3P071 Volume 1 UREs 2017

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1. 67. (008) Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?

Explanation

A bloody nose is not considered grievous bodily harm because it is a minor injury that typically does not cause long-term or permanent damage to the body. Deep cuts, fractured bones, and damaged internal organs are all examples of injuries that can be classified as grievous bodily harm because they can have serious consequences and require medical intervention or treatment.

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About This Quiz
3P071 Volume 1 UREs 2017 - Quiz

This quiz, titled '3P071 Volume 1 UREs 2017', assesses knowledge crucial for Air Force personnel, focusing on duties and control within various force development levels. It is designed to evaluate understanding of operational roles and leadership within the Air Force, targeting skills essential for career progression.

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2. 71. (009) What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, orfootprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene? 

Explanation

Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. Physical evidence is crucial in solving crimes, and any alteration or destruction of evidence can lead to incorrect interpretations and conclusions. Therefore, it is important to preserve the crime scene and collect all evidence properly to ensure an accurate investigation and prevent false conclusions.

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3. 68. (008) Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated? 

Explanation

Rape is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated excluding homicide. Rape is a violent act that involves non-consensual sexual intercourse or penetration. It is considered a serious crime because it violates a person's bodily autonomy, causes severe physical and psychological trauma, and infringes upon their basic human rights. Rape investigations require thorough examination of evidence, interviews with victims and potential witnesses, and cooperation with medical professionals to gather information and build a case against the perpetrator.

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4. 72. (009) What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?

Explanation

Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because it ensures that no evidence is tampered with or contaminated, providing a more accurate understanding of the crime and what occurred. It allows the investigator to gather all the necessary information and clues from the scene, which can be crucial in solving the crime and identifying the perpetrator.

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5. 73. (009) Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminaryinvestigation search the scene? 

Explanation

Having a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it allows for fresh eyes to examine the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This helps ensure that all evidence is thoroughly and objectively assessed, increasing the chances of identifying crucial details or overlooked evidence. Additionally, it reduces the risk of contamination or destruction of evidence, as the patrolman is not directly involved in the investigation and is less likely to unknowingly tamper with the scene.

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6. 18. (001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high? 

Explanation

Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows for a variety of experiences and prevents monotony. By rotating individuals to different positions or tasks, it gives them the opportunity to learn new skills, work with different team members, and avoid burnout. This can help maintain motivation and engagement within the flight, ultimately contributing to high morale.

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7. 34. (003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips? 

Explanation

Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about their performance, the effectiveness of their strategies, and the impact of their decisions. Feedback allows commanders to make informed adjustments and improvements, leading to better outcomes and increased success. It also helps in identifying strengths and weaknesses, enabling commanders to capitalize on their strengths and address any areas that need improvement. Overall, feedback plays a crucial role in enhancing decision-making and performance in command roles.

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8. 62. (007) Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun? 

Explanation

The center mass of the door is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun. When using a shotgun for entry, the target points on a door typically include the hinges, door knob, and locking mechanism. The center mass of the door is not a specific point that needs to be targeted for entry.

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9. 66. (008) What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?

Explanation

The attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute are determined by the responding patrol's attitude. The way the patrol handles the situation, their demeanor, and their ability to effectively communicate and listen to all parties involved can greatly impact how the individuals in the dispute respond. A positive and respectful attitude from the patrol can help to de-escalate the situation and encourage cooperation from those involved. Conversely, a negative or confrontational attitude can escalate tensions and hinder cooperation.

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10. 20. (001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance? 

Explanation

If a subordinate is demonstrating substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This allows for a thorough understanding of the underlying issues that may be contributing to the substandard performance. By identifying the cause, appropriate actions can be taken to address and rectify the situation, whether it involves additional training, counseling, or other interventions. Simply issuing paperwork or verbally counseling the subordinate may not address the root cause of the issue, and assigning a new supervisor may not necessarily solve the problem either. Therefore, investigating to determine the cause is the most effective course of action.

