SEC Fo 7 Lvl

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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1. Which of these is not a force protection effect?

Explanation

The term "force protection effect" refers to measures taken to ensure the safety and security of military personnel and assets. Deterrence involves preventing potential threats by displaying strength and capability. Detection refers to identifying and recognizing potential threats. Mitigation involves minimizing the impact of threats or hazards. However, defusing is not a force protection effect as it does not directly relate to preventing, identifying, or minimizing threats. Defusing typically refers to diffusing tension or de-escalating a potentially volatile situation.

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SEC Fo 7 Lvl - Quiz

This quiz titled 'sec fo 7 lvl' assesses knowledge on Air Force enlisted roles and leadership levels, focusing on duties, development stages, and command controls. It is crucial for advancing understanding of Air Force operational and strategic leadership.

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2. Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security?

Explanation

PL4 is the correct answer because it is the highest protection level assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security. PL4 indicates that stringent security measures are in place to protect the area, and the owner/users have a high level of responsibility for maintaining security. This level of protection is necessary when the area contains highly sensitive and valuable information or assets that require maximum security.

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3. Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal inspections?

Explanation

The commanders are responsible for controlling the depth, scope, and frequency of internal inspections. As the leaders of a military unit or organization, commanders have the authority and oversight to determine the extent and frequency of inspections conducted within their command. They are in the best position to understand the specific needs and requirements of their unit and can tailor the inspections accordingly. This ensures that inspections are conducted effectively and efficiently, focusing on areas that are most relevant and critical to the unit's mission success.

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4. What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?

Explanation

Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because these actions can potentially contaminate or alter the evidence, making it difficult to accurately analyze and interpret. The integrity of the crime scene is crucial in preserving evidence and ensuring a thorough investigation.

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5. Which of the following is not an alarm response code?

Explanation

The given question asks to identify the code that is not an alarm response code. The options provided are "Code 1", "code 2", "code 3", and "code 4". The correct answer is "code 4" because it is the only option that does not represent an alarm response code.

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6. Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have

Explanation

The correct answer is a valid reason to be in the exclusion area. This means that in order to enter the exclusion area, members must have a legitimate and justified purpose for being there. This ensures that only individuals with the necessary technical knowledge and expertise related to the task being performed are allowed entry, promoting safety and efficiency within the exclusion area. While the other options (technical knowledge, restricted area badge, and entry authority list) may also be important factors, having a valid reason is the most crucial requirement for entry.

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7. What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?

Explanation

Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because it ensures that no evidence is tampered with or contaminated, which is crucial for an accurate investigation. By preserving the crime scene, the investigator can gather all the necessary information, such as the position of objects, bloodstains, or fingerprints, to reconstruct the events and make informed conclusions. This also helps in maintaining the integrity of the evidence, which is essential for a fair and just legal process.

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8. The T-formation is best suited for what environment?

Explanation

The T-formation is best suited for wider hallways because it allows for better visibility and maneuverability. In wider hallways, there is more space to form the T-shape, which consists of a team member positioned at the intersection of two hallways and others positioned along each hallway. This formation allows for better coverage of the area and enables team members to quickly react to any potential threats or movements. In narrow hallways, the T-formation may not be as effective as it can limit visibility and hinder movement.

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9. Range is given in what unit of measurement?

Explanation

The correct answer is meters because the question is asking for the unit of measurement in which the range is given. Meters is a commonly used unit for measuring distance, especially in scientific and metric systems. Feet, yards, and kilometers are also units of distance measurement, but meters is the most appropriate unit for measuring range in this context.

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10. Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun?

Explanation

The center mass of the door is not considered a target point for entry when using a shotgun. When using a shotgun for entry, the typical target points on a door include the hinges, door knob, and locking mechanism. These points are targeted in order to disable or break through the door, allowing entry. However, targeting the center mass of the door would not be effective in achieving this goal.

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11. Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?

Explanation

The options provided - Ridge, Draw, Spur, and Cliff - are all terms related to military tactics and strategies. A ridge, draw, and spur can be used as advantageous positions for an attack, providing cover and a higher vantage point. However, a cliff is not a probable direction of attack as it would be difficult to navigate and would not provide any tactical advantage.

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12. Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for

Explanation

Rules of engagement (ROE) are guidelines or directives that outline the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can use force during a mission. These rules are established to ensure that the use of force is controlled and in accordance with legal and ethical standards. They define when and how military personnel can engage in combat, self-defense, or other operations involving force. ROE help commanders make informed decisions and maintain discipline within their units while also minimizing civilian casualties and collateral damage.

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13. When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the

Explanation

When making room entry, it is important to keep your weapons oriented towards the "unknown" because you do not know what threats or dangers may be present on the other side of the door or wall. By keeping your weapons pointed in this direction, you are prepared to react quickly and effectively to any potential threats that may arise. It is crucial to maintain a state of readiness and be prepared for any situation when entering a room.

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14. Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?

Explanation

Having a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it allows for fresh eyes to observe the crime scene without any bias. This patrolman will not have been influenced by the statements or actions of victims, witnesses, or suspects, which can help in identifying important evidence or details that may have been overlooked. This approach ensures a more objective and thorough examination of the scene, reducing the risk of contamination or compromising the chain of evidence.

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15. When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to the next bend or landing?

Explanation

In a closed stairwell, when securing it, the person who pulls long security to the next bend or landing is person #2.

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16. What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?

Explanation

The M4 is not the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman. It is a standard issue carbine rifle used by the United States military, but it is typically used by regular infantry soldiers and not designated marksmen. Designated marksmen usually use a specialized sniper rifle such as the M24, M40, or M110, which are specifically designed for long-range precision shooting.

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17. Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to

Explanation

During the preliminary investigation, it is crucial to observe and record any relevant information or evidence. By carefully observing the scene, investigators can gather important details that may help in understanding the situation. These observations can include the condition of the area, any potential hazards, or any suspicious activities or objects. Additionally, recording these observations through notes or photographs ensures that the information is accurately documented and can be referred to later during the investigation. This process helps to establish a solid foundation for further analysis and decision-making.

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18. What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?

Explanation

The attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute are determined by the responding patrol's attitude. The way the patrol handles the situation, their demeanor, and their approach can greatly influence the attitude of the individuals involved in the dispute. If the patrol is respectful, empathetic, and fair, it is more likely that the parties will cooperate and try to resolve the dispute peacefully. On the other hand, if the patrol is aggressive, dismissive, or biased, it can escalate the situation and lead to further conflict. Therefore, the responding patrol's attitude plays a crucial role in shaping the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute.

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19. During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported?

Explanation

During the notification phase of a major accident response, the estimated number of casualties is reported. This phase occurs immediately after the accident has taken place and involves notifying relevant authorities, emergency services, and the public about the incident. The estimated number of casualties is crucial information that helps in mobilizing resources and coordinating the response efforts effectively.

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20. Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?

Explanation

A bloody nose is not considered grievous bodily harm because it is a common and minor injury that does not cause significant harm or long-term damage to the body. In contrast, deep cuts, fractured bones, and damaged internal organs are all serious injuries that can have severe consequences and require medical intervention.

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21. What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?

Explanation

When deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, the unit type code QFEBA provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit.

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22. When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is

Explanation

When reviewing material for technical accuracy, a concern is that it may contain irrelevant information. This means that the material includes content that is not necessary or applicable to the topic being discussed. Irrelevant information can confuse readers and detract from the main points being conveyed. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the material is concise and focused, without any unnecessary or unrelated details.

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23. Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?

Explanation

Rape is considered one of the most serious crimes that will be investigated, excluding homicide. It involves non-consensual sexual activity and is a violation of a person's autonomy and bodily integrity. Rape can cause severe physical and psychological trauma to the victim, and it is a crime that is taken very seriously by law enforcement and the justice system. The investigation of rape cases requires thorough evidence collection, interviewing witnesses and the victim, and conducting forensic examinations to ensure a fair and just resolution.

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24. What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program?

