6c051: Contractor Responsibility And Laws! Trivia Quiz

65 Questions | By 20CONS | Updated: Mar 20, 2022 | Attempts: 799

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6c051: Contractor Responsibility And Laws! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

When it comes to construction, it is very important that you follow the laws governing your profession and that you do not fall into some of the risks involves with your line of work. Are you planning on being a constructor in the air force? Test out what you know about constructor responsibilities and laws on 6c051 by taking up this quiz. All the best!

Questions and Answers

1.

(401) Which standards are used to determine contractor responsibility before making an award to a contractor?
- A.
  
  Resources, eligibility, and tax status
- B.
  
  Performance record, eligibility, and tax status
- C.
  
  Resources, performance record, and eligibility
- D.
  
  Performance record, resources, and tax status
2.

(401) A contractor excluded from government contracting for a reasonable, specified period of time because of conviction on a criminal offense in connection with obtaining a public contract is
- A.
  
  Debarred
- B.
  
  Ineligible
- C.
  
  Suspended
- D.
  
  Unqualified
3.

(401) Which of the following systems is not used in making a determination of contractor responsibility?
- A.
  
  Dun and Bradstreet System (D&B)
- B.
  
  Excluded Parties Listing System (EPLS)
- C.
  
  Past Performance Information Retrieval System (PPIRS)
- D.
  
  Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS)
4.

(401) What action must a contracting officer (CO) take in the absence of information clearly indicating that a prospective contractor is responsible?
- A.
  
  Request performance and payment bonds
- B.
  
  Document the file and proceed with award
- C.
  
  Make a determination of nonresponsibility
- D.
  
  Provide the contractor with a neutral rating
5.

(401) What action should be taken if legal proceedings are not initiated within 12 months after the date of a suspension notice?
- A.
  
  Debar the contractor
- B.
  
  Terminate the suspension
- C.
  
  Suspend the contractor for an additional 12 months
- D.
  
  File a complaint with the assistant attorney general
6.

(401) What does the Small Business Administration issue as assurance that a small business has been determined responsible for the purpose of receiving and performing a specific government contract?
- A.
  
  8(a) certification
- B.
  
  HUBZone certification
- C.
  
  Certificate of Competency (COC)
- D.
  
  Certificate of Responsibility (COR)
7.

(402) When an offeror proposes more than one product that will meet the government’s need, how are the offers evaluated?
- A.
  
  Reject all offers as nonresponsive
- B.
  
  Evaluate each product as a separate offer
- C.
  
  Review all offers and select only the best value for evaluation
- D.
  
  Evaluate the low bid and return other proposals to the contractor
8.

(402) Prepare the award of commercial items on the
- A.
  
  SF 33
- B.
  
  SF 1442
- C.
  
  SF 1449
- D.
  
  DD 1155
9.

(402) To the maximum extent possible, purchase orders for commercial items should include only those clauses required to implement provisions of law, or executive order, and
- A.
  
  The clauses prescribed by FAR Part 13
- B.
  
  Those clauses that are determined to be consistent with prevailing Air Force practice
- C.
  
  Those clauses that are determined to be consistent with prevailing commercial practice
- D.
  
  The clauses prescribed by Department of Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) for simplified acquisition procedures.
10.

(402) The simplified acquisition procedures of FAR Part 13 may be combined with FAR Part 12, Commercial Procedures, for
- A.
  
  Construction acquisitions
- B.
  
  Acquisitions requiring certified cost or pricing data
- C.
  
  Acquisitions up to the simplified acquisition threshold
- D.
  
  Any commercial acquisition regardless of dollar amount
11.

(403) Requirements solicited using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are typically evaluated on
- A.
  
  Price alone
- B.
  
  Past performance alone
- C.
  
  Contractor business size
- D.
  
  Overall ranking of offers
12.

(403) Options are evaluated by
- A.
  
  Using $500 as an evaluation factor
- B.
  
