3P071 Volume 1 Ures 2017

90 Questions

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3P071 Volume 1 Ures 2017

UREs directly out of Volume 1 Security Forces 3P071 CDCs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    1. (001) What is the most rigorous stage of development? 
    • A. 

      A. SrA.

    • B. 

      B. MSgt.

    • C. 

      C. SSgt and TSgt.

    • D. 

      D. Amn and A1C.

  • 2. 
    2. (001) Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty? 
    • A. 

      A. Patrol leader.

    • B. 

      B. Squad leader.

    • C. 

      C. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller.

    • D. 

      D. Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT) Leader.

  • 3. 
    3. (001) Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certainlocations? 
    • A. 

      A. Supervisor.

    • B. 

      B. Flight Sergeant.

    • C. 

      C. Response force leader.

    • D. 

      D. Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)/Assistant NCOIC.

  • 4. 
    4. (001) What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level ofleadership? 
    • A. 

      A. MSgt.

    • B. 

      B. CMSgt.

    • C. 

      C. SMSgt.

    • D. 

      D. SSgt and TSgt.

  • 5. 
    5. (001) What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?
    • A. 

      A. Tactical control.

    • B. 

      B. Strategic control.

    • C. 

      C. Operational control.

    • D. 

      D. Administrative control.

  • 6. 
    6. (001) Which commander exercises operational control? 
    • A. 

      A. Squadron commander.

    • B. 

      B. Installation commander.

    • C. 

      C. Joint Force commander.

    • D. 

      D. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

  • 7. 
    7. (001) Supervisors must ensure their troops 
    • A. 

      A. have food and water.

    • B. 

      B. possess required qualifications and certifications.

    • C. 

      C. are supplied with weapons and required equipment.

    • D. 

      D. are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.

  • 8. 
    8. (001) Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule? 
    • A. 

      A. Wing commander.

    • B. 

      B. Squadron commander.

    • C. 

      C. Security Forces manager.

    • D. 

      D. Unit deployment manager.

  • 9. 
    9. (001) Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the 
    • A. 

      A. Duty roster.

    • B. 

      B. Post priority listing.

    • C. 

      C. Unit manning document.

    • D. 

      D. Unit personnel manning roster.

  • 10. 
    10. (001) All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreigncountry for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the 
    • A. 

      A. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • B. 

      B. MAJCOM vice commander.

    • C. 

      C. Installation commander.

    • D. 

      D. Combatant commander.

  • 11. 
    11. (001) Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm? 
    • A. 

      A. Supervisor.

    • B. 

      B. Commander.

    • C. 

      C. Servicing armory.

    • D. 

      D. Security Forces manager.

  • 12. 
    12. (001) How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there? 
    • A. 

      A. 1.

    • B. 

      B. 2.

    • C. 

      C. 3.

    • D. 

      D. 4.

  • 13. 
    13. (001) What drives a post priority chart? 
    • A. 

      A. Vulnerability assessment.

    • B. 

      B. Inspector General (IG) assessment.

    • C. 

      C. Force protection conditions (FPCONs).

    • D. 

      D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.

  • 14. 
    14. (001) Post priority charts are used to 
    • A. 

      A. allocate vehicles.

    • B. 

      B. allocate manpower.

    • C. 

      C. determine post rotations.

    • D. 

      D. determine weapon configurations.

  • 15. 
    15. (001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned? 
    • A. 

      A. Group commander.

    • B. 

      B. Security Forces manager.

    • C. 

      C. Defense force commander.

    • D. 

      D. Each individual flight chief.

  • 16. 
    16. (001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in 
    • A. 

      A. Higher force protection conditions (FPCONs).

    • B. 

      B. Peacetime and wartime.

    • C. 

      C. Peacetime.

    • D. 

      D. Wartime.

  • 17. 
    17. (001) When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain 
    • A. 

      A. proficiency.

    • B. 

      B. discipline.

    • C. 

      C. fairness.

    • D. 

      D. control.

  • 18. 
    18. (001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high? 
    • A. 

      A. Post rotations.

    • B. 

      B. Specialized courses.

    • C. 

      C. Recognition program.

    • D. 