Explanation

The Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program aims to support victims and witnesses of crimes by mitigating their physical, psychological, and financial hardships. It also seeks to ensure that victims are accorded certain rights and encourages their cooperation during the legal process. However, prosecuting the accused is not considered an objective of the VWAP program. The program focuses more on providing assistance and support to victims rather than actively pursuing the prosecution of the accused.

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25. All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the

Explanation

The correct answer is Integrated Base Defense Council. This is because the sentence states that "All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the Integrated Base Defense Council." This suggests that the Integrated Base Defense Council is responsible for setting the arming rules in accordance with the mentioned regulations and requirements.

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26. Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation?

Explanation

Public Affairs is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation. Public Affairs is a department or team within an organization that handles communication and dissemination of information to the public and media. In the context of a school violence situation, Public Affairs would be responsible for providing accurate and timely information to the public, parents, and media outlets. They would ensure that the correct information is shared, maintain transparency, and manage the overall communication strategy during such a crisis.

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27. How many types of nuclear movements are there on an installation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Two" because the question asks about the number of types of nuclear movements on an installation. The options provided are "Eight," "Six," "Four," and "Two." Since the question specifically asks for the number of types, the answer "Two" indicates that there are only two types of nuclear movements on an installation.

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28. Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to questioning?

Explanation

Income is of no value prior to questioning because it does not provide any relevant information about a suspect's involvement in a crime or their potential motives. Nationality, race, and age may be factors that could potentially provide important context or clues during questioning, but income alone does not have any direct correlation to criminal behavior.

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29. A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as

Explanation

A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement is a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, and equipped with. It outlines the unit's capabilities and objectives, providing a clear understanding of what the unit is expected to achieve and how it is prepared to do so. It helps in assessing the unit's readiness and determining if it has the necessary resources and training to fulfill its mission effectively. The other options mentioned (SORTS, ART, METL) do not specifically refer to a summary of a unit's mission and resources, making them incorrect answers.

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30. The technique that requires great patience is movement with

Explanation

Stealth requires great patience because it involves moving quietly and avoiding detection. It requires careful control of movements and the ability to remain unnoticed. This technique often involves slow and deliberate actions, as well as the ability to blend into the surroundings and avoid making any unnecessary noise. It requires a high level of patience to maintain stealth and ensure that one's movements are not detected by others.

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31. What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?

Explanation

If a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This will help in understanding the underlying reasons for the poor performance and finding appropriate solutions. Simply issuing paperwork or verbally counseling the subordinate may not address the root cause of the issue. Similarly, assigning a new supervisor may not necessarily solve the problem if the cause lies elsewhere. Therefore, investigating to determine the cause is the most effective approach to dealing with substandard duty performance.

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32. The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension

Explanation

The correct answer is "in a private dwelling." The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension in a private dwelling, meaning it is used when a person is being apprehended or arrested in their own home or residence. This form would not be used for apprehension during an interview, off the installation, or in a work center.

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33. Supervisors must ensure their troops

Explanation

Supervisors must ensure their troops possess required qualifications and certifications. This is important because having the necessary qualifications and certifications ensures that the troops have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively and safely. It also helps to maintain the overall competency and professionalism of the troops. By ensuring that their troops possess these qualifications and certifications, supervisors can ensure that their troops are well-prepared and capable of carrying out their responsibilities.

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34. What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

Explanation

Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about the effectiveness of their strategies, decisions, and actions. Feedback allows commanders to assess the impact of their decisions and make necessary adjustments or improvements. It helps in identifying strengths and weaknesses, enabling commanders to enhance their decision-making process and achieve better outcomes. Feedback also promotes continuous learning and development, enabling commanders to adapt to changing circumstances and improve their performance over time.

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35. Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the

Explanation

The correct answer is "Post priority listing." This is because the post priority listing is a document that determines the order in which posts and patrols will be manned. It outlines the importance and urgency of each post, allowing for an organized and efficient allocation of personnel. The duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may contain information about staffing and assignments, but they do not specifically address the prioritization of posts.

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36. After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?

Explanation

After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left facing movement.

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37. Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is

Explanation

Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that instead of resorting to using firearms or allowing the suspect to flee, patrol dogs are used as a less extreme option. They can be deployed to apprehend and detain the suspect without causing serious harm or resorting to lethal force. By choosing patrol dogs over gunfire or escape, law enforcement aims to strike a balance between effectively apprehending the suspect and minimizing the potential for fatal outcomes.

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38. Which radio type can talk over great distances?

Explanation

A mobile two-way radio is the correct answer because it is designed to communicate over long distances. Unlike a base station, which typically has a limited range, a mobile two-way radio can be used while on the move, allowing for communication over greater distances. Portable radios are more suitable for shorter range communication, and base station remotes are used to control base stations rather than directly communicate over long distances.

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39. At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?

Explanation

The question asks for the minimum number of after action reports (AARs) that must be submitted. The correct answer is two, indicating that at least two AARs need to be submitted. This implies that there could be more than two AARs, but the minimum requirement is two.

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40. (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons?

Explanation

Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) aircraft carrying nuclear weapons are provided with Type I aircraft security. This level of security ensures the highest level of protection for the nuclear weapons during transportation. It includes stringent access controls, specialized equipment, and highly trained personnel to safeguard the weapons from unauthorized access or tampering.

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41. Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?

Explanation

The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that each individual within the flight is accountable for ensuring the proper upkeep and functionality of the equipment assigned to them. This includes regular maintenance, inspections, and reporting any issues or damages. By holding each flight member responsible, it promotes a sense of ownership and ensures that equipment is well-maintained and ready for use at all times.

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42. A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous

Explanation

A patrol dog team used in police services activities can act as a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a trained police dog can create fear and uncertainty in the minds of individuals who may be considering engaging in illegal activities. The perception that a highly skilled and powerful animal is working alongside law enforcement can discourage individuals from committing crimes. This psychological impact can help prevent potential violators from taking action, making the patrol dog team an effective deterrent.

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43. The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to

Explanation

The correct answer is "ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year." This means that the purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to ensure that the budget allocated by the President for the upcoming fiscal year is distributed fairly and evenly among different areas and departments within the Air Force. The goal is to avoid any biases or favoritism and ensure that the resources are allocated in a balanced and equitable manner to meet the needs of the Air Force effectively.

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44. What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?

Explanation

Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders by creating obstacles that impede their progress and restrict their movement. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, or any other physical structure that hinders unauthorized access. By delaying intruders, security forces have more time to assess the threat, classify it, and formulate an appropriate response. Physical barriers also act as a deterrent, discouraging potential intruders from attempting unauthorized entry in the first place.

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45. What is the most rigorous stage of development?

Explanation

The most rigorous stage of development is at the level of Amn (Airman) and A1C (Airman First Class). This is because at this stage, individuals are relatively new to the military and are still learning the basic skills and knowledge required for their job. They undergo intense training and are closely supervised to ensure they develop the necessary discipline, professionalism, and proficiency. This stage sets the foundation for their future growth and advancement in the military.

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46. Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm?

Explanation

The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This is because the commander has the authority and power to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms within their jurisdiction. They have the ability to assess the situation and determine if it is necessary to temporarily suspend someone's right to bear arms for the safety and well-being of others.

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47. What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?

Explanation

The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible because it is the designated area where resources and personnel are organized and prepared for a search operation. By positioning the staging area far back, it ensures that it is not in the immediate vicinity of the search facility, reducing the risk of interference or disruption to the search operation. This allows for a more efficient and effective search process to take place.

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48. Post priority charts are used to

Explanation

Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. These charts help in determining the distribution of available personnel to different posts or positions based on their skills, qualifications, and the priority of tasks or responsibilities associated with each post. By using these charts, organizations can efficiently assign manpower resources to ensure that the right people are deployed to the right places, optimizing productivity and effectiveness in various operations or projects.

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49. In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from

Explanation

In fire and maneuver operations, the maneuvering forces rely heavily on their own weapons for fire support. This means that the team's own weapons, such as rifles, machine guns, and grenades, are used to provide covering fire and suppress the enemy while the maneuvering forces advance or change positions. This allows the team to maintain control over the battlefield and effectively engage the enemy.

