology Quizzes & Trivia

Part 1 of Appleton and Lange practice exam for CST (first 1-100)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Adnexa refers to

    • A.

      Adrenal glands

    • B.

      Sympathetic nerve fibers

    • C.

      Outer most layer

    • D.

      Accessory organs

    Correct Answer
    D. Accessory organs
    Explanation
    The term "adnexa" refers to accessory organs. Adnexa are structures that are closely associated with or connected to a main organ, but are not a part of the organ itself. In medical terminology, the term adnexa is commonly used to refer to the accessory organs of the uterus, such as the fallopian tubes and ovaries. These organs are not directly a part of the uterus, but are closely related and function together with it. Therefore, the correct answer is "accessory organs".

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  • 2. 

    A drop is denoted by the abbreviation

    • A.

      Gt

    • B.

      G

    • C.

      Cc

    • D.

      ML

    Correct Answer
    A. Gt
  • 3. 

    The abbreviation ung refers to

    • A.

      Tincture

    • B.

      Ointment

    • C.

      As directed

    • D.

      Spirits

    Correct Answer
    B. Ointment
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "ung" is commonly used in medical prescriptions and stands for "ointment". Ointments are semi-solid preparations that are applied topically to the skin for various purposes, such as treating skin conditions or providing localized relief. Unlike tinctures, which are liquid extracts, ointments have a thicker consistency and are typically used for their emollient or protective properties. Therefore, in the context of the given options, "ointment" is the most appropriate interpretation of the abbreviation "ung".

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  • 4. 

    Proximal is a term that indicates a point

    • A.

      Nearer to the body

    • B.

      Farther away from the body

    • C.

      In the center of the body

    • D.

      Toward the head

    Correct Answer
    A. Nearer to the body
    Explanation
    The term "proximal" is used to describe a point that is closer or nearer to the body. It is the opposite of "distal," which refers to a point that is farther away from the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "nearer to the body."

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  • 5. 

    Adduction means

    • A.

      Movement away from median plane

    • B.

      Movement toward median plane

    • C.

      Movement superiorally

    • D.

      Movement inferiorally

    Correct Answer
    B. Movement toward median plane
    Explanation
    Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the median plane of the body. The median plane is an imaginary vertical plane that divides the body into equal left and right halves. Therefore, movement towards the median plane would involve bringing a body part closer to the midline of the body. This is the correct answer because it accurately describes the direction of movement during adduction.

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  • 6. 

    Ischemic can be defined as

    • A.

      A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ

    • B.

      A sharp posterior bony projection of the pelvis

    • C.

      A painful sensation

    • D.

      The transmission of pain impulses to the hip bone

    Correct Answer
    A. A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ
    Explanation
    Ischemic refers to a condition where there is a reduced supply of oxygenated blood to a specific body part or organ. This can occur due to various reasons such as blockage or narrowing of blood vessels, leading to inadequate blood flow. As a result, the affected body part or organ may not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, which can cause tissue damage and potentially lead to serious health problems.

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  • 7. 

    A cystocele is

    • A.

      A herniation of the urinary bladder

    • B.

      An accumulation of fluid in any sac-like cavity

    • C.

      A congenital herniation of intra-abdominal viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall.

    • D.

      A dilatation in the spermatic cord

    Correct Answer
    A. A herniation of the urinary bladder
    Explanation
    A cystocele refers to a condition where the urinary bladder protrudes into the vagina. This occurs due to weakening of the muscles and tissues that support the bladder, causing it to herniate or bulge into the vaginal wall. It is a common condition in women, especially after childbirth or with age. Symptoms may include urinary incontinence, frequent urination, and a sensation of pelvic pressure. Treatment options range from pelvic floor exercises to surgical repair, depending on the severity of the cystocele.

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  • 8. 

    Nulli is a prefix that means

    • A.

      Many

    • B.

      Few

    • C.

      One

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. None
    Explanation
    The prefix "nulli" is derived from the Latin word "nullus," which means "none" or "not any." Therefore, the correct answer is "none." This prefix is commonly used in English to indicate the absence or lack of something.

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  • 9. 

    False is indicated by the prefix

    • A.

      Non

    • B.

      Meso

    • C.

      Pseudo

    • D.

