Am I A Good Pharmacologist? Quiz
Want to be a pharmacologist? Well, it is a profession of great responsibility, you have to be on your toes all the time because you will be dealing with different types of drugs and medications administering their effects on living bodies.
Do you want to know 'Am I A Good Pharmacologist?'? Take this quiz to find out.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The nurse administers medications by various routes of delivery. The nurse recognizes which route of administration as requiring higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect?
- A.
Intravenous route
- B.
Oral route
- C.
Rectal route
- D.
Sublingual route
Correct Answer
B. Oral routeExplanation
The oral route of administration requires higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect. This is because oral medications must pass through the digestive system before being absorbed into the bloodstream, which can result in a significant amount of the drug being metabolized or excreted before reaching its target site. In contrast, medications administered intravenously bypass the digestive system and are delivered directly into the bloodstream, allowing for more efficient and immediate absorption, and therefore requiring lower dosages.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The patient is experiencing chest pain and need to take sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet?
- A.
Under the tongue
- B.
On top of the tongue
- C.
At the back of the throat
- D.
In the space between the cheek and the gum
Correct Answer
A. Under the tongueExplanation
The nurse instructs the patient to place the tablet under the tongue because sublingual medications are absorbed through the mucous membranes under the tongue. Placing the tablet on top of the tongue, at the back of the throat, or in the space between the cheek and the gum would not allow for proper absorption of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The nurse administers medications by various routes of delivery. The nurse recognizes which route of administration as requiring higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect?
- A.
Intravenous Route
- B.
Rectal route
- C.
Oral route
- D.
Sublingual route
Correct Answer
C. Oral routeExplanation
The oral route of administration requires higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect compared to other routes. This is because when a drug is taken orally, it has to pass through the digestive system before being absorbed into the bloodstream. This process, known as first-pass metabolism, can lead to a significant reduction in the drug's bioavailability. To compensate for this, higher doses are typically needed to ensure that enough of the drug reaches the target site in the body to produce the desired therapeutic effect.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The patient is experiencing chest pain and need to take sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet?
- A.
On top of the tongue
- B.
At the back of the throat
- C.
In the space between the cheek and the gum
- D.
Under the tongue
Correct Answer
D. Under the tongueExplanation
The nurse instructs the patient to place the sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue. This is because the sublingual route allows for rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream through the rich supply of blood vessels under the tongue. Placing the tablet under the tongue ensures that the medication is not swallowed and bypasses the digestive system, allowing for quicker relief of chest pain.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The patient is complaining of a headache and asks the nurse which over-the-counter medication form would work the fastest to help reduce the pain. Which medication form will the nurse suggest ?
- A.
A capsule
- B.
A powder
- C.
A tablet
- D.
A enteric-coated tablet
Correct Answer
B. A powderExplanation
The nurse would suggest a powder as the fastest medication form to help reduce the pain of a headache. Powders are typically dissolved in liquid before consumption, which allows for faster absorption into the bloodstream compared to other forms such as capsules or tablets. This quick absorption can lead to faster relief from pain symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The patient is asking the nurse about current U.S. laws and regulation of herbal products. According to the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994, which statement is true?
- A.
Producers of herbal products must prove therapeutic efficacy.
- B.
Herbal remedies are protected by patent laws.
- C.
Medicinal herbs are viewed as dietary supplements.
- D.
Herbal remedies are held to the same standards as drugs.
Correct Answer
C. Medicinal herbs are viewed as dietary supplements.Explanation
The correct answer is that medicinal herbs are viewed as dietary supplements. This is because the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 categorizes herbal products as dietary supplements rather than drugs. This means that they are regulated differently and do not have to prove therapeutic efficacy or meet the same standards as drugs. Additionally, herbal remedies are not protected by patent laws.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The client tells the nurse that her symptoms have become worse since she has been using oxymetazoline (Afrin) for nasal congestion. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask?
- A.
“How long have you been using the medication?”
- B.
“How old is the bottle you are using?”
- C.
“May I take your temperature?”
- D.
“Are you using any other inhaled medications?”
Correct Answer
A. “How long have you been using the medication?”Explanation
The best assessment question for the nurse to ask is "How long have you been using the medication?" This question is important to determine if the client has been using the medication for an extended period of time, as prolonged use of oxymetazoline can lead to rebound congestion and worsening of symptoms. By asking this question, the nurse can gather information about the duration of medication use and assess if it aligns with the client's worsening symptoms. This will help the nurse in identifying a possible cause for the client's worsening condition.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The client receives albuterol (Proventil) via inhaler. He asks the nurse why he can’t just take a pill. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A.
