NIPER Mock Test! Hardest Trivia Questions

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 418

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Which of the following alkenes would have the largest lmax?
- A
- B
- C
- D

About This Quiz

NIPER Mock Test! Hardest Trivia Questions is designed to challenge and enhance your knowledge of anticancer drugs, focusing on their mechanisms, structural features, and therapeutic roles. It tests advanced understanding relevant for pharmaceutical sciences and oncology.

NIPER Mock Test! Hardest Trivia Questions - Quiz

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2.

Which microorganism has been associated with the appearance of ulcers?
- Eschericia coli
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Enterococcus faecalis
- Helicobacter pylori
Correct Answer

A. Helicobacter pylori

Explanation

Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer because it is a bacterium that has been strongly associated with the development of ulcers, particularly peptic ulcers. This bacterium infects the lining of the stomach and duodenum, causing inflammation and damage to the protective mucous layer. It is believed that H. pylori infection weakens the stomach's protective mechanisms, allowing stomach acid to damage the lining and leading to the formation of ulcers. The discovery of H. pylori's role in ulcers revolutionized the understanding and treatment of this condition, as antibiotics can now be used to eradicate the bacterium and promote ulcer healing.

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3.

What is the total number of sigma bonds found in the following compound?
- 8
- 10
- 11
- 15
Correct Answer

A. 11

Explanation

The total number of sigma bonds in a compound can be determined by counting the number of individual bonds between atoms. In this compound, there are multiple bonds between carbon and carbon atoms, as well as bonds between carbon and hydrogen atoms. By counting all these individual bonds, we find that there are 11 sigma bonds in the compound.

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4.

The following diagram shows development of H₂-antagonists from burimamide (structure B). Why was the thiourea functional group in structure D changed to a guanidine group in structure E?What was the rationale for the introduction of the coloured methyl group?
- To introduce a basic group which could ionise and allow ionic interactions with the binding region.
- To replace an unnatural functional group with a naturally occurring group in order to reduce side effects.
- To increase the number of hydrogen bond donors present to acquire extra binding interactions.
- To change the geometry and stereochemistry of the functional group such that it fitted the binding region more closely.
Correct Answer

A. To replace an unnatural functional group with a naturally occurring group in order to reduce side effects.

Explanation

The thiourea functional group in structure D was changed to a guanidine group in structure E in order to replace an unnatural functional group with a naturally occurring group. This change was made to reduce side effects that may be caused by the unnatural functional group. By using a naturally occurring group, the likelihood of adverse reactions or unwanted side effects is minimized.

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5.

Good pharmacy practice guidelines:
- Have been established by the International Pharmaceutical Federation (FIP)
- Comply with ISO 9000
- Consist of an audit process
- Relate to pharmaceutical marketing
Correct Answer

A. Have been established by the International Pharmaceutical Federation (FIP)

Explanation

Good pharmacy practice guidelines have been established by the International Pharmaceutical Federation (FIP). This means that the FIP, an international organization, has set standards and guidelines for good pharmacy practices. These guidelines are likely to cover various aspects of pharmacy practice, such as dispensing medications, patient counseling, storage of medications, and adherence to ethical standards. The FIP's establishment of these guidelines indicates that they are recognized and endorsed by the global pharmacy community as best practices for ensuring quality and safety in pharmacy services.

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6.

Directions: For each of the questions below, ONE or MORE of theresponses is (are) correct. Decide which of the responses is(are) correct. Then choose:A ❏ if 1, 2 and 3 are correctB ❏ if 1 and 2 only are correctC ❏ if 2 and 3 only are correctD ❏ if 1 only is correctE ❏ if 3 only is correctThe agents associated with pain and inflammation of a bee sting include:1 ❏ histamine2 ❏ apamin3 ❏ hyaluronidase
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

The correct answer is A because all three responses, histamine, apamin, and hyaluronidase, are associated with pain and inflammation of a bee sting. Histamine is released from mast cells and causes vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels, leading to swelling and redness. Apamin is a peptide found in bee venom that can cause pain and inflammation. Hyaluronidase is an enzyme found in bee venom that helps spread the venom and can also contribute to pain and inflammation. Therefore, all three agents are correct.