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11. 35. (003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to 

Explanation

The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This evaluation ensures that individuals have the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively carry out their assigned duties. It is a process of assessing an individual's competency and determining their suitability for a particular role.

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12. 83. (011) When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner? 

Explanation

When questioning a juvenile, if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner, you should seek Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on the appropriate actions to take when dealing with juveniles in legal matters. They can help ensure that the juvenile's rights are protected and that the questioning process is conducted in a fair and lawful manner. Seeking SJA advice helps to ensure that the juvenile's best interests are considered and that any potential legal issues are addressed properly.

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13. 14. (001) Post priority charts are used to 

Explanation

Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that they are used to determine the distribution and assignment of personnel to different posts or positions. These charts help in ensuring that the right number of personnel with the appropriate skills and qualifications are assigned to each post, based on the priority or importance of the tasks or responsibilities associated with that post. By using post priority charts, organizations can effectively manage their manpower resources and ensure that they are allocated in the most efficient and effective manner.

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14. 17. (001) When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain 

Explanation

Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified in helps to maintain proficiency. This is because when individuals are exposed to different roles and responsibilities, they gain a broader understanding of the organization and develop a diverse skill set. By regularly rotating personnel, they can continue to learn and grow, ensuring that they remain competent and capable in their respective positions. This practice also reduces the risk of complacency and fosters a culture of continuous improvement within the organization.

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15. 31. (002) The primary function of reviewing is to ensure 

Explanation

The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and that the communication gets the point across. This means that reviewing is not only focused on the clarity of the message, but also on the overall coherence and correctness of the language used. It is important for the communication to be logically organized and free from grammatical errors in order to effectively convey the intended message.

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16. 56. (006) Which of the following is not an alarm response code? 

Explanation

The question asks for the alarm response code that is not valid. The options provided are Code 1, Code 2, Code 3, and Code 4. The correct answer is d. Code 4 because it is not an alarm response code.

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17. 1. (001) What is the most rigorous stage of development? 

Explanation

The most rigorous stage of development is when an individual is at the rank of Amn (Airman) and A1C (Airman First Class). This is because at this stage, individuals are at the beginning of their military career and are expected to learn and adapt quickly to the demands and expectations of the Air Force. They are required to undergo extensive training and development to acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties effectively. This stage sets the foundation for their future growth and advancement in the Air Force.

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18. 2. (001) Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty? 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Squad leader. A Senior Airman (SrA) is typically not assigned as a squad leader. Squad leaders are usually higher-ranking individuals such as Staff Sergeants or Technical Sergeants. Senior Airmen may hold other leadership positions, but squad leader is not typically one of them.

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19. 89. (013) Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case? 

Explanation

Arranging and reviewing original notes prior to the trial aids in recalling all the details of the case. This is because original notes contain important information and evidence gathered during the investigation, which can help refresh the memory and ensure that no crucial details are missed during the trial. By organizing and reviewing these notes, the person involved in the trial can have a comprehensive understanding of the case and be better prepared to present and argue their position effectively.

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20. 27. (002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment? 

Explanation

The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that each individual within the flight has the responsibility to ensure that the equipment is properly maintained and in good working order. This includes conducting regular inspections, performing necessary repairs, and reporting any issues to the appropriate personnel. By assigning this responsibility to the flight member, it ensures that everyone is actively involved in the maintenance process and takes ownership of the equipment they use.

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21. 36. (004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to 

Explanation

The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that MWDs are trained to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering or approaching Air Force facilities, identify potential threats or intruders through their keen sense of smell, sight, and hearing, and take appropriate action to apprehend or detain them until security personnel can respond. By performing these tasks, MWDs play a crucial role in enhancing the security and protection of Air Force resources.

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22. 82. (011) What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews? 

Explanation

There is no time limit placed on suspect interviews. This means that law enforcement can take as long as they need to gather information and evidence from the suspect. This allows them to thoroughly investigate the case and ensure that all relevant information is obtained. However, it is important to note that the absence of a time limit does not mean that law enforcement can use any means necessary to obtain a confession. They still have to adhere to legal and ethical guidelines during the interview process.

