Certified Information Privacy Manager (C.I.P.M.) Exam Prep Test

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1. The information life cycle recognizes that data has different value, and requires approaches, as it moves through an organization from collection to deletion. The stages are generally considered to be:

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About This Quiz
Security Certifications Quizzes & Trivia

Prepare for the Certified Information Privacy Manager (C. I. P. M. ) exam with this targeted test. Assess your understanding of data protection laws like GDPR, techniques like anonymization, and accountability measures. Essential for professionals enhancing their privacy management skills.

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

You may optionally provide this to label your report, leaderboard, or certificate.

2. Opting-in means an individual makes an active, affirmative indication of choice—for example, by checking a box to signal her desire to share her information with third parties. This choice should be clear and easy to execute. true or false?

Explanation

Opting-in refers to the act of actively and affirmatively indicating a choice, such as checking a box, to express the desire to share personal information with third parties. The statement correctly states that this choice should be clear and easy to execute. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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3. True or false? All incidents are breaches, but not all breaches are incidents.

Explanation

This statement is incorrect. The correct statement would be "All breaches are incidents, but not all incidents are breaches." This means that every breach is an incident, but there are incidents that may not necessarily be breaches.

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4. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Controls can also be divided into several categories based on the control objective. Select all the elements which are technical controls.

Explanation

Technical controls are measures that are implemented through technology to protect information and systems. Logins, virus software, and firewalls are all examples of technical controls. Logins provide authentication and access control to ensure that only authorized users can access data. Virus software detects and removes malicious software that can harm systems and data. Firewalls monitor and control network traffic to prevent unauthorized access and protect against network-based attacks. These controls are specifically designed to address technical vulnerabilities and protect against unauthorized access and attacks on information systems.

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5. True or false? When communicating about a breach, an organization should make internal announcements well in advance of external announcements.

Explanation

When communicating about a breach, an organization should not make internal announcements well in advance of external announcements. This is because it can lead to confusion and speculation among employees, potentially causing panic or misinformation to spread. It is generally recommended to coordinate internal and external announcements to ensure consistent messaging and to minimize the impact on affected parties.

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6. Can you identify the five phases of a privacy program audit?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Audit planning, audit preparation, audit, report and follow-up." This sequence outlines the five phases of a privacy program audit. First, the audit planning phase involves determining the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit. Then, in the audit preparation phase, the necessary resources and documentation are gathered. The audit phase itself involves conducting the actual audit, which includes data collection, interviews, and analysis. Following the audit, a report is generated to summarize the findings and recommendations. Finally, the follow-up phase involves implementing the recommended actions and monitoring their effectiveness.

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7. Which best describes the disadvantages of a centralized privacy governance model?

Explanation

The disadvantages of a centralized privacy governance model include the fact that individual employees cannot make decisions. In this model, decision-making power is concentrated at the top levels of the organization, limiting the autonomy and authority of individual employees. This can lead to delays in decision-making, lack of flexibility, and decreased employee morale. It also hinders innovation and creativity, as ideas and suggestions from lower-level employees may not be taken into account. Overall, this lack of decision-making authority for individual employees can be a significant drawback of a centralized privacy governance model.

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8. Why does an organization need a privacy program? Identify the number 3 privacy team responsibility.

Explanation

An organization needs a privacy program to safeguard data against attacks and threats. This responsibility is crucial in protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access, ensuring the security and integrity of data. By implementing measures to prevent data breaches and cyberattacks, the organization can maintain the trust of its customers and stakeholders, avoid potential legal and financial consequences, and protect its reputation in the marketplace.

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9. In the U.S., many industries have sector-specific privacy-related laws or concerns with implications for consumers. Match each privacy concern with the sector to which it applies.

Explanation

While the intention of this exercise is to highlight specific relevant privacy issues for certain sectors, correct answers may be subjective.

