Immunology Exam 2 Questions

88 Questions | Total Attempts: 57

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Immunology Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The center for Biologics Evaluation and Research CBER regulates
    • A. 

      Laboratory safety

    • B. 

      Vaccine products

    • C. 

      Personnel qualifications

    • D. 

      Research grants

  • 2. 
    Pathogens adapted for biological warfare include: 1) Smallpox 2) Bacillus anthracis 3) Chickenpox 4) Q fever
    • A. 

      1, 2, 3

    • B. 

      1, 2, 4

    • C. 

      2, 3, 4

    • D. 

      1, 3, 4

  • 3. 
    Vaccines can be divided into                            vaccines
    • A. 

      Live, attenuated

    • B. 

      Nonreplicating

    • C. 

      Naked DNA

    • D. 

      Both a and b

  • 4. 
    To meet FDA requirements, a vaccine must:
    • A. 

      Produce protective immunity with only minimal side effects

    • B. 

      Be immunogenic enough to produce a strong and measurable immune response

    • C. 

      Be stable during its shelf life

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 5. 
    The earliest host response to vaccination is a(n):
    • A. 

      Innate immune response

    • B. 

      Memory response

    • C. 

      Anamnestic response

    • D. 

      Both a and b

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Autoagglutinins

    • B. 

      Reagin antibodies

    • C. 

      Alloantibodies

    • D. 

      Nonsyphilis antibodies

  • 7. 
    In the RPR procedure, a false-positive reaction can result from all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Infectious mononucleosis

    • B. 

      Leprosy

    • C. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • D. 

      Streptococcal pharyngitis

  • 8. 
    The first diagnostic blood test for syphilis was the:
    • A. 

      VDRL

    • B. 

      Wasserman

    • C. 

      RPR

    • D. 

      Colloidal gold

  • 9. 
    Syphilis was initially treated with:
    • A. 

      Fuller's earth

    • B. 

      Heavy metals (arsenic)

    • C. 

      Sulfonamides (triple sulfa)

    • D. 

      Antibiotics (penicillin)

  • 10. 
    Direct examination of the treponemes is most often performed by:
    • A. 

      Light microscopy

    • B. 

      Darkfield microscopy

    • C. 

      VDRL testing

    • D. 

      RPR testing

  • 11. 
    Pathogenic treponemes                                         cultivatable with consistency in artificial laboratory media.
    • A. 

      Are

    • B. 

      Are not

    • C. 

      Answer option 3

    • D. 

      Answer option 4

  • 12. 
    In infected blood,T. Pallidum does not appear to survive at 4 degrees C (39 F) for longer than:
    • A. 

      1 day

    • B. 

      2 days

    • C. 

      3 days

    • D. 

      5 days

  • 13. 
    The primary incubation period for syphilis is usually about:
    • A. 

      1 week

    • B. 

      2 weeks

    • C. 

      3 weeks

    • D. 

      4 weeks

  • 14. 
    The stage of syphilis that can be diagnosed only by serologic (laboratory) methods is the:
    • A. 

      Incubation phase

    • B. 

      Primary phase

    • C. 

      Secondary phase

    • D. 

      Latent phase

  • 15. 
    Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce:
    • A. 

      Specific antibodies against T. pallidum

    • B. 

      Nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes

    • C. 

      Reagin antibodies

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 16. 
    Common vectors of Lyme disease include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      I. pacificus

    • B. 

      I. scapularis

    • C. 

      I. ricinus

    • D. 

      D. variabilis

  • 17. 
    The only continent without Lyme disease is:
    • A. 

      Asia

    • B. 

      Europe

    • C. 

      Africa

    • D. 

      Antarctica

  • 18. 
    The primary reservoir in nature for B. burgdorfei is the:
    • A. 

      White-tailed deer

    • B. 

      White-footed mouse

    • C. 

      Lizard

    • D. 

      Meadowlark

  • 19. 
    On average, the incidence of infection following an I. scapularis tick bite in an endemic area is:
    • A. 

      1%

    • B. 

      3%

    • C. 

      5%

    • D. 

      10%

  • 20. 
    Erythema migrans
    • A. 

      Occurs in all patients

    • B. 

      Harbors B. burgdoferi in the advancing edge

    • C. 

      Is easily distinguished from other erythemas

    • D. 

      Is more common in the winter months

  • 21. 
    The predominant symptoms of Lyme meningitis are:
    • A. 

      Severe headache and mild neck stiffness

    • B. 

      Aseptic meningitis and double vision

    • C. 

      Cranial nerve palsies and blurred vision

    • D. 

      Peripheral radiculoneuritis and peripheral neuropathy

  • 22. 
    Cardiac involvement in Lyme disease may include:
    • A. 

      Murmurs

    • B. 

      Conduction abnormalities

    • C. 

      Congestive heart failure

    • D. 

      Vasculitis

  • 23. 
    Ocular involvement in Lyme disease includes all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Cranial nerve palsies

    • B. 

      Conjunctivitis

    • C. 

      Panophthalmitis with loss of vision

    • D. 

      Choroiditis with retinal detachment

  • 24. 
    Pregnancy in Lyme disease:
    • A. 

      Does not result in high fetal mortality

    • B. 

      Has been associated with transplacental infection

    • C. 

      Should be terminated because of maternal risk

    • D. 

      Is not associated with congenital abnormalities

  • 25. 
    The most useful test for distinguishing between true-positive and false-positive serologic test results in Lyme disease is:
    • A. 

      Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

    • B. 

      Immunofluorescence assay

    • C. 

      Polymerase chain reaction

    • D. 

      T cell assay