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23. 69. (008) What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program? 

Explanation

The Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) aims to support victims and witnesses of crimes by mitigating their physical, psychological, and financial hardships (option a), ensuring that victims are accorded certain rights (option b), and fostering their cooperation (option c). However, prosecuting the accused (option d) is not considered an objective of the VWAP program. The program focuses on providing assistance and support to victims and witnesses, rather than on the prosecution of the accused.

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24. 85. (011) An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a 

Explanation

An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a habitual offender. This term is used to describe someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without remorse or guilt. Unlike a first-time offender who may feel remorse or guilt after committing a crime, a habitual offender demonstrates a lack of moral conscience and continues to engage in criminal activities without a sense of wrongdoing. A psychotic offender, on the other hand, refers to someone who has a mental illness that may contribute to their criminal behavior. A professional offender typically refers to someone who commits crimes as a means of livelihood.

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25. 7. (001) Supervisors must ensure their troops 

Explanation

Supervisors must ensure their troops possess required qualifications and certifications. This is important because having the necessary qualifications and certifications ensures that the troops are properly trained and competent to perform their duties effectively and safely. It also ensures that they meet the standards and requirements set by the organization or governing body. By ensuring their troops have the necessary qualifications and certifications, supervisors can have confidence in their abilities and trust that they will be able to carry out their responsibilities successfully.

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26. 9. (001) Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Post priority listing. This is because post and patrols will be manned according to their priority as listed in the post priority listing. The post priority listing determines the order in which posts need to be manned based on their importance and the specific needs of the unit. It helps ensure that the most critical posts are manned first and that all posts are adequately staffed. The duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may provide additional information about personnel assignments, but they do not specifically address the prioritization of posts.

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27. 87. (012) The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension 

Explanation

The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension in a private dwelling. This form is specifically designed to document the details of an apprehension that takes place in a private residence. It helps to ensure that proper procedures are followed and that all necessary information is recorded accurately. This form may be used by law enforcement personnel or military officials when apprehending individuals in their homes.

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28. 3. (001) Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certainlocations? 

Explanation

Flight Sergeant duty is available in certain locations.

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29. 11. (001) Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm? 

Explanation

The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This is because the commander has the authority and power to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms within their command. They have the knowledge and understanding of the situation and can assess whether it is necessary to temporarily revoke someone's right to bear a firearm for the safety and security of the organization or individual. The supervisor, servicing armory, and security forces manager may be involved in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the commander.

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30. 39. (004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous 

Explanation

A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a psychological deterrent to potential violators because the presence of a well-trained and intimidating dog can create fear and hesitation in individuals who may be considering engaging in criminal activities. The sight of a police dog can make potential violators think twice about their actions, knowing that they may face the consequences of encountering a highly trained and capable canine. This psychological deterrent effect helps to maintain public safety and prevent crime.

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31. 42. (005) "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked" means that they 

Explanation

The correct answer is c. "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system." This means that it is a requirement for SF vehicles to have these specific features installed.

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32. 57. (006) Which is not a designated PL1 resource? 

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States. This answer is correct because PL1 resources are defined as resources that are essential to the survival, security, or operational readiness of the United States government. While the transportation of the First Lady is important, it is not considered a designated PL1 resource. PL1 resources typically include nuclear weapons, high-ranking government officials, and critical communication and computer systems.

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33. 84. (011) Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior toquestioning? 

Explanation

The suspect's income is of no value prior to questioning because it does not provide any relevant information about their involvement in the situation. Nationality, race, and age can potentially be important factors to consider during questioning, as they may be relevant to the case or investigation. However, income is not directly related to the suspect's actions or potential guilt, and therefore does not provide any useful information in this context.

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34. 63. (007) When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the 

Explanation

When making room entry, it is important to orient your weapons towards the unknown. This means that you should be prepared to engage any potential threats that may be present inside the room. By keeping your weapons oriented towards the unknown, you are ready to react quickly and effectively to any potential danger that may arise. This ensures the safety and security of yourself and others during room entry situations.