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10. A privacy policy is generally an internal document that is addressed to employees. Policies clearly state how personal information is going to be handled. When launching communications related to the privacy program, which of the following considerations should be made:

Explanation

The suggested answer provides a comprehensive list of considerations that should be made when launching communications related to the privacy program. It emphasizes the importance of determining the goals of the policy, whether it is to spread knowledge or change behavior. It also highlights the need to collaborate with the communications team and utilize existing communication modes like a company intranet. Identifying the functional areas that align with the privacy program, motivating employees, and using metrics to demonstrate the value of privacy are also crucial aspects to consider. Lastly, understanding the audience is essential for effective communication.

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11. How do information security and privacy teams work in concert, so that their respective spends can complement each other? Check all that apply.

Explanation

Information security and privacy teams can work together by increasing the involvement of privacy personnel on information security teams. This ensures that privacy concerns are considered during the development and implementation of security measures. Additionally, employing core privacy functions with an IT orientation helps to better understand the data and corporate risks involved. Increased investment in privacy technology allows for more effective protection of sensitive information. The use of privacy impact assessments and data inventory and classification helps to identify and manage privacy risks. Lastly, implementing data retention policies ensures that data is stored and disposed of appropriately, protecting privacy.

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12. Control types and categories. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Match the control type with the categories:

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13. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Controls can also be divided into several categories based on the control objective. Select all the elements which are corrective controls.

Explanation

Corrective controls are measures taken to correct or mitigate the impact of a security incident or breach. In this case, business continuity plans, back-up data restoration, and updated policies are all examples of corrective controls. Business continuity plans help organizations recover from disruptions and continue operations, while back-up data restoration ensures that data can be restored in the event of a loss. Updated policies help address vulnerabilities and prevent future incidents.

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14. Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A Taxonomy of Privacy," wherein he proposed a common taxonomy of privacy risk factors. Although many of these activities can pose risks to privacy, they also have many benefits. For an organization, the key is in ensuring that impacts to privacy are identified and minimized by an organization. Select each description that is an element of Information dissemination:

Explanation

The correct answer includes several elements that are related to the dissemination of information. Breach of confidentiality refers to the unauthorized disclosure of confidential information. Disclosure refers to the intentional release of information to others. Exposure refers to the potential for information to be accessed or viewed by unauthorized individuals. Increased accessibility refers to making information more readily available to a larger audience. Blackmail refers to the act of using sensitive information to extort or manipulate someone. Appropriation refers to the unauthorized use or taking of someone else's information. Distortion refers to the alteration or misrepresentation of information.

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15. A metric owner is a process owner, champion and advocate responsible for management of the metric throughout the metric lifecycle. This person should have privacy knowledge, training and experience—to limit possible errors interpreting privacy-related laws, regulations and practices. Select the metric owner responsibilities.

Explanation

In addition:
o Minimize variance within a metric.
o Develop documentation of metrics using flowcharts, visual displays, graphics and other methods.
o Champion the metric in meetings, working groups and in other organization communications.

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16. The implementation of appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure and be able to demonstrate that the handling of personal data is performed in accordance with relevant law, an idea codified in the EU General Data Protection Regulation and other frameworks, including APEC's Cross Border Privacy Rules. _____

Explanation

Traditionally, accountability has been a fair information practices principle, that due diligence and reasonable steps will be undertaken to ensure that personal information will be protected and handled consistently with relevant law and other fair use principles.

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17. DLP network, storage, scans and privacy tools can be used to identify security and privacy risks to personal information. They can also be used to monitor for compliance with internal policies and procedures, and block e-mail or file transfers based on the data category and definitions. _____

Explanation

Active scanning tools are used to identify security and privacy risks to personal information. These tools can scan the network, storage, and other resources to detect any vulnerabilities or potential breaches. They can also monitor for compliance with internal policies and procedures, ensuring that data is handled according to the defined guidelines. Additionally, active scanning tools can block e-mail or file transfers if they contain data that falls under certain categories or definitions, providing an extra layer of protection against unauthorized data transfer.

