Project Management Study Quiz

121 Questions | Total Attempts: 68

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Project Management Study Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Adding more people to a project that is falling behind schedule often causes more setbacks because of the increased complexity of communications.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 2. 
    Rarely does the receiver interpret a message exactly as the sender intended.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 3. 
    In a project, communicating badly exponentially increases the possibility of making mistakes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    Good information technology project managers must have strong technical and communication skills.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    The project summary report is a summary of all the lessons-learned reports.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    _____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders.
    • A. 

      Strategic planning

    • B. 

      Systems management

    • C. 

      Identifying stakeholders

    • D. 

      Planning communications

  • 7. 
    The output of the _____ process is a communications management plan. 
    • A. 

      Managing communications

    • B. 

      Reporting performance

    • C. 

      Controlling communications

    • D. 

      Planning communications

  • 8. 
    Managing communications is part of the _____ process of the project communication management.
    • A. 

      Closing

    • B. 

      Executing

    • C. 

      Planning

    • D. 

      Monitoring and controlling

  • 9. 
    As a manager, you want to praise a team member, Phil, for doing a good job on a particular project. However, you know that Phil tends to be an introvert. Which of the following communication methods would Phil be most comfortable with?
    • A. 

      Call Phil in for a private meeting to appreciate his work

    • B. 

      Call a team meeting to praise Phil for his work on the project.

    • C. 

      Announce Phil’s accomplishment on the company Web site

    • D. 

      Have top management and the other teams in the company award Phil.

  • 10. 
    Which of the following methods of communication is likely to be most effective for conveying sensitive or important information?
    • A. 

      Short face-to-face meetings

    • B. 

      E-mails

    • C. 

      Telephone conversations

    • D. 

      Reading reports from other team members

  • 11. 
    According to research by Albert Mehrabian, which of the following is NOT a way that  information is communicated in a face-to-face interaction?
    • A. 

      Body language

    • B. 

      Facial expressions

    • C. 

      Spoken content

    • D. 

      Tone of voice

  • 12. 
    As the number of people involved in a project _____, the complexity of communications _____.
    • A. 

      Increases, decreases

    • B. 

      Decrease, increase

    • C. 

      Increase, stays constant

    • D. 

      Increases, increases

  • 13. 
    Using the formula for calculating the number of communication channels, how many channels would two people require?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 14. 
    The formula to determine the number of communication channels is _____, where n is the number of people involved.
    • A. 

      N (n-1)/2

    • B. 

      N(n+1)/2

    • C. 

      N(n+1)/n(n-1)

    • D. 

      N(n-1)/n(n+1)

  • 15. 
    Using the formula for calculating the number of communication channels, how many channels would five people require
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      11

    • D. 

      14

  • 16. 
    A team has 10 communication channels between its various members. Using the formula number of communication channels = n (n-1)/2, where n is the number of people in the team, the team has _____ members
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      10

  • 17. 
    An example of push communication is _____.
    • A. 

      Meetings

    • B. 

      Video conferencing

    • C. 

      Voice mails

    • D. 

      Blogs

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is true of push communication?
    • A. 

      Information is sent only to recipients who request the information.

    • B. 

      This method ensures that the information is understood by recipients.

    • C. 

      Information is sent to recipients without their request.

    • D. 

      This method ensures that the information is received by the recipients.

  • 19. 
    Which of the following communication methods would be most appropriate for assessing the commitment of project stakeholders?
    • A. 

      Wikis

    • B. 

      E-mail

    • C. 

      Web Sites

    • D. 

      Meetings

  • 20. 
    According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is the most inappropriate medium for addressing negative behavior.
    • A. 

      Voice mail

    • B. 

      E-mail

    • C. 

      Meeting

    • D. 

      Web site

  • 21. 
    _____ address where the project stands in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost goals.
    • A. 

      Technical reports

    • B. 

      Status reports

    • C. 

      Progress reports

    • D. 

      Lessons-learned reports

  • 22. 
    ____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time.
    • A. 

      Progress reports

    • B. 

      Status reports

    • C. 

      Forecasts

    • D. 

      Lessons-learned reports

  • 23. 
    Which of the following questions is typically addressed by a project forecast?
    • A. 

      How much more money will be needed to complete the project?

    • B. 

      Does the quality of output match our goals?

    • C. 

      Are our clients satisfied with the speed and quality of work on this project?

    • D. 

      How comfortable are employees with the software and technology being used on the project?

  • 24. 
    E-mail communication is most suited for:
    • A. 

      Assessing commitment to a project.

    • B. 

      Building consensus among disputing parties.

    • C. 