      Exo

    Correct Answer
    C. Pseudo
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "pseudo" because the prefix "pseudo" is commonly used to indicate something that is false or fake. It is derived from the Greek word "pseudos" which means false or deceitful. Therefore, when the prefix "pseudo" is added to a word, it implies that the word is not genuine or authentic.

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  • 10. 

    Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers are called

    • A.

      Petechiae

    • B.

      Peyronies

    • C.

      Purigos

    • D.

      Pityriasis rosea

    Correct Answer
    A. Petechiae
    Explanation
    Petechiae are tiny red or purple spots on the skin that occur due to small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers. These spots are caused by the leakage of blood from capillaries, resulting in pinpoint-sized bruises.

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  • 11. 

    Kerato refers to

    • A.

      Tubular

    • B.

      Round

    • C.

      Horny

    • D.

      Spherical

    Correct Answer
    C. Horny
    Explanation
    The term "kerato" is derived from the Greek word "keras" which means horn. Therefore, "kerato" refers to something that is related to or made of horn. The word "horny" accurately describes this characteristic as it means having or consisting of hard, tough, or horny tissue.

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  • 12. 

    The suffix lysis means

    • A.

      Removal

    • B.

      Activation

    • C.

      Breaking down

    • D.

      Adding

    Correct Answer
    C. Breaking down
    Explanation
    The suffix "lysis" is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate the process of breaking down or destruction. It is derived from the Greek word "lysis," meaning to loosen or dissolve. Therefore, the correct answer is "breaking down," as it accurately reflects the meaning of the suffix in this context.

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  • 13. 

    The left eye is indicated by the following letters

    • A.

      OD

    • B.

      OU

    • C.

      OS

    • D.

      LE

    Correct Answer
    C. OS
    Explanation
    The given letters OD, OU, and LE represent the right eye, both eyes, and left eye respectively. Since the question asks for the left eye, the correct answer is OS, which stands for "oculus sinister" in Latin, meaning left eye.

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  • 14. 

    Tissue death is called

    • A.

      Necrosis

    • B.

      Necatoriasis

    • C.

      Nematodiasis

    • D.

      Neoteny

    Correct Answer
    A. Necrosis
    Explanation
    Necrosis is the correct answer because it refers to the death of cells or tissues in a living organism. This can occur due to various reasons such as injury, infection, or lack of blood supply. Necrosis can lead to severe damage and dysfunction of the affected tissue or organ. Necatoriasis, nematodiasis, and neoteny are not related to tissue death and are therefore incorrect options.

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  • 15. 

    The secretion of excessive sweat is also known as

    • A.

      Diaphyseal aclasis

    • B.

      Hypercalcemic

    • C.

      Hypercapnea

    • D.

      Diaphoresis

    Correct Answer
    D. Diaphoresis
    Explanation
    Diaphoresis refers to the excessive secretion of sweat. It is a physiological response that occurs in order to regulate body temperature. This can happen due to various reasons such as physical activity, stress, fever, or certain medical conditions. The term "diaphoresis" is commonly used in the medical field to describe excessive sweating.

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  • 16. 

    Which radiographic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes?

    • A.

      PET

    • B.

      CT

    • C.

      MRI

    • D.

      Ultrasound

    Correct Answer
    C. MRI
    Explanation
    MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a radiographic procedure that has the ability to make images in multiple planes. Unlike other imaging techniques, MRI uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to generate detailed images of the body's internal structures. It can produce images in various planes, including axial, sagittal, and coronal, providing a comprehensive view of the area being examined. This ability to capture images in multiple planes makes MRI a valuable tool in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.

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  • 17. 

    The absence of a normal body opening, duct, or canal in called

    • A.

      Atrophia

    • B.

      Atrichia

    • C.

      Ataxia

    • D.

      Atresia

    Correct Answer
    D. Atresia
    Explanation
    Atresia refers to the absence or abnormal closure of a body opening, duct, or canal. This condition can occur in various parts of the body, such as the gastrointestinal tract, ear, or reproductive system. It can be congenital or acquired, and it may cause symptoms depending on the affected area. Atresia is the most appropriate term to describe the absence of a normal body opening, duct, or canal.

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  • 18. 

    Epistaxis can be defined as

    • A.

      Gene interaction

    • B.

      Bleeding form the nose

    • C.