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18. A U.S. professional organization of certified public accountants and co-creator of the WebTrust seal program. _____

Explanation

The given correct answer for this question is the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants. This organization is a U.S. professional organization that represents certified public accountants. They are also the co-creator of the WebTrust seal program, which is a program that provides assurance to users of websites that their personal information is secure and that the website is trustworthy. The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants plays a significant role in promoting and maintaining high professional standards in the accounting industry.

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19. The process in which individually identifiable data is altered in such a way that it no longer can be related back to a given individual. _____

Explanation

Among many techniques, there are three primary ways that data is anonymized. Suppression is the most basic version of anonymization and it simply removes some identifying values from data to reduce its identifiability. Generalization takes specific identifying values and makes them broader, such as changing a specific age (18) to an age range (18-24). Noise addition takes identifying values from a given data set and switches them with identifying values from another individual in that data set.

Note that all of these processes will not guarantee that data is no longer identifiable and have to be performed in such a way that does not harm the usability of the data.

Associated law(s):Anonymous Data, De-Identification, Mircodata Sets, Re-identification

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20. _____ takes specific identifying values and makes them broader, such as changing a specific age (18) to an age range (18-24).

Explanation

Generalization is the process of taking specific identifying values and making them broader. This involves changing a specific age, such as 18, to an age range like 18-24. By generalizing, we can categorize and group similar values together, allowing for easier analysis and comparison.

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21. _____ addition takes identifying values from a given data set and switches them with identifying values from another individual in that data set.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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22. _____ is the most basic version of anonymization and it simply removes some identifying values from data to reduce its identifiability.

Explanation

Suppression is the most basic version of anonymization as it involves removing identifying values from data to reduce its identifiability. This means that certain information, such as names or specific identifiers, is eliminated from the dataset to protect the privacy of individuals. By suppressing these identifying values, the data becomes less identifiable and helps to ensure that individuals cannot be directly linked to the information.

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23. Anonymization is the process in which individually identifiable data is altered in such a way that it no longer can be related back to a given individual. Among many techniques, there are three primary ways that data is anonymized.

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24. A set of non-binding principles adopted by the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperative that mirror the OECD Fair Information Privacy Practices. Though based on OECD Guidelines, they seek to promote electronic commerce throughout the Asia-Pacific region by balancing information privacy with business needs. _____

Explanation

The given correct answer is APEC Privacy Principles. This is because the passage states that the set of non-binding principles adopted by the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperative (APEC) aims to promote electronic commerce in the Asia-Pacific region while balancing information privacy with business needs. Therefore, the APEC Privacy Principles align with this objective and are the most appropriate answer.

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25. The first of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle _____

Explanation

The first of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle; provides the steps, checklists and processes necessary to assess any gaps in a privacy program as compared to industry best practices, corporate privacy policies, applicable privacy laws, and objective-based privacy program frameworks.

Associated term(s): Privacy Operational Life Cycle; Protect; Sustain; Respond

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26. Privacy Operational Life Cycle  Focused on refining and improving privacy processes, this model continuously monitors and improves the privacy program, with the added benefits of a life cycle approach to:

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27. High-level, five-phase audit approach. The steps include: Audit Planning; Audit Preparation; Conducting the Audit; Reporting; and Follow-up. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Audit Life Cycle," is the missing term that completes the statement. The explanation is that the high-level, five-phase audit approach mentioned in the question is commonly referred to as the "Audit Life Cycle." This cycle includes the steps of Audit Planning, Audit Preparation, Conducting the Audit, Reporting, and Follow-up. The Audit Life Cycle provides a structured framework for conducting audits and ensures that all necessary steps are followed to effectively assess and report on the audited entity's compliance and performance.

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28. Audit Life Cycle is a high-level, five-phase audit approach. The steps include:

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29. _____ is targeted at individuals based on the observation of their behavior over time.

Explanation

Advertising that is targeted at individuals based on the observation of their behavior over time. Most often done via automated processing of personal data, or profiling, the General Data Protection Regulation requires that data subjects be able to opt-out of any automated processing, to be informed of the logic involved in any automatic personal data processing and, at least when based on profiling, be informed of the consequences of such processing. If cookies are used to store or access information for the purposes of behavioral advertising, the ePrivacy Directive requires that data subjects provide consent for the placement of such cookies, after having been provided with clear and comprehensive information.

