Am I A Good Pharmacologist? Quiz
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A 19 year-old student was diagnosed with hypothyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid). After 1 week, she called the clinic to report that she does not feel better. Which response from the nurse is correct?
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"The full therapeutic effects may not occur for 3 to 4 weeks.”
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”It will probably require surgery for a cure to happen.”
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Want to be a pharmacologist? Well, it is a profession of great responsibility, you have to be on your toes all the time because you will be dealing with different types of drugs and medications administering their effects on living bodies.
Do you want to know 'Am I A Good Pharmacologist?'? Take this quiz to find out.
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- 2.
A patient has been taking an AED for several years as part of his treatment for partial seizures. His wife has called because he ran out of medication this morning and wonders if he can go without it for a week until she has a chance to go to the drugstore. What is the nurse’s best response?
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”stopping this medication abruptly may cause withdrawal seizures. A refill is needed right away.”
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”he is taking another antiepileptic drug, so he can go without the medication for a week.”
Correct Answer
A. ”stopping this medication abruptly may cause withdrawal seizures. A refill is needed right away.”Explanation
The nurse's best response is "stopping this medication abruptly may cause withdrawal seizures. A refill is needed right away." This is because abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal seizures, which can be dangerous for the patient. It is important for the patient to continue taking their medication as prescribed to prevent any complications. The nurse advises getting a refill right away to ensure that the patient does not go without their medication for an extended period of time.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A patient with gout has been treated with allopurinol (Zyloprim) for 2 months. The nurse will monitor laboratory results for which therapeutic effect?
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Decreased prothrombin time
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Decreased uric acid levels
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Decreased white blood cell count
Correct Answer
A. Decreased uric acid levelsExplanation
Allopurinol is a medication commonly used to treat gout, a condition characterized by high levels of uric acid in the blood. It works by inhibiting the production of uric acid in the body. Therefore, monitoring the patient's laboratory results for decreased uric acid levels would be the expected therapeutic effect of allopurinol treatment. This indicates that the medication is effectively reducing the levels of uric acid in the patient's blood, helping to alleviate the symptoms of gout.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A 6 year-old child who has chickenpox also has a fever of 102.9 degrees F. The child’s mother asks the nurse if she should use aspirin to reduce the fever. What is the best response by the nurse?
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"Aceteminophen (Tylenol) should be used to reduce his fever, not aspirin.”
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”You can use aspirin, but be sure to follow the instructions on the bottle.”
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”You can use the aspirn, but watch for worsening symptoms.”
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”It’s best to wait to see if the fever gets worse.”
Correct Answer
A. "Aceteminophen (Tylenol) should be used to reduce his fever, not aspirin.”Explanation
The best response by the nurse is "Acetaminophen (Tylenol) should be used to reduce his fever, not aspirin." This is the correct answer because aspirin should not be given to children with chickenpox due to the risk of developing Reye's syndrome, a rare but serious condition that can cause swelling in the liver and brain. Acetaminophen is a safer alternative for reducing fever in children with chickenpox.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The nurse is teaching about self-injection of insulin. Which statement is true regarding injection sites?
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Avoid the abdomen because absorption there is irregular
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Choose a different site once a year for each injection
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Rotate sites within the same location for about a week before rotating to a new location
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Give the injection in the same area
Correct Answer
A. Rotate sites within the same location for about a week before rotating to a new locationExplanation
The correct answer is to rotate sites within the same location for about a week before rotating to a new location. This is because repeatedly injecting insulin into the same area can lead to lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by the loss of fat tissue in the injection site. By rotating injection sites within the same location, the nurse can minimize the risk of developing lipodystrophy and ensure that the insulin is being absorbed properly.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A patient has been treated with antiparkinson medication for three months. What therapeutic responses should the nurse look for when assessing this patient?
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Newly developed dyskinesias
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Gradual development of cogwheel rigidity
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Improved ability to perform activities of daily living
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Decreased appetite
Correct Answer
A. Improved ability to perform activities of daily livingExplanation
The nurse should look for an improved ability to perform activities of daily living in a patient who has been treated with antiparkinson medication for three months. This is because antiparkinson medication helps to alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, which can significantly impact a patient's ability to carry out daily activities. Therefore, an improvement in the patient's ability to perform these activities indicates a positive therapeutic response to the medication.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The patient is experiencing chest pain and need to take sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet?
