Immunology Exam 2 Questions

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Immunology Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The center for Biologics Evaluation and Research CBER regulates

    • A.

      Laboratory safety

    • B.

      Vaccine products

    • C.

      Personnel qualifications

    • D.

      Research grants

    Correct Answer
    B. Vaccine products
    Explanation
    The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) is responsible for regulating vaccine products. This means that CBER oversees the safety, efficacy, and quality of vaccines to ensure that they meet the necessary standards for public health. CBER plays a crucial role in the approval and monitoring of vaccines, ensuring that they are safe and effective for use in preventing and treating various diseases. By regulating vaccine products, CBER helps to protect the health and well-being of the public.

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  • 2. 

    Pathogens adapted for biological warfare include: 1) Smallpox 2) Bacillus anthracis 3) Chickenpox 4) Q fever

    • A.

      1, 2, 3

    • B.

      1, 2, 4

    • C.

      2, 3, 4

    • D.

      1, 3, 4

    Correct Answer
    B. 1, 2, 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1, 2, 4. Smallpox, Bacillus anthracis (which causes anthrax), and Q fever are all pathogens that have the potential to be used as biological weapons. Chickenpox, on the other hand, is not typically considered a pathogen adapted for biological warfare.

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  • 3. 

    Vaccines can be divided into                            vaccines

    • A.

      Live, attenuated

    • B.

      Nonreplicating

    • C.

      Naked DNA

    • D.

      Both a and b

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both a and b" because vaccines can be divided into two categories: live, attenuated vaccines and nonreplicating vaccines. Live, attenuated vaccines contain weakened forms of the virus or bacteria, which can still replicate but cause only mild or no symptoms. Nonreplicating vaccines, on the other hand, contain either inactivated forms of the virus or bacteria or specific components of the pathogen. Both types of vaccines are used to stimulate the immune system and provide protection against diseases.

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  • 4. 

    To meet FDA requirements, a vaccine must:

    • A.

      Produce protective immunity with only minimal side effects

    • B.

      Be immunogenic enough to produce a strong and measurable immune response

    • C.

      Be stable during its shelf life

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because to meet FDA requirements, a vaccine must produce protective immunity with minimal side effects, be immunogenic enough to produce a strong and measurable immune response, and be stable during its shelf life. These criteria ensure that the vaccine is effective in preventing the targeted disease, does not cause significant harm to individuals receiving it, and can be stored and used reliably over a period of time.

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  • 5. 

    The earliest host response to vaccination is a(n):

    • A.

      Innate immune response

    • B.

      Memory response

    • C.

      Anamnestic response

    • D.

      Both a and b

    Correct Answer
    A. Innate immune response
    Explanation
    The earliest host response to vaccination is the innate immune response. The innate immune system is the first line of defense against pathogens and is activated immediately upon vaccination. It includes physical barriers, such as the skin, as well as cellular and molecular components that recognize and eliminate foreign substances. The memory response and anamnestic response are part of the adaptive immune system, which takes longer to develop after vaccination. Therefore, the correct answer is the innate immune response.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is a term for nontreponemal antibodies produced by an infected patient against components of their own or other mammalian cells?

    • A.

      Autoagglutinins

    • B.

      Reagin antibodies

    • C.

      Alloantibodies

    • D.

      Nonsyphilis antibodies

    Correct Answer
    B. Reagin antibodies
    Explanation
    Reagin antibodies are a term for nontreponemal antibodies produced by an infected patient against components of their own or other mammalian cells. These antibodies are commonly associated with syphilis and are used in diagnostic tests for the disease. They are not specific to syphilis and can be found in other conditions as well.

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  • 7. 

    In the RPR procedure, a false-positive reaction can result from all of the following except:

    • A.

      Infectious mononucleosis

    • B.

      Leprosy

    • C.

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • D.

      Streptococcal pharyngitis

    Correct Answer
    D. Streptococcal pharyngitis
    Explanation
    A false-positive reaction in the RPR procedure can occur due to various factors, such as infectious mononucleosis, leprosy, and rheumatoid arthritis. However, streptococcal pharyngitis is not known to cause a false-positive reaction in the RPR procedure.

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  • 8. 

    The first diagnostic blood test for syphilis was the:

    • A.

      VDRL

    • B.

      Wasserman

    • C.

      RPR

    • D.