“Because this medication would produce too many side effects; you will have very few side effects with inhaled medications.
- B.
“Because this medication cannot be absorbed from your GI tract; the acid in your stomach would destroy it.”
- C.
“When you inhale the drug the blood supply in your lungs picks it up rapidly, resulting in quicker effects.”
- D.
“Because pills cannot help illness; you must have inhaled medications for relief of symptoms.”
Correct Answer
C. “When you inhale the drug the blood supply in your lungs picks it up rapidly, resulting in quicker effects.”Explanation
The best response by the nurse is "When you inhale the drug the blood supply in your lungs picks it up rapidly, resulting in quicker effects." This is because the inhaler allows the medication to directly reach the lungs, where it can be quickly absorbed into the bloodstream. This leads to faster relief of symptoms compared to taking a pill, which would need to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When educating a patient recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids, the nurse will discuss which potential adverse effects?
- A.
Anxiety and palpitations
- B.
Oral candidiasis and dry mouth
- C.
Headache and rapid rate
- D.
Fatigue and depression
Correct Answer
B. Oral candidiasis and dry mouthExplanation
When educating a patient recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids, the nurse will discuss the potential adverse effects of oral candidiasis and dry mouth. Inhaled corticosteroids can increase the risk of developing oral candidiasis, which is a fungal infection in the mouth. Dry mouth is also a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. These adverse effects can be managed and minimized with proper oral hygiene and the use of a spacer device while using the inhaler. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about these potential adverse effects and how to prevent or manage them.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Discharge planning for the client prescribed tetracycline will include which of the following?
- A.
Do not take the medication with milk.
- B.
Take the mediction with iron supplements
- C.
Take the medication with antacids
- D.
Decrease the amount of vitamins
Correct Answer
A. Do not take the medication with milk.Explanation
Tetracycline should not be taken with milk because calcium in milk can bind to tetracycline and reduce its absorption in the body. This can decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid taking tetracycline with milk.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The client asks the nurse why there aren’t better drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection when so much money is spent on research. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A.
“Developing new drugs is so difficult because people think acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a gay disease”
- B.
“Developing new drugs is difficult because we still do not understand the virus.”
- C.
“Developing new drugs is difficult because the virus mutates so readily”
- D.
“Developing new drugs is difficult because we still do not have enough money.”
Correct Answer
C. “Developing new drugs is difficult because the virus mutates so readily”Explanation
The best response by the nurse is "Developing new drugs is difficult because the virus mutates so readily." This explanation is accurate because HIV is a highly mutable virus, meaning it can change and adapt to its environment quickly. This makes it challenging to develop effective drugs that can target and eliminate the virus. The constant mutation of the virus allows it to develop resistance to medications, making it difficult to find a cure or develop new drugs that can effectively combat HIV.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The nurse informs the patient that the drug most likely to be ordered for the client with herpes simplex virus is which of the following ?
- A.
Acyclovir (Zovirax)
- B.
Zidovudine (Retrovir)
- C.
Nystatin ( Fungizone)
- D.
Methonidazole (Flagyl)
Correct Answer
A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)Explanation
Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the correct answer because it is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, reducing the severity and duration of outbreaks. Zidovudine (Retrovir) is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV, not herpes simplex virus. Nystatin (Fungizone) is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections, not herpes simplex virus. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial and parasitic infections, not herpes simplex virus.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A client has been prescribed oseltamivir (Tamiflu) after complaining of influenza-like symptoms. That information should the nurse provide for this client?
- A.
Get this prescription filled and begin taking the medication immediately
- B.
This medication is given by inhalation
- C.
The medication will be helpful if you have influenza or a cold
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. Get this prescription filled and begin taking the medication immediatelyExplanation
The nurse should provide the client with the information to get the prescription filled and begin taking the medication immediately. This indicates that the medication is necessary and should be started as soon as possible to help alleviate the symptoms of influenza.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A patient who has started drug therapy for tuberculosis wants to know how long he will be on the medications. Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A.
“Drug therapy will last until the symptoms have stopped.”
- B.
“Drug therapy will continue until the tuberculosis develops resistance.”
- C.
