SEC Fo 7 Lvl
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What is the most rigorous stage of development?
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SrA.
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MSgt.
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SSgt and TSgt.
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Amn and A1C.
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This quiz titled 'sec fo 7 lvl' assesses knowledge on Air Force enlisted roles and leadership levels, focusing on duties, development stages, and command controls. It is crucial for advancing understanding of Air Force operational and strategic leadership.
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- 2.
Supervisors must ensure their troops
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Have food and water.
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Possess required qualifications and certifications.
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Are supplied with weapons and required equipment.
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Are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.
Correct Answer
A. Possess required qualifications and certifications.Explanation
Supervisors must ensure their troops possess required qualifications and certifications. This is important because having the necessary qualifications and certifications ensures that the troops have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively and safely. It also helps to maintain the overall competency and professionalism of the troops. By ensuring that their troops possess these qualifications and certifications, supervisors can ensure that their troops are well-prepared and capable of carrying out their responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
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Duty roster.
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Post priority listing.
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Unit manning document.
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Unit personnel manning roster.
Correct Answer
A. Post priority listing.Explanation
The correct answer is "Post priority listing." This is because the post priority listing is a document that determines the order in which posts and patrols will be manned. It outlines the importance and urgency of each post, allowing for an organized and efficient allocation of personnel. The duty roster, unit manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may contain information about staffing and assignments, but they do not specifically address the prioritization of posts.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm?
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Supervisor.
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Commander
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Servicing armory.
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Security Forces manager.
Correct Answer
A. CommanderExplanation
The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This is because the commander has the authority and power to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms within their jurisdiction. They have the ability to assess the situation and determine if it is necessary to temporarily suspend someone's right to bear arms for the safety and well-being of others.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Post priority charts are used to
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Allocate vehicles
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Allocate manpower.
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Determine post rotations.
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Determine weapon configurations.
Correct Answer
A. Allocate manpower.Explanation
Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. These charts help in determining the distribution of available personnel to different posts or positions based on their skills, qualifications, and the priority of tasks or responsibilities associated with each post. By using these charts, organizations can efficiently assign manpower resources to ensure that the right people are deployed to the right places, optimizing productivity and effectiveness in various operations or projects.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?
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Group commander.
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Security Forces manager.
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Defense force commander.
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Each individual flight chief.
Correct Answer
A. Defense force commander.Explanation
The Defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not a post needs to be manned by someone. The other options, such as the Group commander, Security Forces manager, and Each individual flight chief, do not have the same level of authority as the Defense force commander in making this decision.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in
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Higher force protection conditions (FPCONs).
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Peacetime and wartime.
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Peacetime.
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Wartime.
Correct Answer
A. Peacetime and wartime.Explanation
The post priority chart is designed to optimize the allocation of limited Security Forces (SF) during both peacetime and wartime. This means that regardless of the force protection conditions (FPCONs), the chart will be used to determine the most efficient use of SF resources. By using the chart in both peacetime and wartime, the SF can effectively prioritize and allocate their resources to ensure the highest level of security and protection for the post or facility.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain
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Proficiency
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Discipline.
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Fairness.
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Control.
Correct Answer
A. ProficiencyExplanation
Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified for is important in order to maintain proficiency. This means that individuals should be given the opportunity to work in different positions to enhance their skills and knowledge in various areas. By doing so, they can become proficient in multiple roles, which can be beneficial for the organization as it ensures that there are always qualified individuals available to handle different tasks. This rotation also helps in preventing complacency and stagnation, as employees are constantly challenged and motivated to learn and grow.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?
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Post rotations
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Specialized courses.
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Recognition program.
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Providing time off.
Correct Answer
A. Post rotationsExplanation
Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows the personnel to have a change in their duties and responsibilities. This helps to prevent monotony and burnout, as individuals get the opportunity to experience different tasks and roles within the flight. Additionally, post rotations can provide a sense of fairness and equal opportunities for everyone, as they get the chance to be exposed to various aspects of the job. This can ultimately contribute to increased motivation and job satisfaction among the flight personnel.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?
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Issue paperwork.
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Verbally counsel the subordinate.
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Investigate to determine the cause.