Acronym(s): OBA

Associated term(s): Online Behavioral Advertising, Behavioral Targeting, Contextual Advertising, Demographic Advertising, Premium Advertising, Psychographic Advertising, Remnant Advertising

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30. _____ are appropriate safeguards allowed by the General Data Protection Regulation to facilitate cross-border transfers of personal data between the various entities of a corporate group worldwide.

Explanation

They do so by ensuring that the same high level of protection of personal data is complied with by all members of the organizational group by means of a single set of binding and enforceable rules. BCRs compel organizations to be able to demonstrate their compliance with all aspects of applicable data protection legislation and are approved by a member state data protection authority. To date, relatively few organizations have had BCRs approved.

Acronym(s): BCR

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31. The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoC) enforces the nation's antitrust laws, which form the foundation of our free market economy. The antitrust laws promote the interests of consumers; they support unfettered markets and result in lower prices and more choices.

Explanation

Associated term(s): Bureau of Consumer Protection; Bureau of Economics

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32. The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoCP) stops unfair, deceptive and fraudulent business practices by collecting complaints and conducting investigations, suing companies and people that break the law, developing rules to maintain a fair marketplace, and educating consumers and businesses about their rights and responsibilities.

Explanation

Associated term(s): Bureau of Competition; Bureau of Economics

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33. The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoE) helps the FTC evaluate the economic impact of its actions by providing economic analysis for competition and consumer protection investigations and rulemakings, and analyzing the economic impact of government regulations on businesses and consumers.

Explanation

Associated term(s): Bureau of Competition; Bureau of Consumer Protection

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34. The starting point for assessing the needs of the privacy organization, it defines the individual program needs and the ways to meet specific business goals, such as compliance with privacy laws or regulations, industry frameworks, customer requirements and other considerations. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Business case," is the correct answer because a business case is a document that outlines the justification for a proposed project or initiative. In the context of assessing the needs of a privacy organization, a business case would outline the individual program needs and provide a framework for meeting specific business goals, such as compliance with privacy laws, industry frameworks, customer requirements, and other considerations. The business case would outline the financial, strategic, and operational benefits of implementing the proposed privacy program, helping to justify the allocation of resources and support decision-making.

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35. BCDR or _____ is a risk mitigation plan designed to prepare an organization for crises and to ensure critical business functions continue. The focus is to recover from a disaster when disruptions of any size are encountered.

Explanation

The given answer, "Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Plan," accurately describes the acronym BCDR. BCDR is a risk mitigation plan that helps organizations prepare for crises and ensure that critical business functions can continue even in the face of disruptions or disasters. This plan focuses on recovering from a disaster and maintaining business continuity regardless of the size or nature of the disruption.

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36. The _____ (BCP) is typically drafted and maintained by key stakeholders, spelling out departmental responsibilities and actions teams must take before, during and after an event in order to help operations run smoothly. Situations covered in a BCP often include fire, flood, natural disasters (tornadoes and hurricanes), and terrorist attack.

Explanation

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a document that outlines the responsibilities and actions that key stakeholders and teams must take in order to ensure that operations run smoothly before, during, and after an event. It is typically drafted and maintained by these stakeholders and covers various situations such as fire, flood, natural disasters, and terrorist attacks. The purpose of a BCP is to provide a roadmap for businesses to follow in order to minimize disruptions and ensure the continuity of critical functions in the face of unexpected events.

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37. _____ (COPPA) is a U.S. federal law that applies to the operators of commercial websites and online services that are directed to children under the age of 13. It also applies to general audience websites and online services that have actual knowledge that they are collecting personal information from children under the age of 13.

Explanation

COPPA requires these website operators: to post a privacy notice on the homepage of the website; provide notice about collection practices to parents; obtain verifiable parental consent before collecting personal information from children; give parents a choice as to whether their child’s personal information will be disclosed to third parties; provide parents access and the opportunity to delete the child’s personal information and opt out of future collection or use of the information, and maintain the confidentiality, security and integrity of personal information collected from children.