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On top of the tongue
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At the back of the throat
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In the space between the cheek and the gum
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Under the tongue
Correct Answer
A. Under the tongueExplanation
The nurse instructs the patient to place the sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue. This is because the sublingual route allows for rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream through the rich supply of blood vessels under the tongue. Placing the tablet under the tongue ensures that the medication is not swallowed and bypasses the digestive system, allowing for quicker relief of chest pain.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) has been taking antituberculor drugs for 1 week calls the clinic and is very upset. He says, “My urine is dark orange! What’s wrong with me?” Which response by the nurse is correct?
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This is an expected side effect of the medicine. Let’s review what to expect.”
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It’s possible that the TB is worse. Please come in to the clinic to be checked”
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This is not what we usually see with these drugs. Please come in to the clinic to be checked
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“You will need to stop the medication, and it will all go away”
Correct Answer
A. This is an expected side effect of the medicine. Let’s review what to expect.”Explanation
The correct answer explains that the dark orange urine is an expected side effect of the medication used to treat tuberculosis. The nurse reassures the patient that this is a normal reaction and suggests reviewing the expected side effects to provide the patient with more information and alleviate their concerns.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A 79 year old patient is taking a diuretic for treatment of hypertension. This patient is very independent and ants to continue to live at home. The nurse will know that which teaching point is important for this patient?
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He should take this diuretic with his evening meal
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He should skip the diuretic dose if he plans to leave his home.
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He needs to take extra precautions while standing up because of possible orthostatic hypotension and resulting injury from falls.
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If he feel dizzy while on this medication he needs to stop taking this medication and take potassium supplements instead.
Correct Answer
A. He needs to take extra precautions while standing up because of possible orthostatic hypotension and resulting injury from falls.Explanation
The correct answer emphasizes the importance of taking extra precautions while standing up due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension, which is a common side effect of diuretic medication. Orthostatic hypotension can cause dizziness and increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in elderly patients. This teaching point is important for the patient's safety and well-being while living independently at home.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A patient who has a history of coronary artery disease has been instructed to take one 81-mg aspirin tablet a day. The nurse is aware that the purpose of this dose of aspirin is to
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Reduce anxiety
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Reduce inflammation
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Relieve pain
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Prevent thrombus formation
Correct Answer
A. Prevent thrombus formationExplanation
The purpose of taking one 81-mg aspirin tablet a day for a patient with a history of coronary artery disease is to prevent thrombus formation. Aspirin is a blood thinner that helps to inhibit the formation of blood clots, which can block blood flow in the coronary arteries and lead to heart attacks. By taking aspirin regularly, the patient can reduce the risk of clot formation and potentially prevent further cardiovascular complications.Rate this question:
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- 11.
When teaching a patient about taking a newly prescribed antiepileptic drug (AED) at home, the nurse will include which instruction?
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”if seizures recur, take a double dose of the medication.”
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”regular, consistent dosing is important for successful treatment.”
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”driving is allowed after two weeks of therapy.”
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“antacids can be taken with the AED to reduce gastrointestinal adverse effects.”
Correct Answer
A. ”regular, consistent dosing is important for successful treatment.”Explanation
The correct answer is "regular, consistent dosing is important for successful treatment." This instruction is important because antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) work best when taken consistently and at the prescribed dosage. Skipping doses or taking double doses can lead to ineffective treatment and increased risk of seizures. It is crucial for patients to understand the importance of adhering to their medication schedule to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which action is most appropriate regarding the nurse’s administration of a rapid-acting insulin to a hospitalized patient?
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Give it after the meal has been completed
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Give it within 15 minutes of a meal
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Administer it once daily at the time of the midday meal
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Administer it with a snack before bedtime
Correct Answer
A. Give it within 15 minutes of a mealExplanation
Rapid-acting insulin is designed to be taken shortly before or after a meal to help control blood sugar levels. Giving it within 15 minutes of a meal ensures that the insulin is available to help metabolize the carbohydrates from the meal, preventing a spike in blood sugar levels. This timing allows for better glycemic control and reduces the risk of hypoglycemia.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking colchinine for the treatment of gout. Which instruction will the nurse include during the teaching session?
