Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lang 1-12

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Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lang 1-12 - Quiz

Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lang 1-12


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. Adnexa refers to

    • A.

      Adrenal glands

    • B.

      Sympathetic nerve fibers

    • C.

      Outer most layer

    • D.

      Accessory organs

    Correct Answer
    D. Accessory organs
    Explanation
    Tissues or structures that are adjacent or near

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  • 2. 

    2. A drop is denoted by the abbreviation

    • A.

      Gt

    • B.

      G

    • C.

      Cc

    • D.

      ML

    Correct Answer
    A. Gt
    Explanation
    Latin "gutta"

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  • 3. 

    3. The abbreviation ung refers to

    • A.

      Tincture

    • B.

      Ointment

    • C.

      As directed

    • D.

      Spirits

    Correct Answer
    B. Ointment
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "ung" is commonly used in medical contexts and stands for "ointment." Ointments are semisolid preparations that are applied topically to the skin for various purposes, such as treating skin conditions, providing moisture, or delivering medication. The use of abbreviations in medical terminology helps to simplify and standardize communication among healthcare professionals.

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  • 4. 

    4. Proximal is a term that indicates a point

    • A.

      Nearer to the body

    • B.

      Farther away from the body

    • C.

      In the center of the body

    • D.

      Toward the head

    Correct Answer
    A. Nearer to the body
    Explanation
    The term "proximal" is used in anatomy to describe a location that is closer to the body or the point of attachment. It is the opposite of "distal," which refers to a location that is farther away from the body or point of attachment. Therefore, the correct answer is "nearer to the body."

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  • 5. 

    5. Adduction means

    • A.

      Movement away from the median plane

    • B.

      Movement toward the median plane

    • C.

      Movement superiorally

    • D.

      Movement inferiorally

    Correct Answer
    B. Movement toward the median plane
    Explanation
    Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the midline or median plane of the body. This movement brings the body part closer to the center of the body or towards the midline. It is the opposite of abduction, which is the movement away from the midline or median plane.

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  • 6. 

    6. Ischemic can be defined as

    • A.

      A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ

    • B.

      A sharp posterior bony projection of the pelvis

    • C.

      A painful sensation

    • D.

      The transmission of pain impulses to the hip bone

    Correct Answer
    A. A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ
    Explanation
    Ischemic can be defined as a decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ. This means that there is a reduction in the amount of oxygen-rich blood reaching a specific area of the body, which can lead to tissue damage and potentially serious health issues. It is important to identify and treat ischemia promptly to prevent further complications.

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  • 7. 

    7. A cystocele is

    • A.

      A herniation of the urinary bladder

    • B.

      An accumulation of fluid in any sac-like cavity

    • C.

      A congenital herniation of intra-abdominal viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall

    • D.

      A dilation in the spermatic cord

    Correct Answer
    A. A herniation of the urinary bladder
    Explanation
    A cystocele is a condition where the wall between a woman's bladder and her vagina weakens, causing the bladder to bulge into the vagina. This is known as a herniation of the urinary bladder.

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  • 8. 

    8. Nulli is a prefix that means

    • A.

      Many

    • B.

      Few

    • C.

      One

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. None
    Explanation
    The prefix "nulli" is derived from the Latin word "nullus," which means "none" or "not any." Therefore, the correct answer is "none." This prefix is commonly used in words like "nullify" (to make something void or invalid) or "nullity" (the state of being legally void or invalid).

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  • 9. 

    9. False is indicated by the prefix

    • A.

      Non

    • B.

      Meso

    • C.

      Pseudo

    • D.

      Exo

    Correct Answer
    C. Pseudo
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "pseudo" because the prefix "pseudo" is commonly used to indicate something that is false or not genuine. For example, words like pseudoscience or pseudonym imply that something is not based on real scientific evidence or that a name is not the person's real name. Therefore, in this context, "pseudo" is the best choice to indicate false.

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  • 10. 

    10. Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers are called

    • A.

      Petechiae

    • B.

      Peyronies

    • C.

      Purigos pityriasis rosea

    • D.

      Purigos

    Correct Answer
    A. Petechiae
    Explanation
    Petechiae are tiny red or purple spots on the skin caused by small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers. They occur when tiny blood vessels called capillaries burst and leak blood into the surrounding tissues. Petechiae can be a sign of various medical conditions, including certain infections, autoimmune disorders, and bleeding disorders.

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  • 11. 

    11. Kerato refers to

    • A.

      Tubular

    • B.

      Round

    • C.

      Horny

    • D.