“You should expect to take these drugs for as long as 24 months.”
- D.
“You will be on this drug therapy for the rest of your life.”
Correct Answer
C. “You should expect to take these drugs for as long as 24 months.”Explanation
The correct answer is "You should expect to take these drugs for as long as 24 months." This response is correct because the standard treatment for tuberculosis typically lasts for a minimum of 6 months and can extend up to 24 months, depending on the severity of the infection. It is important for the patient to complete the full course of medication to ensure the eradication of the bacteria and prevent the development of drug-resistant tuberculosis.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) has been taking antituberculor drugs for 1 week calls the clinic and is very upset. He says, “My urine is dark orange! What’s wrong with me?” Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A.
This is an expected side effect of the medicine. Let’s review what to expect.”
- B.
It’s possible that the TB is worse. Please come in to the clinic to be checked”
- C.
This is not what we usually see with these drugs. Please come in to the clinic to be checked
- D.
“You will need to stop the medication, and it will all go away”
Correct Answer
A. This is an expected side effect of the medicine. Let’s review what to expect.”Explanation
The correct answer explains that the dark orange urine is an expected side effect of the medication used to treat tuberculosis. The nurse reassures the patient that this is a normal reaction and suggests reviewing the expected side effects to provide the patient with more information and alleviate their concerns.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The nurse is discussing adverse effects of antitubercular drugs with a patient who has active tuberculosis. Which potential adverse effect of antitubercular drug therapy should the patient report to the prescriber?
- A.
Numbness and tingling of extremeties
- B.
Headache and nervousness
- C.
Reddish-orange urine and stool
- D.
Gastrointestinal upset
Correct Answer
A. Numbness and tingling of extremetiesExplanation
Numbness and tingling of extremities is a potential adverse effect of antitubercular drug therapy that should be reported to the prescriber. This could indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. It is important for the patient to inform the prescriber about this symptom so that appropriate measures can be taken to manage or adjust the medication regimen if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A patient who has been taking isoniazid (INH) has a new prescription for pyridoxine (Vit B6). She is wondering why she needs this medication. The nurse explains that pyridoxine is often given concurrently with the isoniazid to prevent which condition?
- A.
Hair loss
- B.
Renal failure
- C.
Peripheral neuropathy
- D.
Heart failure
Correct Answer
C. Peripheral neuropathyExplanation
Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) is often given concurrently with isoniazid (INH) to prevent peripheral neuropathy. INH is an antituberculosis medication that can cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect. Pyridoxine helps to prevent this by protecting the nerves from damage. Therefore, the patient needs to take pyridoxine along with INH to reduce the risk of developing peripheral neuropathy.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy?
- A.
Glaucoma
- B.
Hepatic impairment
- C.
Heart failure
- D.
Anemia
Correct Answer
B. Hepatic impairmentExplanation
The nurse will assess the patient for potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy, specifically hepatic impairment. Hepatic impairment refers to a condition where the liver is not functioning properly. Antitubercular medications are metabolized in the liver, and if the liver is impaired, it may not be able to properly process these medications, leading to potential toxicity or adverse effects. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to assess the patient for any signs or symptoms of hepatic impairment before initiating antitubercular therapy.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Furosemide (Lasix) is prescribed for a patient who is about to be discharged, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
- A.
"If you experience weight gain, such as 5 or more pounds a week, contact your prescriber"
- B.
"Take this medication in the morning"
- C.
Be sure to change positions slowly and rise slowly after sitting or lying so as to prevent dizziness and possible fainting because of blood pressure changes.”
- D.
"Avoid high potassium foods such as bananas, oranges, fresh vegetables, and dates.
Correct Answer
C. Be sure to change positions slowly and rise slowly after sitting or lying so as to prevent dizziness and possible fainting because of blood pressure changes.”Explanation
The nurse's correct statement is to advise the patient to change positions slowly and rise slowly after sitting or lying to prevent dizziness and possible fainting due to blood pressure changes. This instruction is important because furosemide is a diuretic that can cause a decrease in blood pressure, leading to orthostatic hypotension. By changing positions slowly, the patient can minimize the risk of experiencing dizziness or fainting episodes.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The nurse will monitor a patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia if the patient is taking which of these diuretics?
- A.
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
- B.
Furosemide (Lasix)
- C.
Diamox
- D.
