PTA Global Practice Exam
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Exercising during pregnancy may prevent _____ diabetes.
- A.
Type 1
- B.
Type 2
- C.
Type 3
- D.
Gestational
Correct Answer
D. GestationalExplanation
Exercising during pregnancy may prevent gestational diabetes. Gestational diabetes is a type of diabetes that occurs during pregnancy and usually goes away after childbirth. Regular exercise can help control blood sugar levels, improve insulin sensitivity, and maintain a healthy weight, which are all important in preventing gestational diabetes. Additionally, exercise can also help reduce the risk of other pregnancy complications such as excessive weight gain and high blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which is NOT a risk factor for cardio vascular disease?
- A.
Cigarette smoking
- B.
High blood pressure
- C.
Low High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL) levels
- D.
Women who are 45 years or older
Correct Answer
D. Women who are 45 years or olderExplanation
Women who are 45 years or older is not a risk factor for cardiovascular disease. While age is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, being a woman and being 45 years or older on its own is not considered a risk factor. Other factors such as smoking, high blood pressure, and low HDL levels are known risk factors for cardiovascular disease.Rate this question:
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- 3.
During prolonged high-intensity exercise in trained individuals, free fatty acids
- A.
Continue to decrease
- B.
Continue to increase
- C.
Do not respond
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Continue to increaseExplanation
During prolonged high-intensity exercise in trained individuals, free fatty acids continue to increase. This is because the body relies on stored fat as an energy source during prolonged exercise. As glycogen stores become depleted, the body starts breaking down fat to provide fuel. Trained individuals have a higher capacity to mobilize and utilize fatty acids, resulting in their continual increase during prolonged high-intensity exercise.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Decreased sensitivity to insulin can result in which condition in older adults?
- A.
Menopause
- B.
Cardiovascular disease
- C.
Type 2 diabetes
- D.
Type 1 diabets
Correct Answer
C. Type 2 diabetesExplanation
As individuals age, they may experience a decreased sensitivity to insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels. This decreased sensitivity can lead to a condition known as type 2 diabetes. In type 2 diabetes, the body becomes resistant to the effects of insulin, causing blood sugar levels to rise. This condition is more common in older adults and is often associated with lifestyle factors such as obesity and physical inactivity. Menopause and cardiovascular disease are not directly caused by decreased insulin sensitivity, while type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition unrelated to insulin sensitivity.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which factor contributes to the aging process?
- A.
Disease
- B.
Mortality
- C.
Demographics
- D.
Fertility
Correct Answer
A. DiseaseExplanation
Disease contributes to the aging process by causing damage to cells, tissues, and organs in the body. As we age, our immune system weakens, making us more susceptible to diseases. Chronic diseases such as heart disease, diabetes, and cancer can accelerate the aging process and lead to premature aging. Additionally, diseases can cause inflammation and oxidative stress, which are known to contribute to cellular aging. Therefore, disease is a significant factor in the aging process.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What should be avoided with older adults suffering from osteoporosis?
- A.
Uni-lateral resistance training
- B.
Treadmill exercises
- C.
Forward spinal flexion
- D.
Overhead presses
Correct Answer
C. Forward spinal flexionExplanation
Forward spinal flexion should be avoided with older adults suffering from osteoporosis. This is because forward spinal flexion can put excessive stress on the spine and increase the risk of fractures in individuals with weakened bones. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and increased vulnerability to fractures. Therefore, activities that involve bending forward at the spine should be avoided to prevent any potential injuries or fractures.Rate this question:
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- 7.
It is recommended that a child should be at least 14 years of age before they are introduced to what type of training?
- A.
Multi-planar movement
- B.
Technical concept application
- C.
Outcome based coaching
- D.
Fun
Correct Answer
B. Technical concept applicationExplanation
It is recommended that a child should be at least 14 years of age before they are introduced to technical concept application training. This type of training involves teaching children complex technical skills and strategies in a specific field, such as sports or music. At the age of 14, children have typically developed the cognitive abilities and physical coordination necessary to understand and apply technical concepts effectively. Introducing technical concept application training at a younger age may overwhelm or confuse the child, hindering their progress and enjoyment of the training.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which is a pregnancy-related change?