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Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Investigate to determine the cause.Explanation
If a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This will help in understanding the underlying reasons for the poor performance and finding appropriate solutions. Simply issuing paperwork or verbally counseling the subordinate may not address the root cause of the issue. Similarly, assigning a new supervisor may not necessarily solve the problem if the cause lies elsewhere. Therefore, investigating to determine the cause is the most effective approach to dealing with substandard duty performance.Rate this question:
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- 11.
After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?
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1.
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2
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3
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4
Correct Answer
A. 3Explanation
After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left facing movement.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
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Flight member.
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Flight supervisor.
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Flight commander.
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Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Supply.
Correct Answer
A. Flight member.Explanation
The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that each individual within the flight is accountable for ensuring the proper upkeep and functionality of the equipment assigned to them. This includes regular maintenance, inspections, and reporting any issues or damages. By holding each flight member responsible, it promotes a sense of ownership and ensures that equipment is well-maintained and ready for use at all times.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
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Lengthy
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Made up.
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Irrelevant.
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Inappropriate
Correct Answer
A. Irrelevant.Explanation
When reviewing material for technical accuracy, a concern is that it may contain irrelevant information. This means that the material includes content that is not necessary or applicable to the topic being discussed. Irrelevant information can confuse readers and detract from the main points being conveyed. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the material is concise and focused, without any unnecessary or unrelated details.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
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Analysis
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Feedback.
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Evaluation.
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Cross-feed.
Correct Answer
A. Feedback.Explanation
Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about the effectiveness of their strategies, decisions, and actions. Feedback allows commanders to assess the impact of their decisions and make necessary adjustments or improvements. It helps in identifying strengths and weaknesses, enabling commanders to enhance their decision-making process and achieve better outcomes. Feedback also promotes continuous learning and development, enabling commanders to adapt to changing circumstances and improve their performance over time.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is
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Apprehension or release.
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Pepper spray or gunfire.
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Resistance or restraint.
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Gunfire or escape.
Correct Answer
A. Gunfire or escape.Explanation
Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that instead of resorting to using firearms or allowing the suspect to flee, patrol dogs are used as a less extreme option. They can be deployed to apprehend and detain the suspect without causing serious harm or resorting to lethal force. By choosing patrol dogs over gunfire or escape, law enforcement aims to strike a balance between effectively apprehending the suspect and minimizing the potential for fatal outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous
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Deterrent to potential violators.
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Physical deterrent to potential violators.
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Physiological deterrent to potential violators.
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Psychological deterrent to potential violators.
Correct Answer
A. Psychological deterrent to potential violators.Explanation
A patrol dog team used in police services activities can act as a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a trained police dog can create fear and uncertainty in the minds of individuals who may be considering engaging in illegal activities. The perception that a highly skilled and powerful animal is working alongside law enforcement can discourage individuals from committing crimes. This psychological impact can help prevent potential violators from taking action, making the patrol dog team an effective deterrent.Rate this question:
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- 17.
All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the
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Threat Working Group.
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Integrated Base Defense Council.
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Force Protection Commodity Council
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Equipment, Weapons, and Configuration Board.
Correct Answer
A. Integrated Base Defense Council.Explanation
The correct answer is Integrated Base Defense Council. This is because the sentence states that "All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the Integrated Base Defense Council." This suggests that the Integrated Base Defense Council is responsible for setting the arming rules in accordance with the mentioned regulations and requirements.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which radio type can talk over great distances?
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Base station.
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Portable radio.
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Base station remote.
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Mobile two-way radio.
Correct Answer
A. Mobile two-way radio.Explanation
A mobile two-way radio is the correct answer because it is designed to communicate over long distances. Unlike a base station, which typically has a limited range, a mobile two-way radio can be used while on the move, allowing for communication over greater distances. Portable radios are more suitable for shorter range communication, and base station remotes are used to control base stations rather than directly communicate over long distances.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to
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Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions
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Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.
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Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.
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Provide Congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session.
Correct Answer
A. Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.Explanation
The correct answer is "ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year." This means that the purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to ensure that the budget allocated by the President for the upcoming fiscal year is distributed fairly and evenly among different areas and departments within the Air Force. The goal is to avoid any biases or favoritism and ensure that the resources are allocated in a balanced and equitable manner to meet the needs of the Air Force effectively.Rate this question:
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- 20.
All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except
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Supervisors.
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Management officials.
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Professional employees.
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Employees in non-dedicated positions.