HydroDIURIL
Correct Answer
A. Spironolactone (Aldactone)Explanation
Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to various symptoms such as muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, and numbness or tingling. Since spironolactone is specifically designed to retain potassium, it can potentially cause hyperkalemia in patients. Therefore, it is important for nurses to monitor patients taking spironolactone for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia to ensure their potassium levels remain within a safe range.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, which of these assessment measures would best reflect the patient’s fluid volume status?
- A.
Serum potassium and sodium levels
- B.
Blood pressure and pulse
- C.
Measurement of abdominal girth and calf circumference
- D.
Intake, output, and daily weight.
Correct Answer
D. Intake, output, and daily weight.Explanation
When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, monitoring intake, output, and daily weight would best reflect the patient's fluid volume status. Diuretics increase urine production, leading to increased fluid loss. Monitoring intake and output provides information about the patient's fluid balance, while daily weight measurements can indicate changes in fluid volume. Serum potassium and sodium levels may be affected by diuretic therapy, but they do not directly reflect fluid volume status. Blood pressure and pulse can provide information about cardiovascular function but may not specifically indicate fluid volume status. Measurement of abdominal girth and calf circumference may be useful in assessing for fluid accumulation, but they do not provide a comprehensive assessment of fluid volume status.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A patient in the neurologic intensive care unit is being treated for cerebral edema. Which class of diuretic is used to reduce intracranial pressure?
- A.
Thiazide diuretics
- B.
Osmotic diuretics
- C.
Loop diuretics
- D.
Vasodilators
Correct Answer
B. Osmotic diureticsExplanation
Osmotic diuretics are used to reduce intracranial pressure in patients with cerebral edema. These diuretics work by increasing the osmotic pressure in the renal tubules, causing water to be pulled from the brain tissue into the bloodstream and then excreted in the urine. This reduces the fluid volume in the brain, thereby decreasing intracranial pressure. Thiazide diuretics, loop diuretics, and vasodilators are not typically used for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A 79 year old patient is taking a diuretic for treatment of hypertension. This patient is very independent and ants to continue to live at home. The nurse will know that which teaching point is important for this patient?
- A.
He should take this diuretic with his evening meal
- B.
He should skip the diuretic dose if he plans to leave his home.
- C.
He needs to take extra precautions while standing up because of possible orthostatic hypotension and resulting injury from falls.
- D.
If he feel dizzy while on this medication he needs to stop taking this medication and take potassium supplements instead.
Correct Answer
C. He needs to take extra precautions while standing up because of possible orthostatic hypotension and resulting injury from falls.Explanation
The correct answer emphasizes the importance of taking extra precautions while standing up due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension, which is a common side effect of diuretic medication. Orthostatic hypotension can cause dizziness and increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in elderly patients. This teaching point is important for the patient's safety and well-being while living independently at home.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When reviewing the mechanisms of action of diuretics, the nurse knows that which statement is true about loop diuretics?
- A.
They are not effective when the creatinine clearance decreases below 25 mL/min
- B.
They have a rapid onset of action and cause rapid diuresis.
- C.
They work by inhibiting aldosterone
- D.
They are very potent, having a diuretic effect that lasts up to 48 hours
Correct Answer
B. They have a rapid onset of action and cause rapid diuresis.Explanation
Loop diuretics have a rapid onset of action and cause rapid diuresis. This means that they work quickly to increase urine production and decrease fluid volume in the body. They are commonly used in the management of conditions such as heart failure and edema. Loop diuretics act by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. They are considered to be very potent and have a relatively long duration of action, but the statement about their diuretic effect lasting up to 48 hours is not accurate.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A patient is being discharged to home on a single daily dose of a diuretic. The nurse instructs the patient to take the dose at which time so it will be least disruptive to the patient’s routine?
- A.
With supper
- B.
In the morning
- C.
At bedtime
- D.
At noon
Correct Answer
B. In the morningExplanation
Taking the diuretic in the morning would be the least disruptive to the patient's routine. This is because diuretics increase urine production, which can lead to increased frequency of urination. By taking the medication in the morning, the patient will have the opportunity to empty their bladder throughout the day, minimizing the need for frequent trips to the bathroom during the night. This allows the patient to have a more restful sleep and maintain their usual routine without interruptions.Rate this question:
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- 26.
During a blood transfusion, the patient begins to have chills and back pain. What is the nurse’s priority actions?
- A.
Slow the infusion rate
- B.
Observe for other symptoms
- C.