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"take colchinine with heavy meals.”
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"You must remain NPO while on colchinine therapy.”
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"the drug will be discontinued immediately when symptoms are reduced.”
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"call your doctor if you have increased pain or blood in the urine.”
Correct Answer
A. "call your doctor if you have increased pain or blood in the urine.”Explanation
The nurse will include the instruction to "call your doctor if you have increased pain or blood in the urine" during the teaching session for a patient taking colchicine for the treatment of gout. This is because colchicine can cause side effects such as increased pain or blood in the urine, which may indicate a serious adverse reaction. It is important for the patient to be aware of these potential side effects and to contact their doctor if they experience them.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A patient has been treated for lung cancer for 3 years. Over the past few months, the patient has noticed that the opioid analgesic is not helping as much as it had previously and more medication is needed for the same pain relief. The nurse is aware that this patient is experiencing opioid
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Toxicity
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Addiction
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Tolerance
Correct Answer
A. ToleranceExplanation
The patient's increased need for more medication to achieve the same pain relief suggests that they are developing tolerance to the opioid analgesic. Tolerance occurs when the body becomes less responsive to a drug over time, requiring higher doses to achieve the same effect. This is different from addiction, which involves a psychological dependence on the drug, and toxicity, which refers to harmful effects of the drug on the body. In this case, the patient's increased need for medication indicates that their body has adapted to the drug, leading to the development of tolerance.Rate this question:
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- 15.
When educating a patient recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids, the nurse will discuss which potential adverse effects?
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Anxiety and palpitations
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Oral candidiasis and dry mouth
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Headache and rapid rate
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Fatigue and depression
Correct Answer
A. Oral candidiasis and dry mouthExplanation
When educating a patient recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids, the nurse will discuss the potential adverse effects of oral candidiasis and dry mouth. Inhaled corticosteroids can increase the risk of developing oral candidiasis, which is a fungal infection in the mouth. Dry mouth is also a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. These adverse effects can be managed and minimized with proper oral hygiene and the use of a spacer device while using the inhaler. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about these potential adverse effects and how to prevent or manage them.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A patient is being discharged to home on a single daily dose of a diuretic. The nurse instructs the patient to take the dose at which time so it will be least disruptive to the patient’s routine?
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With supper
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In the morning
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At bedtime
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At noon
Correct Answer
A. In the morningExplanation
Taking the diuretic in the morning would be the least disruptive to the patient's routine. This is because diuretics increase urine production, which can lead to increased frequency of urination. By taking the medication in the morning, the patient will have the opportunity to empty their bladder throughout the day, minimizing the need for frequent trips to the bathroom during the night. This allows the patient to have a more restful sleep and maintain their usual routine without interruptions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A 16 year-old who is taking somatropin comes into the office because he had an asthma attack during a race at school. Because of this new development, the nurse expects which intervention to occur next?
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The somatropin must be discontinued immediately
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He will need to stop participating in school physical education classes
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His growth will be documented monitored for changes.
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The somatropin dosage may be adjusted
Correct Answer
A. The somatropin dosage may be adjustedExplanation
The correct answer is "The somatropin dosage may be adjusted." This is because the patient experienced an asthma attack during a race, which could be a potential side effect of somatropin. Adjusting the dosage may help to alleviate this side effect and ensure the patient's safety.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and type 2 diabetes has been treated for pneumonia for the past week. The patient has been receiving intravenous corticosteroids as well as antiiotics as part of his therapy. At this time, the pneumonia has resolved, but when monitoring the blood glucose levels, the nurse notices that the level is still elevated. What is the best explanation of this elevation?
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The antibiotics may cause a major increase in glucose levels
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The corticosteroids may cause an increase in glucose levels
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His type 2 diabetes has converted totype 1
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The hypoxia caused by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease causes an increased need for insulin.
Correct Answer
A. The corticosteroids may cause an increase in glucose levelsExplanation
The use of corticosteroids as part of the patient's therapy can lead to an increase in glucose levels. Corticosteroids have been known to cause insulin resistance, which can result in elevated blood glucose levels. This is especially significant in patients with type 2 diabetes, as they already have impaired insulin function. Therefore, it is likely that the corticosteroids are contributing to the persistent elevation in blood glucose levels despite the resolution of pneumonia.Rate this question:
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- 19.
