Adobe Campaign Certification Preparation

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Daman Deep
D
Daman Deep
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 211
Questions: 44 | Attempts: 211

SettingsSettingsSettings
Adobe Campaign Certification Preparation - Quiz

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Select frequency type of scheduling, if we need to schedule the campaign on regular day basis?

    • A.

      Several time a day

    • B.

      Daily

    • C.

      Weekly

    • D.

      Monthly

    • E.

      Once

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "daily" because if we need to schedule the campaign on a regular day basis, the most appropriate frequency type would be daily. This means that the campaign will be scheduled to run every day, ensuring that it reaches the target audience consistently and maximizes its impact.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    Query and intersection activity have segment code tab ?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given answer is true because the question is asking whether the query and intersection activity have a segment code tab. Since the answer is true, it means that both the query and intersection activity do indeed have a segment code tab.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    We have 100 records, also have same records multiple times and need to remove duplicate records , activity need to be use?

    • A.

      Intersection

    • B.

      Union

    • C.

      Exclusion

    • D.

      Deduplication

    Correct Answer
    D. Deduplication
    Explanation
    Deduplication is the correct answer because it refers to the process of removing duplicate records from a dataset. In this scenario, where there are 100 records with multiple occurrences of the same records, deduplication would be the appropriate activity to use in order to eliminate the duplicates and retain only unique records.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    Campaign can execute the past the program end date?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that a campaign can continue to run even after its designated end date. This means that the campaign will still be active and running, even if the specified end date has passed.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    How are the campaigns and deliveries on the home page sorted?

    • A.

      Start Date

    • B.

      Label

    • C.

      Last Modified Date

    • D.

      Internal Name

    Correct Answer
    C. Last Modified Date
    Explanation
    The campaigns and deliveries on the home page are sorted based on their Last Modified Date. This means that the most recently modified campaigns and deliveries will appear first on the home page. The sorting is done in descending order, with the latest modifications displayed at the top. This allows users to easily identify and access the most recently updated campaigns and deliveries, providing them with the most up-to-date information and content.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    What is mandatory in campaign properties from the following?

    • A.

      Campaign manager

    • B.

      Internal name

    • C.

      Label

    • D.

      Program

    Correct Answer
    B. Internal name
    Explanation
    The internal name is mandatory in campaign properties because it serves as a unique identifier for the campaign. It is used internally within the system to differentiate and track different campaigns. Without an internal name, it would be difficult to manage and organize campaigns effectively. The campaign manager, label, and program are important aspects of campaign properties, but they may not be mandatory as they can vary depending on the specific requirements of the campaign.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    The campaign application architecture scales to accommodate larger volumes of e-mails because of what?

    • A.

      Queries returns the first 10k records the satisfy the filtering condition

    • B.

      Application tiers can be deployed across multiple servers

    • C.

      There are no hard limit on the database size

    • D.

      The campaign client console can be installed anywhere

    Correct Answer
    B. Application tiers can be deployed across multiple servers
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the campaign application architecture can scale to accommodate larger volumes of emails because application tiers can be deployed across multiple servers. This means that the workload can be distributed among multiple servers, allowing for increased processing power and capacity to handle a larger number of emails. By deploying the application across multiple servers, the system can effectively handle the increased load and ensure efficient email processing.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Licensing for campaign is around the number of user, not the number of client installations?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that licensing for a campaign is based on the number of users, rather than the number of client installations. This means that the cost or restrictions associated with the campaign's license are determined by the number of individuals using it, rather than the number of devices on which it is installed.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    What is default folder location for plans in the explorer view?

    • A.

      Marketing activity

    • B.

      Resource

    • C.

      Profile target

    • D.

      Campaign management

    Correct Answer
    D. Campaign management
    Explanation
    The default folder location for plans in the explorer view is "campaign management". This suggests that the explorer view is a feature or tool within a campaign management system or software that allows users to access and manage their campaign plans. This folder location is likely where users can find and organize their campaign plans for easy access and reference.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    What occurs when the client version is lower than the server version?