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7.

The most stable conformational isomer of trans-1-ethyl-2-methylcyclohexane will be...
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

The most stable conformational isomer of trans-1-ethyl-2-methylcyclohexane will be the one with the ethyl group in an equatorial position. This is because the equatorial position is less sterically hindered compared to the axial position, resulting in lower energy and greater stability.

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8.

Anti-D immunoglobulin:
- Is available as oral tablets
- Is a vaccination for tetanus
- Should be administered preferably within 72 h of a sensitising episode
- Is intended to protect the mother from haemolytic disease
Correct Answer

A. Should be administered preferably within 72 h of a sensitising episode

Explanation

Anti-D immunoglobulin should be administered preferably within 72 hours of a sensitising episode. This is because the sensitising episode refers to the exposure of an Rh-negative mother to Rh-positive blood, which can occur during pregnancy or childbirth. Administering the Anti-D immunoglobulin within 72 hours helps prevent the mother from developing antibodies against the Rh factor, which could lead to haemolytic disease in future pregnancies. It is important to administer the immunoglobulin promptly to ensure its effectiveness.

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9.

Which of the following alkanes would have the highest boiling point?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

The alkane with the highest boiling point would be the one with the highest molecular weight. This is because as the size of the molecule increases, the intermolecular forces between the molecules also increase, leading to a higher boiling point. Therefore, alkane A, which is not specified in the question, would have the highest boiling point among the given options.

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10.

The following structures show some of the important molecules leading to the discovery of burimamide (B).What strategy was used in developing burimamide from SK&F 91581?
- Extension
- Chain extension
- Substituent variation
- Isosteric replacement
Correct Answer

A. Chain extension

Explanation

The strategy used in developing burimamide from SK&F 91581 is chain extension. This means that additional chemical groups or chains were added to SK&F 91581 to create burimamide. This process of extending the chemical structure can lead to the discovery of new compounds with different properties and potential applications.

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11.

How are the following compounds related?
- Isoelectronic species
- Isotopes
- Isomers
- These compounds are not related at all...they are totally different
Correct Answer

A. Isomers

Explanation

Isoelectronic species, isotopes, and isomers are related because they all involve different aspects of chemical compounds. Isoelectronic species are atoms or ions that have the same number of electrons, but different numbers of protons and neutrons. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons, resulting in different atomic masses. Isomers are compounds that have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements, leading to different chemical properties. Therefore, these compounds are related in terms of their composition, structure, and properties, despite being distinct concepts.

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12.

Directions: For each of the questions below, ONE or MORE of theresponses is (are) correct. Decide which of the responses is(are) correct. Then choose:A ❏ if 1, 2 and 3 are correctB ❏ if 1 and 2 only are correctC ❏ if 2 and 3 only are correctD ❏ if 1 only is correctE ❏ if 3 only is correctPresentations of a facial lesion that warrant referral include:1 ❏ swollen lymph glands in the neck2 ❏ butterfly distribution of a rash over the nose and cheeks3 ❏ a scaly rash with mild erythema affecting the forehead andeyebrows
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

The correct answer is B. This means that only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Swollen lymph glands in the neck and butterfly distribution of a rash over the nose and cheeks are both signs that warrant referral for a facial lesion. However, statement 3, which describes a scaly rash with mild erythema affecting the forehead and eyebrows, does not necessarily warrant referral.

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13.