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50. Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?

Explanation

The Defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not a post needs to be manned by someone. The other options, such as the Group commander, Security Forces manager, and Each individual flight chief, do not have the same level of authority as the Defense force commander in making this decision.

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51. The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in

Explanation

The post priority chart is designed to optimize the allocation of limited Security Forces (SF) during both peacetime and wartime. This means that regardless of the force protection conditions (FPCONs), the chart will be used to determine the most efficient use of SF resources. By using the chart in both peacetime and wartime, the SF can effectively prioritize and allocate their resources to ensure the highest level of security and protection for the post or facility.

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52. When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain

Explanation

Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified for is important in order to maintain proficiency. This means that individuals should be given the opportunity to work in different positions to enhance their skills and knowledge in various areas. By doing so, they can become proficient in multiple roles, which can be beneficial for the organization as it ensures that there are always qualified individuals available to handle different tasks. This rotation also helps in preventing complacency and stagnation, as employees are constantly challenged and motivated to learn and grow.

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53. What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?

Explanation

Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows the personnel to have a change in their duties and responsibilities. This helps to prevent monotony and burnout, as individuals get the opportunity to experience different tasks and roles within the flight. Additionally, post rotations can provide a sense of fairness and equal opportunities for everyone, as they get the chance to be exposed to various aspects of the job. This can ultimately contribute to increased motivation and job satisfaction among the flight personnel.

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54. What is the Navy's largest formation?

Explanation

The Navy's largest formation is known as a fleet. A fleet consists of multiple task forces, strike groups, and other smaller units. It is responsible for carrying out major naval operations and exercises, often spanning across different regions and involving a large number of ships, submarines, and aircraft. The fleet is commanded by a fleet admiral or a senior officer who oversees the coordination and execution of various missions and ensures the overall readiness and effectiveness of the Navy's forces.

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55. When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat what tactical movement is being performed?

Explanation

When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat, they are performing a tactical movement known as "Contact rear." This movement involves quickly turning around to face the threat that is approaching from behind. It is a defensive maneuver to ensure that the shooter is prepared to engage any potential threats from the rear.

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56. All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except

Explanation

The correct answer is "employees in non-dedicated positions." This means that all the options listed (supervisors, management officials, professional employees) are excluded from being in a bargaining unit, except for employees in non-dedicated positions. This implies that employees in non-dedicated positions can be part of a bargaining unit.

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57. The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

Explanation

Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic due to its destructive nature and ability to cause fear and chaos among the targeted population. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or the use of improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic allows terrorists to inflict significant damage, cause casualties, and attract media attention, thereby achieving their objectives of spreading terror, destabilizing governments, and gaining publicity for their cause.

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58. Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Explanation

Sympathizers are individuals who may not directly engage in terrorist activities but support and sympathize with the cause. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to express their solidarity or to further the objectives of the group they support. While agents, terrorists, and partisans may also engage in activities against targets of opportunity, the focus of the question is on identifying the threat level I activity, which is best represented by sympathizers.

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59. Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty?

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty. This is because the BDOC serves as the central command and control center for base defense operations, and the controller is responsible for monitoring and coordinating the activities of all SF units deployed on the base. They must have a comprehensive understanding of the location and status of all units to effectively manage and respond to any security threats or emergencies that may arise.

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60. By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security detachments effectively achieves all of the following except

Explanation

Machine guns with security detachments are highly effective in achieving delay, attack, and defend. However, they are not specifically designed to achieve defeat. While they can cause significant damage and suppress the enemy, the ultimate goal of defeating the enemy requires a combination of different tactics and strategies, not solely reliant on machine guns. Therefore, the correct answer is defeat.

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61. What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?

Explanation

The zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site that is also referred to as a restricted zone is the hot zone. The hot zone is the area where the actual incident has occurred and is considered the most dangerous and contaminated area. It is restricted to only trained personnel wearing appropriate protective gear. This zone is characterized by high levels of hazardous materials and poses a significant risk to anyone entering without proper precautions.

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62. Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) requests help through the

Explanation

After the President declares a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) would request help from the United States Army. The Army is often called upon to provide support in disaster response and recovery efforts, such as search and rescue operations, logistical support, and medical assistance. The Department of State primarily deals with foreign affairs, the Department of Defense focuses on national security and military operations, and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) is responsible for domestic law enforcement and counterintelligence. Therefore, the United States Army is the most appropriate choice for providing assistance in a major disaster situation.

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63. When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?

Explanation

If you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner when questioning a juvenile, seeking Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) advice is the correct action to take. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on the appropriate steps to follow when dealing with legal matters involving juveniles. They can help ensure that the juvenile's rights are protected and that the questioning process is conducted in a fair and lawful manner.

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64. After the command "Open rank, MARCH," which of the following action does the flight take?

Explanation

After the command "Open rank, MARCH," the flight takes the following action: The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress. This means that the last person in the formation remains stationary and performs the dress right dress, while the people in front of them move forward a certain number of paces, halt, and then perform the dress right dress.

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65. The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to

Explanation

The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This process ensures that only individuals who meet the necessary qualifications are assigned to these positions, thus ensuring the highest quality of performance in those roles.

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66. "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked" means that they

Explanation

The correct answer is that all permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This means that these vehicles are required to have these specific features to ensure effective communication, alerting others in emergency situations, and maintaining public safety.

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67. All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except

Explanation

The guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept include focused logistics, full dimensional protection, and the concept of full spectrum dominance. However, "capabilites for dominanting mass" is not a guiding principle of the ID concept.

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68. When do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH!"?

Explanation

The command "Close Ranks, MARCH!" is given upon the departure of the inspecting official. This command is used to signal the guards to close ranks and resume their original formation after the inspection is complete. It is important to wait for the inspecting official to leave before giving this command to ensure that the guards maintain a professional appearance and follow proper protocol.

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69. Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?

Explanation

The duties of a Senior Airman (SrA) include being a patrol leader, working as a Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller, and leading the Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT). However, being a squad leader is not listed as a duty of a Senior Airman.

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70. The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?

Explanation

The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted 15 days prior to the end of a deployment. This allows sufficient time for the report to be reviewed, analyzed, and any necessary actions to be taken before the deployment concludes. Submitting the AAR earlier ensures that there is ample time to address any issues or make improvements based on the findings of the report.

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71. When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique?

Explanation

Dead reckoning is a technique used in navigation to estimate one's current position based on a previously known position and the direction and distance traveled since then. It involves using a compass, speedometer, and timer to calculate the new position. In the context of moving during limited visibility conditions, such as fog or darkness, dead reckoning becomes even more crucial as visual landmarks may not be visible. Therefore, dead reckoning is a navigation technique that helps individuals navigate accurately even when visibility is limited.

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72. The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with

Explanation

The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with combatant commanders. This means that the roadmap is designed to coordinate and prioritize nuclear missions in accordance with the strategic objectives and requirements set by the combatant commanders. The combatant commanders are responsible for overseeing military operations in specific geographic regions or functional areas, and their input and guidance are crucial in ensuring that the nuclear roadmap effectively supports overall military objectives. The installation commanders, Secretary of Defense, and the president may have influence and decision-making authority in nuclear matters, but the alignment of mission focus specifically pertains to combatant commanders.

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73. "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the

Explanation

The given statement describes the mission of the Army, which is to fight and win the nation's wars by providing land dominance across all types of military operations and conflicts. This aligns with the Army's role as a ground force that supports combatant commanders.

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74. A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force

Explanation

A Marine Corps platoon is a small unit consisting of approximately 40-50 Marines, led by a platoon commander. On the other hand, an Air Force flight is also a small unit, typically consisting of 4-6 aircraft and their crews. Both a platoon and a flight are similar in size and function, as they are both responsible for carrying out specific missions and tasks. Therefore, the best equivalent for a Marine Corps platoon would be an Air Force flight.

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75. Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?

Explanation

Terrorists are individuals or small groups who engage in acts of violence using a variety of weapons, such as small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, small explosives, and incendiary devices. They aim to create fear and panic among the population and usually have political or ideological motivations behind their actions. This term accurately describes the behavior and tactics mentioned in the question.