    • A.

      The client cannot connect to the server.

    • B.

      The user cannot login to the server.

    • C.

      The user is prompted to upgrade the client.

    • D.

       The client can login for a limited period of 30 days.

    Correct Answer
    C. The user is prompted to upgrade the client.
    Explanation
    When the client version is lower than the server version, the user is prompted to upgrade the client. This means that the user is notified and encouraged to update their client software to a newer version that is compatible with the server. This prompt serves as a reminder for the user to upgrade their client so that they can connect and interact with the server effectively.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    In a filter on a string, the search criteria ab2%cd matches which string? 

    • A.

       abcd

    • B.

      Ab%%cd

    • C.

      Ab0.2cd

    • D.

      Ab29cd

    Correct Answer
    D. Ab29cd
    Explanation
    The search criteria "ab2%cd" matches the string "ab29cd" because it contains the exact sequence of characters "ab2%cd".

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    A Practitioner creates an email campaign based on the new campaign (opEmpty) template. The email delivery first appears on the Campaign dashboard after the Practitioner completes which task?

    • A.

      Adds a Delivery activity to the campaign workflow

    • B.

      Selects a Delivery template and saves the Delivery activity

    • C.

      Saves the workflow after adding and editing a Delivery

    • D.

      Uploads and saves the Delivery content

    Correct Answer
    C. Saves the workflow after adding and editing a Delivery
    Explanation
    After the Practitioner adds and edits a Delivery activity to the campaign workflow, they need to save the workflow in order for the email delivery to appear on the Campaign dashboard. Saving the workflow ensures that all changes made to the campaign, including the addition and editing of the Delivery activity, are finalized and applied.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

     The Practitioner decides the manager and business owner must sign off on campaign content. How should the Practitioner do the campaign setup?

    • A.

      Edit the Reviewer and add multiple Operators

    • B.

      Define an Operator group to approve steps in the campaign

    • C.

      Use an Approval activity in the workflow configured for multiple approvers

    • D.

      Include the marketing manager and business owner in the Proof target

    Correct Answer
    C. Use an Approval activity in the workflow configured for multiple approvers
    Explanation
    The Practitioner should use an Approval activity in the workflow configured for multiple approvers. This allows the manager and business owner to sign off on the campaign content before it is finalized. By including an Approval activity with multiple approvers, the Practitioner ensures that all necessary stakeholders have reviewed and approved the campaign before it is implemented.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

     In which scenario can a business practitioner save time when using a campaign template?

    • A.

      When using same workflow logic

    • B.

      When using unique workflow logic

    • C.

      When contacting the same address

    • D.

      When sending the same email delivery

    Correct Answer
    A. When using same workflow logic
    Explanation
    A business practitioner can save time when using a campaign template by using the same workflow logic. This means that they can reuse the same steps and processes in their campaigns, eliminating the need to recreate them from scratch each time. By using the same workflow logic, they can quickly set up and launch new campaigns, saving valuable time and effort.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    A Practitioner enters the install URL in a browser window. What should occur next?

    • A.

      . The Practitioner is redirected to the download page.

    • B.

       The Adobe Campaign Client console opens.

    • C.

       A blank page is displayed.

    • D.

      The Practitioner is prompted to log in.

    Correct Answer
    D. The Practitioner is prompted to log in.
    Explanation
    After entering the install URL in a browser window, the expected next step is for the Practitioner to be prompted to log in. This is because the install URL is typically associated with a login page where the Practitioner can enter their credentials to access the Adobe Campaign Client console.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    A Business Practitioner creates a new customized one-time campaign and requires that a random 15% of the target population to receive different content than the main target population. How should the Business Practitioner implement this requirement?

    • A.