      D. Providing time off.

  • 19. 
    19. (001) As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates? 
    • A. 

      A. Standards.

    • B. 

      B. Discipline.

    • C. 

      C. Work ethic.

    • D. 

      D. Mentorship.

  • 20. 
    20. (001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance? 
    • A. 

      A. Issue paperwork.

    • B. 

      B. Verbally counsel the subordinate.

    • C. 

      C. Investigate to determine the cause.

    • D. 

      D. Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.

  • 21. 
    21. (002) The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is 
    • A. 

      A. Report.

    • B. 

      B. Parade rest.

    • C. 

      C. Open ranks march.

    • D. 

      D. Prepare for inspection.

  • 22. 
    22. (002) After the command “Open rank, MARCH,” which of the following action does the flight take? 
    • A. 

      A. The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two, paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • B. 

      B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • C. 

      C. The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • D. 

      D. The last element stands fast. Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward and halts.

  • 23. 
    23. (002) After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement? 
    • A. 

      A. 1.

    • B. 

      B. 2.

    • C. 

      C. 3.

    • D. 

      D. 4.

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      A. As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • B. 

      B. As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • C. 

      C. As the inspecting official is within two paces of the right flank to the formation, the second element leader commands, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • D. 

      D. As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader, he/she will give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

  • 25. 
    25. (002) When do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH!”? 
    • A. 

      A. Upon departure of the inspecting official.

    • B. 

      B. At the completion of the guardmount briefing

    • C. 

      C. Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.

    • D. 

      D. When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.

  • 26. 
    26. (002) Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments? 
    • A. 

      A. AFI 36-2903.

    • B. 

      B. AFI 36-2905.

    • C. 

      C. AFMAN 36-2903.

    • D. 

      D. AFMAN 36-2905.

  • 27. 
    27. (002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment? 
    • A. 

      A. Flight member.

    • B. 

      B. Flight supervisor.

    • C. 

      C. Flight commander.

    • D. 

      D. Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Supply.

  • 28. 
    28. (002) A post check generally includes all of these items except 
    • A. 

      A. area inspection.

    • B. 

      B. facility inspection.

    • C. 

      C. weapons inspection.

    • D. 

      D. classified material inspection.

  • 29. 
    29. (002) What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else’s writing? 
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–337.

    • B. 

      B. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–336.

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 32–337.

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.

  • 30. 
    30. (002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is 
    • A. 

      A. lengthy.

    • B. 

      B. made up.

    • C. 

      C. irrelevant.

    • D. 

      D. inappropriate.

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      A. the communication gets the point across.

    • B. 

      B. ideas are being communicated understandably and the communication gets the point across.

    • C. 

      C. ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect punctuation), and the communication get the point across.

    • D. 

      D. ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.

  • 32. 
    32. (003) Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program? 
    • A. 

      A. Unit training section.

    • B. 

      B. Defense Force commander.

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Security Forces Center.

    • D. 

      D. Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).

  • 33. 
    33. (003) Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained,qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military educationschools? 
    • A. 

      A. Unit training section.

    • B. 

      B. Immediate supervisors.

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Security Forces Center.

    • D. 

      D. Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).

  • 34. 
    34. (003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips? 
    • A. 

      A. Analysis.

    • B. 

      B. Feedback.

    • C. 

      C. Evaluation.

    • D. 

      D. Cross-feed.

  • 35. 
    35. (003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to 
    • A. 

      A. measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.

    • B. 

      B. determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller.

    • C. 

      C. measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions.

    • D. 

      D. surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty.

  • 36. 
    36. (004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to 
    • A. 

      A. aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • B. 

      B. track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • C. 

      C. detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • D. 

      D. deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

  • 37. 
    37. (004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is 
    • A. 

      A. apprehension or release.

    • B. 

      B. pepper spray or gunfire.

    • C. 

      C. resistance or restraint.

    • D. 

      D. gunfire or escape.

  • 38. 
    38. (004) When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage? 
    • A. 

      A. In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.

    • B. 

      B. Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability.

    • C. 

      C. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.

    • D. 

      D. Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.

