3D152 Ure Volume 1
Settings
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- 1.(001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?
- A.
Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)
- B.
Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)
- C.
Spectrum Operations (3D1X4)
- D.
Client Systems (3D1X1)
- 2.(002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?
- A.
Transmission Security
- B.
Technical Security
- C.
Emission Security
- D.
Physical Security
- 3.(003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
Core duty.
- B.
Core value.
- C.
Core competency.
- D.
Core responsibility.
- 4.(003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?
- A.
Fixed cable systems
- B.
Voice network systems
- C.
Application software systems
- D.
Client-server database systems
- 5.(004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
- A.
1118
- B.
457
- C.
55
- D.
3
- 6.(005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?
- A.
Biological
- B.
Chemical
- C.
Physical
- D.
Nuclear
- 7.(005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
- A.
Biological
- B.
Chemical
- C.
Physical
- D.
Stress
- 8.(005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
75
- D.
100
- 9.(005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observers is normally performed by the
- A.
Trainer
- B.
Certifier
- C.
Technician
- D.
Supervisor
- 10.(005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if
- A.
The circuit is energized.
- B.
You have a valid prescription.
- C.
They are certified for high voltage.
- D.
They are secured with a nonmetallic cord.
- 11.(006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?
- A.
All personnel.
- B.
Only safety personnel.
- C.
Only civilian personnel.
- D.
Only medical personnel.
- 12.(006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risks?
- A.
Risk control
- B.
Safety control
- C.
Risk management
- D.
Safety management
- 13.(007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept unnecessary risk.
- B.
Apply the RM process continuously.
- C.
Train and adhere to safety guidelines.
- D.
Make risk decisions at the lowest level.
- 14.(007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
- A.
Four
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Seven
- 15.(008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
- 16.(008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Center (INOSC) does the Air Force have?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
- 17.(008) The Integrated Network Operation and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibility except
- A.
Maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall.
- B.
Standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall.
- C.
Maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices.
- D.
Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).
- 18.
- A.
IP telephony
- B.
Network telephony
- C.
Voice protection system
- D.
Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)
- 19.(009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except
- A.
Enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches
- B.
Deploying protection from dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) spoofing
- C.
Consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area network (VLAN)
- D.
Enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client
- 20.(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
- 21.(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
- 22.At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
- 23.(009) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it
- A.
Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host
- B.
Consume resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down
- C.
Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords
- D.
Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed
- 24.(010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it
- A.
Can decrypt data.
- B.
Uses very few network resources.
- C.
Monitors logs for policy violations.
- D.
Can analyze encrypted network traffic.
- 25.(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?
- A.
Active.
- B.
Passive.
- C.
Host-based.
- D.
Network-based.
- 26.(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?
- A.
Active.
- B.
Passive.
- C.
Host-based.
- D.
Network-based.
- 27.(010) Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are
- A.
Active only.
- B.
Passive only.
- C.
Passive and active.
- D.
Neither passive and active.
- 28.(010) Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are
- A.
Active only.
- B.
Passive only.
- C.
Passive and active.
- D.
Neither passive nor active.
- 29.(011) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?
- A.
Default deny.
- B.
Default allow.
- C.
Close.
- D.
Open.
- 30.(012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?
- A.
Digital.
- B.
Biometric.
- C.
Encryption.
- D.
E-mail signing.
- 31.(014) What Air Force Systems Security Intrusion (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?
- A.
2000.
- B.
3000.
- C.
7000.
- D.
8500.
- 32.(012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?
- A.
Set a login ID and password combination for access.
- B.
Install biometrics and encryption certificates.
- C.
Place a lock on computer.
- D.
Store in locked case.
- 33.(013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is
- A.
Having information ready when needed.
- B.
Not being able to deny who performed network actions.
- C.
The protection of the network from those not authorized access.
- D.
The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
- 34.(015) Which AF System Security Intrusion (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program?
- A.
7700.
- B.
7701.
- C.
7702.
- D.
7703.
- 35.(015) Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?
- A.
Zoning.
- B.
Shielding.
- C.
Suppression.
- D.
Profile matching.
- 36.(015) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone
- A.
A.
- B.
B.
- C.
C.
- D.
D.
- 37.(015) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone
- A.
A.
- B.
B.
- C.
C.
- D.
D.
- 38.(015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?
- A.
It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval.
- B.
It requires certification.
- C.
