3D152 Ure Volume 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

    • All personnel.
    • Only safety personnel.
    • Only civilian personnel.
    • Only medical personnel.
Please wait...
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3D152 URE Volume 1', assesses knowledge in deploying, sustaining, and troubleshooting military communication systems. It focuses on core competencies in radio frequency systems and cyber transport, essential for Air Force personnel.

Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    (006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risks?

    • Risk control

    • Safety control

    • Risk management

    • Safety management

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk management
    Explanation
    Risk management is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risks. It involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate them. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions that optimize their combat capability while minimizing potential hazards and vulnerabilities. This process ensures that the necessary precautions are taken to protect personnel, equipment, and mission success.

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  • 3. 

    (009) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

    • Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host

    • Consume resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down

    • Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords

    • Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed

    Correct Answer
    A. Consume resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down
    Explanation
    A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows down the device. This is a disadvantage because it can impact the performance and efficiency of the host system. The HIDS needs to constantly monitor and analyze the activities on the host, which requires processing power and memory resources. As a result, the host may experience decreased speed and responsiveness.

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  • 4. 

    (021) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

    • Working at a bench.

    • Walking across carpet.

    • Walking across a vinyl floor.

    • Picking up a common plastic bag.

    Correct Answer
    A. Walking across carpet.
    Explanation
    Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic current because when we walk on carpet, friction between our shoes and the carpet causes the transfer of electrons. This transfer of electrons creates an imbalance of charges, resulting in an accumulation of static electricity. This static electricity can then be discharged through contact with conductive objects, leading to a flow of electrostatic current.

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  • 5. 

    (022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

    • Sag.

    • Spike.

    • Noise.

    • Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blackout.
    Explanation
    A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, meaning there is no electricity available. This is different from other power line faults such as sag, spike, or noise, which may cause fluctuations or disturbances in the power supply but do not result in a total loss of power.

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  • 6. 

    (022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

    • Sag.

    • Spike.

    • Noise.

    • Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spike.
    Explanation
    A spike is a power line fault category that is characterized by an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage. This sudden surge in voltage can cause damage to electrical equipment and appliances connected to the power line. Unlike other power line faults such as sag, noise, or blackout, a spike is a temporary and short-lived event. It can occur due to lightning strikes, power surges, or sudden changes in the electrical grid. Therefore, spike is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 7. 

    (040) What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

    • Packet internetwork groper (PING).

    • Traffic generator.

    • Route generator.

    • Trace route.

    Correct Answer
    A. Packet internetwork groper (PING).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is an active test that is commonly used to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It works by sending a small packet of data to the target node and waiting for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the node is connected and responsive. PING is a widely used tool for troubleshooting network connectivity issues and measuring network performance.

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  • 8. 

    (003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • Core duty.

    • Core value.

    • Core competency.

    • Core responsibility.

    Correct Answer
    A. Core competency.
    Explanation
    Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the unique capabilities and strengths that an individual or organization possesses, which sets them apart from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for achieving competitive advantage and success in a specific industry or profession. They are the foundation for performing tasks, solving problems, and delivering value in a particular area of expertise.

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  • 9. 

    (022) Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

    • Sag.

    • Spike.

    • Noise.

    • Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Noise.
    Explanation
    The power line fault category that is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference is noise. Noise refers to any unwanted electrical signals that interfere with the normal operation of electronic devices. This interference can manifest as electromagnetic or radio frequency disturbances, causing disruptions or distortions in the power supply.

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  • 10. 

    (028) Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

    • Unshielded.

    • Shielded.

    • Twisted Pair.

    • Multipair.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shielded.
    Explanation
    Shielded cables are designed with a conductive layer that surrounds the inner wires, providing a barrier against electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). This shielding prevents the cable from radiating energy and also protects it from being affected by nearby magnetic fields. Shielded cables are commonly used in environments where there is a high risk of interference, such as in industrial settings or near power lines.

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  • 11. 