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76. The key to force protection countermeasure planning is

Explanation

The correct answer is protecting sensitive information. Force protection countermeasure planning involves taking measures to safeguard military personnel and assets from potential threats. Protecting sensitive information is crucial in this process as it helps prevent adversaries from gaining access to critical intelligence that could be used against the forces. By ensuring the confidentiality of sensitive information, the effectiveness of force protection measures can be enhanced, reducing the risk of successful attacks or compromises.

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77. Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered

Explanation

A Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered a controlled area because it requires strict access control and security measures. It is a designated location where critical defense operations and decision-making occur, making it necessary to restrict access to authorized personnel only. By controlling who can enter and ensuring the area is secure, the BDOC can effectively carry out its responsibilities without compromising sensitive information or operations.

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78. Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function?

Explanation

Consolidating reports is a task performed in the Analyzing Information function of the Tactical Operations Center (TOC). This function involves gathering and examining data from various sources to identify patterns, trends, and insights. Consolidating reports helps in synthesizing the information collected, organizing it in a coherent manner, and extracting meaningful conclusions. By consolidating reports, the TOC can gain a comprehensive understanding of the situation, assess the effectiveness of current operations, and make informed decisions based on the analyzed information.

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79. How many team configurations are there for use in a tactical situation?

Explanation

There are three team configurations available for use in a tactical situation. This suggests that there are three different ways to organize or deploy a team in order to address a tactical situation effectively.

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80. In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?

Explanation

In the direct fire control measure, the leader has direct control over the fire. This means that the leader is actively involved in directing and engaging the enemy with direct fire weapons, such as rifles or machine guns. This control allows the leader to have immediate influence over the fire and make adjustments as necessary to effectively engage the enemy.

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81. Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?

Explanation

The term "decoy" means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target. A decoy is typically used to divert attention or deceive others by presenting a false target or object that appears to be real. It is commonly employed in military tactics or in situations where misdirection is necessary to achieve a specific goal.

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82. What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?

Explanation

The Rules of Engagement are guidelines that dictate the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions comply with international and domestic laws. Policy considerations align military actions with the objectives and strategies of the governing body. Military considerations focus on the effectiveness and safety of military operations. However, civilian considerations, such as public opinion or political factors, do not typically drive the development of Rules of Engagement.

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83. When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the generation area becomes

Explanation

When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert, the generation area transitions into an alert aircraft parking area. This means that the area is designated for parking the aircraft that are on alert, ready to be deployed or used at a moment's notice.

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84. What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?

Explanation

The correct answer is "There is no time limit." This means that there is no specific duration set for suspect interviews. The absence of a time limit allows law enforcement officials to conduct interviews for as long as necessary to gather information and evidence. This flexibility ensures that investigators can thoroughly question suspects and potentially obtain a confession without being restricted by a specific time constraint.

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85. Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

Explanation

The Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This organization is specifically designated to oversee and coordinate the training of security forces personnel in the Air Force. They are responsible for developing and implementing training programs, ensuring that all security forces personnel receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively.

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86. Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs?

Explanation

The high crawl is a method of movement where the body is kept off the ground and supported by the forearms and lower legs. In this position, the individual moves forward by alternating the movement of their arms and legs, similar to the crawling motion of a baby. This method is often used in military or tactical situations to maintain a low profile while still being able to move quickly and efficiently.

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87. Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential when testifying?

Explanation

The personal attributes that are essential when testifying include skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence. These attributes are important because testifying requires the ability to effectively communicate information, handle difficult questions or situations with sensitivity, maintain composure and professionalism, and have belief in one's own abilities.

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88. The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to

Explanation

The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the MWD is trained to discourage potential intruders from approaching, identify and locate intruders through scent or other means, and physically restrain or hold intruders until human personnel can intervene. By performing these tasks, the MWD plays a crucial role in maintaining security and protecting Air Force resources from unauthorized access or threats.

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89. Integrated defense does not require the capability to

Explanation

Integrated defense refers to a comprehensive approach that combines various military capabilities and strategies to protect against threats. The other options - deny, deter, and delay - all involve actively countering or preventing an attack. However, "defuse" means to peacefully resolve or de-escalate a potentially dangerous situation. In the context of integrated defense, it implies that the approach focuses on resolving conflicts or diffusing tensions rather than engaging in direct confrontation or aggression.

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90. Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year?

Explanation

The correct answer is Major commands (MAJCOMs). Major commands are responsible for the organization, training, and equipping of the Air Force's forces. They provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year, ensuring that the necessary security personnel are allocated to each unit based on their needs and requirements. This allows for efficient and effective security operations throughout the Air Force.

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91. The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?

Explanation

The use of electronic control devices is included in the Miscellaneous category of after action report (AAR) incident classification. This category typically includes incidents that don't fit into the other specified categories such as combat arms or training incidents, shooting incidents, or security incidents. The use of electronic control devices can encompass a wide range of situations and circumstances, making it appropriate to classify it under the Miscellaneous category.

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92. Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed?

Explanation

Traveling is the movement technique used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed. In this technique, the squad moves in a column formation, maintaining a constant speed without stopping or taking cover. It is typically used in situations where the risk of enemy engagement is low and the focus is on quickly reaching a specific destination. This technique allows for efficient movement and minimizes the time spent in vulnerable positions. Bounding overwatch and traveling overwatch, on the other hand, are movement techniques used when contact with the enemy is expected and require a more cautious and deliberate approach. Squad File is not a recognized movement technique.

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93. Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?

Explanation

The unit manning document is a record that tracks various information about personnel in a unit. It includes details such as work center, position number, and Air Force specialty code. These details help in organizing and managing the manpower within the unit. However, the "Report No Later than Date" is not typically included in the unit manning document. This date refers to the deadline by which a report or task needs to be completed, and it is not directly related to personnel tracking.

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94. During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation commander reassess the situation?

Explanation

During the sustained emergency phase of a natural disaster, the installation commander should reassess the situation. This phase occurs after the initial emergency phase and is characterized by an ongoing and prolonged emergency situation. Reassessing the situation during this phase is crucial as it allows the commander to evaluate the effectiveness of their response and make any necessary adjustments or changes to ensure the safety and well-being of personnel and resources. It also helps in determining the progress made and the resources needed for recovery efforts.

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95. What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal?

Explanation

A raid is a type of patrol that involves conducting attacks on a specific position or installation and then executing a planned withdrawal. This tactic is often used to surprise the enemy, inflict damage, and gather intelligence without engaging in prolonged combat or occupation. Raids are typically swift and focused, aiming to disrupt the enemy's operations and morale while minimizing casualties and exposure.

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96. When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?

Explanation

Dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This allows the dogs to effectively monitor and prevent unauthorized access to an area. Placing them strategically at these locations ensures that they can detect and deter any individuals attempting to enter without permission.

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97. The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as

Explanation

Power projection assets are identified as the loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war. These assets are crucial for projecting military force and conducting operations in different regions of the world. They include aircraft carriers, strategic bombers, amphibious assault ships, and other platforms that enable the military to rapidly deploy and sustain forces in various theaters of operation. The loss or disablement of power projection assets would significantly hinder the ability of the Air Force to project combat power and wage war effectively.

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98. Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certain locations?

Explanation

Flight Sergeant is the correct answer because the question asks for a duty that is available in certain locations. While all the other options may be duties performed by Staff Sergeants or Technical Sergeants, Flight Sergeant is unique in that it is a duty specific to certain locations. This suggests that Flight Sergeant is a duty that is only available in certain locations, making it the correct answer.

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99. The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the

Explanation

The correct answer is operational level. The nuclear roadmap refers to a plan or strategy for the development and use of nuclear weapons. The operational level is concerned with the actual execution and implementation of this plan. It involves the coordination and deployment of nuclear weapons, as well as the training and readiness of personnel involved. The tactical level deals with specific military actions and engagements, while the strategic level focuses on overall goals and objectives. The administrative level is more concerned with bureaucratic and administrative tasks.

