Ppsc Post Certification Exam

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 996
Questions: 24 | Attempts: 996

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Certification Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which is the correct order of the 6-phase dynamic warm up sequence from beginning to end of a pre-training routine?

    • A.

      Stretching, SMR, Corrective Exercise, Activation, CNS Prep, Foundational Movement

    • B.

      SMR, Stretching, Corrective Exercise, Activation, Foundational Movement, CNS Prep

    • C.

      CNS Prep, Corrective Exercise, Activation, Stretching, Foundational Movement, SMR

    • D.

      Corrective Exercise, CNS Prep, Activation, Stretching, SMR, Foundational Movement

    Correct Answer
    B. SMR, Stretching, Corrective Exercise, Activation, Foundational Movement, CNS Prep
    Explanation
    The correct order of the 6-phase dynamic warm-up sequence from beginning to end of a pre-training routine is SMR, Stretching, Corrective Exercise, Activation, Foundational Movement, CNS Prep. This order ensures that the muscles are properly prepared for the training session. Self-myofascial release (SMR) helps to release tension and improve mobility, followed by stretching to further increase flexibility. Corrective exercises address any imbalances or weaknesses in the body, while activation exercises activate specific muscles for the upcoming workout. Foundational movements focus on fundamental movement patterns, and CNS prep prepares the central nervous system for the training session.

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  • 2. 

    What is the global goal of the dynamic warm up?

    • A.

      Prepare the body for optimal performance

    • B.

      Reduce risk of training related injuries

    • C.

      Improve weak and/or painful movements

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The global goal of the dynamic warm-up is to achieve all of the mentioned objectives, which include preparing the body for optimal performance, reducing the risk of training-related injuries, and improving weak and/or painful movements. By engaging in a dynamic warm-up routine, individuals can enhance their overall performance, prevent injuries, and address any areas of weakness or pain, making it an effective and comprehensive approach to preparing the body for physical activity.

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  • 3. 

    This soft tissue foam rolling technique involves small micro movements of 1-2 inches of the foam roller moving under the body in order to reduce neurological tone in the tissues.

    • A.

      The neurological trigger point technique

    • B.

      The global foam rolling technique

    • C.

      The oscillatory technique

    • D.

      None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    C. The oscillatory technique
    Explanation
    The oscillatory technique involves small micro movements of 1-2 inches of the foam roller moving under the body. This technique is used to reduce neurological tone in the tissues. It is different from the other options mentioned as it specifically focuses on the oscillatory movements to achieve the desired effect.

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  • 4. 

    True or False: Common areas to address with foam rolling and soft tissue work should be prioritized around posturally shortened anterior chain primary moving musculature

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The correct answer is true. Foam rolling and soft tissue work should prioritize common areas that are posturally shortened in the anterior chain primary moving musculature. This means focusing on areas such as the hip flexors, quadriceps, and chest muscles, which tend to become tight and shortened due to prolonged sitting and poor posture. By targeting these areas with foam rolling and soft tissue work, it can help improve flexibility, release tension, and alleviate any discomfort or imbalances caused by muscle tightness.

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  • 5. 

    The pillar complex consists of the following regions

    • A.

      The hips

    • B.

      The core

    • C.

      The shoulders

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because the given statement mentions that the pillar complex consists of the regions of the hips, core, and shoulders. Therefore, all three of these regions are included in the pillar complex.

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  • 6. 

    This stretching protocol involves a dynamic oscillation moving towards end ranges of available range, followed by an active end range hold.

    • A.

      Bi-phasic stretching

    • B.

      Reciprocal inhibition

    • C.

      Passive static stretching

    • D.

      Loaded stretching

    Correct Answer
    A. Bi-phasic stretching
    Explanation
    Bi-phasic stretching involves a dynamic oscillation moving towards end ranges of available range, followed by an active end range hold. This stretching protocol helps to increase flexibility and improve range of motion by first dynamically stretching the muscles and then holding the end range position actively. It combines the benefits of both dynamic stretching and static stretching, making it an effective technique for improving flexibility and preparing the muscles for physical activity.