      Colloidal gold

    Correct Answer
    B. Wasserman
    Explanation
    The Wasserman test, also known as the Wasserman reaction or Wassermann test, was the first diagnostic blood test for syphilis. It was developed by August von Wassermann in 1906 and was widely used for many years to detect antibodies produced by the body in response to the syphilis bacteria. The test involves mixing a patient's blood serum with a solution containing antigens from the syphilis bacteria, and then observing for the formation of clumps or agglutination, which indicates a positive result for syphilis. The Wasserman test revolutionized the diagnosis of syphilis and paved the way for further advancements in the field.

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  • 9. 

    Syphilis was initially treated with:

    • A.

      Fuller's earth

    • B.

      Heavy metals (arsenic)

    • C.

      Sulfonamides (triple sulfa)

    • D.

      Antibiotics (penicillin)

    Correct Answer
    B. Heavy metals (arsenic)
    Explanation
    In the past, syphilis was initially treated with heavy metals such as arsenic. Arsenic compounds were believed to have antimicrobial properties and were used as a treatment for various diseases, including syphilis. However, the use of heavy metals like arsenic as a treatment for syphilis has been discontinued due to their toxic effects on the body. Nowadays, antibiotics, particularly penicillin, are the standard treatment for syphilis as they are more effective and safer.

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  • 10. 

    Direct examination of the treponemes is most often performed by:

    • A.

      Light microscopy

    • B.

      Darkfield microscopy

    • C.

      VDRL testing

    • D.

      RPR testing

    Correct Answer
    B. Darkfield microscopy
    Explanation
    Darkfield microscopy is the most common method used for the direct examination of treponemes. This technique involves illuminating the specimen with a hollow cone of light, which allows the treponemes to appear as bright objects against a dark background. This method is particularly useful for visualizing the motility and morphology of treponemes, as they are too thin to be seen with conventional light microscopy. VDRL and RPR testing, on the other hand, are serological tests that detect antibodies produced in response to Treponema pallidum infection, but they do not directly visualize the bacteria.

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  • 11. 

    Pathogenic treponemes                                         cultivatable with consistency in artificial laboratory media.

    • A.

      Are

    • B.

      Are not

    • C.

      Answer option 3

    • D.

      Answer option 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Are not
  • 12. 

    In infected blood,T. Pallidum does not appear to survive at 4 degrees C (39 F) for longer than:

    • A.

      1 day

    • B.

      2 days

    • C.

      3 days

    • D.

      5 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 days
    Explanation
    T. Pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis. This bacterium is highly sensitive to temperature changes and does not survive for more than 3 days in infected blood stored at 4 degrees Celsius (39 degrees Fahrenheit). Therefore, if infected blood is kept at this temperature, the T. Pallidum bacteria will not be viable after 3 days.

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  • 13. 

    The primary incubation period for syphilis is usually about:

    • A.

      1 week

    • B.

      2 weeks

    • C.

      3 weeks

    • D.

      4 weeks

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 weeks
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 weeks. This is because the primary incubation period for syphilis, which refers to the time between initial infection and the onset of symptoms, typically lasts around 3 weeks. During this period, the bacteria that cause syphilis (Treponema pallidum) multiply and spread throughout the body. After the incubation period, symptoms such as a painless sore called a chancre may appear. It is important to note that the incubation period can vary from person to person, ranging from 10 days to 3 months.

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  • 14. 

    The stage of syphilis that can be diagnosed only by serologic (laboratory) methods is the:

    • A.

      Incubation phase

    • B.

      Primary phase

    • C.

      Secondary phase

    • D.

      Latent phase

    Correct Answer
    D. Latent phase
    Explanation
    The latent phase of syphilis is the stage where the infection remains dormant and there are no visible symptoms. During this stage, the bacteria continue to multiply in the body, but there are no external signs. The only way to diagnose the latent phase of syphilis is through serologic (laboratory) methods, such as blood tests, which can detect the presence of antibodies to the bacteria. This is because there are no visible symptoms or physical manifestations that can be used for diagnosis.

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  • 15. 

    Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce:

    • A.

      Specific antibodies against T. pallidum

    • B.

      Nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes

    • C.

      Reagin antibodies

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce specific antibodies against T. pallidum, which are targeted against the specific antigens of the bacteria. They also produce nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes, as these antigens are shared among different spirochetes. Additionally, they produce reagin antibodies, which are a type of nonspecific antibody that reacts with cardiolipin, a component of cell membranes. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all three types of antibodies are produced in immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum.

