CDC A3m071 Services Craftsman - Volume 2. Food Service And Fitness

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How often does the United States Air Force (USAF) amended food code require us to conduct self-inspections of dining facilities?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Periodic

    Correct Answer
    B. Weekly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Weekly. The United States Air Force (USAF) amended food code requires dining facilities to conduct self-inspections on a weekly basis. This ensures that the facilities maintain proper hygiene and food safety standards. Regular self-inspections help identify any potential issues or violations that need to be addressed promptly, ensuring the health and well-being of the personnel consuming meals at these facilities.

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  • 2. 

    You must file and keep self-inspection records for at least?

    • A.

      1 month

    • B.

      3 months.

    • C.

      6 months.

    • D.

      12 months.

    Correct Answer
    D. 12 months.
    Explanation
    You must file and keep self-inspection records for at least 12 months to comply with regulations. This is important for maintaining a record of inspections conducted and ensuring that any necessary corrective actions are taken within the specified timeframe. It also allows for the documentation to be available for review by relevant authorities or auditors if needed.

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  • 3. 

    Who is solely responsible for drawing and returning subsistence after each meal period?

    • A.

      Line server.

    • B.

      Senior cook.

    • C.

      Grill cook.

    • D.

      Server.

    Correct Answer
    B. Senior cook.
    Explanation
    The senior cook is solely responsible for drawing and returning subsistence after each meal period. This means that they are in charge of managing the inventory of food and supplies, as well as ensuring that everything is accounted for and returned properly. The line server, grill cook, and server may all have their own responsibilities in the kitchen, but the senior cook is specifically tasked with this duty.

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  • 4. 

    Which log does the shift leader review throughout the day to determine why a cashier used the misc register key?

    • A.

      Cashiers misc.

    • B.

      Waste.

    • C.

      Production.

    • D.

      Thaw.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cashiers misc.
    Explanation
    The shift leader reviews the "Cashiers misc." log throughout the day to determine why a cashier used the misc register key. This log keeps a record of all miscellaneous transactions made by cashiers, allowing the shift leader to track and understand the reasons behind the use of the misc register key. By reviewing this log, the shift leader can identify any discrepancies or issues that may have occurred during cashier transactions.

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  • 5. 

    When does the shift leader review the waste log to make sure all waste is authorized?

    • A.

      Before each meal.

    • B.

      Before it is processed.

    • C.

      After each meal.

    • D.

      After it is processed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Before it is processed.
    Explanation
    The shift leader reviews the waste log before it is processed to ensure that all waste is authorized. This is done to maintain control over the waste management process and ensure that any waste generated is properly documented and accounted for. By reviewing the waste log before processing, the shift leader can identify any unauthorized waste and take appropriate actions to address it. This helps in maintaining efficiency, reducing unnecessary waste, and ensuring compliance with waste management protocols.

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  • 6. 

    One of your shift leader duties is to take food temperatures during your shift every?

    • A.

      30 to 45 minutes.

    • B.

      35 to 50 minutes.

    • C.

      40 to 55 minutes.

    • D.

      45 to 60 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 to 45 minutes.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 to 45 minutes. This is because taking food temperatures at regular intervals helps ensure that the food is being stored and cooked at safe temperatures, reducing the risk of foodborne illnesses. By checking the temperatures every 30 to 45 minutes, the shift leader can identify any potential issues and take necessary actions to maintain food safety standards.

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  • 7. 

    What percent of collected surcharge money is disbursed to military personnel appropriation?

    • A.

      25.

    • B.

      50.

    • C.

      75.

    • D.

      100.

    Correct Answer
    B. 50.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50 because it indicates that half of the collected surcharge money is disbursed to military personnel appropriation.

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  • 8. 

    Success of your operation is dependent upon and based upon the satisfaction of?

    • A.

      Patrons.

    • B.

      Staff.

    • C.

      Public health.

    • D.

