Which of these is not a force protection effect?
Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when...
Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal inspections?
What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to...
Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have
What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?
The T-formation is best suited for what environment?
Range is given in what unit of measurement?
Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry...
Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for
When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the
Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the...
When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to...
What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to
What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a...
During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of...
Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily...
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS,...
When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be...
What is not considered an objective of the Victim/Witness Assistance...
All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming...
Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence...
How many types of nuclear movements are there on an installation?
Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you...
A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been...
The technique that requires great patience is movement with
What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty...
The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension
Supervisors must ensure their troops
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their...
Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first...
Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the...
Which radio type can talk over great distances?
At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?
(DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear...
Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous
The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to
What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive...
What is the most rigorous stage of development?
Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw...
What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
Post priority charts are used to
In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire...
Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go...
The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited...
When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post...
What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale...
What is the Navy's largest formation?
When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat...
All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit...
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against...
Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are...
By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security...
What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident...
Once the President has declared a major disaster requiring federal...
When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you...
After the command "Open rank, MARCH," which of the following...
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
"All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be...
All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense...
When do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH!"?
Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?
The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days...
When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is...
The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
"To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt,...
A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force
Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and...
The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations...
Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations...
How many team configurations are there for use in a tactical...
In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?
Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator...
What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the...
What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest...
Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are...
The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to
Integrated defense does not require the capability to
Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for...
The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action...
Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not...
Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?
During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation...
What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation...
When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be...
The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or...
Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is...
The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the
Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations...
Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement...
What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of...
Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter...
If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel...
Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of five or...
The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing...
When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you...
Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time...
How many phases are there in the deployment process?
What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or...
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a...
The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is
To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation...
Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?
Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the...
Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?
When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate...
A post check generally includes all of these items except
What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among...
What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and...
How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are...
What is not a category for the status of funds?
What drives a post priority chart?
Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or...
As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates?
The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates...
Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept...
Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site?
The primary function of reviewing is to ensure
Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are...
Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or...
Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower...
When are manpower numbers reviewed?
The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are
When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear...
Security deviations are documented on AF Form
(DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition?
The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is...
How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all...
Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes...
What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so...
Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?
(DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be...
What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic...
Where does the installations' labor relations specialist work?
Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units...
Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front?
Which statue protects an alleged violation of a right?
Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was released, or...
The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating,...
Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspections?
When does the second element leader give the command, "Second...
What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear...
During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team...
The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the...
One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area?
(DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the...
Which is not a designated PL1 resource?
When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an...
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas...
How many categories of patrols are there?
A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel...
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average...
What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of...
In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy...
Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective...
Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program...
Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an...
Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to...
Where would you find a weapon security vault?
Where can you find information about current fitness standards and...
The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary...
What is essential to our security?
What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear...
"A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either...
The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration...
The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be
What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the...
During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up...
Which commander exercises operational control?
The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the
Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft...
Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which...