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  • 16. 

    Common vectors of Lyme disease include all of the following except:

    • A.

      I. pacificus

    • B.

      I. scapularis

    • C.

      I. ricinus

    • D.

      D. variabilis

    Correct Answer
    D. D. variabilis
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the vector species that do not commonly transmit Lyme disease. The correct answer is D. variabilis. This is because I. pacificus, I. scapularis, and I. ricinus are all known vectors of Lyme disease, while D. variabilis is not typically associated with the transmission of this disease.

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  • 17. 

    The only continent without Lyme disease is:

    • A.

      Asia

    • B.

      Europe

    • C.

      Africa

    • D.

      Antarctica

    Correct Answer
    D. Antarctica
    Explanation
    Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, which is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. These ticks are commonly found in North America, Europe, and Asia. However, Antarctica is the only continent where these ticks and the bacteria they carry are not present, making it the only continent without Lyme disease.

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  • 18. 

    The primary reservoir in nature for B. burgdorfei is the:

    • A.

      White-tailed deer

    • B.

      White-footed mouse

    • C.

      Lizard

    • D.

      Meadowlark

    Correct Answer
    A. White-tailed deer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is white-tailed deer because they serve as the primary reservoir for B. burgdorfei in nature. Reservoirs are organisms that harbor and transmit a pathogen without showing any signs of illness. White-tailed deer are known to be a reservoir for B. burgdorfei, which is the bacterium that causes Lyme disease. They can become infected with the bacterium through tick bites and then transmit it to other ticks, continuing the transmission cycle.

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  • 19. 

    On average, the incidence of infection following an I. scapularis tick bite in an endemic area is:

    • A.

      1%

    • B.

      3%

    • C.

      5%

    • D.

      10%

    Correct Answer
    B. 3%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3% because on average, the incidence of infection following an I. scapularis tick bite in an endemic area is relatively low. This means that out of every 100 people who are bitten by an I. scapularis tick in an endemic area, approximately 3% of them will develop an infection. It is important to note that this percentage may vary depending on various factors such as the individual's immune system and the specific region where the tick bite occurred.

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  • 20. 

    Erythema migrans

    • A.

      Occurs in all patients

    • B.

      Harbors B. burgdoferi in the advancing edge

    • C.

      Is easily distinguished from other erythemas

    • D.

      Is more common in the winter months

    Correct Answer
    D. Is more common in the winter months
    Explanation
    Erythema migrans is a skin rash that is commonly associated with Lyme disease. It typically occurs in patients who have been bitten by a tick infected with the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. While erythema migrans can occur at any time of the year, it is more common in the winter months. This may be due to factors such as increased outdoor activities during warmer months, leading to more tick exposure, or the behavior of ticks during different seasons. Regardless, the increased prevalence of erythema migrans in the winter months is a notable characteristic of this condition.

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  • 21. 

    The predominant symptoms of Lyme meningitis are:

    • A.

      Severe headache and mild neck stiffness

    • B.

      Aseptic meningitis and double vision

    • C.

      Cranial nerve palsies and blurred vision

    • D.

      Peripheral radiculoneuritis and peripheral neuropathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Severe headache and mild neck stiffness
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Severe headache and mild neck stiffness." These symptoms are commonly associated with Lyme meningitis, which is an infection caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. The infection can lead to inflammation of the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, resulting in symptoms such as a severe headache and mild neck stiffness. Other symptoms may include fever, fatigue, muscle aches, and joint pain. It is important to seek medical attention if these symptoms are present, as Lyme meningitis can be a serious condition if left untreated.

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  • 22. 

    Cardiac involvement in Lyme disease may include:

    • A.

      Murmurs

    • B.

      Conduction abnormalities

    • C.

      Congestive heart failure

    • D.

      Vasculitis

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduction abnormalities
    Explanation
    Cardiac involvement in Lyme disease can manifest as conduction abnormalities. This refers to disruptions in the normal electrical signals that coordinate the heart's rhythm and contractions. Lyme disease can cause inflammation in the heart tissues, particularly in the atrioventricular (AV) node, which is responsible for transmitting electrical signals between the upper and lower chambers of the heart. This inflammation can lead to impaired conduction, resulting in irregular heart rhythms or even complete heart block. Therefore, conduction abnormalities are a potential cardiac complication of Lyme disease.

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  • 23. 