      Senior leadership.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patrons.
    Explanation
    The success of an operation, such as a business or organization, is dependent upon and based upon the satisfaction of its patrons. Patrons are the customers or clients who utilize the services or products provided by the operation. Their satisfaction is crucial as it determines their loyalty, repeat business, and positive word-of-mouth recommendations, which ultimately contribute to the success and growth of the operation. Meeting and exceeding the expectations of patrons is essential for maintaining a strong customer base and ensuring the long-term viability of the operation.

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  • 9. 

    Who approves contingency and wartime inventory levels?

    • A.

      Force support squadron (FSS) commander.

    • B.

      Installation commander.

    • C.

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (HQ AFPC/SVOFA).

    • D.

      HQ AF/A1S

    Correct Answer
    C. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (HQ AFPC/SVOFA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (HQ AFPC/SVOFA). This group is responsible for approving contingency and wartime inventory levels. They have the authority to determine the appropriate levels of supplies and resources needed during these situations. The Force Support Squadron commander, Installation commander, and HQ AF/A1S may have input or involvement in the process, but the final approval lies with HQ AFPC/SVOFA.

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  • 10. 

    The thaw report is based on?

    • A.

      Menus showing in corporate food service (CFS).

    • B.

      Menus showing on production log.

    • C.

      Items showing on catalog.

    • D.

      Items showing on subsistence order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Menus showing in corporate food service (CFS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Menus showing in corporate food service (CFS)." This means that the thaw report is based on the menus that are displayed in the corporate food service. The report is likely used to track and manage the thawing of food items based on the menu items being served in the corporate food service.

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  • 11. 

    When must the storeroom clerk conduct the physical inventory?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      When receiving orders.

    • D.

      When a variance occurs.

    Correct Answer
    B. Weekly.
    Explanation
    The storeroom clerk must conduct the physical inventory on a weekly basis. This ensures that the inventory count is accurate and up-to-date, allowing the company to track its stock levels and identify any discrepancies or variances. Conducting the physical inventory weekly also helps in maintaining inventory accuracy and preventing stockouts or overstock situations.

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  • 12. 

    When is end of fiscal year (FY) inventory conducted?

    • A.

      30 September.

    • B.

      30 October.

    • C.

      30 November.

    • D.

      30 December.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 September.
    Explanation
    The end of fiscal year (FY) inventory is conducted on 30 September. This is because the fiscal year typically ends on 30 September for many organizations, and conducting the inventory at the end of the fiscal year allows for an accurate assessment of the organization's assets and inventory levels.

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  • 13. 

    If the amount is not excessive, where is medically condemned food documented once removed from inventory?

    • A.

      Waste log.

    • B.

      Production log.

    • C.

      Inventory control.

    • D.

      Adjustment entry.

    Correct Answer
    A. Waste log.
    Explanation
    When medically condemned food is removed from inventory, it is documented in a waste log. This log is used to keep track of any food that is no longer usable or safe for consumption due to medical reasons. By documenting it in the waste log, the organization can maintain a record of the condemned food and ensure proper disposal or handling procedures are followed. This helps in maintaining food safety standards and preventing any potential health risks.

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  • 14. 

    Who approves transfers of excess meals, ready to eat (MRE)?

    • A.

      Food service section chief (FSSC).

    • B.

      Unit commander.

    • C.

      Military public health.

    • D.

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (HQ AFPC/SVOFA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (HQ AFPC/SVOFA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer for the question is Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (HQ AFPC/SVOFA). This entity is responsible for approving transfers of excess meals, ready to eat (MRE).

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  • 15. 

    To identify errors, compare the sales and cost report and production log with the?

    • A.

      Waste log.

    • B.

      Cashiers miscellaneous log.

    • C.

      Inventory count worksheet.

    • D.

      Food facility evaluation checklist.

    Correct Answer
    A. Waste log.
    Explanation
    To identify errors in sales and cost, production, and waste, it is important to compare them with the waste log. The waste log tracks any discarded or wasted items, which can affect both sales and production costs. By comparing the sales and cost report and production log with the waste log, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and addressed. The cashiers miscellaneous log, inventory count worksheet, and food facility evaluation checklist may not provide specific information related to waste, making them less relevant in this context.