It is time consuming.
- D.
It is expensive.
- 39.(015) What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?
- A.
Distance and angle.
- B.
Distance and separation.
- C.
Induction and grounding.
- D.
Induction and impedance.
- 40.(016) Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?
- A.
Equipment processing clear-text confidential information.
- B.
Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information.
- C.
Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
- D.
Equipment processing clear-text classified information.
- 41.(016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?
- A.
Equipment processing unencrypted classified information.
- B.
Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
- C.
Equipment processing clear-text classified information.
- D.
Equipment processing plain-text classified information.
- 42.(016) Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?
- A.
Physical.
- B.
Electrical.
- C.
Equipment.
- D.
Mechanical.
- 43.(017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communication electronics (C-E) facilities?
- A.
100 ohms or less.
- B.
50 ohms or less.
- C.
20 ohms or less.
- D.
10 ohms or less.
- 44.(017) Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?
- A.
Earth electrode.
- B.
Fault protection.
- C.
Signal reference.
- D.
Lightning protection.
- 45.(017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?
- A.
Earth electrode.
- B.
Fault protection.
- C.
Signal reference.
- D.
Lightning protection.
- 46.(017) Which facility ground subsystems is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?
- A.
Earth electrode.
- B.
Fault protection.
- C.
Signal reference.
- D.
Lightning protection.
- 47.(018) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of
- A.
1 milliohm.
- B.
2 milliohms.
- C.
5 milliohms.
- D.
10 milliohms.
- 48.(018) What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?
- A.
None
- B.
Brazing.
- C.
Welding.
- D.
Mechanical.
- 49.(019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?
- A.
Bonding.
- B.
Shielding.
- C.
Annealing.
- D.
Grounding.
- 50.(019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?
- A.
Cable.
- B.
Circuit.
- C.
Facility.
- D.
Equipment.
- 51.(020) What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?
- A.
Protection from noise.
- B.
Protection from lightning.
- C.
Protection from blackouts.
- D.
Protection from brownout.
- 52.(021) Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 - 999 volts?
- A.
Class I.
- B.
Class II.
- C.
Class III.
- D.
Class IV.
- 53.(021) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?
- A.
Working at a bench.
- B.
Walking across carpet.
- C.
Walking across a vinyl floor.
- D.
Picking up a common plastic bag.
- 54.(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
- 55.(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
- 56.(022) Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
- 57.(022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as "offline"?
- A.
Passive standby.
- B.
Line interactive.
- C.
Double conversion.
- D.
Ferro resonant standby.
- 58.(022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?
- A.
Passive standby.
- B.
Line interactive.
- C.
Double conversion.
- D.
Ferro resonant standby.
- 59.(023) How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?
- A.
Single.
- B.
Double.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
- 60.(024) Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?
- A.
The facility power requirements.
- B.
The facility power reserve times.
- C.
The number of AC converters required for the facility.
- D.
The amount of current and future floor space available.
- 61.(024) What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial alternate current [AC] power available)?
- A.
They generate direct current (DC) power and run the switch.
- B.
They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.
- C.
They rectify the commercial AC to DC and power the system.
- D.
They serve no function unless commercial power is disconnected.
- 62.(025) Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?
- A.
TO 31-20 series.
- B.
TO 61-20 series.
- C.
TO 31-10 series.
- D.
TO 61-10 series.
- 63.(026) How are connectorized cables labeled?
- A.
The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked "FROM".
- B.
The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM".
- C.
The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked "FROM".
- D.
The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within one (2) inch of the first label and marked "FROM".
- 64.(027) Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?
- A.
Lower.
- B.
Upper.
- C.
Right.
- D.
Left.
- 65.(027) Support intervals for cable requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?
- A.
5.
- B.
10.
- C.
15.
- D.
20.
- 66.(028) The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable
- A.
Is less expensive.
- B.
Is easier to install.
- C.
Does not radiate energy.
- D.
Has a low frequency range.
- 67.(028) Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?
- A.
Unshielded.
- B.
Shielded.
- C.
Twisted Pair.
- D.
Multipair.
- 68.(029) The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a
- A.
Marker.
- B.
Bundle.
- C.
Casing.
- D.
Binder.
- 69.(029) What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?
- A.
Tip and Ring.
- B.
Tip and Color.
- C.
Rate and Color.
- D.
Pair and Position.
- 70.(030) What is the standard conductor used for data networking?
- A.