    (030) What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

    • RJ-11

    • RJ-15

    • RJ-45

    • RJ-49

    Correct Answer
    A. RJ-45
    Explanation
    RJ-45 is the correct answer because it is the standard conductor used for data networking. RJ-45 connectors are commonly used for Ethernet connections in computer networks. They have 8 pins and are designed to transmit data at high speeds. RJ-11, RJ-15, and RJ-49 are not commonly used for data networking and are typically used for telephone connections or other purposes.

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  • 12. 

    (038) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

    • Emitter.

    • Receiver.

    • Transmitter.

    • Synchronizer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver.
    Explanation
    In a bit error rate test (BERT) set, the receiver section is responsible for measuring the received test pattern. The receiver analyzes the incoming data and compares it to the transmitted pattern to determine the number of bit errors. By measuring the received test pattern, the receiver can assess the quality and accuracy of the transmission, helping to identify and troubleshoot any issues or errors in the communication channel.

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  • 13. 

    (001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

    • Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)

    • Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)

    • Spectrum Operations (3D1X4)

    • Client Systems (3D1X1)

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3). This career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of transmission devices such as wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite systems. This job requires expertise in working with encryption technology and ensuring secure communication.

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  • 14. 

    (005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observers is normally performed by the

    • Trainer

    • Certifier

    • Technician

    • Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    Supervisors typically perform the role of safety observers when working on electrical circuits. They are responsible for overseeing and ensuring the safety of the work being conducted. Supervisors have the authority to enforce safety protocols, monitor the work environment, and intervene if any unsafe practices or conditions are observed. Their role is crucial in preventing accidents and ensuring that all safety measures are followed during electrical circuit work.

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  • 15. 

    (020) What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

    • Protection from noise.

    • Protection from lightning.

    • Protection from blackouts.

    • Protection from brownout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protection from lightning.
    Explanation
    An integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors that are securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provides protection from lightning. This system is designed to safely conduct the high voltage current from a lightning strike to the ground, preventing damage to the facility and its occupants. By providing a direct path for the lightning discharge, it helps to minimize the risk of fire, structural damage, and electrical surges caused by lightning strikes.

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  • 16. 

    (005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by  yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

    • Biological

    • Chemical

    • Physical

    • Stress

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress
    Explanation
    Stress is caused by various factors such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working alone, and conflict with coworkers and employers. These factors can lead to increased pressure and tension, resulting in stress. Stress can have negative effects on both physical and mental health, affecting overall well-being and productivity. Therefore, stress is the hazard caused by these mentioned factors.

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  • 17. 

    (005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

    • The circuit is energized.

    • You have a valid prescription.

    • They are certified for high voltage.

    • They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.
    Explanation
    When working on electrical circuits, wearing metal framed eyeglasses can pose a safety risk as they can conduct electricity. However, if the eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord, it ensures that they cannot fall off and come into contact with the circuit, reducing the risk of electrical shocks or short circuits.

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  • 18. 

    (012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

    • Set a login ID and password combination for access.

    • Install biometrics and encryption certificates.

    • Place a lock on computer.

    • Store in locked case.

    Correct Answer
    A. Set a login ID and password combination for access.
    Explanation
    The first line of defense in securing laptops is to set a login ID and password combination for access. This ensures that only authorized individuals can gain access to the laptop and its data. By requiring a unique login ID and a strong password, the laptop is protected from unauthorized users. This is a basic security measure that helps prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information and protects the laptop from potential threats.

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  • 19. 

    (013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

    • Having information ready when needed.

    • Not being able to deny who performed network actions.

    • The protection of the network from those not authorized access.

    • The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

    Correct Answer
    A. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission." Integrity in the context of identification, authentication, and encryption refers to the guarantee that information remains unchanged and unaltered, and that no unauthorized modifications or destruction have occurred. This ensures the reliability and trustworthiness of the data and protects it from unauthorized access or tampering.

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  • 20. 

    (019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

    • Cable.

    • Circuit.

    • Facility.

    • Equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cable. Shielding in cables is done using braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit, or twisted wire around a conductor. This shielding helps to protect the signal from external electromagnetic interference and ensures better signal integrity.

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  • 21. 

    (022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as "offline"?

    • Passive standby.

    • Line interactive.

    • Double conversion.

    • Ferro resonant standby.