Tell the patient that these symptoms are a normal reaction to the blood product
- D.
Discontinue the infusion immediately, and notify the prescriber
Correct Answer
D. Discontinue the infusion immediately, and notify the prescriberExplanation
The correct answer is to discontinue the infusion immediately and notify the prescriber. This is because the patient experiencing chills and back pain during a blood transfusion may be showing signs of a transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening. Discontinuing the infusion and notifying the prescriber allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate management of the situation to ensure patient safety.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?
- A.
”The intravenous potassium will be diluted before we get it.”
- B.
”The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted.”
- C.
”The infusion rate should not go over 10 mEq/hour.”
- D.
”We will need to monitor this infusion closely.”
Correct Answer
B. ”The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted.”Explanation
The statement "The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted" reflects a need for further teaching because potassium should always be diluted before administration to prevent irritation and damage to the veins. Undiluted potassium can cause pain, burning, and even tissue damage at the injection site. Diluting the medication helps to ensure safe and effective administration.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When monitoring a patient for signs of hypokalemia, the nurse looks for what early sign?
- A.
Seizures
- B.
Cardiac dysrhythmias
- C.
Muscle weakness
- D.
Diarrhea
Correct Answer
C. Muscle weaknessExplanation
Muscle weakness is an early sign of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and when levels are low, it can lead to muscle weakness. Other symptoms of hypokalemia may include fatigue, constipation, and palpitations. However, muscle weakness is often one of the first signs to appear. It is important for the nurse to monitor for this symptom as it can indicate the need for potassium supplementation or other interventions to address the underlying cause of hypokalemia.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A patient is receiving an infusion of fresh frozen plasma. Based on this order, the nurse interprets that this patient has which condition?
- A.
Anemia
- B.
Coagulation disorder
- C.
Previous transfusion reaction
- D.
Hypovolemic shock
Correct Answer
B. Coagulation disorderExplanation
The nurse interprets that the patient has a coagulation disorder because fresh frozen plasma is commonly used to treat patients with clotting factor deficiencies or other bleeding disorders. This suggests that the patient's condition is related to their blood's ability to clot properly, rather than anemia, previous transfusion reaction, or hypovolemic shock.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells. Which intravenous solution is correct for use with the PRBC transfusion?
- A.
0.9% sodium chloride (NS)
- B.
5% dextrose in water (D5W)
- C.
5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride
- D.
5% dextrose inlactated Ringer’s solution
Correct Answer
A. 0.9% sodium chloride (NS)Explanation
The correct intravenous solution for use with the PRBC transfusion is 0.9% sodium chloride (NS). This is because NS is an isotonic solution, meaning it has the same osmolarity as blood and will not cause red blood cells to shrink or swell. It is the most compatible solution for transfusion, as it will not cause any adverse reactions or hemolysis of the red blood cells. Dextrose solutions, such as D5W or 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride, are not recommended for use with PRBC transfusions as they can cause red blood cell hemolysis. Lactated Ringer's solution is also not recommended for PRBC transfusion as it contains calcium, which can cause clotting and interfere with the transfusion process.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which patient would be best treated with this transfusion?
- A.
A patient with a coagulation disorder
- B.
A patient who has lost a massive amount of blood after an accident
- C.
A patient with severe anemia
- D.
A patient who has a clotting-factor deficiency
Correct Answer
C. A patient with severe anemiaExplanation
A patient with severe anemia would be best treated with a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Severe anemia is characterized by a low red blood cell count or low hemoglobin levels, leading to a decreased oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. Transfusing PRBCs can help restore the patient's red blood cell count and improve oxygen delivery to the tissues. Patients with a coagulation disorder, clotting-factor deficiency, or massive blood loss would require different treatments, such as clotting factors or fluids to replace lost blood volume.Rate this question:
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- 32.
After a severe auto accident, a patient has been taken to the trauma unit and has an estimated blood loss of more than 30% of his blood volume. The nurse prepares administer which product?
- A.
Packed red blood cells
- B.
Whole blood
- C.
Fresh Frozen Plasma
- D.
Albumin
Correct Answer
B. Whole bloodExplanation
After a severe auto accident, a patient with an estimated blood loss of more than 30% of their blood volume requires immediate blood transfusion. Whole blood is the most suitable product to administer in this situation as it contains red blood cells, plasma, platelets, and clotting factors. This helps to restore the patient's blood volume and replace the components that were lost due to the accident. Packed red blood cells, fresh frozen plasma, and albumin may be used in specific cases, but whole blood is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A patient who is severely anemic also has acute heart failure with severe edema due to fluid overload. The prescriber wants to raise the patient’s hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which blood product?