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  • 16. 

    You can print a receipt from Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) after?

    • A.

      Order placement.

    • B.

      Order delivery.

    • C.

      Signing for the order.

    • D.

      Transmitting the order.

    Correct Answer
    D. Transmitting the order.
    Explanation
    After transmitting the order through the Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES), a receipt can be printed. This suggests that the receipt is generated once the order has been successfully transmitted, indicating that the order has been processed and is being prepared for delivery. Therefore, the correct answer is "Transmitting the order."

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  • 17. 

    Who must initial on the original delivery invoice on any shortages or errors?

    • A.

      Storeroom personnel and food service section chief (FSSC).

    • B.

      Accountant and FSSC.

    • C.

      Storeroom personnel and driver.

    • D.

      Accountant and driver.

    Correct Answer
    C. Storeroom personnel and driver.
    Explanation
    The storeroom personnel and driver must initial on the original delivery invoice for any shortages or errors. This is because the storeroom personnel are responsible for receiving and inspecting the deliveries, while the driver is responsible for transporting the goods. By both parties initialing on the invoice, it ensures accountability and documentation of any discrepancies in the delivery.

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  • 18. 

    What is not a principle when importing and reconciling catalog items?

    • A.

      View the event log after a catalog imports.

    • B.

      Some items are "nested" to the same inventory.

    • C.

      Link and unlink any inactive items.

    • D.

      Print catalog once a month.

    Correct Answer
    D. Print catalog once a month.
    Explanation
    The principle of printing the catalog once a month is not related to importing and reconciling catalog items. The other options mentioned in the question, such as viewing the event log after importing, handling nested items, and linking/unlinking inactive items, are all principles that should be followed when importing and reconciling catalog items. However, printing the catalog once a month is not directly related to this process.

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  • 19. 

    Storeroom personnel must download the updated vendor catalog every?

    • A.

      Monday.

    • B.

      Wednesday.

    • C.

      Friday.

    • D.

      Sunday.

    Correct Answer
    D. Sunday.
    Explanation
    Storeroom personnel must download the updated vendor catalog every Sunday. This implies that there is a specific schedule for downloading the catalog, and it happens on Sundays. It is important for the personnel to stay updated with the latest vendor catalog, which is why they have a designated day for downloading it.

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  • 20. 

    Which system is designed to automate many of the routine tasks performed in the dining facility?

    • A.

      Point of Sale (POS) System.

    • B.

      Prime Vendor (PV) Program.

    • C.

      Air Force Corporate Food Service Recipe System.

    • D.

      Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES)

    Correct Answer
    D. Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES)
    Explanation
    The Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) is designed to automate many of the routine tasks performed in the dining facility. This system helps in streamlining the process of ordering and receiving food supplies, ensuring efficient inventory management and reducing manual work. It automates tasks such as generating purchase orders, tracking deliveries, updating inventory records, and generating reports. By automating these routine tasks, STORES helps in saving time, reducing errors, and improving overall operational efficiency in the dining facility.

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  • 21. 

    The Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) sends an electronic data interchange (EDI) transaction to?

    • A.

      The Vendor and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

    • B.

      Department of Defense (DOD) food customers.

    • C.

      The vendor and DOD food customers.

    • D.

      Any government computer.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Vendor and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
    Explanation
    The Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) sends an electronic data interchange (EDI) transaction to the Vendor and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). This means that the system is designed to send the transaction information to both the vendor and the DLA, which is responsible for managing the logistics and supply chain for the Department of Defense (DOD) food customers. It ensures that both the vendor and the DLA receive the necessary information for processing and fulfilling the food orders.

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  • 22. 

    Who designates, in writing, persons responsible for and having access to the storeroom?

    • A.

      Storeroom Manager.

    • B.

      Dining Facility Manager.

    • C.

      Food Service Officer.

    • D.