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive standby.
    Explanation
    Passive standby is traditionally referred to as "offline" because it operates by allowing the connected equipment to receive power directly from the main power source, bypassing the UPS. In the event of a power outage or disturbance, the UPS switches to battery power and provides power to the connected equipment. This type of UPS is typically less expensive and provides basic protection against power failures, but may have a longer response time compared to other types of UPS systems.

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  • 22. 

    (029) What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

    • Tip and Ring.

    • Tip and Color.

    • Rate and Color.

    • Pair and Position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tip and Ring.
    Explanation
    Tip and Ring are used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable. The terms "Tip" and "Ring" originate from the early days of telephony, where they referred to the two conductors in a telephone circuit. The Tip conductor is typically the positive or active wire, while the Ring conductor is the negative or ground wire. By identifying and correctly connecting the Tip and Ring wires, the polarity of the wire pair can be determined, ensuring proper signal transmission and communication.

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  • 23. 

    (031) What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

    • The use of light-emitting diodes.

    • The broad bandwidth of the cable.

    • The low signal to noise ratio of the cable.

    • The multiplexing technique used in fiber optics.

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of light-emitting diodes.
    Explanation
    The use of light-emitting diodes has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable because LEDs are capable of emitting light at high frequencies, allowing for the transmission of large amounts of data. The high frequency of light signals enables faster data transfer rates, making it possible to achieve high data rates on fiber optics cables.

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  • 24. 

    (038) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

    • Cyclic redundancy check.

    • Bipolar violation.

    • Bit slip.

    • Frame.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bipolar violation.
    Explanation
    A bipolar violation is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules. Alternate mark inversion (AMI) is a line coding scheme used in telecommunications to ensure that the transmitted signal has a balanced number of positive and negative voltage levels. When two consecutive logic one pulses of the same polarity occur, it violates the AMI coding rules and is known as a bipolar violation. This error can cause signal distortion and can affect the accuracy of data transmission.

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  • 25. 

    (003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

    • Fixed cable systems

    • Voice network systems

    • Application software systems

    • Client-server database systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Voice network systems
    Explanation
    Voice network systems are a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems because they involve the design, implementation, and management of communication networks that transmit voice signals. These systems enable organizations to establish and maintain reliable voice communication channels, ensuring effective collaboration and information exchange. By specializing in voice network systems, Cyber Transport Systems can provide solutions that optimize voice communication infrastructure, such as VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) systems, PBX (Private Branch Exchange) systems, and call routing technologies. This expertise allows them to meet the communication needs of their clients and ensure seamless and secure voice communication within their networks.

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  • 26. 

    (036) What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?

    • Masking.

    • Distortion.

    • Deflection.

    • Overloading.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distortion.
    Explanation
    If you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far, it can lead to distortion in the observed signal. Distortion refers to any alteration or deformation of the original waveform, resulting in a loss of accuracy and fidelity. Advancing the synchronizing control too far can cause the oscilloscope to incorrectly synchronize with the input signal, leading to a distorted representation on the display. This can make it difficult to accurately analyze and interpret the waveform, affecting the reliability of measurements and observations.

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  • 27. 

    (040) What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

    • Trace route.

    • Route generator.

    • Traffic generator.

    • Packet internetwork groper (PING).

    Correct Answer
    A. Trace route.
    Explanation
    Trace route is the correct answer because it is a tool used to trace the path that packets take from the source to the destination. It shows the intermediate routers or hops that the packets go through and the time it takes for the packets to reach each hop. This information is useful for troubleshooting network connectivity issues and identifying any bottlenecks or delays in the network.

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  • 28. 

    (004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

    • 1118

    • 457

    • 55

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 457
    Explanation
    AF form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of reporting such conditions and ensuring that appropriate action is taken to mitigate the risks. It allows personnel to document and communicate any hazards they encounter, ensuring that necessary measures are taken to protect the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel and property.

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  • 29. 

    (007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept unnecessary risk.

    • Apply the RM process continuously.

    • Train and adhere to safety guidelines.