- A.
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)
- B.
Fresh frozen plasma
- C.
Albumin
- D.
Whole blood
Correct Answer
A. Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)Explanation
In this scenario, the patient is severely anemic and also has acute heart failure with severe edema due to fluid overload. Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) would be the most appropriate blood product to raise the patient's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. PRBCs contain a concentrated amount of red blood cells, which can help increase the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and improve their anemia. Fresh frozen plasma contains clotting factors and is typically used to treat bleeding disorders or coagulation deficiencies, which are not the primary concerns in this case. Albumin is a protein solution that can help increase blood volume, but it does not directly address the anemia. Whole blood is a less common option and is usually reserved for specific situations where multiple blood components are needed.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The nurse notes in a patient’s medication history that the patient has been taking desmopressin (DDVAP). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
- A.
Carcinoid tumor
- B.
Adrenocortical insuffieciency
- C.
Diabetes insipidus
- D.
Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer
C. Diabetes insipidusExplanation
Based on the patient taking desmopressin (DDVAP), the nurse can interpret that the patient has diabetes insipidus. Desmopressin is a medication commonly used to treat diabetes insipidus, a disorder characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to inadequate production or response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This medication helps to decrease urine output and increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby alleviating the symptoms of diabetes insipidus.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A 16 year-old who is taking somatropin comes into the office because he had an asthma attack during a race at school. Because of this new development, the nurse expects which intervention to occur next?
- A.
The somatropin must be discontinued immediately
- B.
He will need to stop participating in school physical education classes
- C.
His growth will be documented monitored for changes.
- D.
The somatropin dosage may be adjusted
Correct Answer
D. The somatropin dosage may be adjustedExplanation
The correct answer is "The somatropin dosage may be adjusted." This is because the patient experienced an asthma attack during a race, which could be a potential side effect of somatropin. Adjusting the dosage may help to alleviate this side effect and ensure the patient's safety.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A pituitary drug is prescribed for a patient with a hormone deficiency, and the nurse provides instructions about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further instruction?
- A.
”I am looking forward to a cure for my condition with this hormone replacement.”
- B.
"I will have to stop drinking my nighty glass of wine.”
- C.
"I will call my doctor if I have a fever or sore throat.”
- D.
"I will not stop the drug unless my doctor tells me to stop it.”
Correct Answer
A. ”I am looking forward to a cure for my condition with this hormone replacement.”Explanation
The patient's statement indicates a need for further instruction because hormone replacement therapy does not cure hormone deficiencies. It only provides the necessary hormones that the body is lacking. The patient should be informed that the medication will help manage their condition, but it will not completely cure it.Rate this question:
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- 37.
An 8 year-old child has been diagnosed with true pituitary dwarfism and is being treated with somatropin. In follow-up visits, the nurse will monitor for which expected outcome?
- A.
Increased muscle strength
- B.
Increased growth
- C.
Increased height when the child reaches puberty
- D.
Decreased urinary output
Correct Answer
B. Increased growthExplanation
The nurse will monitor for increased growth as the expected outcome in a child being treated with somatropin for true pituitary dwarfism. Somatropin is a synthetic growth hormone that helps stimulate growth in children with growth hormone deficiency. By monitoring the child's growth, the nurse can assess the effectiveness of the treatment and ensure that the child is responding positively to the medication. Increased muscle strength and increased height when the child reaches puberty may also be potential outcomes, but the primary focus is on monitoring for increased growth. Decreased urinary output is not directly related to the treatment for pituitary dwarfism and is therefore not the expected outcome.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A patient’s medication order indicates that he is to receive dose of cosyntropin (Cortrosyn). The nurse is aware that this drug is used to diagnose which condition?
- A.
Diabetes insipidus
- B.
Pituitary dwarfism
- C.
Adrenocortical suffiency
- D.
Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer
C. Adrenocortical suffiencyExplanation
Cosyntropin (Cortrosyn) is a synthetic form of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. Therefore, it is used to diagnose adrenocortical sufficiency, also known as adrenal insufficiency or Addison's disease. This condition occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and low blood pressure. By administering cosyntropin and measuring cortisol levels, healthcare providers can determine if the adrenal glands are functioning properly.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Vasopressin is used in the treatment of
- A.