Correct Answer
A. Employees in non-dedicated positions.Explanation
The correct answer is "employees in non-dedicated positions." This means that all the options listed (supervisors, management officials, professional employees) are excluded from being in a bargaining unit, except for employees in non-dedicated positions. This implies that employees in non-dedicated positions can be part of a bargaining unit.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal inspections?
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Commanders.
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Wing Inspector General.
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Air Force Inspection Agency.
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Major Command (MAJCOM) Inspector General.
Correct Answer
A. Commanders.Explanation
The commanders are responsible for controlling the depth, scope, and frequency of internal inspections. As the leaders of a military unit or organization, commanders have the authority and oversight to determine the extent and frequency of inspections conducted within their command. They are in the best position to understand the specific needs and requirements of their unit and can tailor the inspections accordingly. This ensures that inspections are conducted effectively and efficiently, focusing on areas that are most relevant and critical to the unit's mission success.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
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Code 1.
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Code 2
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Code 3
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Code 4
Correct Answer
A. Code 4Explanation
The given question asks to identify the code that is not an alarm response code. The options provided are "Code 1", "code 2", "code 3", and "code 4". The correct answer is "code 4" because it is the only option that does not represent an alarm response code.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security?
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PL4
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PL3
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PL2
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PL1
Correct Answer
A. PL4Explanation
PL4 is the correct answer because it is the highest protection level assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security. PL4 indicates that stringent security measures are in place to protect the area, and the owner/users have a high level of responsibility for maintaining security. This level of protection is necessary when the area contains highly sensitive and valuable information or assets that require maximum security.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The T-formation is best suited for what environment?
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Intersecting hallways
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Narrow hallways.
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Wider hallways.
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Stairwells.
Correct Answer
A. Wider hallways.Explanation
The T-formation is best suited for wider hallways because it allows for better visibility and maneuverability. In wider hallways, there is more space to form the T-shape, which consists of a team member positioned at the intersection of two hallways and others positioned along each hallway. This formation allows for better coverage of the area and enables team members to quickly react to any potential threats or movements. In narrow hallways, the T-formation may not be as effective as it can limit visibility and hinder movement.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun?
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Hinges
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Door knob.
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Locking mechanism.
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Center mass of the door.
Correct Answer
A. Center mass of the door.Explanation
The center mass of the door is not considered a target point for entry when using a shotgun. When using a shotgun for entry, the typical target points on a door include the hinges, door knob, and locking mechanism. These points are targeted in order to disable or break through the door, allowing entry. However, targeting the center mass of the door would not be effective in achieving this goal.Rate this question:
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- 26.
When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the
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Threat.
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Fast wall.
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Unknown
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Strong wall.
Correct Answer
A. UnknownExplanation
When making room entry, it is important to keep your weapons oriented towards the "unknown" because you do not know what threats or dangers may be present on the other side of the door or wall. By keeping your weapons pointed in this direction, you are prepared to react quickly and effectively to any potential threats that may arise. It is crucial to maintain a state of readiness and be prepared for any situation when entering a room.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to the next bend or landing?
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#1
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#2
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#3
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#4
Correct Answer
A. #2Explanation
In a closed stairwell, when securing it, the person who pulls long security to the next bend or landing is person #2.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?
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The nature of the dispute.
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The location of the dispute.
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The responding patrol’s attitude.
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Whether or not children are present.
Correct Answer
A. The responding patrol’s attitude.Explanation
The attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute are determined by the responding patrol's attitude. The way the patrol handles the situation, their demeanor, and their approach can greatly influence the attitude of the individuals involved in the dispute. If the patrol is respectful, empathetic, and fair, it is more likely that the parties will cooperate and try to resolve the dispute peacefully. On the other hand, if the patrol is aggressive, dismissive, or biased, it can escalate the situation and lead to further conflict. Therefore, the responding patrol's attitude plays a crucial role in shaping the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm?
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Deep cuts.
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Bloody nose.
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Fractured bones.
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Damaged internal organs.
Correct Answer
A. Bloody nose.Explanation
A bloody nose is not considered grievous bodily harm because it is a common and minor injury that does not cause significant harm or long-term damage to the body. In contrast, deep cuts, fractured bones, and damaged internal organs are all serious injuries that can have severe consequences and require medical intervention.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?
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Rape
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Assault.
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Adultery.
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Child Abuse.