During assessment of a patient with osteoarthritis pain, the nurse knows that which condition is a contraindication to the use of NSAIDs?
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Headaches
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Renal disease
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Diabetes mellitus
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Option 4
Correct Answer
A. Renal diseaseExplanation
Renal disease is a contraindication to the use of NSAIDs in patients with osteoarthritis pain. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity and worsen renal function in patients with pre-existing renal disease. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to be aware of the patient's renal function before administering NSAIDs to ensure patient safety and prevent further damage to the kidneys.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The nurse administers medications by various routes of delivery. The nurse recognizes which route of administration as requiring higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect?
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Intravenous route
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Oral route
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Rectal route
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Sublingual route
Correct Answer
A. Oral routeExplanation
The oral route of administration requires higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect. This is because oral medications must pass through the digestive system before being absorbed into the bloodstream, which can result in a significant amount of the drug being metabolized or excreted before reaching its target site. In contrast, medications administered intravenously bypass the digestive system and are delivered directly into the bloodstream, allowing for more efficient and immediate absorption, and therefore requiring lower dosages.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The patient is experiencing chest pain and need to take sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet?
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Under the tongue
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On top of the tongue
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At the back of the throat
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In the space between the cheek and the gum
Correct Answer
A. Under the tongueExplanation
The nurse instructs the patient to place the tablet under the tongue because sublingual medications are absorbed through the mucous membranes under the tongue. Placing the tablet on top of the tongue, at the back of the throat, or in the space between the cheek and the gum would not allow for proper absorption of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The client asks the nurse why there aren’t better drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection when so much money is spent on research. What is the best response by the nurse?
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“Developing new drugs is so difficult because people think acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a gay disease”
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“Developing new drugs is difficult because we still do not understand the virus.”
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“Developing new drugs is difficult because the virus mutates so readily”
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“Developing new drugs is difficult because we still do not have enough money.”
Correct Answer
A. “Developing new drugs is difficult because the virus mutates so readily”Explanation
The best response by the nurse is "Developing new drugs is difficult because the virus mutates so readily." This explanation is accurate because HIV is a highly mutable virus, meaning it can change and adapt to its environment quickly. This makes it challenging to develop effective drugs that can target and eliminate the virus. The constant mutation of the virus allows it to develop resistance to medications, making it difficult to find a cure or develop new drugs that can effectively combat HIV.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A pituitary drug is prescribed for a patient with a hormone deficiency, and the nurse provides instructions about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further instruction?
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”I am looking forward to a cure for my condition with this hormone replacement.”
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"I will have to stop drinking my nighty glass of wine.”
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"I will call my doctor if I have a fever or sore throat.”
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"I will not stop the drug unless my doctor tells me to stop it.”
Correct Answer
A. ”I am looking forward to a cure for my condition with this hormone replacement.”Explanation
The patient's statement indicates a need for further instruction because hormone replacement therapy does not cure hormone deficiencies. It only provides the necessary hormones that the body is lacking. The patient should be informed that the medication will help manage their condition, but it will not completely cure it.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A patient, newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism, has received a prescription for thyroid replacement therapy. The nurse will instruct the patient to take this medication at which time of day?
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With the evening meal
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With the noon meal
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At bedtime
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In the morning
Correct Answer
A. In the morningExplanation
The nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication in the morning because thyroid replacement therapy is typically taken on an empty stomach. Taking the medication in the morning ensures that the patient has not eaten for several hours, allowing for optimal absorption of the medication. Additionally, taking the medication in the morning helps to mimic the body's natural production of thyroid hormone, which is highest in the morning.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When teaching about hypoglycemia, the nurse will make sure that the patient is aware of the early signs of hypoglycemia, including
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Nausea and diarrhea
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Hypothermia and seizures
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fruity, acetone odor to the breath
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Confusion and sweating
Correct Answer
A. Confusion and sweatingExplanation
The nurse will make sure that the patient is aware of the early signs of hypoglycemia, which include confusion and sweating. These symptoms occur when the blood sugar levels drop too low and the brain does not receive enough glucose to function properly. Confusion can range from mild disorientation to severe mental impairment, and sweating is a common response to low blood sugar levels. By educating the patient about these early signs, the nurse can help them recognize and address hypoglycemia promptly.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A patient in the emergency department was showing signs of hypoglycemia and had a fingerstick glucose level of 34mg/dL. The patient has just become unconscious. What is the nurse’s next action?