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35. 13. (001) What drives a post priority chart? 

Explanation

The post priority chart is driven by the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment. This assessment helps identify and prioritize risks and threats to the installation or facility. It considers factors such as vulnerability assessment, Inspector General (IG) assessment, and force protection conditions (FPCONs) to determine the level of risk and the appropriate measures to mitigate it. The IDRMP assessment ensures that resources are allocated effectively and that the highest priority risks are addressed first.

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36. 30. (002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is 

Explanation

When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one concern is that it may contain information that is irrelevant. This means that the material may include details or facts that are not necessary or applicable to the topic being discussed. Irrelevant information can distract the reader or confuse them, making it important to ensure that the material is focused and only includes information that is directly related to the subject at hand.

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37. 78. (010) What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone? 

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Hot zone. In a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site, the hot zone refers to the area that is highly contaminated and poses the greatest risk to individuals. It is also known as the restricted zone because access to this area is strictly controlled to prevent further exposure and contamination.

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38. 58. (006) Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users areprimarily responsible for security? 

Explanation

PL4 is the correct answer because it is the highest level of protection assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security. PL4 indicates that the owner/users have implemented comprehensive security measures to protect the area, including physical barriers, access controls, and surveillance systems. This level of protection ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the controlled area and minimizes the risk of unauthorized entry or compromise of sensitive information or assets.

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39. 65. (008) When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not 

Explanation

When responding to a residence, standing directly in front of the door should be avoided. This is because standing directly in front of the door can put the responder in a vulnerable position, as they may be within the line of sight of someone inside the residence who may pose a threat. It is recommended to stand to the side of the door, where they are less likely to be seen and can take cover if necessary.

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40. 15. (001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned? 

Explanation

The defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not you need to be present at a particular post or if it can be left unmanned. This decision is likely based on factors such as the level of threat or the availability of resources.

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41. 16. (001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in 

Explanation

The post priority chart is designed to ensure the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in both peacetime and wartime. This means that the chart takes into account the needs and requirements of SF personnel during both periods, allowing for effective allocation and utilization of resources. By considering both peacetime and wartime scenarios, the chart can help prioritize posts and tasks based on the current operational environment, ensuring that SF personnel are deployed in the most effective and efficient manner.

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42. 52. (005) All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except 

Explanation

This question is asking which of the given options is not excluded from being in a bargaining unit. A bargaining unit is a group of employees represented by a union for the purpose of negotiating their terms and conditions of employment. Options a, b, and c all represent categories of employees who are typically excluded from being in a bargaining unit. Supervisors, management officials, and professional employees often have roles that involve making decisions or exercising authority, which can create a conflict of interest with the collective bargaining process. On the other hand, employees in non-dedicated positions do not represent a clear category of exclusion, making option d the correct answer.

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43. 90. (013) Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential whentestifying? 

Explanation

The personal attributes that are essential when testifying include skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence. These attributes are important because a witness needs to have the necessary skills to effectively communicate their testimony, tact to navigate sensitive or difficult questions, poise to remain calm and composed under pressure, and self-confidence to present their testimony confidently and convincingly.

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44. 8. (001) Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule? 

Explanation

The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding the scheduling of flights. They consider factors such as mission requirements, aircraft availability, and pilot availability to create an efficient and effective flight schedule for the unit. The squadron commander also coordinates with other units and higher-level commanders to ensure that the flight schedule aligns with overall mission objectives.

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45. 25. (002) When do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH!"? 

Explanation

The command "Close Ranks, MARCH!" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This means that after the inspecting official has finished inspecting the ranks, they will then leave the area. At this point, the command is given to close the ranks and continue with the next phase of the ceremony or event.

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46. 28. (002) A post check generally includes all of these items except 

Explanation

A post check generally includes area inspection, facility inspection, and classified material inspection. However, weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check.