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  • 7. 

    The #1 stretching mistake that is made that jeopardizes postural integrity

    • A.

      Achieving a stretch stimulus via positional mastery

    • B.

      Achieving a stretch stimulus via pillar control

    • C.

      Achieving a stretch stimulus via co-contractions around shoulders and hips

    • D.

      Achieving a stretch stimulus via compensation patterns 

    Correct Answer
    A. Achieving a stretch stimulus via positional mastery
  • 8. 

    Successful corrective exercise results can be quantified with the following

    • A.

      Stability

    • B.

      Sequencing

    • C.

      Smoothness

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Successful corrective exercise results can be quantified with stability, sequencing, and smoothness. Stability refers to the ability to maintain control and balance during movement. Sequencing is the proper order and timing of muscle activation during movement. Smoothness refers to the fluidity and efficiency of movement. All of these factors are important in assessing the effectiveness of corrective exercises and determining if the desired outcomes have been achieved.

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  • 9. 

    The most effective programming strategy for corrective exercises to improve motor learning and new motor skill acquisition

    • A.

      Block based practice

    • B.

      Strategic set and rep schemes

    • C.

      Addition of external loading

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Block based practice
    Explanation
    Block based practice is the most effective programming strategy for corrective exercises to improve motor learning and new motor skill acquisition. This strategy involves practicing a specific skill or exercise repeatedly in a blocked or concentrated manner, rather than mixing it with other skills or exercises. This allows for focused and targeted practice, which can enhance motor learning and skill acquisition. By practicing a skill or exercise in a blocked manner, individuals can develop better coordination, precision, and muscle memory, leading to improved motor performance.

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  • 10. 

    The motor control gap can be defined as

    • A.

      Active range of motion – passive range of motion

    • B.

      Passive range of motion – active range of motion

    • C.

      Active assisted range of motion – active range of motion

    • D.

      Passive range of motion – active assisted range of motion 

    Correct Answer
    B. Passive range of motion – active range of motion
    Explanation
    The motor control gap refers to the difference between the passive range of motion (the movement that can be achieved with external force) and the active range of motion (the movement that can be achieved by the individual's own muscle contraction). In other words, it represents the deficit in the ability of an individual to actively move a joint compared to the joint's full range of motion.

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  • 11. 

    The goal of this phase of the dynamic warm up sequence is to enhance proximal stability and control to yield maximal internal tension and force production for distal dynamic movement

    • A.

      Phase 6 – CNS Stimulation

    • B.

      Phase 5 – Foundational Movement Pattern Prep

    • C.

      Phase 4 - Activation

    • D.

      Phase 2 – Bi-Phasic Stretching

    Correct Answer
    C. Phase 4 - Activation
    Explanation
    Phase 4 - Activation is the correct answer because it refers to the phase of the dynamic warm-up sequence that focuses on activating and engaging specific muscles to enhance stability and control. This phase helps to stimulate the central nervous system and prepare the body for more dynamic movements by creating internal tension and force production. By activating the muscles, it allows for better coordination and control during distal dynamic movements.

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  • 12. 

    What specific characteristic(s) differentiate the foundational squat, hinge, lunge, push, pull and carry movement patterns from fundamental human movements such as rotation?

    • A.

      Long term skill development

    • B.

      Long term strength development

    • C.

      Normalized developmental sequencing

    • D.

      All of the above 

    Correct Answer
    B. Long term strength development
    Explanation
    The foundational squat, hinge, lunge, push, pull, and carry movement patterns are specifically focused on developing strength over the long term. These movements target different muscle groups and promote overall strength development in the body. On the other hand, fundamental human movements such as rotation involve a different set of muscles and are not necessarily focused on long term strength development. Therefore, the specific characteristic that differentiates these movement patterns from rotation is their emphasis on long term strength development.