      Congenital urethral defect

    • D.

      Extrachromosomal replication

    Correct Answer
    B. Bleeding form the nose
    Explanation
    Epistaxis is the medical term used to describe bleeding from the nose. It is a common condition that can be caused by various factors such as dry air, nasal allergies, trauma, or underlying medical conditions. The blood vessels in the nose can become irritated or damaged, leading to nosebleeds. Epistaxis can range from mild to severe and may require medical intervention depending on the cause and severity of the bleeding.

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  • 19. 

    Blood gas analysis is called

    • A.

      BGA

    • B.

      SAT rate

    • C.

      ABG

    • D.

      ABO

    Correct Answer
    C. ABG
    Explanation
    Blood gas analysis is commonly referred to as ABG, which stands for arterial blood gas. This test measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, as well as the pH and bicarbonate levels. It is typically performed to evaluate the respiratory and metabolic function of a patient. ABG is an important diagnostic tool used in critical care settings to assess a patient's oxygenation and acid-base balance.

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  • 20. 

    A ganglion is a

    • A.

      Chemical substance secreted by the ova

    • B.

      Necrotic death of tissue

    • C.

      Missing segment

    • D.

      Collection of nerve endings

    Correct Answer
    D. Collection of nerve endings
    Explanation
    A ganglion is a collection of nerve endings. Ganglia are clusters of nerve cell bodies located outside the central nervous system. They are found along the pathways of nerves and play a role in transmitting and processing sensory information. Ganglia can be found in various parts of the body, including the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. They are responsible for coordinating and regulating nerve impulses, allowing for the proper functioning of the nervous system.

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  • 21. 

    The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the

    • A.

      Bronchial pleura

    • B.

      Pulmonary pleura

    • C.

      Visceral pleura

    • D.

      Parietal pleura

    Correct Answer
    C. Visceral pleura
    Explanation
    The correct answer is visceral pleura. The question states that the lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac. The term "visceral" refers to the organs themselves, so the visceral pleura would be the membrane directly covering the lungs. The other options, bronchial pleura, pulmonary pleura, and parietal pleura, do not accurately describe the membrane covering the lungs.

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  • 22. 

    The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system, is the

    • A.

      Trachea

    • B.

      Larynx

    • C.

      Epiglottis

    • D.

      Pharynx

    Correct Answer
    D. Pharynx
    Explanation
    The pharynx is the correct answer because it serves as a common passageway for both food and liquids to enter the digestive system and air to enter the respiratory system. It is located behind the oral and nasal cavities and connects to the esophagus and trachea. The epiglottis, larynx, and trachea are all related structures involved in the respiratory system, but they do not function as the primary passageway for foods and liquids.

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  • 23. 

    The vocal cords are located in the

    • A.

      Larynx

    • B.

      Pharynx

    • C.

      Windpipe

    • D.

      Trachea

    Correct Answer
    A. Larynx
    Explanation
    The vocal cords are located in the larynx. The larynx, also known as the voice box, is a part of the respiratory system located in the throat. It houses the vocal cords, which are two bands of tissue that vibrate to produce sound when air passes through them. The larynx plays a crucial role in speech and sound production.

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  • 24. 

    The function of the trachea is to

    • A.

      Conduct air into the larynx

    • B.

      Serve as a pathway for food into the esophagus

    • C.

      Serve as a resonating chamber for speech

    • D.

      Conduct air to and from the lungs

    Correct Answer
    D. Conduct air to and from the lungs
    Explanation
    The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is responsible for conducting air to and from the lungs. It serves as a passageway for air to enter the respiratory system during inhalation and for air to exit during exhalation. The trachea is lined with tiny hair-like structures called cilia, which help to filter out any foreign particles or debris from the air before it reaches the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is that the function of the trachea is to conduct air to and from the lungs.

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  • 25. 

    The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the

    • A.

      Concha

    • B.

      Septum

    • C.

      Ethmoid

    • D.

      Vomer

    Correct Answer
    B. Septum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is septum. The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the septum. The septum is a thin wall made of bone and cartilage that separates the left and right sides of the nasal cavity. It helps to maintain the structural integrity of the nasal cavity and also plays a role in directing airflow.

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  • 26. 

    The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as

    • A.