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47. 37. (004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is 

Explanation

Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that if the situation calls for the use of force, patrol dogs are seen as a less lethal option compared to using firearms or allowing the subject to escape. The use of patrol dogs can help to apprehend and control individuals without resorting to potentially deadly force.

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48. 44. (005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to 

Explanation

The Financial Plan submission serves the purpose of ensuring an equitable distribution of the President's Budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the plan aims to allocate the budget fairly among different departments or branches of the Air Force, ensuring that each receives an appropriate share of funding. This helps to maintain balance and fairness in the budget allocation process.

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49. 77. (010) Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming? 

Explanation

The recovery phase is the most complex and time-consuming major accident response phase. This is because it involves the process of restoring the affected area to its pre-incident condition, which can be a lengthy and intricate task. It includes activities such as cleaning up debris, repairing infrastructure, and assessing and addressing any environmental damage. The recovery phase requires coordination and collaboration among various stakeholders, including emergency responders, government agencies, and community members, making it a challenging and time-consuming process.

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50. 81. (010) Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation? 

Explanation

Public Affairs is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation. Public Affairs professionals are trained to handle communication and media relations during crisis situations. They are responsible for disseminating accurate and timely information to the public, including parents, students, and the media. They work closely with school administrators, law enforcement, and other relevant parties to ensure that the correct information is communicated effectively and efficiently. Public Affairs plays a crucial role in maintaining transparency and managing public perception during such incidents.

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51. 61. (007) The T-formation is best suited for what environment?

Explanation

The T-formation is best suited for wider hallways because it allows for maximum visibility and coverage of the area. In wider hallways, there is more space to spread out and create a strong defensive position. This formation ensures that all angles and entry points are covered, making it difficult for the enemy to advance. Narrow hallways would limit the effectiveness of the T-formation as it would be harder to maintain proper spacing and coverage. Stairwells and intersecting hallways have their own unique challenges and would require different formations for optimal effectiveness.

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52. 22. (002) After the command "Open rank, MARCH," which of the following action does the flight take? 

Explanation

After the command "Open rank, MARCH," the flight takes the following action: The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

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53. 41. (005) All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Integrated Base Defense Council. The Integrated Base Defense Council is responsible for establishing and implementing arming rules in accordance with AFI 31-117 and MAJCOM requirements. They are responsible for ensuring that air force personnel are armed and trained in the use of force to protect the base and its personnel from potential threats. The Threat Working Group, Force Protection Commodity Council, and Equipment, Weapons, and Configuration Board may have roles in the arming process, but the Integrated Base Defense Council is the primary authority.

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54. 49. (005) When are manpower numbers reviewed? 

Explanation

Manpower numbers are reviewed annually. This means that the review process takes place once a year. During this review, the organization assesses its current manpower levels, evaluates any changes or adjustments that need to be made, and plans for future workforce requirements. This annual review allows the organization to ensure that it has the right number of employees with the necessary skills and qualifications to meet its objectives and operational needs.

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55. 4. (001) What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level ofleadership? 

Explanation

The force development level that encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership is the SMSgt level. This level of leadership is responsible for providing guidance and direction to subordinates, as well as making strategic decisions that impact the overall mission and objectives of the organization. SMSgts are typically experienced and knowledgeable in their field, and are able to effectively communicate and implement the goals and strategies set forth by higher level leadership.

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56. 21. (002) The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is 

Explanation

After the flight falls in for inspection, the next command given is "Report." This command is used to signal the flight members to report their status or any issues to the inspecting officer. It allows the inspecting officer to gather information and ensure that the flight is ready for inspection. The other options, such as "Parade rest," "Open ranks march," and "Prepare for inspection," are not appropriate commands to follow after the flight falls in for inspection.

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57. 38. (004) When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage? 

Explanation

Dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This means that the dogs are strategically placed in areas where they have a clear view and can detect any unauthorized individuals trying to enter. By positioning them in these locations, the dogs can effectively prevent unauthorized access and enhance security measures.

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58. 43. (005) Which radio type can talk over great distances? 