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  • 13. 

    Central nervous system stimulation and the post activation potentiation phenomenon can be achieved through these two major mechanisms

    • A.

      Mechanical tension via maximal loading

    • B.

      Neurological efficiency via maximal velocity

    • C.

      Both A and B

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Both mechanical tension via maximal loading and neurological efficiency via maximal velocity can stimulate the central nervous system and induce the post activation potentiation phenomenon. Mechanical tension is achieved by lifting heavy weights, which stimulates the muscles and nerves, leading to increased neural drive. Neurological efficiency is achieved by performing explosive movements at maximal velocity, which enhances the communication between the muscles and nerves, resulting in improved performance. Therefore, both mechanisms contribute to central nervous system stimulation and post activation potentiation.

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  • 14. 

    The 6-phase dynamic warm up should take how long to complete no matter the athlete/client presentation?

    • A.

      3-5 minutes

    • B.

      10-16 minutes

    • C.

      17-22 minutes

    • D.

      30-45 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. 10-16 minutes
    Explanation
    The 6-phase dynamic warm-up should take 10-16 minutes to complete regardless of the athlete/client presentation. This duration allows for sufficient time to properly warm up the body, activate the muscles, increase blood flow, and improve mobility and flexibility. It ensures that the athlete/client is adequately prepared for the upcoming workout or activity, reducing the risk of injury and enhancing performance. A shorter warm-up may not adequately prepare the body, while a longer warm-up may lead to fatigue and decrease the effectiveness of the workout.

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  • 15. 

    This specific focused block of the 6-phase dynamic warm up sequence has a mobility emphasis and is more classically used with a more chronically painful or dysfunctional athlete/client

    • A.

      Parasympathetic block

    • B.

      Corrective block

    • C.

      Stimulation block

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Parasympathetic block
    Explanation
    The correct answer is parasympathetic block. This specific focused block of the warm-up sequence is designed to promote relaxation and reduce stress on the body. It is commonly used with athletes or clients who have chronic pain or dysfunction. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for rest and relaxation, so this block aims to activate that system and create a calming effect on the body.

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  • 16. 

    The two key mechanical criteria in which effective and efficient movement screens are based off of in a split second yes or no decision

    • A.

      Neutral spinal position

    • B.

      No unwanted or asymmetrical rotation at any aspect of the body

    • C.

      Presence of pain

    • D.

      A and b

    Correct Answer
    D. A and b
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a and b. Effective and efficient movement screens are based on two key mechanical criteria: neutral spinal position and no unwanted or asymmetrical rotation at any aspect of the body. These criteria ensure proper alignment and balanced movement, which are essential for optimal performance and injury prevention. The presence of pain is also an important factor to consider during movement screening, as it can indicate potential issues or limitations in the body. Therefore, both a and b are important considerations for effective and efficient movement screens.

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  • 17. 

    A client presenting with soft tissue dorsiflexion range of motion deficits at the ankle will respond most favorably to which type of active movement modality

    • A.

      Foam rolling of the lower leg

    • B.

      Self-mobilization of talo-crural joint

    • C.

      Banded ankle distraction

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Foam rolling of the lower leg
    Explanation
    Foam rolling of the lower leg would be the most favorable active movement modality for a client with soft tissue dorsiflexion range of motion deficits at the ankle. Foam rolling can help to release tension in the muscles and fascia of the lower leg, which may be restricting dorsiflexion. By using the foam roller to apply pressure and massage the muscles, the client can improve blood flow, break up adhesions, and increase flexibility, ultimately improving their dorsiflexion range of motion. Self-mobilization of the talo-crural joint and banded ankle distraction may also be beneficial for ankle mobility, but foam rolling specifically targets the soft tissues of the lower leg.

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  • 18. 

    The most foundational hip hinge pattern consists of

    • A.