      Create 2 queries and an exclusion in a campaign workflow. The first query targets a random 15% of the of the user base with the new customized content. The second query targets the rest of the population with the old content.

    • B.

       Utilize a split activity to target a random 15% of the customer base with the old campaign and the rest with the new content.

    • C.

      Segment the customer list based on load date and select the top 15% for the new content.

    • D.

      Define a Seed list of a random 15% of recipients and target these recipients with the new content.

    Correct Answer
    B.  Utilize a split activity to target a random 15% of the customer base with the old campaign and the rest with the new content.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests using a split activity to divide the customer base into two groups - one group (random 15%) will receive the old campaign content, and the other group will receive the new content. This approach ensures that a random subset of the target population receives different content while the rest of the population receives the main content.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    At what point in the delivery process are seeds applied to the target list?

    • A.

      Before typology rules are applied

    • B.

       After typology rules are applied

    • C.

      Before exclusion filters are applied

    • D.

       Before customer opt-in/out scrubbing is done

    Correct Answer
    B.  After typology rules are applied
    Explanation
    Seeds are applied to the target list after typology rules are applied. Typology rules are used to segment the target list based on certain criteria or characteristics. Once the list has been segmented, seeds, which are a small portion of the target list with known characteristics, are applied to test the effectiveness of the segmentation and ensure that the desired audience is being reached. This helps in evaluating the accuracy and efficiency of the typology rules applied before proceeding with the actual delivery process.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Where must a file reside to be imported during a Data loading (file) activity?

    • A.

      On an FTP site or other file share

    • B.

      On the application server

    • C.

      On a web server

    • D.

      On the database server

    Correct Answer
    B. On the application server
    Explanation
    During a data loading activity, a file must reside on the application server in order to be imported. This is because the application server is responsible for handling the data loading process and accessing the file. Placing the file on the application server ensures that it is easily accessible and can be seamlessly imported into the system.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    A .csv file with recipients is imported using a data loading activity in a workflow. Some of the recipients have a comma in their names which is causing an error. The sender has sent a new file with string values started and ended in quotes, but the error persists. How can the error be resolved?

    • A.

      . It cannot be resolved using a csv format and data loading, the file format must be changed to a tab delimited file.

    • B.

       It cannot be resolved using the data loading activity, a custom js script should be used to load the file.

    • C.

      Upload a sample file to the data loading and click on 'Auto-Detect Format'.

    • D.

      Options in the data loading are manually changed to handle the comma

    Correct Answer
    D. Options in the data loading are manually changed to handle the comma
    Explanation
    The error can be resolved by manually changing the options in the data loading activity to handle the comma in the recipients' names. This means adjusting the settings or configuration of the data loading activity to properly handle and interpret the comma within the names, ensuring that it does not cause any errors during the import process.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    An input file source has 81 columns. The destination data schema has 80 columns. The extra field in the data source contains only blank values and will not be used in the campaign process. Which statement about this issue is true? 

    • A.

      The import will work with default settings and the extra column will be ignored by default.

    • B.

      The import will fail unless the extra column is explicitly ignored in the "file format" section.

    • C.

      The import process will work by creating a new column within the schema based on the data type of the extra field.

    • D.

      The import process will fail unless the new column is defined and declared in the Rejects file.

    Correct Answer
    B. The import will fail unless the extra column is explicitly ignored in the "file format" section.
    Explanation
    If the destination data schema has fewer columns than the input file source, the import process will fail unless the extra column is explicitly ignored in the "file format" section. This means that the import process needs to be configured to ignore the extra field in order for it to be successfully imported.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    What happens to a folder when the option “This folder is a view” is selected? 

    • A.

      The folder shows items that have been deleted in the folder.

    • B.

      The folder shows all items in the folders sub folders irrespective of item type.

    • C.

      The folder shows all the items of the folders type irrespective of which folder the item is in.

    • D.

      The folder shows all items of all the folders type irrespective of which folder the items are located in.