  • 39. 
    39. (004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous 
    • A. 

      A. deterrent to potential violators.

    • B. 

      B. physical deterrent to potential violators.

    • C. 

      C. physiological deterrent to potential violators.

    • D. 

      D. psychological deterrent to potential violators.

  • 40. 
    40. (004) During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned 
    • A. 

      A. in reserve, out of sight of the crowd.

    • B. 

      B. off to the side, out of direct vision of the crowd.

    • C. 

      C. right out in front to ward off potential participants.

    • D. 

      D. elsewhere and not used in peaceful confrontations.

  • 41. 
    41. (005) All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the 
    • A. 

      A. Threat Working Group.

    • B. 

      B. Integrated Base Defense Council.

    • C. 

      C. Force Protection Commodity Council.

    • D. 

      D. Equipment, Weapons, and Configuration Board.

  • 42. 
    42. (005) “All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked” means that they 
    • A. 

      A. all must have SF badges applied to both the front doors.

    • B. 

      B. all must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios.

    • C. 

      C. must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.

    • D. 

      D. all must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a military working dog (MWD).

  • 43. 
    43. (005) Which radio type can talk over great distances? 
    • A. 

      A. Base station.

    • B. 

      B. Portable radio.

    • C. 

      C. Base station remote.

    • D. 

      D. Mobile two-way radio.

  • 44. 
    44. (005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to 
    • A. 

      A. ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    • B. 

      B. ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.

    • C. 

      C. determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.

    • D. 

      D. provide Congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session.

  • 45. 
    45. (005) Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year? 
    • A. 

      A. Numbered air force.

    • B. 

      B. Headquarters Air Force.

    • C. 

      C. Major commands (MAJCOMs).

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Security Forces Center.

  • 46. 
    46. (005) What is not a category for the status of funds? 
    • A. 

      A. Committed.

    • B. 

      B. Obligated.

    • C. 

      C. End of year.

    • D. 

      D. Uncommitted.

  • 47. 
    47. (005) Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas? 
    • A. 

      A. Major command (MAJCOM) functional.

    • B. 

      B. MAJCOM corporate structure.

    • C. 

      C. Financial Management Board.

    • D. 

      D. Financial working group.

  • 48. 
    48. (005) What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units? 
    • A. 

      A. Air Force Manpower Standards Program (MSP).

    • B. 

      B. Air Force Manpower Standards Platform (MSP).

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP).

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Management and Equipment Program (MEP).

  • 49. 
    49. (005) When are manpower numbers reviewed? 
    • A. 

      A. Monthly.

    • B. 

      B. Quarterly.

    • C. 

      C. Annually.

    • D. 

      D. Bi-annually.

  • 50. 
    50. (005) Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document? 
    • A. 

      A. Work center.

    • B. 

      B. Position number.

    • C. 

      C. Air Force specialty code.

    • D. 

      D. Report No Later than Date.

  • 51. 
    51. (005) Where does the installations’ labor relations specialist work? 
    • A. 

      A. Civilian Personnel Office.

    • B. 

      B. Staff Judge Advocate Office.

    • C. 

      C. Contract Management Office.

    • D. 

      D. Area Defense Council Office.

  • 52. 
    52. (005) All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except 
    • A. 

      A. supervisors.

    • B. 

      B. management officials.

    • C. 

      C. professional employees.

    • D. 

      D. employees in non-dedicated positions.

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      A. Federal Service Bargaining and Management Statue (5 U.S.C. Chapter 71).

    • B. 

      B. Federal Service Bargaining and Management Statue (5 U.S.C. Chapter 70).

    • C. 

      C. Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statue (5 U.S.C. Chapter 70).

    • D. 

      D. Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statue (5 U.S.C. Chapter 71).

  • 54. 
    54. (005) Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal inspections? 
    • A. 

      A. Commanders.

    • B. 

      B. Wing Inspector General.

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Inspection Agency.

    • D. 

      D. Major Command (MAJCOM) Inspector General.

  • 55. 
    55. (005) Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspections? 
    • A. 

      A. Controlled Nuclear Surety Inspection (CNSI).

    • B. 