Explanation

Mobile two-way radios are designed to communicate over long distances because they have a higher power output compared to portable radios. They are typically used in vehicles and can transmit and receive signals over a wider range. Base stations and base station remotes are stationary and have limited range, while portable radios are designed for short-range communication. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Mobile two-way radio.

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59. 47. (005) Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas? 

Explanation

The Major command (MAJCOM) functional reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas. This means that they are responsible for examining and approving the installation submissions made by different functional areas within the MAJCOM. They ensure that the submissions are accurate, complete, and aligned with the goals and objectives of the MAJCOM. This review and validation process helps to maintain consistency and compliance across the MAJCOM and ensures that the installation submissions are in line with the overall strategic direction of the command.

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60. 79. (010) Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) requests help through the 

Explanation

Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) requests help through the United States Army. The United States Army has the resources and capabilities to provide immediate support and assistance in disaster response and recovery efforts. They can deploy personnel, equipment, and supplies to affected areas to assist in search and rescue operations, provide medical support, distribute food and water, and help restore critical infrastructure. The Army's expertise and coordination with FEMA ensure an effective and efficient response to major disasters.

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61. 19. (001) As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates? 

Explanation

As a supervisor, it is important to instill a strong work ethic in each of your subordinates. This means teaching them the values of hard work, dedication, and responsibility in their job performance. By instilling a strong work ethic, you are encouraging your subordinates to take pride in their work, be reliable, and strive for excellence. This will not only benefit the individuals themselves, but also contribute to the overall success and productivity of the team or organization.

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62. 50. (005) Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document? 

Explanation

The unit manning document is a record that tracks various information about personnel in a unit. It includes details such as work center, position number, and Air Force specialty code, which are all important for managing the unit's manpower. However, the "Report No Later than Date" is not typically tracked on the unit manning document. This date refers to the deadline by which a report or task must be completed, and it is not directly related to personnel tracking.

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63. 23. (002) After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement? 

Explanation

After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left facing movement.

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64. 74. (009) Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to 

Explanation

During the preliminary investigation, it is important to observe and record information. This involves carefully observing the scene and taking note of any relevant details or evidence that could be useful in the investigation. By recording this information, investigators can create a detailed and accurate account of the scene, which can be crucial in solving the case. Collecting and preserving evidence, recording and sketching the scene, and taking photographs are also important actions during the investigation, but observing and recording information is the most essential step in gathering initial evidence.

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65. 46. (005) What is not a category for the status of funds? 

Explanation

The status of funds can be categorized into committed, obligated, and uncommitted. Committed funds have been set aside for a specific purpose and cannot be used for other expenses. Obligated funds have been committed to a specific project or contract but can be used for other expenses if necessary. Uncommitted funds are available for any purpose. "End of year" is not a category for the status of funds, as it refers to a specific time period rather than a category of funds.

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66. 51. (005) Where does the installations' labor relations specialist work? 

Explanation

The installations' labor relations specialist works in the Civilian Personnel Office. This office is responsible for managing the civilian workforce and handling various personnel matters, including labor relations. The labor relations specialist would be involved in negotiating and administering collective bargaining agreements, addressing employee grievances, and ensuring compliance with labor laws and regulations.

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67. 64. (007) When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to the next bend or landing?

Explanation

When securing a closed stairwell, person #2 pulls long security to the next bend or landing. This means that person #2 is responsible for ensuring that the area beyond the current bend or landing is clear and secure before proceeding further. This helps to maintain a safe and controlled environment within the stairwell.

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68. 32. (003) Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program? 

Explanation

The Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This means that they oversee and manage the training program for all security forces personnel in the Air Force. They ensure that the training is comprehensive and up to date, and that all security forces personnel receive the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively perform their duties.

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69. 40. (004) During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned 

Explanation

During peaceful confrontations, it is best to position the Military Working Dog (MWD) team in reserve, out of sight of the crowd. This ensures that the presence of the dogs does not escalate the situation or provoke any unnecessary reactions from the crowd. By keeping them out of sight, they can be ready to respond if needed, but their presence does not become a focal point of the confrontation. This approach helps maintain a peaceful atmosphere and minimizes the chances of any negative interactions between the crowd and the MWD team.

