CDC Z4n071: 7th Level Medical Technician Questions

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If you cannot solve a patient's problem, the best course of action is to find someone in the organization who can. This could be a supervisor, a specialist, or someone with more expertise in the specific issue at hand. By seeking assistance from someone else within the organization, you can ensure that the patient's problem is addressed and resolved effectively.

One of the key features of TRICARE prime is that there is no enrollment fee for active duty members and their families. This means that active duty members and their families can access healthcare services without having to pay an additional fee to enroll in the TRICARE prime program. This feature helps to make healthcare more accessible and affordable for active duty members and their families.

Skin closure strips can be used in place of sutures or staples to approximate a wound. These strips are adhesive strips that are applied across the wound to hold the edges together. They provide support and help the wound heal by keeping the edges in close proximity. Skin closure strips are a convenient alternative to sutures or staples as they are easy to apply, do not require anesthesia, and leave minimal scarring. They are commonly used for small to medium-sized wounds that have clean, straight edges.

Building rapport and making a good first impression is important in improving customer service skills and making the patient feel at ease. By establishing a positive and friendly connection with the patient, it helps to create a comfortable and trusting environment. This can be achieved by actively listening to the patient, showing empathy and concern, addressing their needs and concerns, and providing clear and concise information. Taking the time to build rapport and make a good first impression can greatly enhance the patient's experience and satisfaction with the clinic.

The IMR status RED represents that the individual's immunizations are missing or out of date. Additionally, their last preventive health assessment (PHA) was more than 18 months ago, and they have dental class 3 or class 4 requirements that are missing. This status also indicates that they have a deployment-limiting profile.

The correct answer, "Immunizations complete and up to date. (PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.)", indicates that an individual with a GREEN IMR status has received all necessary immunizations and they are current. They have also undergone a Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) within the last 18 months, have a dental classification of either class 1 or class 2, and their lab requirements are up to date. Additionally, they do not have any deployment-limiting profiles.

In this scenario, the patient is expressing a complaint about a previous visit with their provider. Therefore, the resolution should initially be addressed at the lowest level, which would typically involve the provider or their immediate supervisor. This allows for a more direct and immediate resolution of the issue before escalating it to higher levels of authority such as squadron commander, hospital commander, or wing commander.

The Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a numeric code that identifies a particular task within the Air Force. It may include an alpha prefix or suffix to further specify the task. This code is used to categorize and organize various job positions and responsibilities within the Air Force.

The Special Experience Identifier (SEI) annotates special experience and training that is not reflected in the classification system. This means that individuals who have a specific SEI have undergone additional training or gained unique experience that is relevant to their job, but is not captured by their grade, functional account code (FAC), or organizational structure code. The SEI serves as a way to recognize and differentiate individuals who have acquired specialized skills or knowledge that goes beyond what is typically required for their position.

The fiscal year starts on October 1st and ends on September 30th. This means that the positions in the unit manning document (UMD) are displayed over this period of time.

One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for 60 minutes. This means that if a person works consistently for one hour without any breaks or interruptions, it is considered as one man-hour of work.

The custody receipt/locator is the equipment management list that indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility. This list is used to keep track of the equipment that has been assigned to a custodian and serves as a proof of their acceptance of responsibility for the items. It helps in ensuring accountability and proper management of the equipment by clearly documenting who is responsible for each item.

The scheduler uses Air Force Instruction (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule. These references and guidances provide the necessary rules, regulations, and procedures that the scheduler must follow when creating the schedule. They ensure that the schedule is in compliance with the Air Force's policies and guidelines. The clinical nursing skills handbook and Lippincott nursing manual may be useful resources for the nurses themselves, but they are not directly used by the scheduler when preparing the duty schedule.

TRICARE prime, extra, and standard are the most common choices for eligible beneficiaries. These options are provided by the TRICARE healthcare program, which is available to active duty military personnel, retirees, and their families. TRICARE prime is a managed care option that offers comprehensive coverage, while TRICARE extra and standard provide more flexibility in choosing healthcare providers. CHAMPUS health insurance and bluecross and blueshield are not specifically mentioned as common choices for eligible beneficiaries. Medicare, while a widely used healthcare program, is primarily for individuals aged 65 and older, and may not be the most common choice for eligible beneficiaries in this context.

Ensuring medication reconciliation is completed helps in avoiding medication errors. Medication errors can have serious consequences for patients, including adverse drug reactions, ineffective treatment, and even death. By reconciling medications, healthcare professionals can compare the medications a patient is currently taking with the medications they should be taking, identifying any discrepancies or potential interactions. This process helps to prevent medication errors, ensuring that patients receive the correct medications in the correct dosages, improving patient safety and overall healthcare outcomes.