      Spherical

    Correct Answer
    C. Horny
    Explanation
    The term "kerato" is derived from the Greek word "keras" which means "horn". Therefore, "kerato" refers to something that is related to or made of horn. The word "horny" accurately describes this characteristic, as it means having or consisting of horn-like material.

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  • 12. 

    12. The suffix lysis means

    • A.

      Removal

    • B.

      Activation

    • C.

      Breaking down

    • D.

      Adding

    Correct Answer
    C. Breaking down
    Explanation
    The suffix "lysis" is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate the process of breaking down or decomposition. Therefore, the correct answer is "breaking down".

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  • 13. 

    13. The left eye is indicated by the following letters

    • A.

      OD

    • B.

      OU

    • C.

      OS

    • D.

      LE

    Correct Answer
    C. OS
    Explanation
    oculus sinister

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  • 14. 

    14. Tissue death is called

    • A.

      Necrosis

    • B.

      Necatoriasis

    • C.

      Nematodiasis

    • D.

      Neoteny

    Correct Answer
    A. Necrosis
    Explanation
    Necrosis refers to the death of cells or tissues due to injury, infection, or lack of blood supply. It is a pathological process that can occur in various organs and is characterized by the loss of cell structure and function. Necrosis can lead to inflammation and can be associated with various diseases and conditions, such as heart attacks, strokes, and gangrene. Necrosis is the most appropriate term to describe tissue death in this context.

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  • 15. 

    15. the secretion of excessive sweat is also known as

    • A.

      Diaphyseal aclasis

    • B.

      Hypercalcemic

    • C.

      Hypercapnea

    • D.

      Diaphoresis

    Correct Answer
    D. DiapHoresis
    Explanation
    Diaphoresis refers to the excessive secretion of sweat. It is a physiological response to various stimuli such as heat, exercise, stress, or certain medical conditions. The term "diaphoresis" is commonly used in medical literature and clinical practice to describe the condition of excessive sweating. It is important to note that diaphoresis is not a specific medical condition, but rather a symptom or sign of an underlying cause.

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  • 16. 

    16. which radiographic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes?

    • A.

      PET

    • B.

      CT

    • C.

      MRI

    • D.

      Ultrasound

    Correct Answer
    C. MRI
    Explanation
    Positron emission tomography- metabolic
    cross section
    magnetic resonance imaging
    sound waves

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  • 17. 

    17. The absence of a normal body opening, duct, or canal is called

    • A.

      Atrophia

    • B.

      Atrichia

    • C.

      Ataxia

    • D.

      Atresia

    Correct Answer
    D. Atresia
    Explanation
    Atresia refers to the absence or abnormal closure of a body opening, duct, or canal. It can occur in various parts of the body, such as the gastrointestinal tract, respiratory system, or reproductive system. This condition can lead to obstruction and prevent the normal flow of fluids or substances. Atresia is a medical term commonly used to describe congenital abnormalities or acquired conditions where a structure is completely closed or absent, causing functional impairment.

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  • 18. 

    18. Epistaxis can be defined as

    • A.

      Gene interaction

    • B.

      Bleeding from the nose

    • C.

      Congenital urethral defect

    • D.

      Extrachromosomal replication

    Correct Answer
    B. Bleeding from the nose
    Explanation
    greek "a dripping"
    staxis hemorrhage

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  • 19. 

    19. Blood gas analysis is called

    • A.

      BGA

    • B.

      SAT rate

    • C.

      ABG

    • D.

      ABO

    Correct Answer
    C. ABG
    Explanation
    Arterial Blood Gas
    Measures- oxygenation, ventilation, acid-base status

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  • 20. 

    20. a ganglion is a

    • A.

      Chemical substance secreted by the ova

    • B.

      Necrotic death of tissue

    • C.

      Missing segment

    • D.

      Collection of nerve endings

    Correct Answer
    D. Collection of nerve endings
    Explanation
    knot or knot like mass of nerve endings

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  • 21. 

    21. the lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the

    • A.

      Bronchial pleura

    • B.

      Pulmonary pleura

    • C.

      Visceral pleura

    • D.

      Parietal pleura

    Correct Answer
    C. Visceral pleura
    Explanation
    The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the visceral pleura. The term "visceral" refers to the inner organs, so the visceral pleura directly covers the surface of the lungs. This protective sac helps to reduce friction between the lungs and the surrounding structures, allowing for smooth movement during breathing. The other options, such as bronchial pleura, pulmonary pleura, and parietal pleura, do not accurately describe the specific sac that covers the lungs.