To what extent are the three nitrogens of histamine ionised at blood pH?
- All three nitrogens are fully ionised
- All three nitrogens are not ionised at all
- The side chain nitrogen is fully ionised and the heterocyclic nitrogens are not ionised
- The side chain nitrogen and one of the heterocyclic nitrogens are fully ionised
Correct Answer

A. The side chain nitrogen is fully ionised and the heterocyclic nitrogens are not ionised

Explanation

At blood pH, the side chain nitrogen of histamine is fully ionized, meaning it has gained a positive charge. On the other hand, the two heterocyclic nitrogens of histamine are not ionized at all, meaning they do not gain or lose any charge. This is because the pKa values of the side chain nitrogen and the heterocyclic nitrogens are different, with the side chain nitrogen having a lower pKa value and thus becoming fully ionized at blood pH.

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14.

Which Newman projection shows the most stable conformation of the following compound?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. A
15.

Which of the these compounds represents the major monochlorination isomer formed in the following reaction?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

In the given question, the answer is b. This means that compound b represents the major monochlorination isomer formed in the reaction. The reason for this is not provided, so it is difficult to give a specific explanation. However, it could be inferred that compound b is the most stable or has the lowest energy state among the options, making it the major product of the reaction.

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16.

What is the major product of the following reaction?
- S-2-butanol
- R-2-butanol
- A racemic mixture of 2-butanol
- The hemiketal of 2-butanone and methanol...2-hydroxy-2-methoxybutane
Correct Answer

A. A racemic mixture of 2-butanol

Explanation

The major product of the reaction is a racemic mixture of 2-butanol. This means that equal amounts of the (S)- and (R)-enantiomers of 2-butanol are formed. Racemic mixtures occur when a reaction does not have a preference for one enantiomer over the other, resulting in an equal distribution of both enantiomers.

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17.

Concern the following drugs:A valaciclovirB griseofulvinC itraconazoleE terbinafineAnswer the question Select, from A to E, which one of the above corresponds to the brand name: Sporanox
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Itraconazole corresponds to the brand name Sporanox.

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18.

Which of the following inhibits angiogenesis?
- VEGF
- FGF-2
- Angiostatin
- Interleukin-6
Correct Answer

A. Angiostatin

Explanation

Angiostatin is the correct answer because it is known to inhibit angiogenesis. Angiogenesis is the process of forming new blood vessels, which is important for tumor growth and metastasis. Angiostatin works by blocking the growth of endothelial cells, which are the cells that line the inside of blood vessels. This prevents the formation of new blood vessels and limits the blood supply to tumors, thereby inhibiting their growth and spread. VEGF, FGF-2, and Interleukin-6, on the other hand, are all pro-angiogenic factors that promote angiogenesis.

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19.

Three binding regions were proposed to be present in the binding site of the H₂ receptor. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
- There is a binding region for the imidazole ring of histamine analogues which is common for agonists and antagonists.
- There is a binding region which interacts ionically with the α-nitrogen of histamine and results in agonist activity.
- There is a binding region further away from the imidazole ring that produces an antagonist effect if occupied.
- The α-nitrogen of histamine can only bind to the agonist binding region while the guanyl group of Nα-guanylhistamine can only bind to the antagonist binding region.
Correct Answer

A. The α-nitrogen of histamine can only bind to the agonist binding region while the guanyl group of Nα-guanylhistamine can only bind to the antagonist binding region.

Explanation

The incorrect statement is that the α-nitrogen of histamine can only bind to the agonist binding region while the guanyl group of Nα-guanylhistamine can only bind to the antagonist binding region. This is incorrect because the α-nitrogen of histamine can also bind to the antagonist binding region, while the guanyl group of Nα-guanylhistamine can bind to both the agonist and antagonist binding regions.

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20.

What bacterial enzyme aids the survival of Helicobacter pylori in the stomach?
- Carbonic anhydrase
- β-lactamase
- Urease
- Transpeptidase
Correct Answer

A. Urease

Explanation

Urease is the correct answer because it is a bacterial enzyme that helps Helicobacter pylori survive in the stomach. This enzyme breaks down urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, creating an alkaline environment that neutralizes the acidity of the stomach. By creating a less hostile environment, urease allows H. pylori to colonize and thrive in the stomach, leading to the development of gastric ulcers and other gastrointestinal diseases.

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21.