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100. Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations order?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Situation." In an operations order, the situation paragraph typically includes information about the current weather conditions and light data. This paragraph provides crucial details that can impact the mission planning and execution, such as visibility, temperature, wind speed, and other relevant weather factors. By including this information in the situation paragraph, the order ensures that all personnel involved in the operation are aware of the environmental conditions they will be facing.

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101. Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished?

Explanation

The "Mission" paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished. This paragraph typically outlines the overall objective or purpose of the operation, giving a clear direction to the individuals involved. It sets the tone for the rest of the operations order and helps ensure that everyone understands the primary goal that needs to be achieved.

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102. What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of the operations order?

Explanation

In the service and support paragraph of the operations order, the focus is on discussing the various elements related to providing assistance and resources to the operation. This includes topics such as casualty collection points, cache and resupply points, and materials and supply items. However, the paragraph would not include any discussion about support fire, as it falls under a different aspect of the operation, such as the maneuver or fire support paragraph.

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103. Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter information up to?

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filters information up to the Flight sergeant. The BDOC controller is responsible for managing and coordinating the base's defense operations. They collect and analyze information from various sources and then pass on relevant information to the appropriate personnel. The Flight sergeant, being a senior non-commissioned officer, is in charge of overseeing the operations and ensuring effective communication and decision-making within the flight. Therefore, it is the Flight sergeant who receives the filtered information from the BDOC controller.

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104. If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of

Explanation

If an emergency arises and some personnel are not accounted for during an evacuation, it poses a potential stay behind threat. This means that there is a risk of individuals being left behind in a dangerous situation, which could endanger their lives. It is crucial to ensure that all personnel are safely evacuated and accounted for to prevent any stay behind threats.

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105. Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of five or more in the secondary sector?

Explanation

Machine gun gunners have an engagement priority of groups of five or more in the secondary sector. This means that their primary focus is to engage and suppress enemy groups consisting of at least five individuals in the secondary area of operations. This engagement priority indicates that machine gun gunners are specifically trained and equipped to provide sustained and effective firepower against larger enemy formations, making them the most suitable firing element for this task.

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106. The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?

Explanation

The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has six posturing codes.

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107. When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not

Explanation

When responding to a residence, standing directly in front of the door is not recommended because it puts the responder in a vulnerable position. By standing to the side of the door, the responder can minimize the risk of being directly in the line of fire if someone inside the residence were to open the door and pose a threat. This positioning also allows the responder to have a wider field of view and better situational awareness. Therefore, it is best to stand to the side of the door rather than directly in front of it.

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108. Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming?

Explanation

The recovery phase is the most complex and time-consuming major accident response phase because it involves the restoration of normal operations, repair of damages, and the return to pre-accident conditions. This phase requires extensive planning, coordination, and resources to ensure that all necessary actions are taken to recover from the accident effectively. It may involve activities such as cleanup, reconstruction, and the implementation of preventive measures to minimize the risk of similar accidents in the future.

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109. How many phases are there in the deployment process?

Explanation

The correct answer is four because the question asks about the number of phases in the deployment process, and the answer "Four" implies that there are four distinct phases involved in the deployment process.

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110. What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?

Explanation

Tactical control refers to the type of control that is present over assigned or attached forces or commands. It involves the immediate direction and control of military forces in order to achieve specific objectives in a particular operation. Tactical control focuses on the tactical aspects of a mission, such as the deployment and maneuvering of troops, coordination of firepower, and execution of specific tasks. This type of control is typically exercised by lower-level commanders who are responsible for the execution of military operations on the ground. Strategic control, on the other hand, refers to the overall direction and control of military forces to achieve long-term objectives, while operational control involves the coordination and direction of military forces in a theater of operations. Administrative control pertains to the management and support functions within a military organization.

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111. An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

Explanation

An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a habitual offender. This term is used to describe someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without remorse or guilt. Unlike a first time offender who may be remorseful or a professional offender who commits crimes for a living, a habitual offender demonstrates a consistent pattern of criminal behavior with no regard for societal norms or consequences.

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112. The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is

Explanation

The correct answer is "Report" because when the flight falls in for inspection, the first command given is usually "Report". This command signals to the members of the flight to report their presence to the inspecting officer or to their superior. It is a standard protocol followed during inspections to ensure accountability and organization within the flight.

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113. To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander must coordinate with the

Explanation

The correct answer is the Major command (MAJCOM) Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). This is because the installation commander, in order to authorize the use of off base patrols overseas, needs to coordinate with the MAJCOM SJA. The MAJCOM SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the installation commander on matters related to off base patrols and ensuring that all legal requirements are met. The Defense Force Commander is not directly involved in authorizing off base patrols, and the host nation may have their own requirements and regulations that need to be coordinated with, but the primary coordination for authorization lies with the MAJCOM SJA.

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114. Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?

Explanation

The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding flight operations. They consider various factors such as mission requirements, aircraft availability, and pilot schedules to create an effective and efficient flight schedule for the unit. The squadron commander's role is crucial in ensuring that the unit's flight operations are well-coordinated and meet the objectives of the organization.

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115. Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?

Explanation

Arranging and reviewing original notes aids in recalling all the details of the case prior to the trial. By organizing and going through the original notes taken during the investigation, the person involved can refresh their memory about the facts, evidence, and testimonies related to the case. This process helps in ensuring accurate and comprehensive recall of information, which is crucial for presenting a strong and well-prepared case in court.

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116. Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?

Explanation

The correct answer is Security Forces. Security Forces play a crucial role in providing the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept. They are responsible for ensuring the security and protection of Air Force installations, personnel, and resources. By implementing various security measures, conducting patrols, and responding to incidents, Security Forces contribute significantly to the overall defense and protection of the Air Force. Their expertise and training make them an essential component of the integrated defense strategy.

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117. When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training?

Explanation

Every defender must perform shoot, move, and communicate training between months 5 and 7. This suggests that this training is conducted on a specific schedule and is not a one-time event. By specifying the time frame, it indicates that this training is regularly scheduled and should be repeated every year during this period.

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118. A post check generally includes all of these items except

Explanation

A post check is a process that involves inspecting various aspects of a particular area or facility. This includes conducting an area inspection to ensure its safety and security, performing a facility inspection to assess its condition and functionality, and conducting a classified material inspection to ensure the proper handling and storage of sensitive information. However, a weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check process as it is more specific to checking and verifying the presence, condition, and compliance of weapons within a given area or facility.

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119. What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for"?

Explanation

The correct answer is Integrated Defense Plan. This term refers to the act of coordinating and managing the defense efforts of different internal and external agencies to ensure that all aspects of integrated defense are addressed and accounted for. It involves organizing and strategizing the installation's defense measures in a comprehensive and cohesive manner.

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120. What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else's writing?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337. This publication is likely to assist in becoming a good communicator and provide tools for reviewing and assessing someone else's writing.

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121. How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?

Explanation

There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.

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122. What is not a category for the status of funds?

Explanation

The status of funds can be categorized as committed, obligated, and uncommitted. Committed funds refer to money that has been set aside for a specific purpose, obligated funds are those that have been allocated for a particular project or expenditure, and uncommitted funds are available for general use. "End of year" is not a category for the status of funds, as it does not provide any information about the allocation or availability of funds.

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123. What drives a post priority chart?

Explanation

The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment drives a post priority chart. This assessment allows for a comprehensive evaluation of risks and threats to a post, helping to prioritize and allocate resources accordingly. It considers various factors such as vulnerability assessment, Inspector General (IG) assessment, and force protection conditions (FPCONs) to determine the level of risk and the appropriate actions to mitigate those risks. By conducting an IDRMP assessment, a post can effectively manage and address potential security concerns.

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124. Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel?

Explanation

Depressed ready is the weapon carry technique used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel. In this technique, the weapon is held in a lowered position, close to the body, with the muzzle pointed downward. This allows for better control and maneuverability in confined spaces, reducing the risk of accidental discharge and minimizing the chances of hitting nearby individuals.

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125. As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates?