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Have the patient eat glucose tablets
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Have the patient consume fruit juice, a nondiet soft drink, or crackers
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Administer intravenous glucose (50% dextrose)
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Call the lab toorder a fasting blood glucose level
Correct Answer
A. Administer intravenous glucose (50% dextrose)Explanation
The nurse's next action should be to administer intravenous glucose (50% dextrose). This is because the patient is showing signs of hypoglycemia and has become unconscious, indicating a severe drop in blood sugar levels. Administering intravenous glucose is the fastest and most effective way to raise the patient's blood sugar levels and treat the hypoglycemia.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A 78 year-old patient is in the recovery room after having a lengthy surgery on his hip. As he is gradually awakening, he requests pain medication. Within 10 minutes after receiving a dose of morphine sulfate, he is very lethargic and his respirations shallow, with a rate of 7 per minute. The nurse prepares for which priority action at this time?
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Administration of naloxone (Narcan)
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Immediate intubation and artificial ventilation
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Assessment of the patient’s pain level
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Close observation of signs of opioid tolerance
Correct Answer
A. Administration of naloxone (Narcan)Explanation
The patient's symptoms, including lethargy and shallow respirations, indicate that he may be experiencing opioid overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioids and can quickly restore normal breathing and consciousness. Therefore, the priority action at this time would be to administer naloxone to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, which of these assessment measures would best reflect the patient’s fluid volume status?
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Serum potassium and sodium levels
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Blood pressure and pulse
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Measurement of abdominal girth and calf circumference
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Intake, output, and daily weight.
Correct Answer
A. Intake, output, and daily weight.Explanation
When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, monitoring intake, output, and daily weight would best reflect the patient's fluid volume status. Diuretics increase urine production, leading to increased fluid loss. Monitoring intake and output provides information about the patient's fluid balance, while daily weight measurements can indicate changes in fluid volume. Serum potassium and sodium levels may be affected by diuretic therapy, but they do not directly reflect fluid volume status. Blood pressure and pulse can provide information about cardiovascular function but may not specifically indicate fluid volume status. Measurement of abdominal girth and calf circumference may be useful in assessing for fluid accumulation, but they do not provide a comprehensive assessment of fluid volume status.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A patient who has received some traumatic news is panicking and asks for some medication to help settle down. The nurse anticipates which drug that is most appropriate for this situation?
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Zolpidem (Ambien)
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Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
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Phenobarbital
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Diazepam (Valium)
Correct Answer
A. Diazepam (Valium)Explanation
In this situation, the patient is experiencing panic due to receiving traumatic news. Diazepam (Valium) is a benzodiazepine medication that is commonly used to treat anxiety and panic disorders. It works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, which helps to calm the brain and reduce anxiety. Therefore, diazepam would be the most appropriate drug to help settle down the patient in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The nurse has given medication instructions to a patient receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement by the patient has an adequate understanding?
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"I will need to take extra care of my teeth and gums while on this medications.”
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"I will need to check my BP before taking this medication"
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"I will not take this medication if I feel better."
Correct Answer
A. "I will need to take extra care of my teeth and gums while on this medications.”Explanation
Phenytoin (Dilantin) is an antiepileptic medication that can cause gum overgrowth and dental problems as a side effect. Therefore, it is important for the patient to take extra care of their teeth and gums while on this medication to prevent any oral health issues. This statement shows that the patient understands the potential side effects and is willing to take the necessary precautions.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Discharge planning for the client prescribed tetracycline will include which of the following?
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Do not take the medication with milk.
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Take the mediction with iron supplements
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Take the medication with antacids
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Decrease the amount of vitamins
Correct Answer
A. Do not take the medication with milk.Explanation
Tetracycline should not be taken with milk because calcium in milk can bind to tetracycline and reduce its absorption in the body. This can decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid taking tetracycline with milk.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A 19 year-old woman has been diagnosed with primary hyperthyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid). After 6 months, she calls the nurse to say that she feels better and wants to stop the medication. Which response by the nurse is correct?