Acronym(s): COPPA

Link to text of law: 15 U.S.C. §§ 6501-6508

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38. In the context of consent, _____ refers to the idea that consent must be freely given.

Explanation

In the context of consent, choice refers to the idea that consent must be freely given and that data subjects must have a genuine choice as to whether to provide personal data or not. If there is no true choice it is unlikely the consent will be deemed valid under the General Data Protection Regulation.

Associated term(s): Consent

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39. Three common information security principles from the 1960s. _____

Explanation

Also known as information security triad; three common information security principles from the 1960s: Confidentiality, integrity, availability.

Associated term(s): Information Security Triad

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40. The three common information security principles from the 1960s that comprise the CIA Triad also known as Information Security Triad: _____

Explanation

The CIA Triad, also known as the Information Security Triad, consists of three fundamental principles: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that information is only accessible to authorized individuals, protecting it from unauthorized disclosure. Integrity ensures that information remains accurate, complete, and unaltered, preventing unauthorized modifications. Availability ensures that information is accessible and usable by authorized individuals when needed. These three principles form the foundation of information security, providing a comprehensive approach to protect sensitive information from unauthorized access, manipulation, and unavailability.

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41. A fair information practices principle, it is the principle stating there should be limits to the collection of personal data, that any such data should be obtained by lawful and fair means and, where appropriate, with the knowledge or consent of the data subject. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Collection Limitation," is the correct answer because it accurately describes the fair information practices principle mentioned in the question. This principle states that there should be limits to the collection of personal data, and any such data should be obtained through lawful and fair means, with the knowledge or consent of the data subject. "Collection Limitation" summarizes this principle effectively.

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42. This privacy requirement is one of the fair information practices. Individuals must be able to prevent the collection of their personal data, unless the disclosure is required by law. _____

Explanation

If an individual has choice about the use or disclosure of his or her information, consent is the individual's way of giving permission for the use or disclosure. Consent may be affirmative; i.e., opt-in; or implied; i.e., the individual didn’t opt out.

(1) Affirmative/Explicit Consent: A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her agreement with a data controller by some active communication between the parties.

(2) Implicit Consent: Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from the action or inaction of the individual.

Associated term(s): Choice

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43. A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her agreement with a data controller by some active communication between the parties. _____

Explanation

(1) Affirmative/Explicit Consent: A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her agreement with a data controller by some active communication between the parties.

(2) Implicit Consent: Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from the action or inaction of the individual.

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44. Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from the action or inaction of the individual. _____

Explanation

(1) Affirmative/Explicit Consent: A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her agreement with a data controller by some active communication between the parties.

(2) Implicit Consent: Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from the action or inaction of the individual.

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45. Any person or entity that complies or evaluates personal information for the purpose of furnishing it to third parties for a fee. _____

Explanation

Acronym(s): CRAs

Associated term(s): Credit Reporting Agency

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46. "As-is" data privacy requirements; the current environment and any protections, policies, and procedures currently deployed. _____

Explanation

The given answer "Current baseline" refers to the existing state or condition of the data privacy requirements, environment, and the protections, policies, and procedures that are currently in place. It suggests that the answer is related to the current status or starting point of these factors, indicating that the question is asking for an assessment or evaluation of the present situation rather than any future or hypothetical scenario.

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47. Relatively new form of insurance protection that fills gaps typically not covered by General Commercial Liability plans. _____

Explanation

Cyber liability insurance may cover many breach-related expenses, including forensic investigations, outside counsel fees, crisis management services, public relations experts, breach notification, and call center costs.

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48. The unauthorized acquisition of computerized data that compromises the security, confidentiality, or integrity of personal information maintained by a data collector. _____

Explanation

Breaches do not include good faith acquisitions of personal information by an employee or agent of the data collector for a legitimate purpose of the data collector —provided the personal information is not used for a purpose unrelated to the data collector's business or subject to further unauthorized disclosure.