      Phalanges

    • B.

      Carpals

    • C.

      Metacarpals

    • D.

      Calcaneus

    Correct Answer
    C. Metacarpals
    Explanation
    The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as metacarpals. Metacarpals are the long bones that connect the wrist bones (carpals) to the finger bones (phalanges). There are five metacarpals in each hand, numbered from 1 to 5 starting from the thumb side. These bones provide stability and support to the hand, allowing for various movements and functions. The term "metacarpals" is commonly used in anatomy to specifically refer to the bones in the palm region of the hand.

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  • 27. 

    The muscles important in respiration are

    • A.

      Trapezius

    • B.

      Latissimus dorsi

    • C.

      Pectoralis major

    • D.

      Intercostal

    Correct Answer
    D. Intercostal
    Explanation
    The intercostal muscles are important in respiration because they are located between the ribs and help to expand and contract the chest cavity during breathing. When we inhale, the intercostal muscles contract, causing the ribs to move upward and outward, which increases the volume of the chest cavity and allows the lungs to expand and fill with air. When we exhale, the intercostal muscles relax, allowing the ribs to move downward and inward, which decreases the volume of the chest cavity and helps to expel air from the lungs.

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  • 28. 

    The thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies on the anterior chest is the

    • A.

      Latissimus dorsi

    • B.

      Serratus anterior

    • C.

      Pectoralis major

    • D.

      Teres major

    Correct Answer
    C. Pectoralis major
    Explanation
    The pectoralis major is the correct answer because it is a thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies on the anterior chest. It is responsible for movements of the shoulder joint, such as flexion, adduction, and medial rotation. The latissimus dorsi is a large muscle located on the back, the serratus anterior is a muscle that runs along the sides of the rib cage, and the teres major is a small muscle located on the back of the shoulder.

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  • 29. 

    The triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the

    • A.

      Biceps brachii

    • B.

      Deltoid

    • C.

      Triceps brachii

    • D.

      Serratus anterior

    Correct Answer
    B. Deltoid
    Explanation
    The deltoid muscle is the correct answer because it is the main muscle responsible for the abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint. It is a triangular muscle located on the shoulder and covers the joint, allowing for movement in various directions. The biceps brachii, triceps brachii, and serratus anterior are not primarily involved in arm abduction, making them incorrect options.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the abdominal muscles originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs?

    • A.

      Rectus abdominis

    • B.

      Transverses abdominis

    • C.

      External oblique

    • D.

      Internal oblique

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectus abdominis
    Explanation
    The rectus abdominis is the correct answer because it is the abdominal muscle that originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs. It is a long, flat muscle that runs vertically along the front of the abdomen and is responsible for flexing the spine and compressing the abdominal contents. The transversus abdominis, external oblique, and internal oblique are also abdominal muscles, but they do not originate at the pubic bone and end in the ribs.

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  • 31. 

    One of the principal muscles of the pelvic floor is the

    • A.

      Sartorius

    • B.

      Levator ani

    • C.

      Internal oblique

    • D.

      Rectus abdominis

    Correct Answer
    B. Levator ani
    Explanation
    The levator ani is one of the principal muscles of the pelvic floor. It is a broad, thin muscle that forms the majority of the pelvic diaphragm. The levator ani muscle is responsible for supporting the pelvic organs, such as the bladder, uterus, and rectum. It also plays a crucial role in maintaining continence and controlling the opening and closing of the anus.

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  • 32. 

    The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the

    • A.

      Calf of the leg

    • B.

      Stomach

    • C.

      Stomach's greater curvature

    • D.

      Thigh

    Correct Answer
    A. Calf of the leg
    Explanation
    The gastrocnemius is a muscle located in the calf of the leg. It is responsible for flexing the foot and bending the knee. This muscle is the largest and most prominent muscle in the calf, giving shape and strength to the lower leg. It plays a crucial role in activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

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  • 33. 

    A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called

    • A.

      Cartilage

    • B.

      Tendon

    • C.

      Joint

    • D.

      Ligament

    Correct Answer
    D. Ligament
    Explanation
    A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called a ligament. Ligaments are strong and flexible structures that connect bones to other bones in a joint, providing stability and support. They help to prevent excessive movement and maintain the proper alignment of the bones. Unlike cartilage, tendons, and joints, ligaments specifically serve the purpose of connecting bones together.