    Correct Answer
    C. The folder shows all the items of the folders type irrespective of which folder the item is in.
    Explanation
    When the option "This folder is a view" is selected, the folder will display all the items of the folder's type, regardless of which folder they are located in. This means that the folder will show all the items that match its own type, even if they are in different folders.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    All the following validation are available in approval (in delivery) except for what?

    • A.

       Enable Budget approval

    • B.

      Enable content approval

    • C.

      Enable campaign approval

    • D.

      Enable proof sending

    Correct Answer
    C. Enable campaign approval
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Enable campaign approval." In the context of approval in delivery, all the other options are valid forms of validation. Enabling budget approval allows for the validation of budgetary constraints, enabling content approval ensures that the content meets the necessary criteria, and enabling proof sending allows for the verification of the final product before delivery. However, enabling campaign approval is not a form of validation typically associated with the delivery process.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    How often do tracking status updates occur by default?

    • A.

      Every Minute

    • B.

      Every Hour

    • C.

      Daily

    • D.

      Every 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. Every Hour
    Explanation
    Tracking status updates occur by default every hour. This means that the system automatically updates the tracking status of a particular item or shipment once every hour. This frequency allows for regular and timely updates on the location and status of the tracked item without overwhelming the system with constant updates.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    You are setting a campaign for an upcoming event. The business team you are working with need to proofread the contents of the delivery before it is sent out the audience. How would you ensure that the business team receives proofs?

    • A.

      Create your own test profile, send a proof test message to yourself and forward the message to the business team

    • B.

      Create a proof test profile for each business  team member and send an email rendering test message.

    • C.

      Create a proof test profile for each business team member and send a proof test message.

    • D.

      Create an email rendering test profile for each business team member and send a proof test message.

    Correct Answer
    D. Create an email rendering test profile for each business team member and send a proof test message.
    Explanation
    To ensure that the business team receives proofs, the best approach would be to create an email rendering test profile for each team member and send a proof test message. This allows each member to review the content and ensure its accuracy before it is sent out to the audience. By creating individual profiles, it ensures that each team member can access the proof easily and provide feedback or make any necessary changes. Additionally, using an email rendering test profile ensures that the content is displayed correctly in the email format, which is crucial for an effective campaign.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    What happens when a delivery is sent out without a subject line?

    • A.

      The delivery label is used as subject line

    • B.

      The delivery fails to save.

    • C.

      The delivery preparation fails.

    • D.

      The delivery is sent out without subjectline

    Correct Answer
    C. The delivery preparation fails.
    Explanation
    When a delivery is sent out without a subject line, the delivery preparation fails. This means that the necessary steps or processes to prepare the delivery for sending are not completed successfully. It is important to have a subject line for a delivery as it helps to provide a brief overview or context for the recipient about the content of the delivery. Without a subject line, the delivery may not be properly organized or categorized, leading to potential confusion or lack of attention from the recipient.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    Following campaign standard default control rules, what should always be  included in the body content of the email delivery

    • A.

      Preaheader

    • B.

      Images

    • C.

      Subject Line

    • D.

      Unsubscription link

    Correct Answer
    D. Unsubscription link
    Explanation
    The unsubscription link should always be included in the body content of the email delivery as per campaign standard default control rules. This link allows recipients to easily unsubscribe from future emails if they no longer wish to receive them. Including the unsubscription link promotes transparency and compliance with email marketing regulations, as it gives recipients the option to opt out of further communication.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    What is the cause of the delivery  failure message  ‘the recipient no longer wants to be contacted’

    • A.

      The address is not specified

    • B.

      The address is blacklisted

    • C.

      The address is not defined

    • D.

      The address is expired

    Correct Answer
    B. The address is blacklisted
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the address is blacklisted. This means that the recipient's email address has been added to a blacklist, typically by the recipient themselves or by their email provider. Being blacklisted indicates that the recipient has explicitly requested to no longer receive any communication or contact. As a result, any attempt to deliver a message to this blacklisted address will result in a delivery failure message stating that the recipient no longer wants to be contacted.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    What is the cause of the delivery failure message ‘User Unknown’

    • A.