    • Make risk decisions at the lowest level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the RM process continuously.
    Explanation
    The principle of risk management (RM) is to apply the RM process continuously. This means that risk management should not be a one-time activity, but rather an ongoing process that is integrated into the daily operations of an organization. By continuously applying the RM process, organizations can identify and assess risks, develop strategies to mitigate them, and monitor and review the effectiveness of these strategies. This helps to ensure that risks are properly managed and that the organization is prepared to respond to any potential threats or hazards.

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  • 30. 

    (019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

    • Bonding.

    • Shielding.

    • Annealing.

    • Grounding.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shielding.
    Explanation
    Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect them from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves using conductive materials or coatings to create a barrier that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). It helps to isolate sensitive components and signals from external sources of interference, ensuring proper functioning and minimizing disruptions in electronic systems.

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  • 31. 

    (030) Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

    • Blue.

    • Orange.

    • White/blue.

    • White/orange.

    Correct Answer
    A. White/orange.
    Explanation
    Pin 1 on a typical EIA/TIA 568B connector is white/orange. In the EIA/TIA 568B color coding scheme, pin 1 is assigned to the white/orange wire. This color coding scheme is commonly used in Ethernet network cables for connecting devices. The white/orange wire is responsible for transmitting the positive voltage or signal in the connector.

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  • 32. 

    (037) What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

    • Microprocessor.

    • Acquisition.

    • Memory.

    • Input.

    Correct Answer
    A. Microprocessor.
    Explanation
    The microprocessor of a digital storage oscilloscope is responsible for taking digitized samples and performing various manipulations on the data. This includes measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations. The microprocessor acts as the brain of the oscilloscope, processing the captured data and providing the necessary calculations and measurements.

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  • 33. 

    (021) Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 - 999 volts?

    • Class I.

    • Class II.

    • Class III.

    • Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I.
    Explanation
    Class I is the correct answer because it is the only ESD class that has a sensitivity range from 0 - 999 volts. Class II, III, and IV do not have this sensitivity range.

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  • 34. 

    (034) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

    • Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.

    • Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

    • Place the meter in the frequency mode.

    • Set the range for maximum reading.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
    Explanation
    When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person conducting the test and to prevent any potential damage to the circuit or the ohmmeter. By disconnecting the power, you eliminate the risk of electrical shock or short-circuiting the circuit during the resistance measurement. It is always important to prioritize safety when working with electrical circuits.

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  • 35. 

    (040) Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

    • Filter.

    • Buffer.

    • Counter.

    • Central processing unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Filter.
    Explanation
    A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. One of the key functions of a protocol analyzer is to filter frames based on certain criteria. This means that it can discard frames that do not meet the specified criteria, allowing the user to focus on the relevant traffic. Additionally, a protocol analyzer can also activate a trigger based on a trigger definition. This trigger can be set to activate when certain conditions are met, such as a specific protocol or packet type being detected. Therefore, the component of a protocol analyzer that performs these actions is the filter.

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  • 36. 

    (005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

    • Biological

    • Chemical

    • Physical

    • Nuclear

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear
    Explanation
    The four major types of hazards are biological, chemical, physical, and nuclear. Nuclear hazard refers to the potential dangers and risks associated with the release of radioactive materials or the use of nuclear energy. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that nuclear hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards.

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  • 37. 

    (007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

    • Four

    • Five

    • Six

    • Seven

    Correct Answer
    A. Five
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Five" because the risk management process typically consists of five steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. These steps are essential in identifying potential risks, evaluating their impact, implementing measures to reduce or eliminate risks, continuously monitoring the effectiveness of risk management strategies, and communicating any changes or updates to stakeholders.

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  • 38. 

    (010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

    • Can decrypt data.

    • Uses very few network resources.

    • Monitors logs for policy violations.

    • Can analyze encrypted network traffic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Uses very few network resources.
    Explanation
    A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is designed to monitor network traffic and detect any unauthorized or malicious activity. One advantage of a NIDS is that it uses very few network resources. This means that it does not significantly impact the performance or bandwidth of the network it is monitoring. By efficiently utilizing network resources, a NIDS can effectively detect and respond to potential threats without causing any disruptions or slowdowns in the network operations.

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  • 39. 

    (032) What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

    • Core, cladding, and shield.

    • Core, cladding, and jacket.