Associated term(s): Breach, Privacy Breach (Canadian)

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49. The natural or legal person, public authority, agency or any other body which alone or jointly with others determines the purposes and means of the processing of personal data. _____

Explanation

Where the purposes and means of such processing are determined by EU or member state law, the controller or the specific criteria for its nomination may be provided for by EU or member state law.

Associated term(s): Data Processor

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50. Also known as a record of authority, identifies personal data as it moves across various systems and thus how data is shared and organized, and its location. That data is then categorized by subject area, which identifies inconsistent data versions, enabling identification and mitigation of data disparities. _____

Explanation

A data inventory, also known as a record of authority, is a tool used to identify and track personal data as it moves across different systems. It helps to organize and categorize the data, as well as identify any inconsistencies or disparities in the data versions. By creating a data inventory, organizations can have a clear understanding of how data is shared and organized, and its location, which is crucial for effective data management and compliance with data protection regulations.

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51. Also known as Information Life Cycle Management (ILM) or data governance, DLM is a policy-based approach to managing the flow of information through a life cycle from creation to final disposition. It provides a holistic approach to the processes, roles, controls and measures necessary to organize and maintain data, and has 11 elements. _____

Explanation

Also known as Information Life Cycle Management (ILM) or data governance, DLM is a policy-based approach to managing the flow of information through a life cycle from creation to final disposition. DLM provides a holistic approach to the processes, roles, controls and measures necessary to organize and maintain data, and has 11 elements: Enterprise objectives; minimalism; simplicity of procedure and effective training; adequacy of infrastructure; information security; authenticity and accuracy of one’s own records; retrievability; distribution controls; auditability; consistency of policies; and enforcement.

Acronym(s): DLM; ILM

Associated term(s): Information Life Cycle Management

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52. The idea that one should only collect and retain that personal data which is necessary. _____

Explanation

Link to text of law: Directive 95/46/EC

Link to text of law: Regulation EC (No) 45/2001

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53. Independent public authorities that supervise the application of data protection laws in the EU. _____

Explanation

DPAs provide advice on data protection issues and field complaints from individuals alleging violations of the General Data
Protection Regulation. Each EU member state has its own DPA. Under GDPR, DPAs have extensive enforcement powers, including the ability to impose fines that total 4% of a company’s global annual revenue.

Acronym(s): DPA

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54. Required by the General Data Protection Regulation in some instances, particularly where a new product or service is likely to result in a high risk to the rights and freedoms of natural persons. _____

Explanation

The process by which companies can systematically assess and identify the privacy and data protection impacts of any products they offer and services they provide. It enables them to identify the impact and take the appropriate actions to prevent or, at the very least, minimize the risk of those impacts.

Acronym(s): DPIA

Associated term(s): Privacy Impact Assessments (PIAs)

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55. A fair information practices principle, it is the principle that personal data should be relevant to the purposes for which it is to be used, and, to the extent necessary for those purposes, should be accurate, complete and kept up-to-date. _____

Explanation

The quality of data is judged by four criteria: Does it meet the business needs?; Is it accurate?; Is it complete?, and is it recent? Data is of an appropriate quality if these criteria are satisfied for a particular application.

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56. Also known as "local governance," this governance model involves the delegation of decision-making authority down to the lower levels in an organization, away from and lower than a central authority. There are fewer tiers in the organizational structure, wider span of control and bottom-to-top flow of decision-making and ideas. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Local Governance

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57. When the seller directly contacts an individual. _____

Explanation

When the seller directly contacts an individual, in contrast to marketing through mass media such as television or radio.

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58. Proposed regulatory policy, similar to the existing Do-Not-Call Registry in the United States _____

Explanation

A proposed regulatory policy, similar to the existing Do-Not-Call Registry in the United States, which would allow consumers to opt out of web-usage tracking.