      Mediating a conflict between multiple parties.

    • D. 

      Communicating routine information.

  • 25. 
    A(n) _____ is a Web site that enables anyone who accesses it to contribute or modify Web page content.
    • A. 

      Intranet

    • B. 

      Blog

    • C. 

      Forum

    • D. 

      Wiki

  • 26. 
    The _____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail.
    • A. 

      To

    • B. 

      From

    • C. 

      Subject

    • D. 

      Cc

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Always reply to all the people to whom the initial message was sent.

    • B. 

      If the entire message can fit in the subject line, put it there.

    • C. 

      Minimize the total number of e-mails by including as many subjects as possible in a single e-mail.

    • D. 

      Continue replying to e-mail messages without changing the subject line to maintain continuity.

  • 28. 
    The items discussed in a(n) _____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members’ experiences.
    • A. 

      Final project report

    • B. 

      Design document

    • C. 

      Audit report

    • D. 

      Lessons-learned report

  • 29. 
    _____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project.
    • A. 

      Project archives

    • B. 

      Forecasts

    • C. 

      Project plans

    • D. 

      Project notes

  • 30. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 31. 
    One possible response to managing negative risk it to accept the potential effects from the risk.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 32. 
    Unknown risks can be managed proactively.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    Contingency plans are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    The psychology literature shows that individuals, working alone, produce fewer ideas than the same individuals produce through brainstorming in small, face-to-face groups.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 35. 
    Risk events refer to specific, certain events that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 36. 
    Top Ten Risk Item Tracking is a quantitative risk analysis tool.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    Quantitative risk analysis need not be done for projects that are large and complex.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    The Monte Carlo analysis can predict the probability of finishing by a certain date or the probability that the cost will be equal to or less than a certain value.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    The risk register can be created with a simple Microsoft Word or Excel file.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    Is [your statement here] true or false?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 41. 
    Risk utility rises at a decreasing rate for a _____ person.
    • A. 

      Risk-seeking

    • B. 

      Risk-averse

    • C. 

      Risk-neutral

    • D. 

      Risk-indifferent

  • 42. 
    Those who are _____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake.
    • A. 

      Risk-averse

    • B. 

      Risk-seeking

    • C. 

      Risk-neutral

    • D. 

      Risk-indifferent

  • 43. 
    A _____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff.
    • A. 

      Risk-seeking

    • B. 

      Risk-averse

    • C. 

      Risk-fearing

    • D. 

      Risk-neutral

  • 44. 
    _____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project.
    • A. 

      Identifying risks

    • B. 

      Planning risk management

    • C. 

      Performing qualitative risk analysis

    • D. 

      Performing quantitative risk analysis

  • 45. 
    The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is
    • A. 

      Risk appetite

    • B. 

      Risk tolerence

    • C. 

      Risk utility

    • D. 

      Unknown risk

  • 46. 
    _____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each.
    • A. 

      Identifying risks

    • B. 

      Planning risk management

    • C. 

      Performing qualitative risk analysis

    • D. 

      Performing quantitative risk analysis

  • 47. 
    _____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence. 
    • A. 

      Performing qualitative risk analysis

    • B. 

      Identifying risks

    • C. 

      Planning risk responses

    • D. 

      Performing quantitative risk analysis

  • 48. 
    _____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives.
    • A. 

      Performing quantitative risk analysis

    • B. 

      Planning risk responses

    • C. 

      Controlling risk

    • D. 

      Performing qualitative risk analysis

  • 49. 
    _____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. 
    • A. 

      Secondary risks

    • B. 

      Workarounds

    • C. 

      Contingency plans

    • D. 

      Management reserves

  • 50. 
    Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the project _____ management knowledge area.
    • A. 

      Integration

    • B. 

      Quality

    • C. 

      Procurement

    • D. 

      Human resources

  • 51. 
    A(n) _____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other.
    • A. 

      Risk breakdown structure

    • B. 

      Influence diagram

    • C. 

      Process flow chart

    • D. 

      Work breakdown structure

  • 52. 
    _____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool that maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project in addition to identifying risks.
    • A. 

      SharePoint portal

    • B. 

      Probability/impact matrices or charts

    • C. 

      Expectations management matrix

    • D. 

      Top Ten Risk Item Tracking

  • 53. 
    Performing qualitative and quantitative risk analyses are subprocesses of the _____ process of project risk management.
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Executing

    • C. 

      Monitoring and controlling

    • D. 

      Closing

  • 54. 
    Performing qualitative and quantitative risk analyses are subprocesses of the _____ process of project risk management.
    • A. 

      Sensitivity

    • B. 

      Systems

    • C. 