The correct answer is 623a. The 623a component of the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is used to document training progression involving tasks and skills. This component allows for the tracking and recording of an individual's training progress, ensuring that all necessary tasks and skills are properly documented and accounted for.

The correct answer is "targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the continuum of learning (COL) across an enlisted Airman's career." This answer suggests that the Air Force enlisted professional military education (EPME) is designed to provide specific skills and knowledge to enlisted Airmen throughout their career, ensuring that they receive the necessary training and education at different stages of their professional development. This approach aims to enhance their competency and effectiveness in their roles.

In the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field, training is completed through formal courses and on-the-job training. This means that individuals receive structured education through formal courses, which may include classroom instruction or online learning. Additionally, they gain practical experience and skills through on-the-job training, where they work alongside experienced professionals in real-life situations. This combination of formal courses and on-the-job training ensures that individuals acquire the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively in the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field.

The former name of TRICARE Standard was the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS).

Peripheral neuropathy is a type of neuropathy that can cause either pain or loss of feeling in the toes, feet, legs, hands, and arms. It affects the peripheral nerves, which are responsible for transmitting signals between the central nervous system and the rest of the body. This condition can be caused by various factors such as diabetes, infections, toxins, and injuries. The symptoms of peripheral neuropathy can range from mild numbness or tingling to severe pain and muscle weakness. Early diagnosis and treatment are important to manage the symptoms and prevent further nerve damage.

The impatient surgical intensive care scheduler should have open lines of communication with other impatient units in order to relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads. This is important because it allows the scheduler to stay updated on the number of patients in the unit and anticipate any potential increase in workload. By having this information, the scheduler can make necessary adjustments to the duty schedules and ensure that there are enough staff members to handle the workload effectively.

The effectiveness of training in the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field involves monitoring career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency. This means that in order to determine how effective the training is, it is important to assess the individual's understanding of their career, their current qualifications and certifications, and their proficiency in performing their job duties. By monitoring these key areas, it can be determined if the training is adequately preparing individuals for their role in the field.

The priority category that must be completed by the end of the duty day is "Urgent". This means that tasks or actions labeled as urgent need to be prioritized and completed before the end of the workday. Urgent tasks are typically time-sensitive and require immediate attention to prevent any negative consequences or delays.

The patient's symptoms of pain in her extremities that worsen at night suggest peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy refers to damage or dysfunction of the peripheral nerves, which are responsible for transmitting signals between the central nervous system and the rest of the body. This can result in symptoms such as pain, numbness, tingling, or weakness in the extremities. Autonomic neuropathy affects the nerves that control involuntary bodily functions, proximal neuropathy affects the nerves in the thighs, hips, or buttocks, and focal neuropathy affects a specific nerve or group of nerves.

TRICARE prime is a healthcare program for members of the military and their families. The correct answer states that active duty military and family members of an active duty sponsor are eligible for TRICARE prime. This means that both the military personnel and their immediate family members can access healthcare services through this program.

When converting units, 0.001 grams is equal to one milligram.

Planning is the correct answer because it involves creating a detailed roadmap or strategy to achieve future goals. By planning, Ssgt Johnson can effectively prioritize tasks, allocate resources, and set deadlines to ensure that his unit's current status aligns with the organization's future goals. Planning allows for a systematic approach to address any gaps or challenges and helps bridge the time span between the present and the future.

The intent of the assignment limitation code is to protect members from being placed in an environment where they may not receive adequate medical care for a possible life-threatening condition and to prevent the assignment of non-worldwide qualified personnel to overseas locations. This code ensures that members are not sent to locations that do not have the necessary medical facilities to address their specific medical needs.

Category C, which is the lowest priority category, may be delegated out to other persons within the unit. This means that tasks or responsibilities falling under category C can be assigned to someone else within the unit who has the capacity to handle them, freeing up the individual with higher priority tasks to focus on more urgent matters. Delegating category C priorities allows for efficient task distribution and ensures that resources are utilized effectively within the unit.

The correct answer is E-9 and below. This means that all ranks E-9 (Chief Master Sergeant) and below are required to have an active training record within the Air Force Training Record (AFTR). This ensures that all personnel at these ranks are keeping up with their training requirements and are maintaining their readiness for their respective roles within the Air Force.

A digital block is a type of nerve block that is used to numb a specific finger or toe. It involves injecting an anesthetic medication around the nerves that supply sensation to the digit, effectively blocking the transmission of pain signals. This allows for pain-free procedures such as wound closure to be performed on the finger without the patient feeling any discomfort.

The HEAR survey provides specific information about the patients' health risks and needs. It helps in assessing and evaluating the health status of the population by gathering data on various health aspects such as medical history, lifestyle habits, and existing health conditions. This information is crucial for healthcare professionals to identify potential health risks, develop appropriate interventions, and provide personalized care to patients.