Diabetes insipidus
- B.
Dehydration
- C.
Electrolyte imbalances
- D.
Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer
A. Diabetes insipidusExplanation
Vasopressin is used in the treatment of diabetes insipidus because it helps to regulate water balance in the body. Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to the inability of the body to properly regulate water levels. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone, helps to reduce urine production and increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby alleviating the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. It is not used in the treatment of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, or diabetes mellitus.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A 19 year-old student was diagnosed with hypothyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid). After 1 week, she called the clinic to report that she does not feel better. Which response from the nurse is correct?
- A.
"The full therapeutic effects may not occur for 3 to 4 weeks.”
- B.
”It will probably require surgery for a cure to happen.”
Correct Answer
A. "The full therapeutic effects may not occur for 3 to 4 weeks.”Explanation
Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by replacing or supplementing the thyroid hormone in the body. However, it takes time for the medication to reach therapeutic levels and for the patient to start experiencing the full benefits. It is important for the nurse to inform the patient that it may take 3 to 4 weeks before she starts feeling better, as this is a realistic timeframe for the medication to take effect. The response about surgery is not applicable in this situation and is not a correct response.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When monitoring a patient who is taking a thyroid replacement hormone, which adverse effect needs to be reported to the prescriber?
- A.
Constipation
- B.
Constipation
- C.
Palpitations
- D.
Drowsiness
Correct Answer
C. PalpitationsExplanation
Palpitations need to be reported to the prescriber when monitoring a patient who is taking a thyroid replacement hormone. Palpitations refer to an abnormal awareness of the heartbeat, which can be a sign of an irregular or rapid heart rate. This adverse effect may indicate that the patient's thyroid hormone dosage needs adjustment or that there may be an underlying cardiac issue that needs further evaluation. Therefore, it is essential to report palpitations promptly to the prescriber for appropriate management.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A patient, newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism, has received a prescription for thyroid replacement therapy. The nurse will instruct the patient to take this medication at which time of day?
- A.
With the evening meal
- B.
With the noon meal
- C.
At bedtime
- D.
In the morning
Correct Answer
D. In the morningExplanation
The nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication in the morning because thyroid replacement therapy is typically taken on an empty stomach. Taking the medication in the morning ensures that the patient has not eaten for several hours, allowing for optimal absorption of the medication. Additionally, taking the medication in the morning helps to mimic the body's natural production of thyroid hormone, which is highest in the morning.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A patient has been taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) for more than a decade for primary hypothyroidism. Today she calls because she has a cousin who can get her the same medication in a generic form from a pharmaceutical supply company. Which is the nurse’s best advice?
- A.
"This would be a great way to save money.”
- B.
“There’s no difference in brands of this medication.”
- C.
"This should never be done; once you start with a certain brand, you must stay with it.”
- D.
”It’s better not to switch brands unless we check with your doctor.”
Correct Answer
D. ”It’s better not to switch brands unless we check with your doctor.”Explanation
Switching brands of levothyroxine can have varying effects on a patient's thyroid hormone levels. Even though the active ingredient is the same, the inactive ingredients can differ between brands, which may affect how the medication is absorbed and utilized by the body. Therefore, it is important for the patient to consult with their doctor before making any changes to their medication regimen. The nurse's best advice is to not switch brands without first checking with the doctor to ensure the patient's thyroid levels remain stable.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A 19 year-old woman has been diagnosed with primary hyperthyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid). After 6 months, she calls the nurse to say that she feels better and wants to stop the medication. Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A.
"Medication therapy for hypothyroidism is usually lifelong, and you should not stop taking the medication”
- B.
"You can stop the medication if your symptoms have improved.”
- C.
"You need to stay on the medication for at least 1 year before a decision about stopping it can be made”
- D.
"You need to stay on this medication until you become pregnant.”
Correct Answer
A. "Medication therapy for hypothyroidism is usually lifelong, and you should not stop taking the medication”Explanation
The correct answer is "Medication therapy for hypothyroidism is usually lifelong, and you should not stop taking the medication." This response is correct because primary hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, resulting in hyperthyroidism. Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism, which is the opposite condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The woman in the scenario is feeling better because the medication is effectively replacing the deficient thyroid hormone. However, stopping the medication can lead to a recurrence of hypothyroidism symptoms. Therefore, lifelong medication therapy is typically necessary to maintain thyroid hormone levels and prevent the symptoms from returning.Rate this question:
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- 45.