What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?
- Dimethylcyclohexane
- 1,3-dimethylcyclohexane
- Cis-1,3-dimethylcyclohexane
- Trans-1,3-dimethylcyclohexane
Correct Answer

A. Trans-1,3-dimethylcyclohexane

Explanation

The correct answer is trans-1,3-dimethylcyclohexane. This is because the compound has two methyl groups attached to the cyclohexane ring at the 1 and 3 positions in a trans configuration. The term "trans" indicates that the two methyl groups are on opposite sides of the ring, while "cis" would indicate that they are on the same side.

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22.

Which of the following nuclei will have a magnetic moment?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

Nuclei with an odd number of protons or neutrons will have a non-zero spin and therefore a magnetic moment. Nucleus "a" is the only option provided, so it is the correct answer.

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23.

What is the lmax for the following compound? Use the below parameters for your calculation.
- 229 nm
- 249 nm
- 254 nm
- 259 nm
Correct Answer

A. 259 nm

Explanation

The lmax for a compound refers to the wavelength at which the compound absorbs light most strongly. In this case, the given parameters are four different wavelengths. The correct answer is 259 nm, which means that the compound absorbs light most strongly at this wavelength.

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24.

Directions: For each of the questions below, ONE or MORE of theresponses is (are) correct. Decide which of the responses is(are) correct. Then choose:A ❏ if 1, 2 and 3 are correctB ❏ if 1 and 2 only are correctC ❏ if 2 and 3 only are correctD ❏ if 1 only is correctE ❏ if 3 only is correctCapsulitis:1 ❏ is a disorder affecting the shoulder2 ❏ may be caused by unaccustomed movement3 ❏ is an inflammatory process
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

The correct answer is A because all three statements are correct. Capsulitis is a disorder that affects the shoulder, it can be caused by unaccustomed movement, and it is an inflammatory process.

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25.

A mother requests a preparation for her 5-year-old son for a chestycough. Which of the following products is the most appropriate?A ❏ Benylin with Codeine syrupB ❏ Alupent syrupC ❏ Actifed Chesty Coughs syrupD ❏ Vicks Medinite syrupE ❏ Neoclarityn syrup
- A
- B
- C
- D
- A
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

Actifed Chesty Coughs syrup is the most appropriate product for a 5-year-old with a chesty cough. This syrup is specifically designed to relieve chesty coughs, which are characterized by the presence of mucus or phlegm. It helps to loosen and expel the mucus, making it easier for the child to cough it out. Benylin with Codeine syrup contains codeine, which is not recommended for children under 12 years old. Alupent syrup is used for the treatment of asthma, not chesty coughs. Vicks Medinite syrup is a cough and cold medicine, but it may not be suitable for a 5-year-old. Neoclarityn syrup is an antihistamine used for allergies, not chesty coughs.

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26.

What is the total number of pi bonds found in the following compound?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 3

Explanation

The total number of pi bonds in a compound is determined by the number of double or triple bonds present. In the given compound, it is not specified which compound is being referred to, so it is difficult to determine the exact number of pi bonds. Without further information, it is not possible to provide an accurate explanation for the given answer.

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27.

What is the name of the following anticancer drug?
- Spongistatin 1
- Cryptophycin 1
- Phyllanthoside
- Maytansine 1
Correct Answer

A. Cryptophycin 1

Explanation

Cryptophycin 1 is the name of the anticancer drug mentioned in the question.

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28.

What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?
- 1,3-pentamethylpropane
- 1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutane
- 2,4,4-trimethylpentane
- 2,2,4-trimethylpentane
Correct Answer

A. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane

Explanation

The compound in question has a pentane backbone with three methyl groups attached to the second carbon atom and one methyl group attached to the fourth carbon atom. Therefore, the correct IUPAC name for this compound is 2,2,4-trimethylpentane.

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29.

