Pesticide Applicator License Exam Practice Quiz!

69 Questions | By Amysjoyce | Updated: May 4, 2023 | Attempts: 290017

Questions

Settings

Feedback

During the Quiz End of Quiz

Play as

Quiz Flashcard

Create your own Quiz

Pesticide Applicator License Exam Practice Quiz! - Quiz

Check out our well-researched Pesticide Applicator License exam practice quiz designed to test your knowledge! Pests are very well known to destroy crops; sometimes, they destroy the whole plantation. Following this problem, Pesticide Applicators have been in demand more than ever as crops and plant products are what we eat each year, every day. Do you want to be an adequately licensed pesticide applicator? Can you pass the exam? Take the following questions and answers to see how much you know and enhance your learning.

Questions and Answers

1.

Using barriers to prevent pests from getting into an area is an example of which type of pest management method?
- A.
  
  Biological control
- B.
  
  Mechanical control
- C.
  
  Chemical control
- D.
  
  Physical control
2.

Lowering the humidity of stored grains and other food products to reduce damage from a mold is an example of which type of pest management method?
- A.
  
  Biological
- B.
  
  Mechanical
- C.
  
  Physical/environmental modification
- D.
  
  None of the above
3.

Which statement is true about biological control methods?
- A.
  
  Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is a recommended practice in biological control
- B.
  
  Biological control involves the importation of exotic pests to control natural enemies
- C.
  
  If pesticides are part of a biological control program to control an exotic pest, it is better to apply them at the strongest label rate and to choose the more toxic pesticides
- D.
  
  None of the above
4.

Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of which type of mechanical control method?
- A.
  
  Exclusion
- B.
  
  Trapping
- C.
  
  Cultivation
- D.
  
  None of the above
5.

Which statement is true about cultural control practices?
- A.
  
  Trapping is an important cultural control practice
- B.
  
  Sanitation is not considered a cultural practice
- C.
  
  Cultural practices alter the environment, the condition of the host, or the behavior of the pest to prevent or suppress an infestation
- D.
  
  None of the above
6.

Which statement is true about regulatory pest control?
- A.
  
  Pests that pose a serious health threat are rarely regulated by federal and state agencies.
- B.
  
  Airports and ocean ports are monitored by pest quarantine regulatory agencies
- C.
  
  Entry of pests across state lines is not regulated
- D.
  
  All of the above
7.

Which statement is true about pest management strategies in IPM?
- A.
  
  The goal is often to maintain pest damage at economically acceptable levels
- B.
  
  Eradication is never the goal of an IPM program
- C.
  
  Pesticides are not included in an IPM strategy
- D.
  
  None of the above
8.

Which would be considered a preventive pest management strategy?
- A.
  
  Releasing natural enemies to help reduce pest populations
- B.
  
  Removing from an area a pest that is a public health concern
- C.
  
  Planting weed and disease free sod
- D.
  
  Both A and C
9.

Which statement is true about action thresholds?
- A.
  
  The IPM technician needs to implement control measures below the action threshold level
- B.
  
  The action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population density
- C.
  
  In an urban landscape, action thresholds are usually more related to econoimcs than aesthetics
- D.
  
  Both A and c
10.

Which federal agency is responsible for registering or licensing pesticide products for use in the United States?
- A.
  
  U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
- B.
  
  U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA)
- C.
  
  Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
- D.
  
  None of the above
11.

Which federal law governs the establishment of pesticide tolerances for food and feed products?
- A.
  
  Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)
- B.
  
  Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA)
- C.
  
  Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA)
- D.
  
  None of the above
12.

Which statement about FIFRA is false?
- A.
  
  State restrictions on pesticides can be more liberal than those of FIFRA
- B.
  
  Approved pesticide labels have the force of law
- C.
  
  The EPA has the authority to remove pesticide products from the market
- D.
  
  None of the above
13.

Experimental use permits required under Section 5 of FIFRA can be used when conducting experimental field tests on new pesticides or new uses of pesticides on:
- A.
  
  10 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water
- B.
  
  5 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water
- C.
  
  7 or more acres of land or 2 or more acres of water
- D.
  
  None of the above
14.

Which statement about the requirements of the FQPA is true?
- A.
  
  For setting new standards, the FQPA considers aggregate exposures to pesticides but not cumulative exposures
- B.
  
  The FQPA does not require review of older pesticides with established residue tolerances on food
- C.
  
  Testing of pesticides for endocrine disruption potential is require under the FQPA
- D.
  
  All of the above
15.

Both civil and criminal penalties can be assessed for FIFRA violations
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
16.

What is needed to apply a pesticide legally when a pest problem arises for which a food or feed commodity is not on the registered pesticide label or a tolerance has not yet been established?
- A.
  
  An emergency exemption
- B.
  
  Use a restricted use pesticide
- C.
  
  A minimum risk pesticide classification
- D.
  
  None of the above
17.

The active ingredient is Lorsban 75WG is listed as chlorpyrifos: 0,0-diethyl 0-(3,5,6-trichloro 2-pyridinyl) phosphorothioate. What does the term "chlorpyrifos" represent?
- A.
  
  The brand name
- B.
  
  The chemical name
- C.
  
  The common name
- D.
  
  None of the above
18.

Which statement about pesticide label names and ingredients is true?
- A.
  
  The active ingredients and the inert ingredients must be listed by chemical name.
- B.
  
  Various manufacturers use different trade names, even though the products contain the same active ingredient.
- C.
  
  The common names are those accepted officially by the manufacturer
- D.
  
  None of the above
19.

What is the purpose of the signal word?
- A.
  
  To give the user an indication of the relative acute toxicity of the product to humans and animals.
- B.
  
  Informs the user of what type of PPE to wear
- C.
  
  Informs the user of how toxic the pesticide is to wildlife and the environment
- D.
  
  None of the above
20.

The route of entry statement on a label "Extremely hazardous by skin contact - rapidly absorbed through the skin" would most likely appear with which signal word?
- A.
  
  Danger
- B.
  
  Warning
- C.
  
  Caution
- D.
  
  Prevention
21.

The statement "Do not breathe vapors or spray mist" is an example of:
- A.
  
  A specific action statement
- B.
  
  A statement of practical treatment
- C.
  
  A route of entry statement
- D.
  
  None of the above
22.

Which is true about statements of practical treatment?
- A.
  
  They are not associated with signal words
- B.
  
  All DANGER labels contain a note to physicians describing appropriate medical procedures
- C.
  
  Statements about inducing vomiting are not found on the label
- D.
  
  All of the above
23.

The names "Sevin 5G" on a pesticide label indicates:
- A.
  
  A granular pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients
- B.
  
  A granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients
- C.
  
  A gel pecticide with 5 percent inert ingredients
- D.
  
  None of the above
24.

Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid?
- A.
  
  Suspension
- B.
  
  Emulsion
- C.
  
  Solution
- D.
  
  Mixture
25.

Which liquid pesticide formulation consists of a small amount of active ingredient (often 1 percent or less per unit volume) dissolved in an organic solvent?
- A.
  
  Emulsifiable concentrate (EC)
- B.
  
  Ready to use low concentrate solutions (RTU)
- C.
  
  Ultra low volume (ULV)
- D.
  
  None of the above