- A.
Blood volume decreases
- B.
Oxygen uptake decreases
- C.
Heart rate decreases
- D.
Hypotension
Correct Answer
D. HypotensionExplanation
Hypotension refers to low blood pressure, which can be a pregnancy-related change. During pregnancy, hormonal changes can cause blood vessels to relax and widen, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. This is a normal adaptation to support the increased blood flow to the placenta and fetus. Hypotension during pregnancy can cause symptoms such as dizziness and fainting. It is important for pregnant individuals to monitor their blood pressure and seek medical advice if they experience any concerning symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which body type is likely to carry the greatest amount of body fat?
- A.
Ectomorph
- B.
Mesomorph
- C.
Endomorph
- D.
Metamorph
Correct Answer
C. EndomorphExplanation
Endomorphs are likely to carry the greatest amount of body fat. Endomorphs typically have a slower metabolism and a larger bone structure, which makes it easier for them to gain weight and store fat. They tend to have a rounder and softer body shape, with a higher percentage of body fat compared to ectomorphs and mesomorphs. This body type is often associated with a slower metabolism and a tendency to gain weight more easily.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is a symptom of angina?
- A.
Pain radiating down the left arm
- B.
Dizziness
- C.
Loss of vision
- D.
Incontinence
Correct Answer
A. Pain radiating down the left armExplanation
Angina is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Pain radiating down the left arm is a classic symptom of angina. This occurs because the nerves that supply the heart and left arm share a common pathway, so when the heart is not receiving enough blood, it can cause pain to radiate down the left arm. Dizziness, loss of vision, and incontinence are not typically associated with angina and may indicate other medical conditions.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following exercises would be most appropriate for a child to learn deceleration?
- A.
Leg extension
- B.
Jumping
- C.
Single-leg squat
- D.
Machine leg press
Correct Answer
B. JumpingExplanation
Jumping would be the most appropriate exercise for a child to learn deceleration. Deceleration refers to the ability to slow down or stop movement. Jumping requires the child to exert force against the ground to propel themselves upwards, and then control their descent to land safely. This requires the child to decelerate their body and control their momentum. The other exercises listed, such as leg extension, single-leg squat, and machine leg press, do not specifically focus on deceleration.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is a training consideration for the pregnant client due to an increase in the hormone relaxin?
- A.
Increased blood pressure
- B.
Decreased oxygen uptake
- C.
Increased joint laxity
- D.
Decreased bone density
Correct Answer
C. Increased joint laxityExplanation
During pregnancy, the hormone relaxin is released in the body, which helps to relax the ligaments and prepare the body for childbirth. This increased production of relaxin leads to a condition called increased joint laxity, where the joints become more flexible and less stable. As a result, pregnant clients need to be cautious during exercise and training to avoid overstretching or injuring their joints. They may need modifications in their exercise routine to ensure safety and prevent any potential joint injuries.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The primary movement function of the lateral line is to aid and assist
- A.
Frontal plane motion
- B.
Sagittal and transverse plane motion.
- C.
Sagittal plane motion
- D.
Transverse plane motion
Correct Answer
A. Frontal plane motionExplanation
The primary movement function of the lateral line is to aid and assist frontal plane motion. The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves, and movements in this plane include side-to-side motions such as abduction and adduction. The lateral line is a sensory system found in aquatic animals that helps detect water movement and pressure changes, allowing them to navigate and sense their surroundings. By aiding frontal plane motion, the lateral line helps these animals maintain balance and navigate efficiently in their aquatic environment.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The back functional line connect the latissimus dorsi
- A.
Directly to the contralateral vests medialis
- B.
Via thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
- C.
Via thoracolumbar fascia and with same side gluteus maximus
- D.
With the same side vases laterals via thoracolumbar fascia
Correct Answer
B. Via thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximusExplanation
The back functional line connects the latissimus dorsi muscle to the contralateral gluteus maximus muscle through the thoracolumbar fascia. This fascia is a connective tissue that spans the lower back and helps to stabilize and support the muscles in this region. The contralateral gluteus maximus refers to the gluteus maximus muscle on the opposite side of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is that the back functional line connects the latissimus dorsi to the contralateral gluteus maximus via the thoracolumbar fascia.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the observed fascial bundle in the superficial back line at the posterior pelvis?