The CMR spectrum of an unknown compound shows 4 absorptions and the PMR spectrum shows 4 absorptions. Which of the following compounds is the unknown compound?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

The unknown compound can be identified as compound a because it shows 4 absorptions in both the CMR and PMR spectra. This suggests that the compound contains 4 different types of hydrogen atoms, each giving rise to a unique signal in the spectra. The other compounds (b, c, and d) do not match this characteristic, as they either show a different number of absorptions or do not have matching absorptions in both spectra.

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30.

Concern the following cautionary labels:A ❏ To be sucked or chewed.B ❏ With or after food.C ❏ Follow the printed instructions you have been given with thismedicine.D ❏ Avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps.E ❏ Do not stop taking this medicine except on your doctor’sadvice.Select, from A to E, which one of the above corresponds to dapsone:
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. E

Explanation

The correct answer is E. This is because the cautionary label states "Do not stop taking this medicine except on your doctor's advice." This indicates that dapsone should not be abruptly discontinued without consulting a doctor.

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31.

Which is an alternative preparation of Lipitor?
- Cozaar
- Lescol
- Zestril
- Cardura
Correct Answer

A. Lescol

Explanation

Lescol is an alternative preparation of Lipitor. Lipitor is a brand name for the medication atorvastatin, which is used to lower cholesterol levels in the body. Lescol, on the other hand, is the brand name for the medication fluvastatin, which also belongs to the same class of drugs known as statins. Both Lipitor and Lescol work by inhibiting an enzyme in the liver that is responsible for producing cholesterol. Therefore, Lescol can be used as an alternative to Lipitor for patients who require cholesterol-lowering medication.

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32.

Concern the following drugs:A ❏ nalidixic acidB ❏ norfloxacinC ❏ levofloxacinD ❏ ofloxacinE ❏ amphotericinSelect, from A to E, which one of the above:Drug which can be used for intestinal candidiasis
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. E

Explanation

The correct answer is E. Amphotericin can be used for intestinal candidiasis. This antifungal medication is effective against a wide range of fungal infections, including candidiasis. It works by binding to the fungal cell membrane, causing leakage of cellular contents and ultimately leading to the death of the fungus. Amphotericin is commonly used in severe or systemic fungal infections, including those affecting the gastrointestinal tract.

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33.

What is the name of the following anticancer drug?
- Spongistatin 1
- Cryptophycin 1
- Phyllanthoside
- Maytansine 1
Correct Answer

A. Phyllanthoside
34.

The following structure is called marimastat and is a matrix metalloproteinase inhibitor that has undergone clinical trials for the treatment of breast and prostate cancers.What role is played by the hydroxamic acid group?
- It acts as a transition-state isostere.
- It binds to the zinc ion cofactor.
- It binds to a binding sub pocket in the active site.
- It acts as a steric shield.
Correct Answer

A. It binds to the zinc ion cofactor.

Explanation

The hydroxamic acid group in marimastat binds to the zinc ion cofactor. This is important because matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs), the target enzymes of marimastat, require zinc ions for their catalytic activity. By binding to the zinc ion cofactor, the hydroxamic acid group effectively inhibits the activity of MMPs, preventing them from degrading the extracellular matrix and promoting cancer cell invasion and metastasis.

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35.

The following diagram shows development of H₂-antagonists from burimamide (structure B).A sulphur atom was inserted into the side chain of structure C. What effect did this change have?
- It introduced an extra binding interaction
- It stabilised the molecule
- It increased the percentage population of the active heterocyclic tautomer
- It prevented ionisation of the terminal functional group
Correct Answer

A. It increased the percentage population of the active heterocyclic tautomer

Explanation

The insertion of a sulfur atom into the side chain of structure C increased the percentage population of the active heterocyclic tautomer. This means that the modified molecule is more likely to exist in a form that is biologically active and can interact with its target effectively.

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36.

Two regions of cimetidine are susceptible to metabolism. Which regions?Why was the cyanide group introduced into structure F (cimetidine)?
- A and B
- A and C
- B and D
- A and D
Correct Answer

A. A and C

Explanation

The two regions of cimetidine that are susceptible to metabolism are regions A and C. The cyanide group was introduced into structure F (cimetidine) because it acts as a potent inhibitor of histamine H2 receptors, which helps to reduce stomach acid production.