      The address doesnot exist

    • B.

      The address is blacklisted at time of sending

    • C.

      The address is Quarantined

    • D.

      The address is expired

    Correct Answer
    A. The address doesnot exist
    Explanation
    The cause of the delivery failure message "User Unknown" is that the address does not exist. This means that the email address that was used does not belong to a valid recipient or does not exist in the system.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    A user is assigned to the administrator group (which has full access) and a developer access (which has restricted access). What is the result?

    • A.

      Based on administrator access, the user does NOT have any limitations

    • B.

      The user is unable to perform any tasks in the instance until the contradiction is fixed

    • C.

      An error is produced because this is NOT a compatible configuration

    • D.

      The user is limited to the rights granted to the Developer group

    Correct Answer
    A. Based on administrator access, the user does NOT have any limitations
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that when a user is assigned to both the administrator group and the developer access group, the administrator access takes precedence and the user does not have any limitations. This means that the user will have full access and privileges, as granted by the administrator group, without any restrictions imposed by the developer access group.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    A workflow supervisors group is assigned to a workflow. In which instance is the workflow supervisors group notified?

    • A.

      When a workflow deploys

    • B.

      When a workflow has thrown an error

    • C.

      When a workflow is taking a long time to run

    • D.

      When a delivery has changed

    Correct Answer
    B. When a workflow has thrown an error
    Explanation
    The workflow supervisors group is notified when a workflow has thrown an error. This notification allows the supervisors to be aware of any issues or problems that may have occurred during the workflow execution. It enables them to take appropriate actions to resolve the error and ensure the smooth functioning of the workflow process.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    What three file formats are available when exporting data via a data extraction from adobe campaign?

    • A.

      PDF

    • B.

      CSV

    • C.

      XLS

    • D.

      XML

    • E.

      DOC

    • F.

      TXT

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. CSV
    D. XML
    F. TXT
    Explanation
    When exporting data via a data extraction from Adobe Campaign, three file formats available are CSV, XML, and TXT. These formats allow for easy manipulation and analysis of the exported data. CSV (Comma Separated Values) is a commonly used format that stores tabular data, while XML (eXtensible Markup Language) is a flexible format that can represent structured data. TXT (Text) format is a simple format that stores plain text data. These file formats provide options for different use cases and compatibility with various software applications.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    A business practitioner is testing two lists to determine which one responds best to a new email subject line. What email metric should be used to determine the best list?

    • A.

      The list’s open rate for the email

    • B.

      The list’s delivery rate for the email

    • C.

      The list’s unsubscribe rate for the email

    • D.

      The list’s forward rate for the email

    Correct Answer
    A. The list’s open rate for the email
    Explanation
    The open rate for the email should be used to determine the best list. The open rate measures the percentage of recipients who actually open the email. This metric is important because it indicates the level of engagement and interest from the recipients. A higher open rate suggests that the subject line is effective in capturing the attention of the audience and encourages them to open the email. Therefore, by comparing the open rates of the two lists, the business practitioner can determine which list responds better to the new email subject line.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Which best practice should a user take to move an improperly placed campaign into the correct program folder?

    • A.

      Rename the improper program location to the appropriate program

    • B.

      Recreate the campaign in correct program

    • C.

      Select the correct program dropdown in the campaign edit tab

    • D.

      Click and drag the campaign into the appropriate program

    Correct Answer
    D. Click and drag the campaign into the appropriate program
    Explanation
    To move an improperly placed campaign into the correct program folder, the user should click and drag the campaign into the appropriate program. This action allows the user to physically move the campaign from one folder to another, ensuring it is placed in the correct program. Renaming the improper program location, recreating the campaign, or selecting the correct program dropdown in the campaign edit tab are not mentioned as the best practices for moving the campaign.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    Which activity requires primary set?