      Squadron Commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Food Service Officer.
    Explanation
    The Food Service Officer is responsible for designating, in writing, the persons who are responsible for and have access to the storeroom. This means that the Food Service Officer has the authority to determine who can enter the storeroom and handle its contents. The Storeroom Manager may be responsible for the day-to-day operations of the storeroom, but the ultimate decision-making power lies with the Food Service Officer. The Dining Facility Manager and Squadron Commander may have oversight roles, but they are not specifically designated to determine access to the storeroom.

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  • 23. 

    When should hazards be identified in the food and water (FW) distribution systems?

    • A.

      When receiving.

    • B.

      When ordering.

    • C.

      At each step.

    • D.

      At weekly inventory.

    Correct Answer
    C. At each step.
    Explanation
    Hazards should be identified at each step in the food and water distribution systems to ensure safety and prevent contamination. This means that potential risks should be assessed and addressed from the moment the products are received, throughout the ordering process, and at every stage of the distribution chain. By identifying hazards at each step, appropriate measures can be taken to mitigate risks and maintain the quality and safety of the food and water being distributed.

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  • 24. 

    Under the food and water (FW) program, the goal is optimal security?

    • A.

      In a cost effective manner.

    • B.

      At any cost.

    • C.

      To minimize vulnerability.

    • D.

      To enhance force protection (FP).

    Correct Answer
    A. In a cost effective manner.
    Explanation
    The goal of the food and water program is to achieve optimal security, but in a cost-effective manner. This means that the program aims to ensure that there is enough food and water available to meet the needs of individuals or a population, while also considering the financial resources and efficiency of the program. By prioritizing cost-effectiveness, the program can maximize the impact of its efforts and allocate resources efficiently to achieve the desired level of security.

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  • 25. 

    During the 30-day probationary period, new employees should be placed on?

    • A.

      Day shift.

    • B.

      Swing shift.

    • C.

      Night shifts.

    • D.

      Weekend shifts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Day shift.
    Explanation
    During the 30-day probationary period, new employees should be placed on the day shift. This is because the day shift is typically the most common and standard shift, allowing new employees to become familiar with the regular work hours, routines, and procedures. Placing them on the day shift also ensures that they have access to necessary resources, support, and training, as most supervisors and experienced employees are available during this shift. It allows new employees to establish a routine, adapt to the work environment, and build relationships with colleagues, which can contribute to their overall success and productivity.

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  • 26. 

    Personal items such as lunch containers should be prohibited in the?

    • A.

      Locker area.

    • B.

      Dining area.

    • C.

      Back office area.

    • D.

      Food handling area.

    Correct Answer
    D. Food handling area.
    Explanation
    Personal items such as lunch containers should be prohibited in the food handling area because it is important to maintain hygiene and prevent contamination of food. Personal items can carry bacteria or other contaminants that can be transferred to the food, posing a risk to consumers' health. Therefore, it is necessary to enforce strict rules and regulations to ensure that personal items are not brought into the food handling area to maintain a safe and sanitary environment for food preparation and handling.

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  • 27. 

    Who is responsible for water after the initial period of contingency operations?

    • A.

      Force support squadron (FSS).

    • B.

      Civil Engineers (CE).

    • C.

      Public health (PH).

    • D.

      Prime vendor (PV).

    Correct Answer
    B. Civil Engineers (CE).
    Explanation
    Civil Engineers (CE) are responsible for water after the initial period of contingency operations. This is because Civil Engineers are trained in the planning, design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure, including water supply systems. They have the expertise to ensure the continued availability and quality of water for the long term. Force support squadron (FSS) may be responsible for initial water support during contingency operations, but Civil Engineers take over the responsibility once the initial period is over. Public health (PH) may play a role in ensuring the safety and quality of the water supply, but they are not primarily responsible for its provision. Prime vendor (PV) is not typically involved in water supply operations.

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  • 28. 

    In a deployed environment, the food service operation reaches initial operating capability (IOC) when it serves the first?

    • A.

      Hot unit group ration (UGR).

    • B.

      Meals, ready to eat (MRE).

    • C.

      Hot A-ration.

    • D.