      Monte Carlo

    • D. 

      NPV

  • 55. 
    A _____ is a technique used to show the effects of changing one or more variables on an outcome.
    • A. 

      Sensitivity analysis

    • B. 

      Decision tree

    • C. 

      Monte Carlo analysis

    • D. 

      Systems analysis

  • 56. 
    _____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence.
    • A. 

      Risk avoidance

    • B. 

      Risk acceptance

    • C. 

      Risk transference

    • D. 

      Risk mitigation

  • 57. 
    ____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party. 
    • A. 

      Risk avoidance

    • B. 

      Risk acceptance

    • C. 

      Risk transference

    • D. 

      Risk mitigation

  • 58. 
    ____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk.
    • A. 

      Risk exploitation

    • B. 

      Risk sharing

    • C. 

      Risk enhancement

    • D. 

      Risk acceptance

  • 59. 
    _____ risks refer to those that are direct results of implementing risk responses.
    • A. 

      Architectual

    • B. 

      Primary

    • C. 

      Residual

    • D. 

      Secondary

  • 60. 
    ____ analysis simulates a model’s outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results.
    • A. 

      Sensitivity

    • B. 

      Systems

    • C. 

      Monte Carlo

    • D. 

      NPV

  • 61. 
    A company is considering whether to purchase or lease a piece of equipment for an upcoming project.  The cost to purchase is $10,000 plus $100 per day to operate or $500 per day to lease (including operating costs). If the company anticipates using the equipment for a total of 20 days, they will be indifferent as to whether or lease or purchase it.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    “A shortage of qualified personnel is one of the main reason that companies outsource. A project may require experts in a particular field for several months and planning for this procurement ensures that the needed services will be available for the project.” Which of the following benefits does this characteristic of outsourcing provide an organization?
    • A. 

      Reduces focus on its core business

    • B. 

      Increases control over all aspects of projects that suppliers carry out

    • C. 

      Provides access to specific skills

    • D. 

      Reduces dependency on suppliers

  • 63. 
    Outsourcing suppliers can often provide economies of scale, especially for hardware and software, that may not be available to the client alone. Which of the following benefits does this offer an organization? 
    • A. 

      Reduction in fixed and recurrent costs

    • B. 

      Increased flexibility

    • C. 

      Increased accountability

    • D. 

      Access to specific skills

  • 64. 
    “Most organizations are not in business to provide information technology services, yet many have spent valuable time and resources on information technology functions when they should have instead worked on important competencies such as marketing, customer service, and new product design. Outsourcing helps tackle this problem.” Which of the following benefits does outsourcing primarily provide in such a scenario?
    • A. 

      Reduces fixed and recurrent costs

    • B. 

      Protects strategic information from being accessible to external suppliers

    • C. 

      Increases accountability even without a written contract

    • D. 

      Helps focus on an organization’s core business

  • 65. 
    “Outsourcing to provide extra workers during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to fill entire projects with internal resources.” Which of the following advantages does this characteristic of outsourcing provide organizations?
    • A. 

      Offers control over all aspects of projects that suppliers carry out

    • B. 

      Provides a company flexibility in staffing

    • C. 

      Shifts accountability from external suppliers to internal staff

    • D. 

      Shifts accountability from external suppliers to internal staff

  • 66. 
    A drawback of outsourcing is that:
    • A. 

      It does not provide access to specific skills or technologies.

    • B. 

      It invariably results in an increase in both fixed and recurrent costs

    • C. 

      It can make an organization become overly dependent on particular suppliers.

    • D. 

      It cannot increase accountability of suppliers through a written contract.

  • 67. 
    The first step in project procurement management is:
    • A. 

      Closing procurement management.

    • B. 

      Controlling procurement's.

    • C. 

      Conducting procurement's.

    • D. 

      Planning procurement management.

  • 68. 
    In project procurement management, the process of _____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how. 
    • A. 

      closing procurements

    • B. 

      Controlling procurements

    • C. 

      Conducting procurements

    • D. 

      Planning procurement management

  • 69. 
    In project procurement management, the process of _____ involves obtaining seller responses, selecting sellers, and awarding contracts.
    • A. 

      Conducting procurements

    • B. 

      Closing procurements

    • C. 

      Settling contracts

    • D. 

      Planning procurement management

  • 70. 
    Outputs of the _____ process consist of selected sellers and resource calendars.
    • A. 

      Closing procurements

    • B. 

      Conducting procurements

    • C. 

      Planning procurement management

    • D. 

      Controlling procurements

  • 71. 
    Which of the following processes of project procurement management involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed?
    • A. 