    • A.

      Union

    • B.

      Intersection

    • C.

      Exclusion

    • D.

      Fork

    Correct Answer
    C. Exclusion
    Explanation
    The activity that requires a primary set is Exclusion. In set theory, exclusion refers to finding the elements that are present in one set but not in another. To perform this operation, a primary set is needed as the reference set from which the elements will be excluded. The primary set determines the elements that will be excluded from the other set.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    There are 4 queries A ,B, C, D. Result should contain data from both A and B. D should also be included. Data from C should be excluded form targeting?  How to implement in workflow?

    • A.

      Intersect A&B Then union D and exclude C

    • B.

      Union A&B&D and exclude C

    • C.

      Union A&B then intersect D and exclude C

    • D.

      Intersect A&B&C and exclude C

    Correct Answer
    B. Union A&B&D and exclude C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Union A&B&D and exclude C". This answer suggests combining the data from queries A, B, and D using the union operation, which will include all the records from these queries. Then, the exclude operation is applied to remove any data from query C, ensuring that it is not included in the final result. This implementation in the workflow ensures that the result contains data from both A and B, includes D, and excludes C.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    What is true about 'DO NOT ENABLE' activity option in workflow?

    • A.

      The workflow goes to finished state upon reaching the activity

    • B.

      The worktable is not purged

    • C.

      The worktable is purged

    • D.

      The workflow goes to paused state upon reaching the activity 

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The workflow goes to finished state upon reaching the activity
    C. The worktable is purged
    Explanation
    The 'DO NOT ENABLE' activity option in the workflow means that the workflow will go to the finished state upon reaching the activity. This indicates that the activity does not require any further actions and the workflow can be considered complete. Additionally, the worktable is purged, meaning that any data or records associated with the workflow activity are removed from the system.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    How to trigger another workflow that contains external signal.? Choose correct syntax

    • A.

      Workflow.PostEvent("WkF_name", "signal", "", <variables varName= {vars.listName} />, false)

    • B.

      Xtk.workflow.PostEvent("WkF_name", "signal", "", <variables varName= {vars.listName} />, false)

    • C.

      Xtkworkflow.PostEvent("WkF_name", "signal", "", <variables varName= {vars.listName} />, false)

    • D.

      Xtk.workflow.PostEvent("WkF_name", "signal", "", false)

    Correct Answer
    B. Xtk.workflow.PostEvent("WkF_name", "signal", "", <variables varName= {vars.listName} />, false)
    Explanation
    The correct syntax to trigger another workflow that contains an external signal is xtk.workflow.PostEvent("WkF_name", "signal", "", , false). This syntax uses the xtk.workflow.PostEvent function to post an event with the specified workflow name, signal, empty payload, variables, and false for the wait parameter.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    What do you test in delivery preview? Choose 3

    • A.

      Personalization

    • B.

      Spam Results

    • C.

      Mirror page

    • D.

      Opt-out link

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Personalization
    B. Spam Results
    D. Opt-out link
    Explanation
    In the delivery preview, you test three specific elements: personalization, spam results, and the opt-out link. Personalization ensures that the content is personalized correctly for each recipient. Spam results help identify any potential issues that might cause the email to be flagged as spam. The opt-out link is tested to ensure that it is working properly, allowing recipients to easily unsubscribe from future communications. The mirror page, however, is not mentioned as one of the elements to be tested in the delivery preview.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    What is default cardinality of a link in schema?

    • A.

      1:1

    • B.

      1:N

    • C.

      N:N

    • D.

      N:1

    Correct Answer
    B. 1:N
    Explanation
    The default cardinality of a link in a schema is 1:N. This means that for every one instance of an entity on one side of the link, there can be multiple instances of the related entity on the other side of the link.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    What could we do to improve the integrity of the following API function?