Explanation

As a supervisor, it is important to instill a strong work ethic in each of your subordinates. A work ethic refers to the set of values and principles that guide an individual's approach towards work. By emphasizing the importance of a strong work ethic, supervisors can encourage their subordinates to be diligent, responsible, and dedicated to their tasks. This can lead to increased productivity, efficiency, and overall success within the team or organization.

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126. The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

Explanation

A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as "state-supported." This term implies that the group is not directly controlled or organized by the government(s) providing support, but it receives assistance in terms of funding, weapons, training, or other resources.

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127. Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft?

Explanation

Couriers ensure that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and delineates no-lone zones around nuclear logistic aircraft. Couriers are responsible for transporting sensitive materials and documents, and they play a crucial role in maintaining security and preventing unauthorized access. They ensure that the necessary security protocols are followed, including the requirement for two-person concept and the establishment of no-lone zones.

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128. Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site?

Explanation

The Disaster Control Group assumes overall command and control at a major accident site. This group is responsible for coordinating and managing the response efforts during a disaster or major accident. They are in charge of making critical decisions, coordinating resources, and ensuring effective communication among all responding agencies and personnel. The Disaster Control Group plays a crucial role in ensuring an organized and efficient response to the incident.

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129. The primary function of reviewing is to ensure

Explanation

The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and that the communication gets the point across. Reviewing involves assessing the clarity and coherence of the communication, as well as the use of proper grammar, vocabulary, and punctuation. The goal is to ensure that the message is effectively conveyed to the intended audience.

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130. Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?

Explanation

Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs) are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and given the chance to attend professional military education schools. They play a crucial role in overseeing the training and development of the enlisted personnel under their command, ensuring that they receive the necessary education and qualifications to perform their duties effectively. As senior NCOs, they have the experience and knowledge to guide and mentor their subordinates, ensuring they receive the necessary training and education for their professional growth and advancement in the Security Forces career field.

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131. Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units

Explanation

Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources. This means that IDPs are implemented by installations or units that have the responsibility of protecting important resources. These resources could include critical infrastructure, sensitive information, or high-value assets. The IDPs are designed to ensure the security and defense of these resources in case of any threats or attacks.

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132. Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?

Explanation

Defense Force Commanders (DFC) use area reconnaissance patrols to gather information. Area reconnaissance patrols are conducted to collect intelligence on the terrain, enemy forces, and other relevant information within a specific area of operations. The DFC, being responsible for the overall command and control of military operations, relies on this gathered information to make informed decisions and develop effective strategies. The S2 (Intelligence Officer) and the patrol leader may play a role in planning and executing the patrols, but it is ultimately the DFC who utilizes the information gathered from these patrols.

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133. What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units?

Explanation

The Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP) provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units. This program focuses on management and engineering principles to optimize manpower utilization and ensure efficient operations within the Air Force. By using the MEP, commanders can make informed decisions regarding the allocation of manpower resources, ensuring that their units have the appropriate number of personnel to meet mission requirements.

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134. When are manpower numbers reviewed?

Explanation

Manpower numbers are reviewed on an annual basis. This means that the review of the number of employees or workforce is conducted once every year. This allows organizations to assess their manpower needs, make necessary adjustments, and plan for the future. Reviewing manpower numbers annually helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the current workforce, identifying any gaps or surpluses, and ensuring that the organization has the right number of employees to meet its objectives. It also provides an opportunity to analyze workforce trends and make strategic decisions regarding recruitment, training, and resource allocation.

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135. The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are

Explanation

The correct answer is "existing and reinforcing." This means that the two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are those that already exist and those that are being reinforced. Existing obstacles refer to barriers or challenges that are already present and need to be dealt with. Reinforcing obstacles, on the other hand, are obstacles that are being made stronger or more difficult to overcome.

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136. When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target. This implies that they do conduct rehearsals, but it is specifically done right before they leave for the target location. This allows them to ensure that everyone is familiar with the plan and their roles, increasing the chances of a successful attack.

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137. How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear security?

Explanation

There are three potential adversary groups that are of primary concern in nuclear security. These groups pose a significant threat to the security of nuclear facilities and materials. It is crucial to identify and address these groups to ensure the safety and protection of nuclear assets.

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138. Security deviations are documented on AF Form

Explanation

The correct answer is 116. AF Form 116 is used to document security deviations. This form is used to record any instances where security procedures or protocols were not followed, allowing for accountability and tracking of any security breaches or incidents. By documenting these deviations, it helps to identify areas of weakness or vulnerability in the security system and allows for corrective actions to be taken to prevent future incidents.

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139. (DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition?

Explanation

A Type II security forces composition refers to a security response team. This team is responsible for responding to security threats and incidents. They are trained to handle various situations and ensure the safety and security of the area they are assigned to. The other options listed, such as response force, area supervisor, and close-in sentry and close boundary sentry, are not specific to a Type II security forces composition.

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140. The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within

Explanation

The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is 800 meters. This means that machine guns are most effective at engaging targets within this distance. Beyond 800 meters, the accuracy and effectiveness of machine guns decrease, making them less suitable for engaging targets at longer ranges.

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141. How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?

Explanation

The launch facility (LF) is surrounded by two lines of sensors.

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142. In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?

Explanation

The focal point for all base deployments in the deployment process is the Installation Deployment Readiness Cell. This cell is responsible for coordinating and ensuring the readiness of all installation personnel and resources for deployment. They oversee the planning, preparation, and execution of deployment operations, including coordinating with the unit deployment manager and installation personnel readiness team. Their primary goal is to ensure that all necessary personnel, equipment, and support services are available and prepared for deployment.

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143. Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?

Explanation

The Designed Operational Capability (DOC) statement is not a readiness reporting tool. Readiness reporting tools are used to assess and report the readiness of military units and their capabilities. SORTS, ART, and METL are all examples of readiness reporting tools that are commonly used by the military. However, the DOC statement is a document that outlines the specific operational capabilities that a unit is designed to have. It is not used for reporting readiness status but rather for defining the desired capabilities of a unit.

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144. Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes which task of Close Precision Engagement (CPE)?

Explanation

Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post falls under the task of Screening in Close Precision Engagement (CPE). Screening involves conducting surveillance and gathering information on enemy activities, which can be done through the establishment of listening/observation posts. These posts allow for the detection and monitoring of enemy movements, providing valuable intelligence for planning and executing precision engagement operations.

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145. What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?

Explanation

Security Forces (SF) must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate them across the Air Force. This means that any weaknesses, faults, or shortcomings in security measures or protocols need to be promptly identified and addressed. By doing so, SF can prevent potential security breaches, protect personnel and assets, and maintain the overall security and integrity of the Air Force. Identifying deficiencies allows for proactive measures to be taken to rectify the issues and ensure the highest level of security is maintained.

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146. Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?

Explanation

The B-1 is not considered a nuclear capable aircraft. The B-2 and B-52 are both long-range strategic bombers that have the capability to carry and deliver nuclear weapons. The F-16 is a multirole fighter aircraft that is not typically equipped for nuclear missions. Therefore, the B-1 is the only option that is not considered a nuclear capable aircraft.

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147. (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within what timeframe of the pre-arrival window?

Explanation

The correct answer is 48 hours. This means that the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within a timeframe of 48 hours before the pre-arrival window. This allows for sufficient time to prepare and practice the necessary procedures and protocols before the actual arrival. Conducting the rehearsals within this timeframe ensures that the PNAF is well-prepared and ready for any potential nuclear airlift operations.

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148. What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?

Explanation

SMSgt (Senior Master Sergeant) encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership. This rank is typically achieved after many years of experience and demonstrates a high level of expertise and leadership ability. SMSgts are responsible for overseeing and managing a large number of personnel and resources, and they play a crucial role in executing the mission and achieving organizational objectives. They are often involved in strategic planning, decision-making, and providing guidance to lower-ranking personnel.

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149. Where does the installations' labor relations specialist work?