    Ocular involvement in Lyme disease includes all of the following except:

    • A.

      Cranial nerve palsies

    • B.

      Conjunctivitis

    • C.

      Panophthalmitis with loss of vision

    • D.

      Choroiditis with retinal detachment

    Correct Answer
    B. Conjunctivitis
    Explanation
    Ocular involvement in Lyme disease can manifest in various ways, including cranial nerve palsies, panophthalmitis with loss of vision, and choroiditis with retinal detachment. However, conjunctivitis is not typically associated with Lyme disease. Conjunctivitis refers to inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelid. While ocular symptoms can occur in Lyme disease, conjunctivitis is not one of them.

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  • 24. 

    Pregnancy in Lyme disease:

    • A.

      Does not result in high fetal mortality

    • B.

      Has been associated with transplacental infection

    • C.

      Should be terminated because of maternal risk

    • D.

      Is not associated with congenital abnormalities

    Correct Answer
    B. Has been associated with transplacental infection
    Explanation
    Pregnancy in Lyme disease has been associated with transplacental infection. This means that the infection can pass from the mother to the fetus through the placenta. This is significant because it can potentially lead to complications and health issues for the baby. It is important for pregnant women with Lyme disease to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 25. 

    The most useful test for distinguishing between true-positive and false-positive serologic test results in Lyme disease is:

    • A.

      Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

    • B.

      Immunofluorescence assay

    • C.

      Polymerase chain reaction

    • D.

      T cell assay

    Correct Answer
    C. Polymerase chain reaction
    Explanation
    The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is the most useful test for distinguishing between true-positive and false-positive serologic test results in Lyme disease. This is because PCR can directly detect the presence of the Lyme disease-causing bacteria, Borrelia burgdorferi, in a patient's blood or tissue sample. Serologic tests, such as the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and immunofluorescence assay (IFA), detect antibodies produced by the immune system in response to the infection. However, these tests can sometimes yield false-positive results due to cross-reactivity with other infections or non-specific antibody production. PCR, on the other hand, directly detects the bacteria itself, providing a more accurate diagnosis.

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  • 26. 

    Lyme disease, the most common tickborne disease in the US, is a major health hazard for:

    • A.

      Dogs

    • B.

      Horses and cattle

    • C.

      Humans

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through the bite of infected ticks. It can affect various species including dogs, horses, cattle, and humans. Therefore, all of the above options are correct as Lyme disease is a major health hazard for all these species.

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  • 27. 

    The first Native American case of what would later be called Lyme disease occurred in:

    • A.

      Connecticut

    • B.

      Wisconsin

    • C.

      Florida

    • D.

      New York

    Correct Answer
    B. Wisconsin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Wisconsin. Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. The first recognized case of Lyme disease in a Native American occurred in Wisconsin. This suggests that the disease was present in that region and affecting the indigenous population before it was formally identified and named.

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  • 28. 

    How long does the first stage of Lyme disease last?

    • A.

      3 days

    • B.

      1 week

    • C.

      4 weeks

    • D.

      3 months

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 weeks
    Explanation
    The first stage of Lyme disease typically lasts for about 4 weeks. During this stage, individuals may experience symptoms such as a rash, flu-like symptoms, fatigue, and muscle aches. If left untreated, Lyme disease can progress to later stages and cause more severe symptoms. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have Lyme disease to receive appropriate treatment.

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  • 29. 

    What are the common signs and symptoms in Lyme disease that manifests during the first stage.

    • A.

      Neurologic

    • B.

      Rheumatoid

    • C.

      Cutaneous (eg erythema migrans)

    • D.

      Cardiac

    Correct Answer
    C. Cutaneous (eg erythema migrans)
    Explanation
    During the first stage of Lyme disease, one of the common signs and symptoms is cutaneous manifestation, specifically erythema migrans. Erythema migrans is a characteristic skin rash that appears as a red, expanding bull's eye shape. This rash typically occurs at the site of the tick bite and gradually expands over time. It is an important diagnostic feature of Lyme disease and can help healthcare professionals identify and diagnose the infection. Other signs and symptoms may also be present in the first stage, such as neurological, rheumatoid, and cardiac symptoms, but the cutaneous manifestation is a key indicator.

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  • 30. 

    How long after the initial infection with Lyme disease does the third stage begin to manifest?

    • A.

      Hours to weeks

    • B.

      Days to weeks

    • C.