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"Medication therapy for hypothyroidism is usually lifelong, and you should not stop taking the medication”
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"You can stop the medication if your symptoms have improved.”
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"You need to stay on the medication for at least 1 year before a decision about stopping it can be made”
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"You need to stay on this medication until you become pregnant.”
Correct Answer
A. "Medication therapy for hypothyroidism is usually lifelong, and you should not stop taking the medication”Explanation
The correct answer is "Medication therapy for hypothyroidism is usually lifelong, and you should not stop taking the medication." This response is correct because primary hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, resulting in hyperthyroidism. Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism, which is the opposite condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The woman in the scenario is feeling better because the medication is effectively replacing the deficient thyroid hormone. However, stopping the medication can lead to a recurrence of hypothyroidism symptoms. Therefore, lifelong medication therapy is typically necessary to maintain thyroid hormone levels and prevent the symptoms from returning.Rate this question:
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- 33.
During a teaching session for a patient on antithyroid drugs, the nurse will discuss which dietary instructions?
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Using iodized salt when cooking
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Restricting fluid intake to 5000ml per day
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Avoiding foods containing iodine
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Increasing intake of sodium – and potassium-containing foods
Correct Answer
A. Avoiding foods containing iodineExplanation
Patients on antithyroid drugs are usually prescribed these medications to treat hyperthyroidism, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. Iodine is essential for the production of thyroid hormones, so avoiding foods that contain iodine helps to reduce the production of these hormones. Therefore, the nurse will discuss with the patient the importance of avoiding foods containing iodine to effectively manage their condition.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A 57 year-old woman being treated for end-stage breast cancer has been using a transdermal opioid analgesic as part of the management of pain. Lately, she has been experiencing breakthrough pain. The nurse expects this type of pain to be managed by
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Changing the opioid route to the rectal route
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Not changing the current therapy
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Administering an immediate-release opioid
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Administering NSAIDs
Correct Answer
A. Administering an immediate-release opioidExplanation
The nurse expects the breakthrough pain to be managed by administering an immediate-release opioid because immediate-release opioids provide quick relief for acute pain. Since the patient is already using a transdermal opioid analgesic, which is a long-acting opioid, it is likely that the breakthrough pain is not effectively controlled by the current therapy. Switching to an immediate-release opioid can provide faster relief when the patient experiences breakthrough pain episodes. Changing the opioid route to the rectal route or administering NSAIDs may not be as effective in providing immediate relief for breakthrough pain.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A patient is taking flurazepam (Dalmane) 3 to 4 nights a week for sleeplessness. She is concerned that she cannot get to sleep without taking the medication. What nonpharmalogic measuresshould the nurse suggest to promote sleep for this patient?
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Drinking hot tea or coffee just before bedtime
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Consuming heavy meals in the evening to promote sleepiness
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Providing a quiet environment
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Exercising before bedtime to become tired
Correct Answer
A. Providing a quiet environmentExplanation
The nurse should suggest providing a quiet environment to promote sleep for this patient. A quiet environment can help create a peaceful and relaxing atmosphere, which is conducive to sleep. It can minimize distractions and disturbances that may interfere with falling asleep and staying asleep.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A client has been prescribed oseltamivir (Tamiflu) after complaining of influenza-like symptoms. That information should the nurse provide for this client?
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Get this prescription filled and begin taking the medication immediately
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This medication is given by inhalation
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The medication will be helpful if you have influenza or a cold
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Option 4
Correct Answer
A. Get this prescription filled and begin taking the medication immediatelyExplanation
The nurse should provide the client with the information to get the prescription filled and begin taking the medication immediately. This indicates that the medication is necessary and should be started as soon as possible to help alleviate the symptoms of influenza.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When monitoring a patient’s response to oral antidiabetic drugs, the nurse knows that which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic response?