      The bottom up hinge AKA barbell deadlift

    • B.

      The top down hinge AKA the RDL

    • C.

      The trap bar deadlift

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. The top down hinge AKA the RDL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". The question is asking about the most foundational hip hinge patterns, and all three options mentioned (bottom up hinge AKA barbell deadlift, top down hinge AKA the RDL, and the trap bar deadlift) are examples of hip hinge exercises. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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  • 19. 

    The three specific levels of the “lunge” foundational movement pattern consist of

    • A.

      The split squat

    • B.

      The lunge

    • C.

      True single leg training

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because the three specific levels of the "lunge" foundational movement pattern include the split squat, the lunge, and true single leg training. Each level builds upon the previous one, starting with the split squat where one foot is positioned forward and the other backward, then progressing to the lunge where the movement is more dynamic, and finally to true single leg training where each leg is worked independently. Therefore, all three options mentioned in the answer are correct.

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  • 20. 

     Balance assessments with visual field manipulation are completed in the following positions to differentiate hip instability from ankle instability deficits

    • A.

      Half kneeling

    • B.

      Tall kneeling

    • C.

      Single leg standing

    • D.

      A and c

    Correct Answer
    D. A and c
    Explanation
    Balance assessments with visual field manipulation are completed in the half kneeling and single leg standing positions to differentiate hip instability from ankle instability deficits. These positions challenge the individual's balance and proprioception, allowing the examiner to observe any compensatory movements or instability that may be indicative of a specific joint deficit. The tall kneeling position is not typically used for this purpose, as it primarily assesses core stability and hip mobility. Therefore, options "a and c" are the correct choices for performing balance assessments to differentiate hip instability from ankle instability deficits.

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  • 21. 

    The first “lunge” (aka single leg) pattern variation introduced to athletes or clients that involves two fixed points of contact is the 

    • A.

      Reverse lunge

    • B.

      Split squat

    • C.

      Pistol squat

    • D.

      Single leg RDL

    Correct Answer
    B. Split squat
    Explanation
    The split squat is the first lunge variation that introduces two fixed points of contact to athletes or clients. In a split squat, one foot remains stationary while the other foot steps forward or backward, creating a stable base. This exercise helps improve balance, stability, and strength in the lower body, particularly the quadriceps, hamstrings, and glutes. By having two fixed points of contact, the split squat allows individuals to focus on proper form and technique while minimizing the risk of injury.

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  • 22. 

    The most mobile ball and socket joint in the human body is the

    • A.

      Gleno-humeral joint

    • B.

      Scapulo-thoracic joint

    • C.

      Acromio-clavicular joint

    • D.

      Sterno-costal joint

    Correct Answer
    A. Gleno-humeral joint
    Explanation
    The gleno-humeral joint is the most mobile ball and socket joint in the human body. This joint is formed between the head of the humerus bone and the glenoid cavity of the scapula. It allows for a wide range of motion in the shoulder, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, internal and external rotation. The scapulo-thoracic joint is not a true joint but rather a movement between the scapula and the thorax. The acromio-clavicular joint is a plane joint that allows for limited movement between the acromion process of the scapula and the clavicle. The sterno-costal joint is a cartilaginous joint between the sternum and the ribs, allowing for limited movement during breathing.

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  • 23. 

    An example exercise of the most foundational pushing pattern is the

    • A.

      Push-up

    • B.

      Barbell bench press

    • C.

      Dumbbell bench press

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Push-up
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "push-up" because it is mentioned in the question as an example exercise of the most foundational pushing pattern. The other options, barbell bench press and dumbbell bench press, are not explicitly mentioned in the question as examples of the foundational pushing pattern. Therefore, the correct answer is push-up.

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  • 24. 

    Which one do you like?

    • A.

      Option 1

    • B.

      Option 2

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer cannot be determined as there is no context or criteria provided to determine the preference for the options.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 14, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Clif
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