RJ-11
- B.
RJ-15
- C.
RJ-45
- D.
RJ-49
- 71.(030) Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?
- A.
Blue.
- B.
Orange.
- C.
White/blue.
- D.
White/orange.
- 72.(030) What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?
- A.
Straight-through.
- B.
Crossover.
- C.
Rollover.
- D.
Coaxial.
- 73.(031) What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?
- A.
The use of light-emitting diodes.
- B.
The broad bandwidth of the cable.
- C.
The low signal to noise ratio of the cable.
- D.
The multiplexing technique used in fiber optics.
- 74.(031) What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?
- A.
500'C
- B.
1,000'C
- C.
5,000'C
- D.
10,000'C
- 75.(032) What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?
- A.
Core, cladding, and shield.
- B.
Core, cladding, and jacket.
- C.
Core, Conductor, and shield.
- D.
Core, Conductor, and jacket.
- 76.(032) Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?
- A.
Multimode graded-index fiber.
- B.
Multimode step index fiber.
- C.
Single mode fiber.
- D.
Coaxial cable.
- 77.(033) What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable?
- A.
Scribe.
- B.
Strippers.
- C.
Alco wipes.
- D.
Polishing cloth.
- 78.(033) How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?
- A.
30-40 Minutes.
- B.
12-24 hours.
- C.
24-48 hours.
- D.
48-72 hours.
- 79.When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly.
- A.
Round.
- B.
Elliptical.
- C.
Flat and level.
- D.
Flat with a 45-degree angle.
- 80.(034) When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?
- A.
Common.
- B.
Voltage.
- C.
Amperage.
- D.
Frequency.
- 81.(034) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
- A.
Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.
- B.
Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
- C.
Place the meter in the frequency mode.
- D.
Set the range for maximum reading.
- 82.(035) The purpose of a breakout box is to
- A.
Provide wiring maps at both ends of the cable.
- B.
Allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.
- C.
Measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance.
- D.
Locate sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs.
- 83.(035) The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to
- A.
Measure the individual interface signals.
- B.
Change the voltage of individual interface signals.
- C.
Allow the cross-patching of the individual interface conductors.
- D.
Allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.
- 84.(035) What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?
- A.
Measurement of individual interface signals.
- B.
Interruption of voltage/current to the interfaces.
- C.
Cross-patching of individual interface conductors.
- D.
Changing the voltage of individual interface signals.
- 85.(036) What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?
- A.
Masking.
- B.
Distortion.
- C.
Deflection.
- D.
Overloading.
- 86.(037) Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as
- A.
Sequential records.
- B.
Waveform points.
- C.
Record lengths.
- D.
Record points.
- 87.(037) What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?
- A.
Microprocessor.
- B.
Acquisition.
- C.
Memory.
- D.
Input.
- 88.(037) What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?
- A.
Sequential.
- B.
Repetitive.
- C.
Real-time.
- D.
Random.
- 89.(037) What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?
- A.
Sample mode.
- B.
Real-time mode.
- C.
Averaging mode.
- D.
Peak detect mode.
- 90.(037) Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?
- A.
CURSORS control.
- B.
MEMORY control.
- C.
SELECT C1/C2 switch.
- D.
SAVE/CONTINUE switch.
- 91.(038) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
- A.
Emitter.
- B.
Receiver.
- C.
Transmitter.
- D.
Synchronizer.
- 92.(038) What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?
- A.
The total amount of bandwidth in the test pattern.
- B.
The total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern.
- C.
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
- D.
The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern.
- 93.(038) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?
- A.
Cyclic redundancy check.
- B.
Bipolar violation.
- C.
Bit slip.
- D.
Frame.
- 94.(039) When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?
- A.
Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.
- B.
Connect an injector at the end of the cable being tested.
- C.
Set the range for maximum reading.
- D.
Use the frequency mode.
- 95.(040) Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
- A.
Filter.
- B.
Buffer.
- C.
Counter.
- D.
Central processing unit.
- 96.(040) What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol Statistics.
- D.
Node Discovery.
- 97.(040) What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 98.(040) What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 99.(040) What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
- A.
Packet internetwork groper (PING).
- B.
Traffic generator.
- C.
Route generator.
- D.
Trace route.
- 100.(040) What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?
- A.
Trace route.
- B.
Route generator.
- C.
Traffic generator.
- D.
Packet internetwork groper (PING).
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