      Mix of UGR and A-rations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hot unit group ration (UGR).
    Explanation
    In a deployed environment, the food service operation reaches initial operating capability (IOC) when it serves the first hot unit group ration (UGR). This means that the food service operation is considered fully operational and ready to provide meals to the deployed personnel once the UGR is served. The other options, such as MREs, hot A-ration, or a mix of UGR and A-rations, do not signify the achievement of initial operating capability.

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  • 29. 

    What rations are served for deployments lasting over 30 days?

    • A.

      Unit group rations (UGR) only.

    • B.

      Meals, ready to eat (MRE) only.

    • C.

      A-rations only.

    • D.

      A mix of UGR-A and A-rations.

    Correct Answer
    D. A mix of UGR-A and A-rations.
    Explanation
    For deployments lasting over 30 days, a mix of UGR-A and A-rations are served. This means that the soldiers will receive both Unit group rations (UGR) and A-rations during their deployment.

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  • 30. 

    What percentage of the population is planned for when determining the total number of meals you must serve?

    • A.

      80.

    • B.

      85.

    • C.

      90.

    • D.

      95.

    Correct Answer
    C. 90.
    Explanation
    When determining the total number of meals to serve, 90% of the population is taken into account. This means that the planners anticipate serving meals to 90% of the entire population.

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  • 31. 

    How many personnel are required ti have the Single Pallet Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) operational in four and a half hours?

    • A.

      4.

    • B.

      8.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      12.

    Correct Answer
    B. 8.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8. This means that it takes 8 personnel to have the Single Pallet Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) operational in four and a half hours. The number of personnel required is crucial for the efficient and timely setup of the kitchen, ensuring that all necessary tasks are completed within the specified time frame.

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  • 32. 

    The approval authority for all food and water sources in a deployed environment is?

    • A.

      Installation commander.

    • B.

      Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (HQ AFPC/SVOFA).

    • C.

      United States Army Public Water Command (USAPHC).

    • D.

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

    Correct Answer
    C. United States Army Public Water Command (USAPHC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the United States Army Public Water Command (USAPHC). This organization is responsible for approving all food and water sources in a deployed environment. They ensure that the food and water meet the necessary safety and quality standards to protect the health and well-being of the personnel. The USAPHC plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and readiness of the military forces by ensuring the availability of safe and clean food and water.

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  • 33. 

    The Single Pallet Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) is designed to feed how many personnel per meal during deployment?

    • A.

      500.

    • B.

      550.

    • C.

      1000.

    • D.

      1100.

    Correct Answer
    B. 550.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 550. The Single Pallet Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) is designed to feed 550 personnel per meal during deployment.

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  • 34. 

    Which Air Force Form verifies of all cash collected and the number of essential station messing (ESM) personnel served?

    • A.

      79, Head Count Record.

    • B.

      1650-b, Field Feeding Record.

    • C.

      1119-1, Manual Monthly Monetary Report.

    • D.

      1254, Register of Cash Collection Vouchers.

    Correct Answer
    A. 79, Head Count Record.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Form 79, Head Count Record, is used to verify all cash collected and the number of essential station messing (ESM) personnel served. This form is specifically designed for keeping track of the number of individuals served and the amount of cash collected during meal service. It helps ensure accuracy and accountability in the handling of cash and the provision of meals to ESM personnel.

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  • 35. 

    When must receipts be deposited under field feeding accounting?

    • A.

      Last day of each week.

    • B.

      Last day of each month.

    • C.

      Daily.

    • D.

      Monthly.

    Correct Answer
    B. Last day of each month.
    Explanation
    Receipts must be deposited under field feeding accounting on the last day of each month. This ensures that all transactions and financial activities for that month are properly recorded and accounted for. By depositing the receipts on a monthly basis, it allows for accurate and timely reporting of financial information, helps in tracking cash flow, and ensures compliance with accounting regulations and procedures.

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  • 36. 

    At a minimum, when should AF Form 1038 be used to rate food service operations?

    • A.

      Weekly.

    • B.