      Weeks to months

    • D.

      Weeks to years

    Correct Answer
    D. Weeks to years
    Explanation
    The third stage of Lyme disease begins to manifest weeks to years after the initial infection. This means that there can be a significant delay between the initial infection and the onset of symptoms associated with the third stage of the disease. It is important to note that the timeline for disease progression can vary among individuals, and some individuals may progress to the third stage sooner or later than others.

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  • 31. 

    In the third stage of Lyme disease, what are some common signs and symptoms that accompany late neurologic complications.

    • A.

      Arthritis

    • B.

      Lyme carditis

    • C.

      Transplacental transmission

    • D.

      Lymphocytoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Arthritis
    Explanation
    In the third stage of Lyme disease, one common sign and symptom that accompanies late neurologic complications is arthritis. Arthritis refers to the inflammation of joints, which can cause pain, swelling, and stiffness. In Lyme disease, arthritis typically affects large joints such as the knees. It is important to note that late neurologic complications in Lyme disease can also present with other signs and symptoms such as Lyme carditis, transplacental transmission, and lymphocytoma, but arthritis is specifically mentioned as a common sign in this context.

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  • 32. 

    Unlike some procedures, the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay can be used to detect Lyme disease-causing organisms in:

    • A.

      Urine

    • B.

      Cerebrospinal fluid

    • C.

      Synovial fluid

    • D.

      Blood

    Correct Answer
    C. Synovial fluid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is synovial fluid. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay is a highly sensitive technique that can detect the presence of Lyme disease-causing organisms in various bodily fluids. While Lyme disease can be detected in urine, cerebrospinal fluid, and blood, synovial fluid is particularly useful in diagnosing Lyme arthritis, which is a common manifestation of the disease. Synovial fluid is found in the joints and can provide a more accurate and specific detection of the disease-causing organisms in cases where joint inflammation is present.

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  • 33. 

    A patient who has a specific Lyme disease-associated manifestation may be treated with:

    • A.

      Vaccination

    • B.

      Interferon

    • C.

      Antibiotic

    • D.

      Analgesic

    Correct Answer
    C. Antibiotic
    Explanation
    Lyme disease is caused by a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Antibiotics are the primary treatment for Lyme disease, as they help kill the bacteria causing the infection. Vaccination is not a treatment option for someone already infected with Lyme disease. Interferon is not commonly used to treat Lyme disease, as it is more commonly used for viral infections. Analgesics may be used to help manage pain associated with Lyme disease, but they do not treat the underlying infection. Therefore, the correct treatment option for a patient with Lyme disease would be an antibiotic.

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  • 34. 

    Antigen detection systems in Lyme disease testing screen for                                  rather than for                            associated with the infection

    Correct Answer
    antigenic products, antibody
    Explanation
    Antigen detection systems in Lyme disease testing screen for antigenic products, rather than for antibodies associated with the infection. This means that these systems are designed to identify specific proteins or molecules produced by the Lyme disease-causing bacteria, rather than the antibodies that the body produces in response to the infection. By detecting these antigenic products, the test can directly identify the presence of the bacteria in a patient's blood or tissue sample, providing a more accurate and timely diagnosis of Lyme disease.

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  • 35. 

    Ehrlichia spp. belong to the same family as the organism that causes:

    • A.

      Lyme disease

    • B.

      Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

    • C.

      Toxoplasmosis

    • D.

      Infectious Mono

    Correct Answer
    B. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
    Explanation
    Ehrlichia spp. belong to the same family as the organism that causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. This means that they share similar characteristics, genetic makeup, and mode of transmission. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is a tick-borne disease caused by the bacterium Rickettsia rickettsii, while Ehrlichia spp. are a group of bacteria transmitted by ticks. Therefore, the correct answer is Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

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  • 36. 

    One of the most common physical findings in adults with ehrlichiosis is:

    • A.

      Hives

    • B.

      Fever

    • C.

      Erythema migrans

    • D.

      Nausea

    Correct Answer
    B. Fever
    Explanation
    Fever is the correct answer because it is a common physical finding in adults with ehrlichiosis. Ehrlichiosis is a tick-borne bacterial infection that can cause symptoms such as fever, headache, muscle aches, fatigue, and sometimes a rash. While other symptoms like hives, erythema migrans, and nausea can occur in various conditions, fever is specifically associated with ehrlichiosis. It is an important symptom to recognize in order to diagnose and treat the infection effectively.