      B. Limited Nuclear Surety Inspection (LNSI).

    • C. 

      C. Initial Nuclear Surety Inspection (INSI).

    • D. 

      D. Joint Nuclear Surety Inspection (JNSI).

  • 56. 
    56. (006) Which of the following is not an alarm response code? 
    • A. 

      A. Code 1.

    • B. 

      B. Code 2.

    • C. 

      C. Code 3.

    • D. 

      D. Code 4.

  • 57. 
    57. (006) Which is not a designated PL1 resource? 
    • A. 

      A. Nuclear weapons.

    • B. 

      B. Senior Executive Mission (SENEX) aircraft.

    • C. 

      C. Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States.

    • D. 

      D. Command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems.

  • 58. 
    58. (006) Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users areprimarily responsible for security? 
    • A. 

      A. PL4.

    • B. 

      B. PL3.

    • C. 

      C. PL2.

    • D. 

      D. PL1.

  • 59. 
    59. (007) How many team configurations are there for use in a tactical situation? 
    • A. 

      A. 5.

    • B. 

      B. 4.

    • C. 

      C. 3.

    • D. 

      D. 2.

  • 60. 
    60. (007) Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front? 
    • A. 

      A. Three-person team movement.

    • B. 

      B. Two-person team movement.

    • C. 

      C. Four-person team movement.

    • D. 

      D. Y-formation.

  • 61. 
    61. (007) The T-formation is best suited for what environment?
    • A. 

      A. Intersecting hallways.

    • B. 

      B. Narrow hallways.

    • C. 

      C. Wider hallways.

    • D. 

      D. Stairwells.

  • 62. 
    62. (007) Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun? 
    • A. 

      A. Hinges.

    • B. 

      B. Door knob.

    • C. 

      C. Locking mechanism.

    • D. 

      D. Center mass of the door.

  • 63. 
    63. (007) When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the 
    • A. 

      A. threat.

    • B. 

      B. fast wall.

    • C. 

      C. unknown.

    • D. 

      D. strong wall.

  • 64. 
    64. (007) When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to the next bend or landing?
    • A. 

      A. #1.

    • B. 

      B. #2.

    • C. 

      C. #3.

    • D. 

      D. #4.

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      A. knock normally.

    • B. 

      B. listen for 15 to 30 seconds.

    • C. 

      C. stand directly in front of the door.

    • D. 

      D. check to see if screened doors are locked.

  • 66. 
    66. (008) What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?
    • A. 

      A. The nature of the dispute.

    • B. 

      B. The location of the dispute.

    • C. 

      C. The responding patrol’s attitude.

    • D. 

      D. Whether or not children are present.

  • 67. 
    67. (008) Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?
    • A. 

      A. Deep cuts.

    • B. 

      B. Bloody nose.

    • C. 

      C. Fractured bones.

    • D. 

      D. Damaged internal organs.

  • 68. 
    68. (008) Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated? 
    • A. 

      A. Rape.

    • B. 

      B. Assault.

    • C. 

      C. Adultery.

    • D. 

      D. Child Abuse.

  • 69. 
    69. (008) What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program? 
    • A. 

      A. Mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim.

    • B. 

      B. Ensure best efforts are made to accord victims certain rights.

    • C. 

      C. Foster cooperation of victims and witnesses.

    • D. 

      D. Prosecute the accused.

  • 70. 
    71. (009) What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, orfootprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene? 
    • A. 

      A. It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.

    • B. 

      B. It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.

    • C. 

      C. It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.

    • D. 

      D. It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found faster.

  • 71. 
    72. (009) What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?
    • A. 

      A. It allows photographs to be taken.

    • B. 

      B. It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene.

    • C. 

      C. It allows responding patrols to better piece together events.

    • D. 

      D. It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found.

  • 72. 
    73. (009) Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminaryinvestigation search the scene? 
    • A. 

      A. It allows for additional flight members to gain experience.

    • B. 

      B. It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training.

    • C. 

      C. It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.

    • D. 

      D. It could possibly destroy your hard work, contaminate the scene, and violate the chain of evidence requirements.

  • 73. 
    74. (009) Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to 
    • A. 

      A. collect and preserve.

    • B. 