- A.
Galea Aponeurtica
- B.
Ischial Tuberosity
- C.
Sacrotuberous Ligament
- D.
Thoracolumbar Fascia
Correct Answer
C. Sacrotuberous LigamentExplanation
The observed fascial bundle in the superficial back line at the posterior pelvis is the Sacrotuberous Ligament. This ligament connects the sacrum (the triangular bone at the base of the spine) to the ischial tuberosity (the bony prominence in the pelvis). It helps to stabilize the pelvis and plays a role in supporting the weight of the body during activities such as standing and walking.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the prime mover of elbow extension?
- A.
Anoconeus
- B.
Brachialis
- C.
Bicep Brachii
- D.
Tricep Brachii
Correct Answer
D. Tricep BrachiiExplanation
The correct answer is Tricep Brachii. The tricep brachii muscle is the primary mover of elbow extension. It is located on the back of the upper arm and consists of three heads - the long head, lateral head, and medial head. When the tricep brachii contracts, it causes the extension of the elbow joint, allowing the arm to straighten. The other options listed, such as the anconeus, brachialis, and bicep brachii, are not the primary movers of elbow extension.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Traditionally, dorsi flexion and plantar flexion are viewed as sagittal-plane motions. As integrated perspective would suggest...
- A.
The foot goes wherever the knee drives it.
- B.
It makes no difference
- C.
They are primarily transverse motions
- D.
That it is dominant in the sagittal plane, yet demands function in the frontal and transverse planes illustrated by lateral and
Correct Answer
D. That it is dominant in the sagittal plane, yet demands function in the frontal and transverse planes illustrated by lateral andExplanation
The correct answer is that dorsi flexion and plantar flexion are dominant in the sagittal plane but also require function in the frontal and transverse planes. This is supported by the mention of lateral and transverse movements in the question. This implies that although the primary motion occurs in the sagittal plane, there is also movement required in other planes for proper foot function.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Muscles do NOT need to cross a joint to impact on the forces and motion of that joint. A good example of this is....
- A.
The Soleus muscle assisting in knee extension during the acceleration (concentric) phase of a squat
- B.
The bicep brachia creating elbow flexion
- C.
The lateral deltoid creating shoulder abduction
- D.
The hamstring accelerating hip extension
Correct Answer
A. The Soleus muscle assisting in knee extension during the acceleration (concentric) phase of a squat -
- 19.
During the eccentric phase of a "Tricep Pushdown" exercise, a client's shoulders start to flex a scapular upwardly rotate (they are moving
- A.
Stop the excessive motions or injury will likely occur.
- B.
This is okay if the goal is power training.
- C.
Muscles development will be compromised unless strict form is used.
- D.
These may actually be desirable motions IF the intent is to spread forces through the system instead of isolation.
Correct Answer
D. These may actually be desirable motions IF the intent is to spread forces through the system instead of isolation.Explanation
The given answer suggests that the upward scapular rotation and shoulder flexion during the eccentric phase of a "Tricep Pushdown" exercise may be desirable if the intention is to distribute forces throughout the system instead of isolating specific muscles. This means that these motions can help engage multiple muscle groups and potentially reduce the risk of injury by sharing the load. However, it also implies that strict form should be used to ensure proper muscle development, as deviating from the correct form may compromise muscle development.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What condition results from a buildup of materials in the arteries, leading to restricted blood-flow?
- A.
Atherosclerosis
- B.
Angina
- C.
Claudication
- D.
Anemia
Correct Answer
A. AtherosclerosisExplanation
Atherosclerosis is a condition that occurs when there is a buildup of materials, such as cholesterol and fatty deposits, in the arteries. This buildup causes the arteries to narrow and harden, leading to restricted blood flow. As a result, the affected individual may experience various symptoms and complications related to reduced blood flow to different organs and tissues in the body.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which part of the brain is involved in the regulation of autonomic function?
- A.
Prefrontal lobes
- B.
Corpus callosum
- C.
Brain stem
- D.