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  • 34. 

    The two bones that form the side walls and the roof of the cranium are the

    • A.

      Parietal bones

    • B.

      Frontal bones

    • C.

      Occipital bones

    • D.

      Temporal bones

    Correct Answer
    A. Parietal bones
    Explanation
    The parietal bones are the correct answer because they are the two bones that form the side walls and the roof of the cranium. They are located on the top and sides of the skull and join together at the sagittal suture in the middle. The frontal bones form the forehead, the occipital bones form the back of the skull, and the temporal bones are located on the sides and base of the skull.

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  • 35. 

    The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located

    • A.

      Along the side of the neck

    • B.

      Above the near the ear

    • C.

      Under the tongue

    • D.

      In the back of the neck

    Correct Answer
    A. Along the side of the neck
    Explanation
    The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located along the side of the neck. It is a long, thick muscle that runs from the base of the skull, behind the ear, down to the collarbone and breastbone. This muscle is responsible for turning the head from side to side and also helps in tilting the head forward and backward. Its location along the side of the neck allows it to perform these movements effectively.

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  • 36. 

    The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the

    • A.

      Ulna

    • B.

      Radius

    • C.

      Humerus

    • D.

      Fibula

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulna
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ulna. The ulna is the medial bone of the forearm, located on the small-finger side of the hand. It runs parallel to the radius bone and helps to form the structure of the forearm and wrist joint. The ulna is involved in movements such as rotating the forearm and stabilizing the wrist.

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  • 37. 

    The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the

    • A.

      Temporal

    • B.

      Sphenoid

    • C.

      Ethmoid

    • D.

      Parietal

    Correct Answer
    B. Sphenoid
    Explanation
    The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the sphenoid. The sphenoid bone is located at the middle part of the skull and forms part of the floor of the cranial cavity. It is butterfly-shaped, with a central body and wings that extend laterally. The sphenoid bone is important as it helps to support the brain, forms part of the eye sockets, and provides attachment points for various muscles and ligaments.

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  • 38. 

    The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

    • A.

      Parietal

    • B.

      Occipital

    • C.

      Temporal

    • D.

      Frontal

    Correct Answer
    B. Occipital
    Explanation
    The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the occipital bone. It is located at the back of the head and forms the base of the skull. The occipital bone protects the brain and supports the weight of the head. It also contains the foramen magnum, a large opening through which the spinal cord passes. Additionally, the occipital bone articulates with other bones of the skull, such as the parietal and temporal bones, contributing to the overall structure and stability of the skull.

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  • 39. 

    The lower jawbone is the

    • A.

      Maxilla

    • B.

      Mandible

    • C.

      Mastoid

    • D.

      Zygoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Mandible
    Explanation
    The lower jawbone is called the mandible. It is the largest and strongest bone in the face and is responsible for movements such as chewing and talking. The mandible articulates with the temporal bone of the skull, allowing for the opening and closing of the mouth.

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  • 40. 

    The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, which supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of its muscles, is the

    • A.

      Palatine bone

    • B.

      Vomer

    • C.

      Pterygoid hamulus

    • D.

      Hyoid bone

    Correct Answer
    D. Hyoid bone
    Explanation
    The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx. It serves as a support for the tongue and provides attachment for some of its muscles. It is not directly connected to any other bone in the body, making it unique. Its position and function allow it to play a crucial role in swallowing and speech production.

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  • 41. 

    The adult vetebral column has

    • A.

      33 bones

    • B.

      28 bones

    • C.

      26 bones

    • D.

      32 bones

    Correct Answer
    C. 26 bones
    Explanation
    The adult vertebral column consists of 26 bones. It is made up of 24 individual vertebrae, the sacrum, and the coccyx. The vertebral column provides support and protection for the spinal cord, and allows for flexibility and movement of the torso. Each vertebra is separated by intervertebral discs, which act as shock absorbers. The vertebral column is divided into five regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal, with each region having a specific number of vertebrae.

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  • 42. 

    How many cervical vertebrae are there?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 7 because there are seven cervical vertebrae in the human body. The cervical vertebrae are located in the neck region and are responsible for supporting the head and allowing for its movement. These vertebrae are smaller and more flexible compared to the other vertebrae in the spine.