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  • 37. 

    Definitive diagnosis of ehrlichiosis requires:

    • A.

      A complete blood count

    • B.

      Detection of the presence of lymphocytopenia

    • C.

      Acute and convalescent serum antibody titers

    • D.

      Direct microscopic observation of inclusions in leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. Acute and convalescent serum antibody titers
    Explanation
    To definitively diagnose ehrlichiosis, it is necessary to measure the levels of antibodies in the blood at two different times: during the acute phase of the infection and during the recovery phase (convalescent phase). This is done by conducting a serological test called acute and convalescent serum antibody titers. This test helps determine if there is a significant increase in antibody levels over time, indicating an active infection. The other options mentioned, such as a complete blood count and detection of lymphocytopenia, can provide supportive evidence but are not sufficient for a definitive diagnosis. Direct microscopic observation of inclusions in leukocytes may also be helpful in diagnosing ehrlichiosis, but it is not mentioned as a requirement in this question.

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  • 38. 

    In human granulocytic ehrlichiosis (anaplasmosis), the diagnosis is confirmed by seroconversion or by a single serological titer of                          in patients with a supporting history and clinical symptoms. 

    • A.

      1:2

    • B.

      1:16

    • C.

      1:80

    • D.

      1:160

    Correct Answer
    C. 1:80
    Explanation
    In human granulocytic ehrlichiosis, the diagnosis is confirmed by seroconversion or by a single serological titer of 1:80 in patients with a supporting history and clinical symptoms. This means that a blood sample from the patient is tested for antibodies against the bacteria that causes the infection. If the titer is 1:80 or higher, it indicates a positive result and confirms the diagnosis of human granulocytic ehrlichiosis.

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  • 39. 

    In the eastern US, babesiosis is caused by:

    • A.

      B. microti

    • B.

      B. canis

    • C.

      B. bovis

    • D.

      B. equi

    Correct Answer
    A. B. microti
    Explanation
    Babesiosis is an infectious disease caused by the parasite Babesia. In the eastern US, the most common cause of babesiosis is Babesia microti, making it the correct answer. B. canis, B. bovis, and B. equi are also species of Babesia, but they are not typically associated with babesiosis in the eastern US.

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  • 40. 

    Babesiosis is characterized by:

    • A.

      Fever

    • B.

      Fatigue

    • C.

      Hemolytic anemia

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Babesiosis is a tick-borne infection caused by the parasite Babesia. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, fatigue, and hemolytic anemia. Fever is a common symptom of many infections, while fatigue is often experienced due to the body's immune response to the infection. Hemolytic anemia occurs when the parasite destroys red blood cells, leading to a decrease in oxygen-carrying capacity and fatigue. Therefore, all of the above symptoms are associated with babesiosis.

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  • 41. 

    Babesia organisms can be found in:

    • A.

      Peripheral blood

    • B.

      Sputum

    • C.

      Synovial fluid

    • D.

      Various exudates

    Correct Answer
    A. Peripheral blood
    Explanation
    Babesia organisms can be found in peripheral blood. This means that these organisms can be detected and identified by examining a sample of blood taken from a patient. It is important to test for the presence of Babesia in peripheral blood as this can help diagnose and monitor infections caused by these organisms. The other options mentioned, such as sputum, synovial fluid, and various exudates, are not typically associated with the presence of Babesia organisms.

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  • 42. 

    West Nile virus causes:

    • A.

      Encephalitis

    • B.

      Polio

    • C.

      Measles

    • D.

      Arthritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Encephalitis
    Explanation
    West Nile virus is a viral infection that is primarily transmitted to humans through mosquito bites. It is known to cause inflammation of the brain, which is called encephalitis. Encephalitis can result in symptoms such as fever, headache, neck stiffness, confusion, seizures, and even coma or death in severe cases. While West Nile virus does not cause polio, measles, or arthritis, it is important to be aware of its potential to cause encephalitis and take necessary precautions to prevent mosquito bites.

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  • 43. 

    West Nile virus is transmitted by:

    • A.

      Dogs

    • B.

      Cats

    • C.

      Rats

    • D.

      Mosquitos

    Correct Answer
    D. Mosquitos
    Explanation
    West Nile virus is primarily transmitted to humans and animals through the bite of infected mosquitoes. Mosquitoes become infected when they feed on birds that carry the virus. Once infected, mosquitoes can then transmit the virus to humans, dogs, cats, and other animals through subsequent bites. Therefore, the correct answer is "Mosquitos" as they are the main vector for the transmission of West Nile virus.