Dendrites
Correct Answer
C. Brain stemExplanation
The brain stem is responsible for regulating autonomic functions such as breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion. It connects the brain to the spinal cord and controls many essential bodily functions that occur automatically, without conscious effort. The prefrontal lobes are involved in higher cognitive functions such as decision-making and problem-solving, while the corpus callosum is responsible for communication between the two hemispheres of the brain. Dendrites, on the other hand, are the branch-like extensions of neurons that receive signals from other neurons.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which structure works with the amygdala and is important for habit formation?
- A.
Ventral Medial Pre-frontal Cortex
- B.
Ventral Striatum
- C.
Corpus Callosum
- D.
Basal Ganglia
Correct Answer
D. Basal GangliaExplanation
The basal ganglia is a structure that works with the amygdala and is important for habit formation. The basal ganglia is involved in the control of movement and is also associated with reward-based learning and the formation of habits. It plays a crucial role in the development and execution of habitual behaviors, as well as the regulation of emotions and motivation. Therefore, the basal ganglia is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Chemical messengers that travel in the blood and interact with cells to regulate metabolic function are known as
- A.
Enzymes
- B.
Eicosanoids
- C.
Hormones
- D.
Regulators
Correct Answer
C. HormonesExplanation
Hormones are chemical messengers that are produced by various glands in the body and travel through the bloodstream to interact with specific target cells. They play a crucial role in regulating metabolic functions such as growth, development, reproduction, and maintaining homeostasis. Unlike enzymes, which are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions, hormones do not directly participate in metabolic reactions but rather regulate them. Eicosanoids are a class of signaling molecules derived from fatty acids, but they are not the primary regulators of metabolic function. Therefore, the correct answer is hormones.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which center of the brain enables an individual to use willpower to overcome a craving for dessert?
- A.
Cerebellum
- B.
Corpus Callosum
- C.
Ventral Medial Pre-frontal Cortex
- D.
Anterior Cingulate Cortex
Correct Answer
C. Ventral Medial Pre-frontal CortexExplanation
The ventral medial pre-frontal cortex is responsible for executive functions such as decision-making, impulse control, and self-regulation. It plays a crucial role in enabling an individual to use willpower to overcome cravings, including the craving for dessert. This region of the brain helps to suppress the immediate desire for gratification and instead focus on long-term goals and self-control.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Change in the brain as a results of one's experience is possible because of which principle?
- A.
Deregulation
- B.
Neuroplasicity
- C.
Cognitive convergence
- D.
Hemispheric integration
Correct Answer
B. NeuroplasicityExplanation
Neuroplasticity refers to the brain's ability to change and adapt as a result of one's experiences. It is the principle that allows the brain to reorganize itself by forming new neural connections and modifying existing ones. This process is crucial for learning, memory formation, and recovery from brain injuries. Neuroplasticity enables the brain to adapt to new situations, acquire new skills, and recover from damage, making it the correct principle for explaining the change in the brain as a result of one's experience.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the component of the brain that acts as a relay center for incoming sensory information?
- A.
Striatum
- B.
Cingulate gyrus
- C.
Thalamus
- D.
Hypothalamus
Correct Answer
C. ThalamusExplanation
The thalamus is a component of the brain that acts as a relay center for incoming sensory information. It receives sensory signals from various parts of the body and then transmits them to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex for further processing. This relay function of the thalamus helps to integrate and organize sensory information, allowing us to perceive and respond to our environment effectively. The other options, striatum, cingulate gyrus, and hypothalamus, are not primarily involved in relaying sensory information.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which brain structure is most responsible for anticipation of pleasure and addiction?
- A.
Amygdala
- B.
Right orbital frontal lobe
- C.
Basal Ganglia
- D.
Ventral striatum
Correct Answer
D. Ventral striatumExplanation
The ventral striatum is the brain structure most responsible for anticipation of pleasure and addiction. It is a part of the basal ganglia and plays a crucial role in the brain's reward system. The ventral striatum is involved in the processing of rewarding stimuli and the release of dopamine, a neurotransmitter associated with pleasure and motivation. Dysfunction in the ventral striatum has been linked to addiction and other addictive behaviors.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which brain structure is most involved in the formation of long-term habits?
- A.
Amygdala
- B.
Right orbital frontal lobe
- C.
Basal Ganglia
- D.