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70. 10. (001) All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreigncountry for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the 

Explanation

The installation commander is not authorized to authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties. This responsibility lies with the Major command (MAJCOM) commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and Combatant commander. The installation commander is responsible for the day-to-day operations and security of the specific installation, but does not have the authority to make decisions regarding firearms authorization in foreign countries.

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71. 12. (001) How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there? 

Explanation

There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.

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72. 26. (002) Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments? 

Explanation

AFI 36-2905 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically addresses fitness standards and assessments. It provides detailed information on the requirements for maintaining physical fitness, including the standards for the Physical Fitness Assessment (PFA) and the Body Composition Assessment (BCA). This instruction is regularly updated to ensure that Airmen have access to the most current fitness standards and assessments. The other options (AFI 36-2903 and AFMAN 36-2903) are not relevant to fitness standards and assessments, and AFMAN 36-2905 does not exist.

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73. 29. (002) What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else's writing? 

Explanation

The Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337 is the correct publication that will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you with the tools to review and assess someone else's writing. This handbook is specifically designed to provide guidance on effective communication within the Air Force, including writing skills. It contains valuable information and resources that can help individuals improve their communication abilities and evaluate the quality of others' writing.

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74. 33. (003) Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained,qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military educationschools? 

Explanation

Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs) are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and given the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They oversee the training and development of their subordinates, ensuring they have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively. This includes identifying training needs, coordinating training opportunities, and monitoring the progress and performance of their personnel. By taking on this responsibility, senior Security Forces NCOs play a crucial role in maintaining the readiness and professionalism of the enlisted personnel under their command.

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75. 88. (012) To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander mustcoordinate with the 

Explanation

To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas, the installation commander must coordinate with the Major Command (MAJCOM) Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). This is because the MAJCOM SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the commander and ensuring compliance with legal requirements. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the legal implications and requirements for off base patrols in a foreign country. Therefore, coordinating with the MAJCOM SJA is essential to ensure that the patrols are authorized and conducted in accordance with the law.

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76. 75. (010) Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site? 

Explanation

The Disaster Control Group assumes overall command and control at a major accident site. This group is responsible for coordinating and managing the response to the incident, ensuring that resources are allocated effectively, and making strategic decisions to mitigate the impact of the accident. The Installation Commander may have overall authority over the site, but it is the Disaster Control Group that specifically assumes command and control responsibilities. The Incident Commander may be part of the Disaster Control Group, but they do not necessarily assume overall command and control. The Fire Chief may also be part of the Disaster Control Group, but they do not have the overall authority at the site.

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77. 76. (010) During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported?

Explanation

During the notification phase of a major accident response, the estimated number of casualties is reported. This phase involves informing the relevant authorities and stakeholders about the accident, including the number of people affected or injured. It is crucial to gather this information early on to initiate an appropriate and timely response to the incident. The recovery phase focuses on restoring normalcy after the accident, the response phase involves immediate actions to mitigate the impact, and the withdrawal phase pertains to the conclusion of the response efforts.

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78. 70. (008) Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or died? 

Explanation

The Defense Force Commander is responsible for notifying the victim if the accused escaped, was released, or died. This is because the Defense Force Commander is in charge of overseeing the defense force and ensuring the safety and security of the installation. They would have access to information regarding the status of the accused and would be responsible for communicating any updates to the victim.

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79. 60. (007) Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front? 

Explanation

Three-person team movement allows for more coverage to the front because it involves three individuals who can spread out and cover a wider area. This allows for a better line of sight and more effective surveillance of the front, reducing blind spots and increasing overall situational awareness. In contrast, two-person team movement would have a narrower field of view and less coverage, while four-person team movement may be more cumbersome and slower. The Y-formation is not mentioned in the question, so it is not relevant to the explanation.