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  • 44. 

    All of the following describe CMV except:

    • A.

      Herpes family virus

    • B.

      DNA virus

    • C.

      Cell-associated virus

    • D.

      Epidemic worldwide

    Correct Answer
    D. Epidemic worldwide
    Explanation
    CMV, or Cytomegalovirus, is a member of the Herpes family of viruses and is a DNA virus. It is also a cell-associated virus, meaning it infects and replicates within cells. However, it is not considered an epidemic worldwide as it does not spread rapidly and widely across different populations.

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  • 45. 

    Because CMV can persist latently, an active infection may develop as a result of all the following conditions except:

    • A.

      Pregnancy

    • B.

      Immunosuppressive therapy

    • C.

      Organ or bone marrow transplantation

    • D.

      Transfusion of leukocyte-poor blood

    Correct Answer
    D. Transfusion of leukocyte-poor blood
    Explanation
    CMV can persist latently in the body, meaning it remains inactive and does not cause symptoms. However, certain conditions can reactivate the virus and lead to an active infection. These conditions include pregnancy, immunosuppressive therapy, and organ or bone marrow transplantation. Transfusion of leukocyte-poor blood does not provide a condition that would reactivate CMV, therefore it is not a risk factor for developing an active infection.

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  • 46. 

    CMV is recognized as the cause of congenital viral infection in what percentage of all live births?

    • A.

      0.1%-0.4%

    • B.

      0.4%-2.5%

    • C.

      2.5%-4.9%

    • D.

      4.9%-9.9%

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.4%-2.5%
    Explanation
    CMV, or cytomegalovirus, is recognized as the cause of congenital viral infection in approximately 0.4% to 2.5% of all live births.

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  • 47. 

    Transfusion-acquired CMV infection can cause:

    • A.

      Mono-like syndrome

    • B.

      Hepatitis

    • C.

      Rejection of a transplanted organ

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Transfusion-acquired CMV infection refers to the transmission of cytomegalovirus (CMV) through blood transfusions. CMV infection can cause various symptoms and complications. A mono-like syndrome, characterized by fever, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes, can occur as a result of CMV infection. Additionally, CMV can cause hepatitis, which is inflammation of the liver. Moreover, in individuals who have undergone organ transplantation, CMV infection can lead to rejection of the transplanted organ. Therefore, all of the mentioned options, including mono-like syndrome, hepatitis, and rejection of a transplanted organ, can be caused by transfusion-acquired CMV infection.

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  • 48. 

    S. pyogenes is the most common causative agent of all of the following disorders and complications except:

    • A.

      Pharyngitis

    • B.

      Gastroenteritis

    • C.

      Scarlet Fever

    • D.

      Impetigo

    Correct Answer
    B. Gastroenteritis
    Explanation
    S. pyogenes is a common causative agent of pharyngitis, scarlet fever, and impetigo. However, it is not typically associated with gastroenteritis. Gastroenteritis is usually caused by viruses or bacteria such as Salmonella or E. coli. Therefore, S. pyogenes is not the most common causative agent of gastroenteritis.

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  • 49. 

    Antibodies to immediate-early and early antigens are associated with:

    • A.

      Primary active infection

    • B.

      Reactivated active infection

    • C.

      Latent infection

    • D.

      Either a or b

    Correct Answer
    D. Either a or b
    Explanation
    Antibodies to immediate-early and early antigens can be present in both primary active infection and reactivated active infection. These antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to the presence of antigens, indicating an active immune response against the infection. Therefore, the correct answer is either a or b, as both primary active infection and reactivated active infection can elicit the production of these antibodies.

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  • 50. 

    All the herpes viruses share the feature of being:

    • A.

      RNA viruses

    • B.

      Small viruses

    • C.

      Cell-associated viruses

    • D.

      Nonenveloped viruses

    Correct Answer
    C. Cell-associated viruses
    Explanation
    All the herpes viruses share the feature of being cell-associated viruses. This means that they have a close association with host cells and require them for replication and survival. Unlike free-floating viruses, cell-associated viruses rely on host cells to enter, replicate, and spread within the body. This characteristic is common among all herpes viruses, including herpes simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, and Epstein-Barr virus.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 07, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Laurenalt18
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