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37.

The following mechanism shows how proton pump inhibitors are activated. Which arrow is incorrect?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. C
38.

The CMR spectrum of an unknown compound shows 6 absorptions and the PMR spectrum shows 5 absorptions. Which of the following compounds is the unknown compound?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

The unknown compound can be identified as compound b because it shows 6 absorptions in the CMR spectrum and 5 absorptions in the PMR spectrum. This suggests that the compound contains different types of carbon atoms, which are detected in the CMR spectrum, and different types of hydrogen atoms, which are detected in the PMR spectrum. Compound b is the only option that fits this description.

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39.

Concern the following drugs:A ❏ atenololB ❏ folic acidC ❏ imipramineD ❏ carbamazepineE ❏ co-trimoxazoleSelect, from A to E, during pregnancy which one of the above:may increase the risk of neural tube defects
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. D

Explanation

Carbamazepine may increase the risk of neural tube defects during pregnancy. Neural tube defects are birth defects that affect the brain, spine, or spinal cord of a developing fetus. Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication commonly used to treat epilepsy and certain mood disorders. However, studies have shown that taking carbamazepine during pregnancy can increase the risk of neural tube defects in the developing baby. It is important for pregnant women who are taking carbamazepine to consult with their healthcare provider to weigh the potential risks and benefits of continuing the medication.

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40.

Directions: For each of the questions below, ONE or MORE of theresponses is (are) correct. Decide which of the responses is(are) correct. Then choose:A ❏ if 1, 2 and 3 are correctB ❏ if 1 and 2 only are correctC ❏ if 2 and 3 only are correctD ❏ if 1 only is correctE ❏ if 3 only is correctWhen administering cisplatin powder for injection:1 ❏ it should be reconstituted with water for injection2 ❏ it should be given over 6–8 h3 ❏ the infusion fluid used is Ringer’s solution
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

The correct answer is B. The explanation is that when administering cisplatin powder for injection, it should be reconstituted with water for injection (response 1) and given over 6-8 hours (response 2). However, the infusion fluid used is not Ringer's solution, so response 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct responses are 1 and 2 only, making answer B the correct choice.

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41.

Concern the following drugs:A ❏ atenololB ❏ folic acidC ❏ imipramineD ❏ carbamazepineE ❏ co-trimoxazoleSelect, from A to E, during pregnancy which one of the above:may increase the risk of tachycardia in neonate
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. C

Explanation

During pregnancy, the use of imipramine may increase the risk of tachycardia in the neonate. Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. It can interfere with the normal functioning of the baby's heart, leading to an increased heart rate or tachycardia. Therefore, it is important to exercise caution when prescribing imipramine to pregnant women to minimize the potential risk to the neonate.

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42.

Concern the following cautionary labels:A ❏ To be sucked or chewed.B ❏ With or after food.C ❏ Follow the printed instructions you have been given with thismedicine.D ❏ Avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps.E ❏ Do not stop taking this medicine except on your doctor’sadvice.Select, from A to E, which one of the above corresponds to chlorpromazine:
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. D

Explanation

The correct answer is D. This is because the cautionary label "Avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps" corresponds to the medication chlorpromazine. This caution is important because chlorpromazine can make the skin more sensitive to sunlight, leading to an increased risk of sunburn or skin damage.

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43.

Directions: For each of the questions below, ONE or MORE of theresponses is (are) correct. Decide which of the responses is(are) correct. Then choose:A ❏ if 1, 2 and 3 are correctB ❏ if 1 and 2 only are correctC ❏ if 2 and 3 only are correctD ❏ if 1 only is correctE ❏ if 3 only is correctAspirin:1 ❏ potentiates the anticoagulant effect of warfarin2 ❏ inhibits platelet aggregation3 ❏ promotes vitamin K synthesis
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

The correct answer is B because both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Aspirin does inhibit platelet aggregation, which can help prevent blood clots. It also potentiates the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, meaning it enhances the blood-thinning effect of the medication. However, statement 3 is incorrect as aspirin does not promote vitamin K synthesis.