During a teaching session for a patient on antithyroid drugs, the nurse will discuss which dietary instructions?
- A.
Using iodized salt when cooking
- B.
Restricting fluid intake to 5000ml per day
- C.
Avoiding foods containing iodine
- D.
Increasing intake of sodium – and potassium-containing foods
Correct Answer
C. Avoiding foods containing iodineExplanation
Patients on antithyroid drugs are usually prescribed these medications to treat hyperthyroidism, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. Iodine is essential for the production of thyroid hormones, so avoiding foods that contain iodine helps to reduce the production of these hormones. Therefore, the nurse will discuss with the patient the importance of avoiding foods containing iodine to effectively manage their condition.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A patient has a diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism. Which statement accurately describes this problem?
- A.
The pituitary gland is dysfunctional and has never secreted TSH
- B.
The hypothalamus is dysfunctional and has never secreted TSH
- C.
The abnormality is in the thyroid itself
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
C. The abnormality is in the thyroid itselfExplanation
Primary hypothyroidism refers to a condition where the abnormality lies in the thyroid gland itself. In this case, the thyroid gland is not able to produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to a decrease in the overall thyroid function. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. The dysfunction of the pituitary gland or hypothalamus would result in secondary or tertiary hypothyroidism, respectively, where the problem lies in the regulation of thyroid hormone production rather than the thyroid gland itself.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The nurse is administering lispro (Humalog) insulin and will keep in mind that this insulin will start to have an effect within which time frame?
- A.
1 to 2 hours
- B.
80 minutes
- C.
15 minutes
- D.
3 to 5 hours
Correct Answer
C. 15 minutesExplanation
Lispro (Humalog) insulin is a fast-acting insulin that starts to have an effect within 15 minutes of administration. This rapid onset of action makes it important for the nurse to closely monitor the patient's blood sugar levels after administering the medication. By understanding the time frame in which the insulin begins to work, the nurse can make appropriate adjustments to the patient's treatment plan if needed.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When teaching about hypoglycemia, the nurse will make sure that the patient is aware of the early signs of hypoglycemia, including
- A.
Nausea and diarrhea
- B.
Hypothermia and seizures
- C.
fruity, acetone odor to the breath
- D.
Confusion and sweating
Correct Answer
D. Confusion and sweatingExplanation
The nurse will make sure that the patient is aware of the early signs of hypoglycemia, which include confusion and sweating. These symptoms occur when the blood sugar levels drop too low and the brain does not receive enough glucose to function properly. Confusion can range from mild disorientation to severe mental impairment, and sweating is a common response to low blood sugar levels. By educating the patient about these early signs, the nurse can help them recognize and address hypoglycemia promptly.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When monitoring a patient’s response to oral antidiabetic drugs, the nurse knows that which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic response?
- A.
Random blood glucose level above 170mg/dL
- B.
Fasting blood glucose level between 70 and 110mg/dL
- C.
Blood glucose level of less than 50mg/dL after meals
- D.
Evening blood glucose level below 80mg/dL
Correct Answer
B. Fasting blood glucose level between 70 and 110mg/dLExplanation
A fasting blood glucose level between 70 and 110mg/dL would indicate a therapeutic response to oral antidiabetic drugs. This range suggests that the medication is effectively controlling the patient's blood glucose levels and maintaining them within the normal range. A random blood glucose level above 170mg/dL indicates poor control of blood sugar, while a blood glucose level of less than 50mg/dL after meals indicates hypoglycemia. An evening blood glucose level below 80mg/dL may also indicate hypoglycemia.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The nurse is reviewing instructions for a patient with type 2 diabetes who also takes insulin injections as part of the therapy. The nurse asks the patient, “what should you do if your fasting blood glucose is 47 mg/dL?” Which response by the patient reflects a correct understanding of insulin therapy?
- A.
I will take an oral form of glucose
- B.
I will call my doctor right away
- C.
I will give myself regular insulin
Correct Answer
A. I will take an oral form of glucoseExplanation
If the patient's fasting blood glucose is 47 mg/dL, it indicates hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). In this situation, the correct response would be to take an oral form of glucose to raise the blood sugar levels back to a normal range. This shows that the patient understands the need to treat hypoglycemia promptly and appropriately.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 04, 2014Quiz Created by
Akelahe
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