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  • 22. 

    22. the passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system, is the

    • A.

      Trachea

    • B.

      Larynx

    • C.

      Epiglottis

    • D.

      Pharynx

    Correct Answer
    D. pHarynx
    Explanation
    The pharynx is the correct answer because it serves as a common pathway for both food and liquids to enter the digestive system and for air to enter the respiratory system. It is located at the back of the throat and connects the mouth and nasal cavity to the esophagus and trachea.

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  • 23. 

    23. The vocal cords are located in the

    • A.

      Larynx

    • B.

      Pharynx

    • C.

      Windpipe

    • D.

      Trachea

    Correct Answer
    A. Larynx
    Explanation
    The vocal cords are located in the larynx. The larynx, also known as the voice box, is a part of the respiratory system located in the neck. It houses the vocal cords, which are responsible for producing sound and enabling speech. The larynx plays a crucial role in the production of sound by controlling the airflow and vibration of the vocal cords.

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  • 24. 

    24. the function of the trachea is to

    • A.

      Conduct air into the larynx

    • B.

      Serve as a pathway for food into the esophagus

    • C.

      Serve as a resonating chamber for speech

    • D.

      Conduct air to and from the lungs

    Correct Answer
    D. Conduct air to and from the lungs
    Explanation
    windpipe

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  • 25. 

    25. the nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the

    • A.

      Concha

    • B.

      Septum

    • C.

      Ethmoid

    • D.

      Vomer

    Correct Answer
    B. Septum
    Explanation
    The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the septum. The septum is a wall made up of bone and cartilage that separates the left and right sides of the nasal cavity. This division helps to direct the airflow and also provides structural support to the nose.

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  • 26. 

    26. The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as

    • A.

      Phalanges

    • B.

      Carpals

    • C.

      Metacarpals

    • D.

      Vomer

    Correct Answer
    C. Metacarpals
    Explanation
    The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as metacarpals. The metacarpals are the long bones that connect the wrist to the fingers. They are located in the middle of the hand, between the carpals (wrist bones) and the phalanges (finger bones). The metacarpals provide support and flexibility to the hand, allowing for movements such as gripping and grasping.

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  • 27. 

    27. the muscles important in respiration are

    • A.

      Trapezius

    • B.

      Latissimus dorsi

    • C.

      Pectoralis major

    • D.

      Intercostal

    Correct Answer
    D. Intercostal
    Explanation
    The muscles important in respiration are the intercostal muscles. These muscles are located between the ribs and are responsible for expanding and contracting the chest during breathing. When we inhale, the intercostal muscles contract, lifting the ribcage and expanding the chest cavity, allowing air to enter the lungs. When we exhale, the intercostal muscles relax, causing the ribcage to lower and the chest cavity to decrease in size, forcing air out of the lungs. Therefore, the intercostal muscles play a crucial role in the process of respiration.

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  • 28. 

    28. the thick, fan shaped muscle that lies on the anterior chest is the

    • A.

      Latissimus dorsi

    • B.

      Serratus anterior

    • C.

      Pectoralis major

    • D.

      Teres major

    Correct Answer
    C. Pectoralis major
    Explanation
    The correct answer is pectoralis major. The pectoralis major is a thick, fan-shaped muscle that is located on the anterior (front) side of the chest. It is responsible for movements of the shoulder joint, such as flexion, adduction, and medial rotation. This muscle is commonly referred to as the "pecs" and is well-developed in individuals who engage in upper body strength training exercises.

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  • 29. 

    29. the triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the

    • A.

      Biceps brachii

    • B.

      Deltoid

    • C.

      Triceps brachii

    • D.

      Serratus anterior

    Correct Answer
    B. Deltoid
    Explanation
    The deltoid muscle is the triangular muscle of the shoulder that is responsible for abducting the arm. It is located on the outer side of the shoulder and is the primary muscle involved in lifting the arm away from the body. The biceps brachii, triceps brachii, and serratus anterior are not involved in shoulder abduction, making the deltoid the correct answer.

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  • 30. 

    30. which of the abdominal muscles originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs?

    • A.

      Rectus abdominis

    • B.

      Transversus abdominis

    • C.

      External oblique

    • D.

      Internal oblique

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectus abdominis
    Explanation
    The rectus abdominis muscle is the correct answer because it originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs. This muscle is located in the front of the abdomen and is responsible for flexing the spine and compressing the abdominal contents. It is commonly referred to as the "six-pack" muscle due to its appearance in individuals with low body fat. The transversus abdominis, external oblique, and internal oblique muscles also play a role in abdominal function, but they do not originate at the pubic bone and end in the ribs.