      B. observe and record.

    • C. 

      C. record and sketch.

    • D. 

      D. photo and record.

  • 74. 
    75. (010) Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site? 
    • A. 

      A. Installation Commander.

    • B. 

      B. Disaster Control Group.

    • C. 

      C. Incident Commander.

    • D. 

      D. Fire Chief.

  • 75. 
    76. (010) During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported?
    • A. 

      A. Recovery phase.

    • B. 

      B. Response phase.

    • C. 

      C. Notification phase.

    • D. 

      D. Withdrawal phase.

  • 76. 
    77. (010) Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming? 
    • A. 

      A. Recovery phase.

    • B. 

      B. Response phase.

    • C. 

      C. Notification phase.

    • D. 

      D. Withdrawal phase.

  • 77. 
    78. (010) What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone? 
    • A. 

      A. Control zone.

    • B. 

      B. Warm zone.

    • C. 

      C. Cold zone.

    • D. 

      D. Hot zone.

  • 78. 
    79. (010) Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) requests help through the 
    • A. 

      A. United States Army.

    • B. 

      B. Department of State.

    • C. 

      C. Department of Defense.

    • D. 

      D. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).

  • 79. 
    80. (010) During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation commander reassess the situation? 
    • A. 

      A. Sustained emergency phase.

    • B. 

      B. Initial emergency phase.

    • C. 

      C. Notification phase.

    • D. 

      D. Recovery phase.

  • 80. 
    81. (010) Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation? 
    • A. 

      A. Public Affairs.

    • B. 

      B. School Principal.

    • C. 

      C. Incident Commander.

    • D. 

      D. Defense Force Commander.

  • 81. 
    70. (008) Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or died? 
    • A. 

      A. First Sergeant.

    • B. 

      B. Defense Force Commander.

    • C. 

      C. Installation Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) detachment commander.

  • 82. 
    82. (011) What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews? 
    • A. 

      A. As long as it takes to obtain a confession.

    • B. 

      B. No more than 30 minutes.

    • C. 

      C. No more than 60 minutes.

    • D. 

      D. There is no time limit.

  • 83. 
    83. (011) When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner? 
    • A. 

      A. Seek Defense Force Commander (DFC) advice.

    • B. 

      B. Seek Area Defense Counsel (ADC) advice.

    • C. 

      C. Seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice.

    • D. 

      D. Question them with a witness.

  • 84. 
    84. (011) Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior toquestioning? 
    • A. 

      A. Nationality.

    • B. 

      B. Income.

    • C. 

      C. Race.

    • D. 

      D. Age.

  • 85. 
    85. (011) An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a 
    • A. 

      A. habitual offender.

    • B. 

      B. psychotic offender.

    • C. 

      C. first time offender.

    • D. 

      D. professional offender.

  • 86. 
    86. (012) During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up investigation, should a determination be made that the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed? 
    • A. 

      A. Collecting physical evidence.

    • B. 

      B. Conducting additional interviews.

    • C. 

      C. Identifying and apprehending suspects.

    • D. 

      D. Review and analyze all previous reports.

  • 87. 
    87. (012) The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension 
    • A. 

      A. in a private dwelling.

    • B. 

      B. during the interview.

    • C. 

      C. off the installation.

    • D. 

      D. in a work center.

  • 88. 
    88. (012) To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander mustcoordinate with the 
    • A. 

      A. Major command (MAJCOM) Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).

    • B. 

      B. Defense Force Commander.

    • C. 

      C. Installation SJA.

    • D. 

      D. host nation.

  • 89. 
    89. (013) Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case? 
    • A. 

      A. Speaking to the witnesses.

    • B. 

      B. Consulting with the defense counsel.

    • C. 

      C. Arranging and reviewing original notes.

    • D. 

      D. Returning to the crime scene to recall the events.

  • 90. 
    90. (013) Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential whentestifying? 
    • A. 

      A. Skill, tact, poise, and self-assurance.

    • B. 

      B. Skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence.

    • C. 

      C. Skill, reliance, poise and self-confidence.

    • D. 

      D. Skill, cockiness, poise, and self-confidence.