Correct Answer
A. RapeExplanation
Rape is considered one of the most serious crimes that will be investigated, excluding homicide. It involves non-consensual sexual activity and is a violation of a person's autonomy and bodily integrity. Rape can cause severe physical and psychological trauma to the victim, and it is a crime that is taken very seriously by law enforcement and the justice system. The investigation of rape cases requires thorough evidence collection, interviewing witnesses and the victim, and conducting forensic examinations to ensure a fair and just resolution.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program?
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Mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim.
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Ensure best efforts are made to accord victims certain rights.
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Foster cooperation of victims and witnesses.
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Prosecute the accused.
Correct Answer
A. Prosecute the accused.Explanation
The Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) program aims to support victims and witnesses of crimes by mitigating their physical, psychological, and financial hardships. It also seeks to ensure that victims are accorded certain rights and encourages their cooperation during the legal process. However, prosecuting the accused is not considered an objective of the VWAP program. The program focuses more on providing assistance and support to victims rather than actively pursuing the prosecution of the accused.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?
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It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.
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It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.
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It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.
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It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found faster.
Correct Answer
A. It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.Explanation
Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because these actions can potentially contaminate or alter the evidence, making it difficult to accurately analyze and interpret. The integrity of the crime scene is crucial in preserving evidence and ensuring a thorough investigation.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?
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It allows photographs to be taken.
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It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene.
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It allows responding patrols to better piece together events.
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It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found.
Correct Answer
A. It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found.Explanation
Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because it ensures that no evidence is tampered with or contaminated, which is crucial for an accurate investigation. By preserving the crime scene, the investigator can gather all the necessary information, such as the position of objects, bloodstains, or fingerprints, to reconstruct the events and make informed conclusions. This also helps in maintaining the integrity of the evidence, which is essential for a fair and just legal process.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?
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It allows for additional flight members to gain experience.
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It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training.
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It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.
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It could possibly destroy your hard work, contaminate the scene, and violate the chain of evidence requirements.
Correct Answer
A. It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.Explanation
Having a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it allows for fresh eyes to observe the crime scene without any bias. This patrolman will not have been influenced by the statements or actions of victims, witnesses, or suspects, which can help in identifying important evidence or details that may have been overlooked. This approach ensures a more objective and thorough examination of the scene, reducing the risk of contamination or compromising the chain of evidence.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to
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Collect and preserve.
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Observe and record.
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Record and sketch.
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Photo and record.
Correct Answer
A. Observe and record.Explanation
During the preliminary investigation, it is crucial to observe and record any relevant information or evidence. By carefully observing the scene, investigators can gather important details that may help in understanding the situation. These observations can include the condition of the area, any potential hazards, or any suspicious activities or objects. Additionally, recording these observations through notes or photographs ensures that the information is accurately documented and can be referred to later during the investigation. This process helps to establish a solid foundation for further analysis and decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 36.
During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported?
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Recovery phase.
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Response phase.
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Notification phase.
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Withdrawal phase.
Correct Answer
A. Notification phase.Explanation
During the notification phase of a major accident response, the estimated number of casualties is reported. This phase occurs immediately after the accident has taken place and involves notifying relevant authorities, emergency services, and the public about the incident. The estimated number of casualties is crucial information that helps in mobilizing resources and coordinating the response efforts effectively.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation?
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Public Affairs.
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School Principal.
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Incident Commander.
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Defense Force Commander.
Correct Answer
A. Public Affairs.Explanation
Public Affairs is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation. Public Affairs is a department or team within an organization that handles communication and dissemination of information to the public and media. In the context of a school violence situation, Public Affairs would be responsible for providing accurate and timely information to the public, parents, and media outlets. They would ensure that the correct information is shared, maintain transparency, and manage the overall communication strategy during such a crisis.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to questioning?
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Nationality.
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Income
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Race.
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Age.
Correct Answer
A. IncomeExplanation
Income is of no value prior to questioning because it does not provide any relevant information about a suspect's involvement in a crime or their potential motives. Nationality, race, and age may be factors that could potentially provide important context or clues during questioning, but income alone does not have any direct correlation to criminal behavior.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension
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In a private dwelling.
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During the interview.
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Off the installation.
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In a work center.
Correct Answer
A. In a private dwelling.Explanation
The correct answer is "in a private dwelling." The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension in a private dwelling, meaning it is used when a person is being apprehended or arrested in their own home or residence. This form would not be used for apprehension during an interview, off the installation, or in a work center.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?