      Monthly.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    AF Form 1038 should be used to rate food service operations at a minimum on a quarterly basis. This suggests that it is necessary to assess the performance and quality of food service operations every three months. Rating food service operations quarterly allows for regular monitoring and evaluation, ensuring that any issues or improvements can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. This periodic assessment helps maintain standards and provides an opportunity for continuous improvement in food service operations.

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  • 37. 

    What document breaks down each food service evaluation category area and describes evaluation criteria to complete AF Form 1038?

    • A.

      AFI 34-239 Food Management Program.

    • B.

      Dining Facility Manager's Handbook.

    • C.

      AFMAN 34-240, Food Service Program Management.

    • D.

      Corporate Food Service Handbook.

    Correct Answer
    C. AFMAN 34-240, Food Service Program Management.
    Explanation
    AFMAN 34-240, Food Service Program Management, is the correct answer because it is a document that breaks down each food service evaluation category area and describes evaluation criteria to complete AF Form 1038. This document provides guidance and instructions on managing food service programs in the Air Force, including the evaluation process. It outlines the specific criteria that need to be considered when evaluating food service operations, ensuring that the evaluation is thorough and comprehensive. Therefore, AFMAN 34-240 is the most appropriate document for completing AF Form 1038.

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  • 38. 

    Documented guest comments are recorded and maintained for how many months?

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      6.

    • C.

      9.

    • D.

      12.

    Correct Answer
    D. 12.
    Explanation
    Documented guest comments are recorded and maintained for 12 months. This means that any comments or feedback provided by guests are kept on record for a year. This allows the organization to track and analyze guest feedback over an extended period of time, identify trends, and make improvements based on the feedback received. It also ensures that guest comments are accessible for future reference and can be used to monitor the organization's performance and customer satisfaction levels over time.

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  • 39. 

    Fitness centers must have a minimum of how many hours available for programs, facilities, and equipment staffing expertise?

    • A.

      70.

    • B.

      80.

    • C.

      90.

    • D.

      100.

    Correct Answer
    C. 90.
    Explanation
    Fitness centers must have a minimum of 90 hours available for programs, facilities, and equipment staffing expertise. This ensures that there is enough time for various fitness programs to be conducted, the facilities to be utilized by members, and the equipment to be properly maintained and supervised by knowledgeable staff. Having a minimum of 90 hours also allows for flexibility in scheduling and accommodating the needs of different members throughout the week.

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  • 40. 

    What is not considered when determining hours of operation for the fitness center?

    • A.

      Patron.

    • B.

      Facility.

    • C.

      Mission.

    • D.

      Personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. Facility.
    Explanation
    When determining the hours of operation for a fitness center, factors like the number of patrons, the center's mission, and the availability of personnel are typically considered. However, the condition or suitability of the facility itself is not directly taken into account. The focus is more on the needs and preferences of the patrons, the center's overall goals, and the availability of staff to ensure a smooth operation.

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  • 41. 

    Who has approval authority to alter hours of operation?

    • A.

      Fitness center director.

    • B.

      Flight chief.

    • C.

      Squadron commander.

    • D.

      Installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander has the approval authority to alter hours of operation. This individual holds the highest position of authority within the installation and has the final say in making decisions regarding the operational aspects of the facility. As such, they have the power to modify the hours of operation based on various factors such as staffing, demand, or any other relevant considerations. The fitness center director, flight chief, and squadron commander may have some level of influence or input in the decision-making process, but the ultimate authority lies with the installation commander.

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  • 42. 

    Within how many days of assignment must fitness center (FC) staff members complete customer service training?

    • A.

      30.

    • B.

      60.

    • C.

      90.

    • D.

      180.

    Correct Answer
    B. 60.
    Explanation
    Fitness center staff members must complete customer service training within 60 days of assignment.

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  • 43. 

    Special events in the fitness center are held at least how many times a year?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      4.

    • C.

      6.

    • D.

      8.

    Correct Answer
    B. 4.
    Explanation
    Special events in the fitness center are held at least four times a year. This means that there are a minimum of four special events that take place annually in the fitness center.

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  • 44. 

    How long in advance of a special event should planning begin?

    • A.

      One week.

    • B.