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Random blood glucose level above 170mg/dL
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Fasting blood glucose level between 70 and 110mg/dL
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Blood glucose level of less than 50mg/dL after meals
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Evening blood glucose level below 80mg/dL
Correct Answer
A. Fasting blood glucose level between 70 and 110mg/dLExplanation
A fasting blood glucose level between 70 and 110mg/dL would indicate a therapeutic response to oral antidiabetic drugs. This range suggests that the medication is effectively controlling the patient's blood glucose levels and maintaining them within the normal range. A random blood glucose level above 170mg/dL indicates poor control of blood sugar, while a blood glucose level of less than 50mg/dL after meals indicates hypoglycemia. An evening blood glucose level below 80mg/dL may also indicate hypoglycemia.Rate this question:
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- 38.
After starting treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus 6 months earlier, a patient is in the office for a follow-up examination. The nurse will monitor which laboratory test to evaluate the patient’s adherence to the anti-diabetic therapy over the past few months?
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Hemoglobin A1C level
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Hemoglobin levels
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Fingerstick fasting blood glucose level
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Serum insulin levels
Correct Answer
A. Hemoglobin A1C levelExplanation
The nurse will monitor the patient's hemoglobin A1C level to evaluate their adherence to anti-diabetic therapy over the past few months. Hemoglobin A1C is a blood test that provides an average of the patient's blood sugar levels over a period of 2-3 months. It reflects the effectiveness of diabetes management and treatment. By monitoring the hemoglobin A1C level, the nurse can assess whether the patient's blood sugar levels have been consistently controlled within the target range, indicating adherence to the anti-diabetic therapy.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The nurse is reviewing herbal therapies. Which is a common use of the herb feverfew?
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Leg cramps
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Not changing the current therapy
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Migraine headaches
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Muscle aches
Correct Answer
A. Migraine headachesExplanation
Feverfew is commonly used to treat migraine headaches.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A patient receiving gabapentin (Neurotin), an anticonvulsant, but has no history of seizures. The nurse expects that the patient is receiving this drug for which condition?
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Inflammation pain
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Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy
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Prevention of seizures
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Depression associated with chronic pain
Correct Answer
A. Pain associated with peripheral neuropathyExplanation
Gabapentin (Neurotin) is commonly used to treat pain associated with peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy refers to damage or dysfunction of the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord, often resulting in pain, tingling, or numbness in the extremities. While gabapentin is also used for other conditions such as prevention of seizures and depression associated with chronic pain, the absence of a history of seizures suggests that the primary reason for prescribing gabapentin in this case is to alleviate the pain caused by peripheral neuropathy.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy?
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Glaucoma
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Hepatic impairment
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Heart failure
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Anemia
Correct Answer
A. Hepatic impairmentExplanation
The nurse will assess the patient for potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy, specifically hepatic impairment. Hepatic impairment refers to a condition where the liver is not functioning properly. Antitubercular medications are metabolized in the liver, and if the liver is impaired, it may not be able to properly process these medications, leading to potential toxicity or adverse effects. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to assess the patient for any signs or symptoms of hepatic impairment before initiating antitubercular therapy.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When teaching a patient who is starting metformin(Glucophage), which instruction by the nurse is correct?
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"Take this two hours after breakfast.”
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"Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal effects.”
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"Take this medication on an empty stomach 6 hours before meals.”
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"Take metformin if your blood glucose level is above 200mg/dl.”
Correct Answer
A. "Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal effects.”Explanation
Taking metformin with food is the correct instruction because it helps to reduce gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, diarrhea, and stomach upset. By taking the medication with food, the absorption of metformin is slowed down, which can help to minimize these side effects.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The nurse is administering adrenal drugs to a patient. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for this patient?
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Rinsing the oral cavity after using corticosteroid inhalers
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Administering the corticosteroids before bedtime to minimize adrenal suppression
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Discontinuing the medication immediately if weight gain of 5 pounds or more in 1 week occurs
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Administering oral drugs on an empty stomach to maximize absorption
Correct Answer
A. Rinsing the oral cavity after using corticosteroid inhalersExplanation
Rinsing the oral cavity after using corticosteroid inhalers is appropriate because it helps to prevent the development of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Rinsing the mouth helps to remove any residual medication that may be left in the mouth, reducing the risk of fungal infection.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A patient has a 9 year-old history of a seizure disorder that has been managed well with oral phenytoin (Dilantin) therapy. He is to be NPO for surgery in the morning. What will the nurse do about his morning dose of phenytoin?