    • Core, Conductor, and shield.

    • Core, Conductor, and jacket.

    Correct Answer
    A. Core, cladding, and jacket.
    Explanation
    The three sections of a fiber optic cable are the core, cladding, and jacket. The core is the innermost part of the cable where the light signals travel. The cladding surrounds the core and helps to keep the light signals contained within the core. The jacket is the outermost layer of the cable and provides protection and insulation.

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  • 40. 

    When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly.

    • Round.

    • Elliptical.

    • Flat and level.

    • Flat with a 45-degree angle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flat and level.
    Explanation
    When using a polishing cloth, it is important to remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time to ensure a smooth and even surface. The cloth should be flattened and leveled to achieve the desired result. This ensures that the polishing process is effective and does not leave any uneven marks or scratches on the object being polished.

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  • 41. 

    (005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects alone can put excessive strain on the body and increase the risk of injuries such as back strains or sprains. By utilizing team lifting, the weight can be distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the strain on each person and minimizing the risk of accidents or injuries.

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  • 42. 

    (008) The Integrated Network Operation and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibility except

    • Maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall.

    • Standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall.

    • Maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices.

    • Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operation and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for several tasks, including maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they are not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

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  • 43. 

    (009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

    • Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches

    • Deploying protection from dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) spoofing

    • Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area network (VLAN)

    • Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client

    Correct Answer
    A. Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area network (VLAN)
    Explanation
    The other three options are valid security features that can help defend IP telephony systems from attackers. Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches allows you to control and restrict access to the network. Deploying protection from DHCP spoofing helps prevent attackers from impersonating legitimate devices on the network. Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client ensures that unauthorized devices cannot connect to the network. However, consolidating voice with data using VLAN does not directly contribute to the security of IP telephony systems. VLANs are primarily used for network segmentation and traffic management purposes, rather than security.

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  • 44. 

    At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for managing communication between applications and providing services such as file transfer, email, and web browsing. By operating at this layer, an application-level firewall can monitor and control the traffic based on specific application protocols, allowing or blocking certain types of traffic based on predefined rules. This provides an additional layer of security by inspecting the content and behavior of the applications.

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  • 45. 

    (012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

    • Digital.

    • Biometric.

    • Encryption.

    • E-mail signing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Digital.
    Explanation
    A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is a digital document that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted third party called a certificate authority. This certificate is used to verify the identity of the user in online transactions and communications. It ensures that the user is who they claim to be and provides a secure means of authentication.

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  • 46. 

    (014) What Air Force Systems Security Intrusion (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

    • 2000.

    • 3000.

    • 7000.

    • 8500.

    Correct Answer
    A. 7000.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 7000. The Air Force Systems Security Intrusion (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC). This means that AFSSI 7000 specifically addresses the measures and protocols in place to protect against unauthorized access or interception of electromagnetic emissions from Air Force systems.

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  • 47. 

    (034) When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

    • Common.

    • Voltage.

    • Amperage.

    • Frequency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Common.
    Explanation
    The common jack is always used in a multimeter with three input terminal jacks. This jack is used to connect the common reference point for measuring voltage, amperage, and frequency. It is the shared connection for all the measurements and provides a common ground or reference point for accurate readings.

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  • 48. 

    (016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

    • Equipment processing unencrypted classified information.

    • Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

    • Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

    • Equipment processing plain-text classified information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
    Explanation
    The equipment that should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts is the one processing encrypted classified information. This designation is necessary to ensure the security and protection of sensitive information. Encrypting classified information adds an additional layer of security by converting the information into a code that can only be deciphered with the appropriate decryption key. This helps to prevent unauthorized access and ensures that the information remains confidential.

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  • 49. 

    (017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communication electronics (C-E) facilities?

    • 100 ohms or less.

    • 50 ohms or less.

    • 20 ohms or less.

    • 10 ohms or less.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 ohms or less.
    Explanation
    The grounding resistance goal for military communication electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This means that the resistance between the ground and the facility should be 10 ohms or lower. A lower grounding resistance helps to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the electronics by providing a stable reference point for electrical currents.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 16, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Marcus Zhou
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