The flight noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) or the element NCOIC determines and assigns an immediate supervisor to a newly assigned Airman. This is because the NCOIC is responsible for overseeing the operations and personnel within the flight or element, and assigning a supervisor ensures that the Airman receives proper guidance and mentorship. The First Sergeant and Commander may also have a role in the assignment process, but they are not specifically mentioned as the ones determining and assigning the immediate supervisor.

Region 2, the Mid-Atlantic area of the United States, has a contract with Humana to manage the TRICARE.

The purpose and outcome of individual medical readiness (IMMR) objectives are to provide "real-time" medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals, and primary care managers (PCM) so they can manage and optimize the readiness status of their assigned or enrolled Air Force (AF) personnel. This means that the IMMR objectives aim to give commanders, individuals, and PCMs the necessary information and tools to effectively manage the readiness status of AF personnel, ensuring that they are prepared and capable of fulfilling their duties.

When an unconscious patient is unable to breathe on their own, an endotracheal tube is established. This tube is inserted into the patient's trachea through their mouth or nose and connected to a ventilator, which helps to deliver oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from the patient's lungs. This ensures that the patient receives the necessary oxygenation and ventilation while they are unconscious and unable to breathe independently.

Under TRICARE Standard, the correct answer states that active duty families are responsible for 20% of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care, while retirees and all other beneficiaries are responsible for 25% of the approved allowable cost. This means that TRICARE Standard covers a larger percentage of the cost for active duty families compared to retirees and other beneficiaries.

The two things that determine a member's security clearance are their Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) and assignment. The AFSC refers to the specific job or role that the member holds within the Air Force, while the assignment refers to the location or unit where they are assigned to work. These factors are important in determining the level of access and clearance that a member needs for their specific job and responsibilities within the Air Force.

Suctioning a tracheostomy tube is done to remove secretions from the lower respiratory air passage. Tracheostomy tubes are inserted into the trachea to provide an alternate airway for patients who are unable to breathe on their own or have difficulty breathing. These tubes can accumulate secretions that can obstruct the airway and make it difficult for the patient to breathe. Suctioning helps to clear these secretions and maintain a patent airway, ensuring proper oxygenation and ventilation for the patient.

When upgrading to a 7-skill level, the minimum number of months needed in training is 12. This means that it will take at least one year of training to reach the 7-skill level.

TRICARE for life was made available on 1 Oct 01. This means that starting from this date, TRICARE beneficiaries who were eligible for both Medicare and TRICARE could have access to TRICARE for life benefits. Prior to this date, they would have had to choose between Medicare and TRICARE coverage.

If a QRS complex is wider than three blocks, it suggests a possible heart block. A heart block is a condition where the electrical signals in the heart are delayed or blocked, leading to an abnormal rhythm. By notifying the provider, they can assess the situation and determine if any intervention or treatment is necessary to address the heart block and prevent further complications.

AHLTA is used for all aspects of patient care, including order entry and coding.

Nurse managers and NCOICs are responsible for the final approval of the enlisted duty schedule. This indicates that they have the authority and decision-making power to review and approve the schedule, ensuring that it is appropriate and meets the needs of the nursing staff. The base commander and base superintendent may have overall authority and oversight, but the responsibility for the final approval lies with the nurse managers and NCOICs specifically.

High blood pressure is an additional risk factor that contributes to diabetic neuropathy. Diabetic neuropathy is a condition that occurs when high blood sugar levels damage the nerves. High blood pressure can further damage the blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the nerves, worsening the nerve damage. Therefore, individuals with diabetes who also have high blood pressure are at an increased risk of developing diabetic neuropathy.

The sinoatrial node is the first node that generates an electrical impulse that travels through the right and left atrial muscles. This node is located in the right atrium of the heart and is often referred to as the "natural pacemaker" of the heart. It initiates the electrical signals that regulate the heart's rhythm and coordinates the contraction of the atria, allowing for efficient blood flow. The other options listed (atrioventricular, tricuspid, and mitral) are not responsible for generating the initial electrical impulse in the atrial muscles.

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Customer needs are assessed through customer evaluation. This involves gathering feedback and information directly from customers to understand their preferences, expectations, and requirements. By conducting surveys, interviews, or observing customer behavior, businesses can gain valuable insights into what their customers need and want. This information can then be used to improve products, services, and overall customer experience, ultimately leading to increased customer satisfaction and loyalty.

When assuming custodial responsibility, it is important to sign the custody receipt/locator listing only after the inventory has been performed and all corrective actions documented. This ensures that the equipment is properly accounted for and any discrepancies or issues are addressed before officially taking on the responsibility. Signing the receipt before conducting the inventory and corrective actions could lead to inaccurate records and potential problems in the future.