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  • 43. 

    The bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone is the

    • A.

      Sternum

    • B.

      Trochlea

    • C.

      Talus

    • D.

      Hyoid

    Correct Answer
    D. Hyoid
    Explanation
    The hyoid bone is the only bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone. It is located in the neck, between the chin and the thyroid cartilage. The hyoid bone serves as an attachment point for muscles involved in swallowing and speech production. It also helps support the tongue and provides stability to the larynx.

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  • 44. 

    The number of pairs of ribs is

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    The human body typically has 12 pairs of ribs, with each pair attached to the spine at the back and curving around to connect to the sternum at the front. These ribs serve to protect the vital organs in the chest cavity, such as the heart and lungs.

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  • 45. 

    A slender, rodlike bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally is the

    • A.

      Scapula

    • B.

      Shoulder blade

    • C.

      Clavicle

    • D.

      Sternum

    Correct Answer
    C. Clavicle
    Explanation
    The clavicle, commonly known as the collarbone, is a slender, rodlike bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally. It connects the sternum (breastbone) to the scapula (shoulder blade) on each side of the body. The clavicle serves as an important attachment point for various muscles and ligaments, providing stability and mobility to the shoulder joint.

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  • 46. 

    The nucleus pulposus is the

    • A.

      Cushioning mass within an intertebral disk

    • B.

      Result of a ruptured disk

    • C.

      Outer layer of fibrocartilage

    • D.

      Covering of the intervertebral disk

    Correct Answer
    A. Cushioning mass within an intertebral disk
    Explanation
    The nucleus pulposus refers to the cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk. It is a gel-like substance located in the center of the disk, surrounded by the annulus fibrosus. Its main function is to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine. When a disk ruptures, the nucleus pulposus may herniate or leak out, causing pain and discomfort. Therefore, the correct answer is "cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk."

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  • 47. 

    The upper , flaring portion of hipbone is the

    • A.

      Ischium

    • B.

      Pubis

    • C.

      Ilium

    • D.

      Femoral head

    Correct Answer
    C. Ilium
    Explanation
    The upper, flaring portion of the hipbone is called the ilium. The ilium is one of the three bones that make up the hipbone, along with the ischium and pubis. It is the largest and most superior bone of the hip, forming the prominence of the hip and providing support for the abdominal muscles. The ilium also serves as the attachment site for various muscles of the hip and thigh.

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  • 48. 

    A large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes is the

    • A.

      Ossicle

    • B.

      Hypoglossal canal

    • C.

      Foramen ovale

    • D.

      Foramen magnum

    Correct Answer
    D. Foramen magnum
    Explanation
    The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes. It is located at the back of the skull, allowing the spinal cord to connect with the brainstem. This opening is crucial for the transmission of nerve signals between the brain and the rest of the body. The other options, such as ossicle, hypoglossal canal, and foramen ovale, are not correct because they do not serve the same purpose as the foramen magnum.

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  • 49. 

    The larger, weight-bearing bone of the lower leg is the

    • A.

      Humerus

    • B.

      Talus

    • C.

      Fibula

    • D.

      Tibia

    Correct Answer
    D. Tibia
    Explanation
    The tibia is the larger, weight-bearing bone in the lower leg. It is commonly known as the shinbone and is located on the inside of the leg. The tibia plays a crucial role in supporting the body's weight and providing stability during activities such as walking, running, and standing. It is connected to the fibula, a smaller bone in the lower leg, and together they form the structure of the lower leg. The humerus and talus are bones found in the upper arm and foot respectively, and are not part of the lower leg.

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  • 50. 

    The bone that fits into the acetabulum, forming a joint, is the

    • A.

      Tibia

    • B.

      Femur

    • C.

      Fibula

    • D.

      Patella

    Correct Answer
    B. Femur
    Explanation
    The femur is the correct answer because it is the bone that fits into the acetabulum, forming a joint. The acetabulum is a cup-shaped socket in the pelvis, and the femur is the thigh bone that connects to this socket to form the hip joint. The tibia is the shin bone and forms the knee joint, while the fibula is a smaller bone in the lower leg. The patella is the kneecap and does not directly fit into the acetabulum.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 01, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Tigger28384

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