Ventral striatum
Correct Answer
C. Basal GangliaExplanation
The basal ganglia is the brain structure most involved in the formation of long-term habits. It is responsible for the initiation and execution of habitual behaviors. Through its connections with other brain regions, the basal ganglia helps in the learning, repetition, and reinforcement of habitual actions. It plays a crucial role in the development of automatic and unconscious behaviors, which eventually become long-term habits.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which portion of the limbic system is most connected to memory?
- A.
Amygdala
- B.
Hippocampus
- C.
Cingulate Gyrus
- D.
Hypothalamus
Correct Answer
B. HippocampusExplanation
The hippocampus is the portion of the limbic system that is most connected to memory. It plays a crucial role in the formation, consolidation, and retrieval of memories. Damage to the hippocampus can result in severe memory impairments, such as the inability to form new memories (anterograde amnesia). Studies have also shown that the hippocampus is involved in spatial memory and navigation. Overall, the hippocampus is a key structure in the limbic system that is essential for memory processes.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which part of the brain is involved in autonomic function?
- A.
Cerebrum
- B.
Diencephalon
- C.
Parietal lobe
- D.
Temporal lobe
Correct Answer
B. DiencephalonExplanation
The diencephalon is involved in autonomic function. It is a part of the brain located between the cerebrum and the midbrain. It consists of several structures, including the thalamus and hypothalamus, which play a crucial role in regulating autonomic functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, body temperature, and hormone secretion. The diencephalon acts as a control center for the autonomic nervous system, ensuring the body's internal processes are maintained and balanced.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The response of the nervous system that activates muscles or glands is the result of what process?
- A.
Motor output
- B.
Integration
- C.
Sensory input
- D.
Stimulation
Correct Answer
A. Motor outputExplanation
Motor output refers to the response of the nervous system that activates muscles or glands. It is the process through which the brain and spinal cord send signals to the muscles or glands to produce a specific action or response. This includes movements of the body, secretion of hormones, or any other activity controlled by the nervous system. Motor output is a crucial part of the overall functioning of the nervous system and is responsible for coordinating and controlling various bodily functions.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The sympathetic division is a component of which part of the nervous system?
- A.
Somatic
- B.
Sensory
- C.
Central
- D.
Autonomic
Correct Answer
D. AutonomicExplanation
The sympathetic division is a component of the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system is responsible for regulating involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and breathing. The sympathetic division specifically prepares the body for "fight or flight" responses by increasing heart rate, dilating blood vessels, and releasing stress hormones. This division works in contrast to the parasympathetic division, which promotes "rest and digest" activities.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which area has the most drastic decrease in blood flow during exercise?
- A.
Kidneys
- B.
Skin
- C.
Heart
- D.
Brain
Correct Answer
D. BrainExplanation
During exercise, the body's priority is to supply oxygen and nutrients to the muscles being used. As a result, blood flow to non-essential organs decreases. The brain, being a vital organ, still requires a steady supply of blood and oxygen, but it experiences a relatively more drastic decrease in blood flow compared to other organs like the kidneys, skin, and heart. This is because the brain is not directly involved in the physical activity and can tolerate a temporary reduction in blood flow without significant consequences.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What percentage of blood flow is distributed to the muscles at rest?
- A.
15%
- B.
20%
- C.
40%
- D.
50%
Correct Answer
B. 20%Explanation
At rest, approximately 20% of the blood flow is distributed to the muscles. This is because even when the body is not engaged in physical activity, the muscles still require a certain amount of blood supply to maintain their basic functions and support tissue repair. The remaining percentage of blood flow is distributed to other organs and tissues in the body, ensuring their proper functioning as well.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which is a chronic cardiovascular adaptation to exercise?
- A.
Increase resting heart rate
- B.
Stroke volume decrease
- C.
Increased blood plasma volume
- D.
Raise sub-maximal exercise blood pressure
Correct Answer
C. Increased blood plasma volumeExplanation
Increased blood plasma volume is a chronic cardiovascular adaptation to exercise. Regular exercise leads to an increase in blood plasma volume, which helps to improve cardiovascular function. This increased volume allows for better oxygen and nutrient delivery to the muscles, as well as improved removal of waste products. It also helps to maintain blood pressure during exercise and promotes better overall cardiovascular health.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What functions in the body as a defense against infectious disease?