      One month.

    • C.

      Three months.

    • D.

      Six months.

    Correct Answer
    C. Three months.
    Explanation
    Planning for a special event should begin three months in advance. This allows enough time to book venues, hire vendors, send out invitations, and make necessary arrangements. Starting the planning process early ensures that all details are properly organized and executed, reducing the chances of any last-minute issues or complications. Additionally, it allows for ample time to make adjustments or modifications if needed, ensuring a successful and well-prepared event.

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  • 45. 

    What should managers complete at the end of every event?

    • A.

      All purpose checklist for next event.

    • B.

      After action report.

    • C.

      Employee feedback.

    • D.

      Survey.

    Correct Answer
    B. After action report.
    Explanation
    Managers should complete an after action report at the end of every event. This report allows them to evaluate the success of the event, identify areas for improvement, and make necessary adjustments for future events. It provides a comprehensive analysis of the event, including what went well, what didn't go as planned, and any lessons learned. This report helps managers to track progress, measure outcomes, and ensure continuous improvement in event planning and execution.

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  • 46. 

    In a deployed environment, nonappropriated (NAF) operations are normally established by day?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    C. 15.
    Explanation
    In a deployed environment, nonappropriated (NAF) operations are normally established by day 15. This means that within 15 days of being deployed, the NAF operations are set up and operational. This could include setting up facilities, hiring staff, and implementing necessary processes and procedures. It is important for these operations to be established relatively quickly in order to support the deployed personnel and ensure smooth functioning of the deployed environment.

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  • 47. 

    It is essential for you to coordinate with personnel from what organization regarding what items will be sold in nonappropriated (NAF) operations?

    • A.

      Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES).

    • B.

      Air Force Personnel Center/Services (AFPC/SV).

    • C.

      Major Command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      Defense Commissary Agency (DeCA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES).
    Explanation
    In nonappropriated (NAF) operations, it is important to coordinate with personnel from the Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES) regarding what items will be sold. AAFES is responsible for providing goods and services to military personnel, their families, and authorized patrons. They operate on a nonappropriated fund basis, meaning they generate their own revenue rather than relying on government appropriations. Therefore, coordinating with AAFES ensures that the appropriate items are available for sale in NAF operations.

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  • 48. 

    In order to determine if your operation will support multiple operations, consider whether the members will be deployed longer than?

    • A.

      10 days.

    • B.

      20 days.

    • C.

      30 days.

    • D.

      60 days.

    Correct Answer
    D. 60 days.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 60 days. This is because if the members will be deployed for longer than 60 days, it indicates that the operation needs to support multiple operations. If the members are deployed for a shorter period of time, it suggests that the operation may not require multiple operations.

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  • 49. 

    The nonappropriated (NAF) funds custodian should ensure an inventory is accomplished?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Yearly.

    Correct Answer
    C. Monthly.
    Explanation
    The NAF funds custodian should ensure an inventory is accomplished monthly. This is important to maintain accurate records of the NAF funds and to identify any discrepancies or errors in a timely manner. Regular inventory checks help to prevent fraud, theft, or mismanagement of funds. Monthly inventory also allows for better financial planning and budgeting as it provides up-to-date information on the available funds. It ensures accountability and transparency in the management of NAF funds.

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  • 50. 

    Who should you notify promptly in an alcohol-related incident that may result in potential claims?

    • A.

      Force support squadron (FSS) commander.

    • B.

      Security forces.

    • C.

      Legal Office.

    • D.

      Chaplain.

    Correct Answer
    A. Force support squadron (FSS) commander.
    Explanation
    In an alcohol-related incident that may result in potential claims, it is important to notify the Force Support Squadron (FSS) commander promptly. The FSS commander is responsible for providing support services to military personnel and their families, including legal and counseling services. They have the authority to take appropriate action and provide guidance in handling the incident and potential claims. Security forces are primarily responsible for maintaining law and order, while the Legal Office provides legal advice and assistance. The Chaplain may be involved in providing emotional and spiritual support, but may not have the authority to handle potential claims.

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