Explanation

The correct answer is Civilian Personnel Office. The labor relations specialist is responsible for managing and maintaining positive labor relations within an organization. They handle issues related to collective bargaining agreements, employee grievances, and other labor-related matters. The Civilian Personnel Office is the department that oversees the recruitment, hiring, and management of civilian employees in a government or military organization. Therefore, it is the most appropriate office for the labor relations specialist to work in.

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150. Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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151. Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front?

Explanation

Three-person team movement allows for more coverage to the front because it involves three individuals spreading out in a line formation, which allows them to cover a wider area and reduce blind spots. This formation provides better visibility and allows for better coordination and communication among team members. In comparison, two-person team movement and four-person team movement may not provide as much coverage to the front due to the limited number of individuals or the potential for overcrowding. The Y-formation is not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be determined as a valid option.

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152. Which statue protects an alleged violation of a right?

Explanation

The Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statue (5 U.S.C. Chapter 71) protects an alleged violation of a right. This statue specifically deals with the labor-management relations in the federal service, ensuring that employees have the right to engage in collective bargaining and other activities related to labor organizations. It establishes procedures for resolving disputes and provides protections for employees' rights in the workplace.

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153. Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or died?

Explanation

The defense force commander is responsible for notifying the victim if the accused has escaped, been released, or died. This role holds the authority and duty to inform the victim of any significant developments regarding the accused. The first sergeant is typically responsible for administrative matters within the unit, the installation staff judge advocate (SJA) provides legal advice, and the Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) detachment commander handles criminal investigations. However, it is the defense force commander who specifically handles the task of notifying the victim in this scenario.

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154. The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing and interpreting of available information concerning foreign countries or areas is

Explanation

The correct answer is "intelligence". Intelligence refers to the product that is obtained by collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing, and interpreting available information about foreign countries or areas. This information is used to gain knowledge and understanding of various aspects such as vulnerabilities, adversary tactics, motivations, objectives, and plausible scenarios. Counterintelligence, on the other hand, focuses on identifying and countering activities that pose a threat to national security.

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155. Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspections?

Explanation

Controlled Nuclear Surety Inspection (CNSI) is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspection. The other options, Limited Nuclear Surety Inspection (LNSI), Initial Nuclear Surety Inspection (INSI), and Joint Nuclear Surety Inspection (JNSI), are all types of inspections that are conducted to ensure the safety, security, and reliability of nuclear weapons. CNSI is not mentioned or recognized as a type of inspection in the given options.

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156. When does the second element leader give the command, "Second Element, ATTENTION"?

Explanation

The second element leader gives the command "Second Element, ATTENTION" as the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation. This indicates that the second element should stand at attention and be prepared for inspection.

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157. What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC) is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons because it is specifically designed for the storage and maintenance of munitions, including nuclear weapons. The facility is located underground, providing enhanced security and protection for the stored weapons. It is likely larger than the other options mentioned, such as missile fields or weapons storage areas, due to its specialized purpose and the need for adequate space to store and maintain nuclear weapons.

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158. All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the

Explanation

The installation commander is not authorized to allow personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties. This responsibility falls under the jurisdiction of the Major command (MAJCOM) commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and the Combatant commander. The installation commander is responsible for the management and operation of a specific military installation, but does not have the authority to make decisions regarding firearms authorization in foreign countries.

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159. During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned

Explanation

During peaceful confrontations, it is best to position the Military Working Dog (MWD) team in reserve, out of sight of the crowd. This ensures that the presence of the dogs does not escalate the situation and cause unnecessary fear or tension among the crowd. Keeping them out of sight also allows the team to be ready to respond if needed, without drawing unnecessary attention or becoming a distraction during the peaceful confrontation.

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160. The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the cornerstone of threat

Explanation

The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) is a comprehensive evaluation that assesses the capabilities of potential threats to nuclear security. It analyzes various factors such as the sophistication of weapons, the expertise of individuals, and the resources available to them. This assessment is crucial in identifying and understanding the potential risks posed by these threats. Based on this assessment, appropriate planning can be done to mitigate and counteract the identified risks. Therefore, planning is the correct answer as it refers to the action taken based on the assessment findings.

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161. One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area?

Explanation

An escort official can escort up to six people into an exclusion area. This means that the official is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of a group of up to six individuals while they are in the exclusion area. The limit of six allows for effective supervision and control over the group, ensuring that regulations and protocols are followed and minimizing the risk of any incidents or accidents.

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162. (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Courier and SF representative. The Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) requires authentication of all entry authority lists (EALs) to ensure proper security measures are in place. The courier and SF representative play crucial roles in this process, as they are responsible for verifying and approving the EALs. Their collaboration ensures that the lists are accurate and authorized, maintaining the integrity of the PNAF operations.

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163. Which is not a designated PL1 resource?

Explanation

The given options consist of different resources that are designated for specific purposes. Nuclear weapons are considered as a designated PL1 resource due to their high importance and security measures. Senior Executive Mission (SENEX) aircraft are also designated resources used for executive transportation. Command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems are another designated resource used for military operations. However, aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States is not a designated PL1 resource as it is not directly related to national security or military operations.

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164. When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at

Explanation

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change can be initiated at any level within the organization. This means that individuals at any level, whether it be unit level, MAJCOM level, or Air Staff level, have the authority to initiate the change. There is no specific level that is exclusively responsible for initiating these changes.

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165. The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?

Explanation

The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has four areas of reporting. This means that when using SORTS, an organization or system can report on four different aspects related to resources and training. These areas may include the status of personnel, equipment, supplies, and training readiness. By having four areas of reporting, SORTS allows for a comprehensive assessment of an organization's resources and training capabilities.

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166. How many categories of patrols are there?

Explanation

There are only two categories of patrols. This means that patrols can be classified into only two distinct groups or types.

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167. A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as

Explanation

A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles. It is a designated space where thorough searches and inspections can be conducted to ensure the safety and security of the area. This may involve checking identification documents, conducting vehicle inspections, and implementing other security measures to prevent unauthorized access or potential threats.

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168. Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

Explanation

The correct answer is 23 and 30 because it suggests that specially trained terrorists are typically older than 16 but younger than 32. This age range is chosen based on the assumption that individuals within this range are more likely to possess the necessary physical and mental capabilities required for terrorist activities. Additionally, this age range aligns with the age group that is often targeted for recruitment by extremist groups.

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169. What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?

Explanation

Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD) is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy. This involves using various techniques to make oneself or objects blend into the surrounding environment, concealing their presence, and employing deceptive tactics to mislead and confuse the enemy. CCD is an important strategy in military operations to gain a tactical advantage and protect one's own forces.

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170. In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and

Explanation

The given answer, "isolating objectives," is the correct explanation because obstacles in offense can be used strategically to isolate the enemy's objectives. By creating barriers or obstructions, the defending units can limit the enemy's movement and prevent them from reaching their intended goals. This can significantly weaken the enemy's position and make it easier for the attacking forces to engage and defeat them. Isolating objectives is an essential tactic in offensive operations as it disrupts the enemy's plans and allows the attacking forces to gain a tactical advantage.

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171. Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?

Explanation

The Major command (MAJCOM) functional reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas. This means that they are responsible for assessing and approving installation submissions related to various functional areas within the MAJCOM corporate structure. The Financial Management Board and Financial working group are not mentioned in relation to reviewing and validating installation submissions, so they are not the correct answer.

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172. Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by

Explanation

Inspections and visits are conducted to assess whether the security program is able to meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) in various scenarios. These scenarios are represented by different organizations, including the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA), Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC), Major Command Inspector General (MAJCOM IG), and Department of Defense Inspector General (DOD IG). Out of these options, the correct answer is the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA). This implies that the DIA plays a significant role in evaluating the security program's ability to meet NWSS standards.

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173. Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exlusion area?

Explanation

The sole vouching authority is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exclusion area. This means that this person has the ultimate responsibility and authority to verify and approve the entry of individuals into the area. They are the only person who can vouch for the necessity of someone's presence in the exclusion area, ensuring that only authorized personnel are granted access.

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174. Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to standoff from a target, assess the situation, and pass timely information?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Response" because it refers to the task that allows the operator to stand off from a target, assess the situation, and pass timely information. This task involves quickly reacting to a situation and providing the necessary response to address the threat effectively.