- A.
Platelets
- B.
Plasma
- C.
Leukocytes
- D.
Enzymes
Correct Answer
C. LeukocytesExplanation
Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, function as a defense against infectious diseases in the body. These cells are a crucial part of the immune system and play a vital role in identifying and destroying pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Leukocytes are responsible for engulfing and destroying these foreign invaders, preventing them from causing harm and spreading throughout the body. They also produce antibodies that help in neutralizing pathogens and stimulating an immune response. Overall, leukocytes are essential in maintaining the body's defense against infectious diseases.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What helps avoid blood pooling?
- A.
Hydration
- B.
Mitral valve
- C.
Muscle pump
- D.
Tricuspid valve
Correct Answer
C. Muscle pumpExplanation
The muscle pump helps avoid blood pooling by contracting and relaxing the muscles surrounding the veins. This action helps to push the blood back towards the heart, preventing it from pooling or accumulating in the veins. The muscle pump is especially important in the lower extremities, where gravity can cause blood to pool in the legs. By contracting the leg muscles through activities such as walking or exercise, the muscle pump helps to maintain proper blood circulation and prevent blood pooling.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The movement of gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries in the lungs is referred to as
- A.
Internal respiration
- B.
Pulmonary ventilation
- C.
Pulmonary diffusion
- D.
External respiration
Correct Answer
C. Pulmonary diffusionExplanation
Pulmonary diffusion refers to the movement of gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries in the lungs. This process involves the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, where oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the capillaries and carbon dioxide diffuses from the capillaries into the alveoli. It is an essential step in the process of respiration, allowing for the oxygenation of blood and the removal of waste gases.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What is the connective tissue layer that covers the surface of the heart?
- A.
Septum
- B.
Endocardium
- C.
Myocardium
- D.
Pericardium
Correct Answer
D. PericardiumExplanation
The pericardium is the connective tissue layer that covers the surface of the heart. It is a double-layered sac that surrounds and protects the heart, providing a barrier against infection and inflammation. The outer layer of the pericardium is fibrous and tough, while the inner layer is smooth and serous. This protective layer helps to keep the heart in place and allows it to move smoothly within the chest cavity.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the correct term for the amount of blood pumped out of the heart per minute?
- A.
Heart rate
- B.
Ejection fraction
- C.
Stroke volume
- D.
Cardiac output
Correct Answer
D. Cardiac outputExplanation
Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood that is pumped out of the heart per minute. It is a measure of the overall effectiveness of the heart in delivering oxygenated blood to the body. Heart rate refers to the number of times the heart beats per minute, while ejection fraction is the percentage of blood that is pumped out of the heart with each beat. Stroke volume, on the other hand, is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. Therefore, cardiac output is the correct term for the amount of blood pumped out of the heart per minute.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Where are the adrenal glands located in the body?
- A.
Above the thyroid gland
- B.
Below the pancreas
- C.
Lateral to the pituitary gland
- D.
Above the kidneys
Correct Answer
D. Above the kidneysExplanation
The adrenal glands are located above the kidneys. These small, triangular-shaped glands are part of the endocrine system and sit on top of each kidney. They are responsible for producing hormones such as cortisol, adrenaline, and aldosterone, which play a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including metabolism, stress response, and blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which system is primarily involved in the synthesis of vitamin D?
- A.
Skeletal
- B.
Muscular
- C.
Integumentary
- D.
Lymphatic
Correct Answer
C. IntegumentaryExplanation
The integumentary system is primarily involved in the synthesis of vitamin D. The skin contains a precursor molecule called 7-dehydrocholesterol, which is converted into vitamin D when exposed to sunlight. This process occurs in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. Therefore, the integumentary system, which includes the skin, hair, and nails, is responsible for the synthesis of vitamin D.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What do atoms combine to form at the chemical level?
- A.
Sub-atomic particles
- B.
Molecules
- C.
Organelles
- D.