      Closing procurements

    • B. 

      Settling contracts

    • C. 

      Deciding on the service to procure

    • D. 

      Controlling procurements

  • 72. 
    In project procurement management, which of the following processes involve completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items?
    • A. 

      Planning procurement management

    • B. 

      Controlling procurements

    • C. 

      Closing procurements

    • D. 

      Conducting procurements

  • 73. 
    The procurement statements of work are an output of the _____ process of project procurement management. 
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Executing

    • C. 

      Monitoring and controlling

    • D. 

      Closing

  • 74. 
    In project procurement management, the process of conducting procurement's is part of the _____ process.
    • A. 

      Planiing

    • B. 

      Executing

    • C. 

      Monitoring and controlling

    • D. 

      Closing

  • 75. 
    In project procurement management, which of the following is an output of the executing process?
    • A. 

      Make-or-buy decisions

    • B. 

      Statements of work

    • C. 

      Source selection criteria

    • D. 

      Resource calendars

  • 76. 
    In project procurement management, an output of the _____ monitoring and controlling process.
    • A. 

      Change requests

    • B. 

      Selected sellers

    • C. 

      Resource calendars

    • D. 

      Make-or-buy decisions

  • 77. 
    Which of the following is true of lump-sum contracts?
    • A. 

      They incur a high degree of risk for the buyer.

    • B. 

      They involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service.

    • C. 

      They consist of a fee based on the satisfaction of subjective performance criteria.

    • D. 

      They are also known as cost-reimbursable contracts.

  • 78. 
    _____ contracts involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs and often include fees.
    • A. 

      Firm-fixed-price

    • B. 

      Lump sum

    • C. 

      Cost-reimbursable contracts

    • D. 

      Fixed-price incentive fee

  • 79. 
    In a(n) _____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus.
    • A. 

      FFP

    • B. 

      CPIF

    • C. 

      CPPC

    • D. 

      FPIF

  • 80. 
    With a(n) _____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs.
    • A. 

      CPFF

    • B. 

      FPIF

    • C. 

      CPAF

    • D. 

      CPIF

  • 81. 
    In which of the following contracts does the buyer pay the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs?
    • A. 

      FPIF

    • B. 

      CPIF

    • C. 

      CPPC

    • D. 

      CPAF

  • 82. 
    From the buyer’s perspective, the _____ is the least desirable among all contracts because the supplier has no incentive to decrease costs.
    • A. 

      CPIF

    • B. 

      CPFF

    • C. 

      CPAF

    • D. 

      CPPC

  • 83. 
    A(n) _____ contract carries the least risk for suppliers.
    • A. 

      CPPC

    • B. 

      FFP

    • C. 

      CPAF

    • D. 

      FP-EPA

  • 84. 
    The _____ is a description of the work required for a procurement.
    • A. 

      RFQ

    • B. 

      WBS

    • C. 

      RFP

    • D. 

      SOW

  • 85. 
    A(n) _____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers.
    • A. 

      RFQ

    • B. 

      WBS

    • C. 

      RFP

    • D. 

      SOW

  • 86. 
    A document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers is known as a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      RFQ

    • B. 

      RFP

    • C. 

      WBS

    • D. 

      SOW

  • 87. 
    After planning for procurement management, which of the following does the next process involve?
    • A. 

      Determining the evaluation criteria for the contract award

    • B. 

      Developing procurement statements of work

    • C. 

      Using expert judgement in planning purchases and acquisitions

    • D. 

      Sending appropriate documentation to potential sellers

  • 88. 
    In project procurement management, which of the following is one of the main outputs of the conducting procurement process?
    • A. 

      A selected seller

    • B. 

      A procurement management plan

    • C. 

      A procurement statement of work

    • D. 

      A closed procurement

  • 89. 
    The process of choosing suppliers or sellers is known as _____.
    • A. 

      Source selection

    • B. 

      A bid

    • C. 

      WBS

    • D. 

      A change order

  • 90. 
    Which of the following is an output of the contract closure process?
    • A. 

      Procurement statements of work

    • B. 

      Updates to organizational process assets

    • C. 

      Resource calendars

    • D. 

      Work performance information

  • 91. 
    Projects often do not cause any changes in an organization.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 92. 
    Groups representing consumer, environmental, or other interests can be identified as project stakeholders.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 93. 
    A leading stakeholder is one who is aware of the project and is neither supportive nor resistant to it.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 94. 
    The stakeholder management plan should not be accessible to all stakeholders.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 95. 
    Issue logs can be used to address issues related to other knowledge areas like project scope management or project quality management.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    Project management software tools normally do not promote the use of Facebook as a forum to promote project activities.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 97. 
    _____ is the new knowledge area identified by the Project Management Institute.
    • A. 