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Give the same dose intravenously
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Contact the prescriber for another dosage form of the medication
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Give the morning dose with a small dip of water
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Notify the operating room that the medication has been withheld.
Correct Answer
A. Contact the prescriber for another dosage form of the medicationExplanation
The nurse should contact the prescriber for another dosage form of the medication because the patient is NPO and cannot take the oral form of phenytoin. The nurse should discuss alternative options, such as intravenous administration or a different medication, with the prescriber to ensure that the patient's seizure disorder is properly managed during the perioperative period.Rate this question:
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- 45.
When a patient is taking an anticholinergic such as benztropine (Congentin) as part of the treatment from Parkinson’s disease, the nurse should include which information in the teaching plan?
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Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption
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Use artificial saliva, sugarless gum, or hard candy to counteract dry mouth
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Minimize the amount of fluid taken while on this drug
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Discontinue the medication if adverse effects occur
Correct Answer
A. Use artificial saliva, sugarless gum, or hard candy to counteract dry mouthExplanation
When taking an anticholinergic medication like benztropine (Congentin) for Parkinson's disease, it is important for the nurse to include information about managing the common side effect of dry mouth. This can be done by using artificial saliva, sugarless gum, or hard candy to stimulate saliva production and alleviate dryness. This information will help the patient maintain oral health and comfort while on the medication.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A patient taking entacapone (Comtan) for the first time calls the clinic to report a dark discoloration of his urine. After listening to the patient, the nurse realizes that what is happening in this situation?
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This is a harmless effect of the drug
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The patient is having an allergic reaction to the drug
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This patient has taken this drug along with red wine or cheese
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The ordered dose is too high for this patient
Correct Answer
A. This is a harmless effect of the drugExplanation
The dark discoloration of urine is a known side effect of entacapone (Comtan). It is not indicative of an allergic reaction or an incorrect dosage. Additionally, the mention of red wine or cheese is unrelated to the discoloration. Therefore, the most likely explanation is that the dark urine is a harmless effect of the drug.Rate this question:
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- 47.
When treating patients with medications for Parkinson’s disease, the nurse knows that the wearing-off phenomenom occurs for which reason?
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The patient’s liver is no longer able to metabolize the drug.
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There are rapid swings in the patient’s response
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The patient cannot tolerate the medications at times
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The medications begin to lose effectiveness against Parkinson’s disease
Correct Answer
A. The medications begin to lose effectiveness against Parkinson’s diseaseExplanation
The wearing-off phenomenon occurs when the medications used to treat Parkinson's disease start to lose their effectiveness. This means that over time, the drugs become less able to control the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, resulting in a decrease in their therapeutic effects. This phenomenon can lead to a worsening of symptoms and the need for adjustments in the medication regimen to maintain symptom control. It is important for the nurse to be aware of this phenomenon and work closely with the healthcare team to manage the patient's medications effectively.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The nurse informs the patient that the drug most likely to be ordered for the client with herpes simplex virus is which of the following ?
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Acyclovir (Zovirax)
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Zidovudine (Retrovir)
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Nystatin ( Fungizone)
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Methonidazole (Flagyl)
Correct Answer
A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)Explanation
Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the correct answer because it is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, reducing the severity and duration of outbreaks. Zidovudine (Retrovir) is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV, not herpes simplex virus. Nystatin (Fungizone) is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections, not herpes simplex virus. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial and parasitic infections, not herpes simplex virus.Rate this question:
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- 49.
During a blood transfusion, the patient begins to have chills and back pain. What is the nurse’s priority actions?
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Slow the infusion rate
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Observe for other symptoms
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Tell the patient that these symptoms are a normal reaction to the blood product
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Discontinue the infusion immediately, and notify the prescriber
Correct Answer
A. Discontinue the infusion immediately, and notify the prescriberExplanation
The correct answer is to discontinue the infusion immediately and notify the prescriber. This is because the patient experiencing chills and back pain during a blood transfusion may be showing signs of a transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening. Discontinuing the infusion and notifying the prescriber allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate management of the situation to ensure patient safety.Rate this question:
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Oct 01, 2024Quiz Edited by
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May 04, 2014Quiz Created by
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