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Physical barriers.
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Night vision device.
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Infrared imaging device.
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Closed-circuit television.
Correct Answer
A. Physical barriers.Explanation
Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders by creating obstacles that impede their progress and restrict their movement. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, or any other physical structure that hinders unauthorized access. By delaying intruders, security forces have more time to assess the threat, classify it, and formulate an appropriate response. Physical barriers also act as a deterrent, discouraging potential intruders from attempting unauthorized entry in the first place.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
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Parking area.
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Staging area.
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Overwatch.
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Search pit.
Correct Answer
A. Staging area.Explanation
The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible because it is the designated area where resources and personnel are organized and prepared for a search operation. By positioning the staging area far back, it ensures that it is not in the immediate vicinity of the search facility, reducing the risk of interference or disruption to the search operation. This allows for a more efficient and effective search process to take place.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the Navy’s largest formation?
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Fleet.
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Flotilla.
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Task Force.
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Strike Group.
Correct Answer
A. Fleet.Explanation
The Navy's largest formation is known as a fleet. A fleet consists of multiple task forces, strike groups, and other smaller units. It is responsible for carrying out major naval operations and exercises, often spanning across different regions and involving a large number of ships, submarines, and aircraft. The fleet is commanded by a fleet admiral or a senior officer who oversees the coordination and execution of various missions and ensures the overall readiness and effectiveness of the Navy's forces.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
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Arson.
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Bombing
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Hijacking.
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Assassination.
Correct Answer
A. BombingExplanation
Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic due to its destructive nature and ability to cause fear and chaos among the targeted population. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or the use of improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic allows terrorists to inflict significant damage, cause casualties, and attract media attention, thereby achieving their objectives of spreading terror, destabilizing governments, and gaining publicity for their cause.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
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Agent activity
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Sympathizers.
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Terrorists.
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Partisans.
Correct Answer
A. Sympathizers.Explanation
Sympathizers are individuals who may not directly engage in terrorist activities but support and sympathize with the cause. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to express their solidarity or to further the objectives of the group they support. While agents, terrorists, and partisans may also engage in activities against targets of opportunity, the focus of the question is on identifying the threat level I activity, which is best represented by sympathizers.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of these is not a force protection effect?
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Deter
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Detect.
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Defuse.
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Mitigate.
Correct Answer
A. Defuse.Explanation
The term "force protection effect" refers to measures taken to ensure the safety and security of military personnel and assets. Deterrence involves preventing potential threats by displaying strength and capability. Detection refers to identifying and recognizing potential threats. Mitigation involves minimizing the impact of threats or hazards. However, defusing is not a force protection effect as it does not directly relate to preventing, identifying, or minimizing threats. Defusing typically refers to diffusing tension or de-escalating a potentially volatile situation.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander’s rules for
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Mission requirements
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National policy goals.
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The use of force.
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The rule of law.
Correct Answer
A. The use of force.Explanation
Rules of engagement (ROE) are guidelines or directives that outline the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can use force during a mission. These rules are established to ensure that the use of force is controlled and in accordance with legal and ethical standards. They define when and how military personnel can engage in combat, self-defense, or other operations involving force. ROE help commanders make informed decisions and maintain discipline within their units while also minimizing civilian casualties and collateral damage.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?
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QFEBU.
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QFEPR.
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QFEBF.
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QFEBA.
Correct Answer
A. QFEBA.Explanation
When deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, the unit type code QFEBA provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A summary of a unit’s mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as
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A Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS).
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A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement.
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An Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART).
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A Mission Essential Task List (METL).
Correct Answer
A. A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement.Explanation
A Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement is a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, and equipped with. It outlines the unit's capabilities and objectives, providing a clear understanding of what the unit is expected to achieve and how it is prepared to do so. It helps in assessing the unit's readiness and determining if it has the necessary resources and training to fulfill its mission effectively. The other options mentioned (SORTS, ART, METL) do not specifically refer to a summary of a unit's mission and resources, making them incorrect answers.Rate this question:
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- 49.
At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?
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One.
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Two.
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Three
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Four
Correct Answer
A. Two.Explanation
The question asks for the minimum number of after action reports (AARs) that must be submitted. The correct answer is two, indicating that at least two AARs need to be submitted. This implies that there could be more than two AARs, but the minimum requirement is two.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 13, 2016Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
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