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80. 54. (005) Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal inspections? 

Explanation

Commanders control the depth, scope, and frequency of internal inspections. This means that they have the authority and responsibility to determine how thorough the inspections will be, what areas will be covered, and how often they will be conducted. This allows commanders to tailor the inspections to meet the specific needs and priorities of their units. By giving commanders this control, it ensures that they have the flexibility and autonomy to address any issues or concerns within their units effectively.

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81. 80. (010) During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation commander reassess the situation? 

Explanation

During the sustained emergency phase of a natural disaster, the installation commander should reassess the situation. This phase occurs after the initial emergency phase and is characterized by the ongoing and prolonged impact of the disaster. Reassessing the situation during this phase allows the commander to evaluate the effectiveness of response efforts, identify any changes or developments in the situation, and make necessary adjustments to the emergency response plan. It is crucial to continuously reassess the situation during the sustained emergency phase in order to ensure the safety and well-being of personnel and to effectively manage the disaster response.

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82. 24. (002) When does the second element leader give the command, "Second Element, ATTENTION"? 

Explanation

The correct answer is a. As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands "Second Element, ATTENTION." This is the correct answer because it follows the proper protocol for when to give the command "Second Element, ATTENTION." The second element leader should give the command when the inspecting official is within six paces of the right flank of the formation, indicating that they are close enough for the formation to come to attention.

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83. 48. (005) What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units? 

Explanation

The Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP) provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units. This program focuses on analyzing and improving processes within the Air Force, including manpower management. By using the standards provided by the MEP, commanders can effectively allocate and manage their manpower resources to meet the needs of their units.

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84. 53. (005) Which statue protects an alleged violation of a right? 

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statue (5 U.S.C. Chapter 71). This statute protects against alleged violations of labor-management rights in the federal service. It establishes the framework for collective bargaining and dispute resolution between federal agencies and labor organizations.

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85. 59. (007) How many team configurations are there for use in a tactical situation? 

Explanation

There are three team configurations for use in a tactical situation. This suggests that there are three different ways in which a team can be organized or structured to address a tactical situation.

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86. 45. (005) Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year? 

Explanation

Major commands (MAJCOMs) provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year. This means that the MAJCOMs are responsible for determining the number of security forces personnel that are allocated to each unit or troop within the Air Force. They assess the specific security needs of each unit and allocate the appropriate number of personnel to ensure the safety and security of the Air Force's operations. The MAJCOMs play a crucial role in managing and organizing the security forces within the Air Force.

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87. 55. (005) Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspections? 

Explanation

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88. 5. (001) What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?

Explanation

Tactical control refers to the control exercised over assigned or attached forces or commands at the tactical level. This type of control involves the detailed planning and execution of military operations to achieve specific objectives. It includes the coordination of resources, the direction of forces, and the decision-making process at the operational level. Tactical control is focused on the immediate battlefield and is usually exercised by field commanders. Strategic control, on the other hand, refers to the overall direction and coordination of military operations at the strategic level. Operational control refers to the control exercised over military forces in the execution of specific tasks or missions. Administrative control refers to the control exercised over military forces in matters such as personnel management, logistics, and support.

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89. 6. (001) Which commander exercises operational control? 

Explanation

The Joint Force commander exercises operational control. Operational control refers to the authority to plan and execute military operations. The Joint Force commander is responsible for coordinating and directing joint operations involving multiple branches of the military. This commander is typically a high-ranking officer who is in charge of a specific theater or region of operations. They have the authority to make strategic decisions and allocate resources to achieve mission objectives.

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90. 86. (012) During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up investigation, should a determination be made that the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed? 

Explanation

During the process of conducting a follow-up investigation, it is important to determine whether the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed. This step is crucial to ensure that all relevant physical evidence has been collected and properly documented. By collecting physical evidence, investigators can gather information that may help in identifying and apprehending suspects, conducting additional interviews, and reviewing and analyzing previous reports. Therefore, determining the thorough processing of the initial incident scene is an essential step in the follow-up investigation process.

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