Cells
Correct Answer
B. MoleculesExplanation
Atoms combine to form molecules at the chemical level. Molecules are formed when two or more atoms chemically bond together. This bonding can occur through various types of chemical reactions, such as covalent or ionic bonds. Molecules can be composed of the same type of atoms (as in diatomic molecules like oxygen gas) or different types of atoms (as in water, which is composed of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom). Molecules are the building blocks of matter and are essential for the formation of all substances in the universe.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Increased mitochondrial density is an adaptation involved in the enhancement of what type of physical fitness?
- A.
Hypertrophy
- B.
Flexibility
- C.
Increased aerobic capacity
- D.
Rate of force production
Correct Answer
C. Increased aerobic capacityExplanation
Increased mitochondrial density is an adaptation that occurs in response to aerobic exercise. Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cells and are responsible for producing energy through aerobic metabolism. When mitochondrial density increases, it means that there are more mitochondria in the cells, which leads to improved aerobic capacity. This allows the body to efficiently use oxygen to generate energy, leading to better endurance and cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, increased mitochondrial density is specifically associated with the enhancement of aerobic capacity.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What do the parietal cells produce in the digestive system?
- A.
Hydrochloric acid
- B.
Bile
- C.
Peristalsis
- D.
Musosal cells
Correct Answer
A. Hydrochloric acidExplanation
Parietal cells in the digestive system produce hydrochloric acid. This acid is essential for the breakdown of food and the activation of enzymes. It helps in the digestion of proteins and also kills harmful bacteria that may be present in the food. Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic environment in the stomach, which is necessary for the proper functioning of the digestive system.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Why is peristalsis important in the lower stomach?
- A.
Mechanical digestion
- B.
Mastication
- C.
Food propulsion
- D.
Segmentaion
Correct Answer
C. Food propulsionExplanation
Peristalsis is important in the lower stomach because it helps propel food through the digestive system. This process involves rhythmic contractions of the muscles in the stomach walls, which push the food forward and mix it with digestive enzymes. Without peristalsis, food would not be able to move smoothly through the digestive tract, leading to digestive problems and potential blockages. Therefore, peristalsis plays a crucial role in ensuring efficient food propulsion and the proper functioning of the digestive system.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Glucose metabolism is important for
- A.
Cooling down
- B.
Intense training
- C.
Recovery and resting periods
- D.
Warm up exercise
Correct Answer
B. Intense trainingExplanation
Glucose metabolism is important for intense training because during intense exercise, the body requires a significant amount of energy to fuel the muscles. Glucose, which is derived from carbohydrates, is the primary source of energy for the body. During intense training, the body breaks down glucose through a process called glycolysis to produce ATP, which is used for muscle contractions. Therefore, glucose metabolism is crucial for providing the necessary energy for intense training sessions.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Approximately how many adults in the United States are considered overweight?
- A.
1 out of 3
- B.
1 out of 5
- C.
2 out of 3
- D.
4 out of 5
Correct Answer
C. 2 out of 3Explanation
Approximately two out of three adults in the United States are considered overweight. This indicates that a majority of adults in the country have a higher body weight than what is considered healthy. The high prevalence of overweight individuals in the United States highlights the need for effective measures to address and prevent obesity-related health issues.Rate this question:
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- 49.
How many parts is the small intestine broken down into?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
A. 3Explanation
The small intestine is divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The duodenum is the shortest part and is responsible for receiving partially digested food from the stomach. The jejunum is the middle part and is the main site for absorption of nutrients. The ileum is the final part and connects to the large intestine. These three parts work together to facilitate digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which receptors stimulate the hypothalamus which leads to the release of anti-diuretic hormones by the posterior pituitary gland?
- A.
Osmoreceptors
- B.
Betareceptors
- C.
Chemoreceptors
- D.
Nocioceptors
Correct Answer
A. OsmoreceptorsExplanation
Osmoreceptors are specialized cells in the hypothalamus that detect changes in osmolarity or concentration of solutes in the blood. When osmoreceptors sense an increase in osmolarity, indicating dehydration or high salt levels, they stimulate the hypothalamus to release anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary gland. ADH acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, reducing urine production and helping to restore the body's fluid balance. Therefore, osmoreceptors play a crucial role in regulating water balance and preventing excessive water loss.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 14, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 29, 2017Quiz Created by
Cody Christ
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