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175. Where would you find a weapon security vault?

Explanation

A weapon security vault can be found in a Weapons Storage and Security System (WS3). WS3 is a specialized system designed to store and secure weapons. It is specifically built to ensure the safety and protection of weapons, providing a secure environment to prevent unauthorized access and theft. Therefore, a weapon security vault would be located within a WS3 facility.

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176. Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 36-2905. This Air Force Instruction provides information about current fitness standards and assessments. It is a document that outlines the policies and procedures for maintaining physical fitness within the Air Force. It covers topics such as fitness assessments, body composition, and physical training programs. By referring to AFI 36-2905, individuals can find the necessary information to understand and meet the fitness standards set by the Air Force.

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177. The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the

Explanation

The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly support the Defense force commander. This means that the fusion cell provides crucial intelligence and information to the Defense force commander, allowing them to make informed decisions and effectively lead the defense force. The fusion cell's products, such as intelligence reports and analysis, are specifically tailored to meet the needs of the Defense force commander, making them the primary source of information for this role.

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178. What is essential to our security?

Explanation

Nuclear deterrence is essential to our security because it refers to the use of nuclear weapons as a means to prevent or deter potential adversaries from attacking. It relies on the threat of retaliation and the belief that the consequences of a nuclear strike would be too catastrophic to justify an attack. By maintaining a strong nuclear deterrence, countries aim to discourage aggression and maintain peace through the fear of mutually assured destruction. This strategy has been a key component of global security policies, particularly during the Cold War, and continues to play a significant role in shaping international relations.

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179. What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons is defined as the Nuclear Weapon Security Standard. This standard ensures that only authorized personnel have access to nuclear weapons, preventing any unauthorized individuals or groups from obtaining or using them. It sets the guidelines and protocols for maintaining the security and control of nuclear weapons, including physical security measures, personnel screening, and access control systems. By adhering to this standard, countries can enhance the safety and security of their nuclear weapons and prevent any potential threats or accidents.

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180. "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue" is the definition of

Explanation

The correct answer is insider threats. This term refers to a person or group that holds extreme ideological views, either politically or in support of a specific issue, and poses a threat from within an organization or institution. Unlike criminals, terrorists, or protestors who may operate externally, insider threats are individuals who have authorized access and exploit their privileges to cause harm or damage.

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181. The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?

Explanation

The correct answer is Deployment. In the process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement, and Integration, the deployment phase is where the actual movement and positioning of personnel and equipment takes place. This phase involves organizing and executing the transportation of resources to the designated location for mission execution. It is the initial phase of the overall deployment process, setting the stage for subsequent activities such as employment and re-deployment.

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182. The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be

Explanation

The correct answer is "no closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet." This means that the area immediately around an alert aircraft must have a minimum distance of 10 feet and a maximum distance of 60 feet. This ensures that there is enough space for the aircraft to operate safely and allows for proper access and maneuverability. Being too close to the aircraft can pose a safety risk, while being too far away may hinder communication and response time.

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183. What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?

Explanation

Hostile intent is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces, as well as the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces. It refers to the intention or purpose to carry out hostile actions or acts of aggression. This term is used to identify potential threats and take appropriate measures to defend against them. It is different from a hostile act, which refers to an actual act of aggression, and hostile force, which refers to an entity actively engaged in hostile actions. The concept of hostile intent is crucial in determining the level of threat and planning appropriate defensive strategies.

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184. During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up investigation, should a determination be made that the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed?

Explanation

During the step of collecting physical evidence, it is important to determine whether the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed. This is because collecting physical evidence involves carefully examining the scene, documenting and collecting any relevant evidence that may help in the investigation. By ensuring that the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed during this step, investigators can be confident that they have collected all the necessary evidence and have a complete understanding of the crime scene, which is crucial for a successful follow-up investigation.

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185. Which commander exercises operational control?

Explanation

The Joint Force commander exercises operational control because they are responsible for planning and executing joint military operations involving multiple branches of the armed forces. They have the authority to direct and coordinate the actions of all forces assigned to the joint operation, ensuring unity of effort and achieving the mission objectives. This role requires a high level of strategic and tactical decision-making, as well as effective communication and coordination with subordinate commanders and partner nations.

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186. The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the

Explanation

The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the MAJCOM commander. This means that the commander of the Major Command (MAJCOM) has the authority to accept the risks associated with security deviations. They are responsible for making decisions regarding the acceptance of these risks and determining the appropriate course of action. The MAJCOM commander has the necessary knowledge and expertise to assess the potential impact of security deviations and make informed decisions to ensure the overall security of the organization.

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187. Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems are designated as

Explanation

The correct answer is a limited area. This designation is used to alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems. It implies that access to these areas is restricted, but not completely prohibited. The term "limited" suggests that there are certain conditions or restrictions in place for entry or operation within these areas, ensuring the safety and security of the nuclear weapons.

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188. Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle

Explanation

Delay is achieved through the use of both active and passive security measures. Active security measures involve proactive actions such as installing alarms, surveillance systems, or employing security personnel to deter potential threats. On the other hand, passive security measures focus on physical barriers like locks, fences, or reinforced doors to delay unauthorized access. By implementing these measures, an organization can slow down an attacker's progress, giving them more time to detect and respond to the threat effectively.

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Which of these is not a force protection effect?
Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when...
Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal inspections?
What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to...
Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have
What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?
The T-formation is best suited for what environment?
Range is given in what unit of measurement?
Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry...
Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for
When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the
Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the...
When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to...
What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to
What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a...
During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of...
Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily...
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS,...
When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be...
What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance...
All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming...
Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence...
How many types of nuclear movements are there on an installation?
Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you...
A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been...
The technique that requires great patience is movement with
What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty...
The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension
Supervisors must ensure their troops
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their...
Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first...
Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the...
Which radio type can talk over great distances?
At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?
(DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear...
Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous
The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to
What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive...
What is the most rigorous stage of development?
Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw...
What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
Post priority charts are used to
In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire...
Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go...
The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited...
When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post...
What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale...
What is the Navy's largest formation?
When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat...
All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit...
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against...
Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are...
By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security...
What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident...
Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal...
When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you...
After the command "Open rank, MARCH," which of the following...
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
"All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be...
All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense...
When do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH!"?
Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?
The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days...
When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is...
The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
"To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt,...
A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force
Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and...
The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations...
Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations...
How many team configurations are there for use in a tactical...
In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?
Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator...
What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the...
What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest...
Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are...
The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to
Integrated defense does not require the capability to
Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for...
The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action...
Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not...
Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?
During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation...
What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation...
When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be...
The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or...
Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is...
The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the
Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations...
Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement...
What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of...
Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter...
If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel...
Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of five or...
The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing...
When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you...
Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time...
How many phases are there in the deployment process?
What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or...
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a...
The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is
To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation...
Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?
Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the...
Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?
When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate...
A post check generally includes all of these items except
What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among...
What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and...
How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are...
What is not a category for the status of funds?
What drives a post priority chart?
Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or...
As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates?
The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates...
Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept...
Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site?
The primary function of reviewing is to ensure
Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are...
Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or...
Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower...
When are manpower numbers reviewed?
The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are
When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear...
Security deviations are documented on AF Form
(DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition?
The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is...
How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all...
Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes...
What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so...
Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?
(DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be...
What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic...
Where does the installations' labor relations specialist work?
Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units...
Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front?
Which statue protects an alleged violation of a right?
Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or...
The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating,...
Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspections?
When does the second element leader give the command, "Second...
What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear...
During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team...
The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the...
One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area?
(DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the...
Which is not a designated PL1 resource?
When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an...
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas...
How many categories of patrols are there?
A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel...
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average...
What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of...
In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy...
Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective...
Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program...
Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an...
Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to...
Where would you find a weapon security vault?
Where can you find information about current fitness standards and...
The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary...
What is essential to our security?
What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear...
"A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either...
The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration...
The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be
What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the...
During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up...
Which commander exercises operational control?
The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the
Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft...
Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which...
Alert!

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