  Considering only the cost of the basic year and awarding to the lowest bid
- C.
  
  Adding the total price for all options to the total price for the basic requirement
- D.
  
  Adding 10 percent of the total price for the basic requirement to the basic requirement price
13.

(403) What may be used in lieu of obtaining individual quotations each time a purchase for the same item is contemplated?
- A.
  
  Previous purchase price
- B.
  
  Standing price quotation
- C.
  
  Independent government estimate
- D.
  
  Lowest price available based on market research
14.

(403) A purchase order must
- A.
  
  Provide for inspection terms
- B.
  
  Specify f.o.b. origin for supplies
- C.
  
  Exclude prompt payment discounts
- D.
  
  Identify an offeror’s tax identification number
15.

(403) When only one reply is received in response to a solicitation estimated at less than the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), what action must the contracting officer take before making the award?
- A.
  
  An award may not be made; cancel the solicitation
- B.
  
  No further action is required; award to the one responding contractor
- C.
  
  Include a statement in the contract file giving the basis of the determination of contractor responsibility
- D.
  
  Include a statement in the contract file giving the basis of the determination of fair and reasonable price
16.

(403) What clause must be included in an unpriced purchase order?
- A.
  
  New Material
- B.
  
  Notice to Supplier
- C.
  
  Fast Payment Procedure
- D.
  
  Contract Terms and Conditions–Commercial Items
17.

(404) The cover page and each page containing source selection information must be marked
- A.
  
  For Official Use Only—See FAR 2.101 and 3.104
- B.
  
  For Official Use Only—See FAR 12.101 and 13.104
- C.
  
  Source Selection Information—See FAR 2.101 and 3.104.
- D.
  
  Source Selection Information—See FAR 12.101 and 13.104
18.

(404) All personnel involved in source selections must
- A.
  
  Sign a non-disclosure agreement
- B.
  
  Possess a current security clearance
- C.
  
  Meet mandatory grade requirements prior to being assigned to the source selection team
- D.
  
  Be interviewed by the contracting officer prior to being assigned to the source selection team
19.

(403) Which section of a blanket purchase agreement contains accounting and appropriation data?
- A.
  
  Invoices.
- B.
  
  Extent of obligation
- C.
  
  Description of agreement
- D.
  
  Accounting and appropriation data are not cited
20.

(403) In order to cancel a blanket purchasing agreement a contractor must give how many days written notice to the government?
- A.
  
  1 day
- B.
  
  10 days
- C.
  
  30 days
- D.
  
  90 days
21.

(403) Calls placed against a prepriced blanket purchase agreement
- A.
  
  Must contain clauses
- B.
  
  Do not require funding
- C.
  
  May only be placed orally
- D.
  
  Must be placed by an authorized caller.
22.

(404) What action must a contracting officer (CO) take when a late proposal is received?
- A.
  
  Designate the offer as nonresponsive
- B.
  
  Eliminate the offeror from the competitive range
- C.
  
  Provide a notice of late receipt and indicate whether or not the offer will be considered
- D.
  
  Disregard the proposal and provide a notice to unsuccessful offerors letter after an award is made
23.

404) Can a proposal be withdrawn at any time before award?
- A.
  
  Yes, by written notice at any time before award
- B.
  
  No, the proposal is retained with the contract file
- C.
  
  No, once submitted, the proposal will be opened at closing
- D.
  
  Yes, at any time before award, provided the contracting officer writes a determination and finding (D&F).
24.

(405) One indicator of an offeror’s ability to perform the contract is
- A.
  
  By evaluating past performance
- B.
  
  The relative size of the company
- C.
  
  By conducting interviews with offerors
- D.
  
  By reviewing the offeror’s financial records
25.

(405) Relevancy may be used in a past performance evaluation to
- A.
  
  Validate small business size status
- B.
  
  Measure similarities in contract efforts
- C.
  
  Determine an offeror’s current workload
- D.
  
  Measure time that has elapsed since the referenced past performance occurred