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  • 31. 

    31. one of the principal muscles of the pelvic floor is the

    • A.

      Sartorius

    • B.

      Levator ani

    • C.

      Internal oblique

    • D.

      Rectus abdominis

    Correct Answer
    B. Levator ani
    Explanation
    The correct answer is levator ani. The levator ani is one of the principal muscles of the pelvic floor. It is a broad, thin muscle that supports the pelvic organs and helps control urination and defecation. It also plays a role in sexual function. The other options listed (sartorius, internal oblique, rectus abdominis) are not muscles of the pelvic floor.

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  • 32. 

    32. The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the

    • A.

      Calf of the leg

    • B.

      Stomach

    • C.

      Stomach's greater curvature

    • D.

      Thigh

    Correct Answer
    A. Calf of the leg
    Explanation
    The gastrocnemius is indeed the chief muscle of the calf of the leg. It is a large muscle located at the back of the lower leg and plays a major role in movements such as walking, running, and jumping. It is responsible for the flexion of the foot and extension of the leg at the knee joint. The other options, stomach, stomach's greater curvature, and thigh, are not correct as they do not accurately describe the location or function of the gastrocnemius muscle.

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  • 33. 

    33. a connective tissue band that holds bones together is called

    • A.

      Cartilage

    • B.

      Tendon

    • C.

      Joint

    • D.

      Ligament

    Correct Answer
    D. Ligament
    Explanation
    A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called a ligament. Ligaments are strong and flexible structures that provide stability and support to joints by connecting bones. They are made up of dense, fibrous tissue and are responsible for preventing excessive movement or dislocation of bones at the joint. Unlike cartilage, which is a type of soft tissue that covers the ends of bones and acts as a cushion, tendons, which connect muscles to bones, or joints, which are the areas where two or more bones meet, ligaments specifically serve the purpose of holding bones together.

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  • 34. 

    34. the two bones that form the side walls and roof of the cranium are the

    • A.

      Parietal bones

    • B.

      Frontal bones

    • C.

      Occipital bones

    • D.

      Temporal bones

    Correct Answer
    A. Parietal bones
    Explanation
    The two bones that form the side walls and roof of the cranium are called the parietal bones. These bones are located on the sides and top of the skull, forming a protective structure for the brain. The parietal bones join together at the top of the skull, known as the sagittal suture, and also connect with other bones of the skull. They play a crucial role in providing structural support and protection for the brain.

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  • 35. 

    35. the sternocleidomastoid muscle is located

    • A.

      Along the side of the neck

    • B.

      Above and near the ear

    • C.

      Under the tongue

    • D.

      In the back of the neck

    Correct Answer
    A. Along the side of the neck
    Explanation
    praying muscle

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  • 36. 

    36. the medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the

    • A.

      Ulna

    • B.

      Radius

    • C.

      Humerus

    • D.

      Fibula

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulna
    Explanation
    The medial bone of the forearm, located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the ulna. It runs parallel to the radius bone and is responsible for forming the elbow joint with the humerus bone. The ulna is longer and larger than the radius and is essential for forearm rotation and stability. The fibula is a bone in the lower leg, while the humerus is located in the upper arm.

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  • 37. 

    37. The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the

    • A.

      Temporal

    • B.

      Sphenoid

    • C.

      Ethmoid

    • D.

      Parietal

    Correct Answer
    B. SpHenoid
    Explanation
    The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the sphenoid. The sphenoid bone is located in the middle of the skull and has a shape resembling a butterfly with outstretched wings. It forms part of the base of the cranium and helps to support the weight of the brain. Additionally, the sphenoid bone also houses important structures such as the pituitary gland and forms part of the eye sockets.

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  • 38. 

    38. The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

    • A.

      Parietal

    • B.

      Occipital

    • C.

      Temporal

    • D.

      Frontal

    Correct Answer
    B. Occipital
    Explanation
    The occipital bone is located at the posterior portion of the skull, forming the back and base of the skull. It is responsible for protecting the brain and supporting the weight of the head. The occipital bone also contains the foramen magnum, a large opening through which the spinal cord passes.

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  • 39. 

    39. The lower jawbone is the

    • A.

      Maxilla

    • B.

      Mandible

    • C.

      Mastoid

    • D.

      Zygoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Mandible
    Explanation
    The lower jawbone is known as the mandible. It is the largest and strongest bone in the face and is responsible for holding the lower teeth in place. The mandible also plays a crucial role in chewing, speaking, and facial expression. It is connected to the temporal bones of the skull by the temporomandibular joints, allowing for movement of the jaw. The maxilla, mastoid, and zygoma are other bones in the skull, but they are not specifically related to the lower jawbone.

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  • 40. 

    40. the bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, which supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of the muscles, is the

    • A.

      Palatine bone

    • B.

      Vomer

    • C.

      Pterygoid hamulus

    • D.

      Hyoid bone

    Correct Answer
    D. Hyoid bone
    Explanation
    The hyoid bone is located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx. It supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of the muscles. It is not the palatine bone, vomer, or pterygoid hamulus, which are located in different parts of the skull and have different functions.

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  • 41. 

    41. the adult vertebral column has

    • A.

      33 bones

    • B.

      28 bones

    • C.

      26 bones

    • D.

      32 bones

    Correct Answer
    C. 26 bones
    Explanation
    infant has 33

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  • 42. 

    42. how many cervical vertebrae are there?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    cervical 7 (breakfast is at 7)
    Thoracic 12 (lunch is at 12)
    Lumbar 5 (dinner is at 5)

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  • 43. 

    43. the bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bones is the

    • A.

      Sternum

    • B.

      Trochlea

    • C.

      Talus

    • D.

      Hyoid

    Correct Answer
    D. Hyoid
    Explanation
    Think tongue, breaks from strangulation.

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  • 44. 

    44. The number of pairs of ribs is

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    1-7 true ribs
    8-12 false ribs
    11 & 12 floating ribs

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  • 45. 

    45. a slender, rodlike bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally is the

    • A.

      Scapula

    • B.

      Shoulder blade

    • C.

      Clavicle

    • D.

      Sternum

    Correct Answer
    C. Clavicle
    Explanation
    The clavicle, also known as the collarbone, is a slender, rodlike bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally. It connects the sternum (breastbone) to the scapula (shoulder blade) and helps to stabilize the shoulder joint.

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  • 46. 

    46. the nucleus pulposus is the

    • A.

      Cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk

    • B.

      Result of a ruptured disk

    • C.

      Outer layer of fibrocartilage within a disk

    • D.

      Covering of the intervertebral disk

    Correct Answer
    A. Cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk
    Explanation
    The nucleus pulposus is the cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk. It is located in the center of the disk and acts as a shock absorber, providing flexibility and allowing for movement between the vertebrae. It is composed of a gel-like substance that helps distribute pressure evenly across the disk, preventing compression of the spinal cord and nerves. This cushioning mass helps to maintain the integrity and function of the intervertebral disk, allowing for smooth movement and protection of the spinal column.

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  • 47. 

    47. the upper, flaring portion of the hipbone is the

    • A.

      Ischium

    • B.

      Pubis

    • C.

      Ilium

    • D.

      Femoral head

    Correct Answer
    C. Ilium
    Explanation
    iliac crest

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  • 48. 

    50. the bone that fits into the acetabulum, forming a joint is the

    • A.

      Humerus

    • B.

      Femur

    • C.

      Fibula

    • D.

      Patella

    Correct Answer
    B. Femur
    Explanation
    The femur is the correct answer because it is the bone that fits into the acetabulum, forming the hip joint. The humerus is the bone in the upper arm, the fibula is a bone in the lower leg, and the patella is the kneecap. None of these bones fit into the acetabulum to form a joint.

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  • 49. 

    51. Another name for the kneecap is

    • A.

      Patella

    • B.

      Tibia

    • C.

      Fibula

    • D.

      Phalange

    Correct Answer
    A. Patella
    Explanation
    The correct answer is patella. The patella is another name for the kneecap, which is a small, flat bone located in front of the knee joint. It acts as a protective cover for the knee joint and helps to increase the leverage of the thigh muscles. The tibia and fibula are bones in the lower leg, while phalange refers to the bones in the fingers and toes.

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  • 50. 

    52. the membranes that line closed cavities within the body are called

    • A.

      Mucous membranes

    • B.

      Serous membranes

    • C.

      Fascial membranes

    • D.

      Skeletal membranes

    Correct Answer
    B. Serous membranes
    Explanation
    Serous membranes are the correct answer because they line closed cavities within the body such as the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities. These membranes secrete a lubricating fluid called serous fluid, which helps reduce friction between organs and allows them to move smoothly. Mucous membranes, on the other hand, line the body's open cavities and are responsible for producing mucus. Fascial membranes refer to connective tissue layers, while skeletal membranes is not a term commonly used in anatomy.

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