      Project stakeholder management

    • B. 

      Project communication management

    • C. 

      Project risk management

    • D. 

      Project procurement management

  • 98. 
    _____ involves determining everyone involved in the project or affected by it, and determining the best ways to manage relationships with them.
    • A. 

      Identifying stakeholders

    • B. 

      Planning stakeholder management

    • C. 

      Managing stakeholder engagement

    • D. 

      Controlling stakeholder engagement

  • 99. 
    The main output of the _____ process is the stakeholder register.
    • A. 

      Planning stakeholder management

    • B. 

      Identifying stakeholders

    • C. 

      Managing stakeholder engagement

    • D. 

      Controlling stakeholder engagement

  • 100. 
    One of the main outputs of the _____ process are the issue logs.
    • A. 

      Planning stakeholder management

    • B. 

      Identifying stakeholders

    • C. 

      Managing stakeholder engagement

    • D. 

      Controlling stakeholder engagement

  • 101. 
    ____ involves monitoring stakeholder relationships and adjusting plans and strategies for engaging stakeholders as needed.
    • A. 

      Planning stakeholder management

    • B. 

      Identifying stakeholders

    • C. 

      Managing stakeholder engagement

    • D. 

      Controlling stakeholder engagement

  • 102. 
    The stakeholder register is the output of the _____ process of project stakeholder management.
    • A. 

      Initiating

    • B. 

      Planning

    • C. 

      Executing

    • D. 

      Monitoring and controlling

  • 103. 
    Which of the following is true about identifying stakeholder?
    • A. 

      The project manager’s family is not a potential stakeholder.

    • B. 

      It is not very difficult to identify stakeholders.

    • C. 

      Stakeholders with indirect ties to the project need not be engaged with.

    • D. 

      Stakeholders do not change during a project

  • 104. 
    Doctors who have been co-opted to actively participate in a project related to using information technology for chronic health problems would be examples of _____ stakeholders.
    • A. 

      Supportive

    • B. 

      Leading

    • C. 

      Resistant

    • D. 

      Neutral

  • 105. 
    The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with high interest and high power are categorized as _____.
    • A. 

      Resistant

    • B. 

      Neutral

    • C. 

      Supportive

    • D. 

      Leading

  • 106. 
    The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with _____ are categorized as resistant or unaware.
    • A. 

      High interest/low power

    • B. 

      High interest and high power

    • C. 

      Low interest/ low power

    • D. 

      Low interest/high power

  • 107. 
    The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with _____ are categorized as resistant or unaware.
    • A. 

      High interest/low power

    • B. 

      High interest and high power

    • C. 

      Low interest/ low power

    • D. 

      Low interest/ low power

  • 108. 
    After identifying and analyzing stakeholders, the project manager and team should develop a(n) ______ to help them effectively engage stakeholders and make sure that good decisions are made throughout the life of the project.
    • A. 

      Stakeholder management plan

    • B. 

      Stakeholder register

    • C. 

      Issue log

    • D. 

      Power/interest grid

  • 109. 
    Scope, time and cost goals in order of importance can be ranked on a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      requirements traceability matrix

    • B. 

      Expectations management matrix

    • C. 

      Responsibility assignment matrix

    • D. 

      Probability matrix

  • 110. 
    A(n) _____ is a tool used to document, monitor, and track problems that need resolution.
    • A. 

      Requirements traceability matrix

    • B. 

      Gantt chart

    • C. 

      Power/interest grid

    • D. 

      Issue log

  • 111. 
     The purpose of _____ is to identify all people or organizations affected by a project, to analyze their expectations, and to effectively engage them in project decisions throughout the life of a project.
  • 112. 
    _____ can be perceived as enemies or allies by stakeholders depending on the outcomes of a project.
  • 113. 
    The main output of the identifying stakeholders process is the _____.
  • 114. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 115. 
    _____ are individuals, groups, or organizations who may affect, be affected by, or perceive themselves to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project.
  • 116. 
    _____ can be classified as internal to the organization or external.
  • 117. 
    The project sponsor, project team and the support staff would be the _____ project stakeholders.
  • 118. 
    Government officials and concerned citizens would be classified as _____ project stakeholders.
  • 119. 
    A simple way to document basic information on project stakeholders is by creating a(n) _____.
  • 120. 
    A(n) _____ is a technique for analyzing information to determine which stakeholders’ interests to focus on and how to increase stakeholder support throughout the project.
  • 121. 
    A(n) _____ is a tool used to group stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern for project outcomes.