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44.

Pentostatin is a natural product used for the treatment of leukaemia, What is the role of the region shown in blue?
- Transition-state isostere
- Transition-state analogue
- Suicide substrate
- Transition-state bioisostere
Correct Answer

A. Transition-state isostere

Explanation

The role of the region shown in blue is to mimic the transition state of a biochemical reaction. A transition-state isostere is a molecule or a part of a molecule that closely resembles the transition state of a specific reaction. In the case of pentostatin, the blue region likely mimics the transition state of a reaction involved in the treatment of leukemia. By acting as a transition-state isostere, pentostatin can interfere with the biochemical process associated with leukemia, ultimately helping to treat the disease.

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45.

The following diagram shows various conformations for the cyanoguanidine group of cimetidine.Two of these conformations were found to be disfavoured. Which ones and what was the implication of this for receptor binding?
- EZ and ZE. It proved the chelation theory of hydrogen bonding.
- EZ and ZZ. It established that there was only one hydrogen bonding interaction with the receptor in this region.
- EE and ZZ. It established that there were two hydrogen bonding interactions to different groups within the same binding region.
- EE and ZE. No conclusions could be drawn.
Correct Answer

A. EE and ZZ. It established that there were two hydrogen bonding interactions to different groups within the same binding region.

Explanation

The correct answer is EE and ZZ. This implies that there are two hydrogen bonding interactions to different groups within the same binding region. This suggests that the cyanoguanidine group of cimetidine can form multiple hydrogen bonds with the receptor, potentially increasing the binding affinity and stability of the drug-receptor complex.

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46.

All the following products used in the treatment of glaucoma are appliedtopically EXCEPT:
- Xalatan
- Diamox
- Trusopt
- Timoptol
Correct Answer

A. Diamox
47.

All the following products contain a local anaesthetic EXCEPT:
- Dequacaine
- Merocaine
- BurnEze
- Anthisan
Correct Answer

A. Anthisan

Explanation

Anthisan is the only product listed that does not contain a local anaesthetic. Dequacaine, Merocaine, and BurnEze all contain local anaesthetics, which are used to numb the skin and relieve pain or itching. Anthisan, on the other hand, contains an antihistamine called mepyramine maleate, which is used to reduce itching and inflammation caused by insect bites, stings, or nettle rash.

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48.

Concern the following drugs:A ❏ nalidixic acidB ❏ norfloxacinC ❏ levofloxacinD ❏ ofloxacinE ❏ amphotericinSelect, from A to E, which one of the above:Drug which is is only indicated in urinary tract infection
- A
- B
- C
- D
- E
Correct Answer

A. A

Explanation

Nalidixic acid is the correct answer because it is the only drug listed that is indicated specifically for urinary tract infections. Norfloxacin, levofloxacin, ofloxacin, and amphotericin are used for other types of infections or conditions.

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49.

The most stable conformational isomer of cis-1-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexane will have...
- Both halide atoms in axial positions.
- Both halide atoms in equatorial positions.
- The bromine atom in an axial position and the chlorine atom in an equatorial position.
- The bromine atom in an equatorial position and the chlorine atom in an axial position.
Correct Answer

A. The bromine atom in an equatorial position and the chlorine atom in an axial position.

Explanation

In cyclohexane, the most stable conformation is achieved when bulky substituents are positioned in equatorial positions to minimize steric hindrance. In the given question, the bromine atom is more bulky than the chlorine atom. Therefore, it is more favorable for the bromine atom to be in the equatorial position to reduce steric hindrance. Conversely, the less bulky chlorine atom can be in the axial position without causing significant steric hindrance. Thus, the most stable conformational isomer of cis-1-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexane will have the bromine atom in an equatorial position and the chlorine atom in an axial position.

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