    • A.

      Return a DOMElement instead of a string

    • B.

      Include a try – catch statement to catch errors

    • C.

      Use the queryDef API instead of the load() and save() methods

    • D.

       Include a conditional If statement to catch errors

    Correct Answer
    C. Use the queryDef API instead of the load() and save() methods
    Explanation
    By using the queryDef API instead of the load() and save() methods, we can improve the integrity of the API function. This is because the queryDef API provides a more secure and reliable way to handle data, ensuring that any errors or issues are properly handled and managed. Using the queryDef API can help prevent potential vulnerabilities and improve the overall integrity of the API function.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    Which statement best applies to the following schema?

    • A.

       A 1:N relationship to the cus:recipient schema is declared

    • B.

      A 1:N relationship to the cus:company schema is declared

    • C.

       A 1:1 relationship to the cus:recipient schema is declared

    • D.

       A 1:1 relationship to the cus:company schema is declared

    Correct Answer
    C.  A 1:1 relationship to the cus:recipient schema is declared
    Explanation
    The given schema has a 1:1 relationship with the cus:recipient schema. This means that for each record in the given schema, there is only one corresponding record in the cus:recipient schema.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    A website outside of Adobe Campaign needs to display the address of the recipient that is stored on Adobe Campaign. The customer wants to use SOAP webservices. How would you implement that?

    • A.

      Create a database link from the customer’s database to the Adobe Campaign database.

    • B.

      Create a webapp and add a database field mapped to the address.

    • C.

      Add a custom method to the schema and get the address using a queryDef.

    • D.

      Create a JSP andaccess the sAddress field using a SQL query.

    Correct Answer
    C. Add a custom method to the schema and get the address using a queryDef.
    Explanation
    To implement the requirement of displaying the recipient's address from Adobe Campaign on a website outside of Adobe Campaign using SOAP webservices, the most suitable approach would be to add a custom method to the schema and retrieve the address using a queryDef. This allows for customization and flexibility in fetching the required data from the Adobe Campaign database and integrating it with the external website.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    How would you setup a container in a form in order to make it visible for operators with the named right Managementgroup2?

    • A.

      <container xpath=”HasNamedRight” label=”Managementgroup2” visible=”true” …>

    • B.

       <container type=”visible”…><condition expr=”@namedRight = = ‘Managementgroup2’”/>…</container>

    • C.

      <container visibleIf=”HasNamedRight(‘Managementgroup2’)” …>…</container>

    • D.

      <container enableIf=”expr=’[@namedRight]= = Managementgroup2”’ …>…</container>

    Correct Answer
    D. <container enableIf=”expr=’[@namedRight]= = Managementgroup2”’ …>…</container>
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the third option: `...`. This option uses the `enableIf` attribute to conditionally enable the container based on the expression `[@namedRight]==Managementgroup2`, which checks if the named right is equal to "Managementgroup2". This ensures that the container will only be visible for operators with the named right "Managementgroup2".

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    How is the tracking element is included in schema to capture created and modified dates?

    • A.

      <element aggregate="xtk:common:auditTrail" name="auditTrail"/>

    • B.

      <element aggregate="xtk:common:auditTrail" name="audittrail"/>

    • C.

      <element aggregate="auditTrail" name="auditTrail"/>

    • D.

      <element aggregate="auditTrail" name="auditTrail"/>

    Correct Answer
    A. <element aggregate="xtk:common:auditTrail" name="auditTrail"/>
    Explanation
    The correct answer is <element aggregate="xtk:common:auditTrail" name="auditTrail"/> because it includes the correct aggregate and name attributes to capture the created and modified dates in the schema. The "xtk:common:auditTrail" aggregate refers to the common audit trail element, which is specifically designed to track changes and modifications in the data. The "auditTrail" name attribute specifies the name of the element that will capture the created and modified dates.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 05, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Daman Deep
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.