Acronym(s): DNT

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59. This law updated the Federal Wiretap Act of 1968. As amended, it protects wire, oral and electronic communications while those communications are being made, are in transit, and when they are stored on computers. The act applies to e-mail, telephone conversations and data stored electronically. _____

Explanation

The collective name of the Electronic Communications Privacy and Stored Wire Electronic Communications Acts, which updated the Federal Wiretap Act of 1968. ECPA, as amended, protects wire, oral and electronic communications while those communications are being made, are in transit, and when they are stored on computers. The act applies to e-mail, telephone conversations and data stored electronically.

The USA PATRIOT Act and subsequent federal enactments have clarified and updated ECPA in light of the ongoing development of modern communications technologies and methods, including easing restrictions on law enforcement access to stored communications in some cases.

Link to text of law: Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986

Acronym(s): ECPA

Associated law(s): Stored Communications Act, Stored Wire Electronic Communications Act, USA Patriot Act

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60. This Directive was replaced by the General Data Protection Regulation in 2018. _____

Explanation

The EU Data Protection Directive (95/46/EC) was replaced by the General Data Protection Regulation in 2018. The Directive was adopted in 1995, became effective in 1998 and was the first EU-wide legislation that protected individuals’ privacy and personal data use.

Associated term(s): Data Protection Directive

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61. Performed to determine the capability of current privacy management to support each of the business and technical requirements uncovered during an audit or privacy assessment, if any exist; requires reviewing the capabilities of current systems, management tools, hardware, operating systems, administrator expertise, system locations, outsourced services and physical infrastructure. _____

Explanation

The given answer, Gap Analysis, is correct because it accurately describes the process of evaluating the capability of current privacy management systems and infrastructure to meet the identified business and technical requirements. Gap analysis involves reviewing various aspects such as current systems, tools, hardware, expertise, and physical infrastructure to identify any gaps or deficiencies that need to be addressed in order to align with the requirements. This analysis helps in identifying areas where improvements or changes are needed to bridge the gap between the current state and desired state of privacy management.

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62. _____ (GAPP) is a framework promulgated by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) in conjunction with the Canadian Institute of Chartered Accountants (CICA). The ten principles are management, notice, choice and consent, collection, use and retention, access, disclosure to third parties, security for privacy, quality, monitoring and enforcement.

Explanation

The correct answer is Generally Accepted Privacy Principles. The explanation is that GAPP is a framework developed by the AICPA and CICA to provide guidance on privacy practices. It consists of ten principles that cover various aspects of privacy, including management, notice, choice and consent, collection, use and retention, access, disclosure to third parties, security for privacy, quality, monitoring, and enforcement. These principles are widely recognized and accepted as best practices for protecting individuals' privacy rights.

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63. _____ or GLBA is the commonly used name for The Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999. The act re-organized financial services regulation in the United States and applies broadly to any company that is "significantly engaged" in financial activities in the U.S. In its privacy provisions, GLBA addresses the handling of non-public personal information, defined broadly to include a consumer's name and address, and consumers' interactions with banks, insurers and other financial institutions. GLBA requires financial institutions to securely store personal financial information; give notice of their policies regarding the sharing of personal financial information, and give consumers the ability to opt-out of some sharing of personal financial information.

Explanation

Link to text of law: Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

Acronym(s): GLBA

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64. A U.S. law passed to create national standards for electronic healthcare transactions, among other purposes. HIPAA required the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to promulgate  regulations to protect the privacy and security of personal health information. The basic rule is that patients have to opt in before their information can be shared with other organizations—although there are important exceptions such as for treatment, payment and healthcare operations. _____

Explanation

Link to text of law: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Acronym(s): HIPAA

Related terms: HITECH, The Privacy Rule, The Security Rule

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65. This privacy governance model allows for a combination of centralized and local governance. Typically seen when a large organization assigns a main individual responsibility for privacy-related affairs, and the local entities then fulfill and support the policies and directives from the central governing body. _____

Explanation

This privacy governance model is known as Hybrid Governance. It involves a combination of centralized and local governance, where a main individual is assigned responsibility for privacy-related affairs in a large organization. The local entities then follow and support the policies and directives set by the central governing body.

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66. It is fair information practices principle that an individual should have the right: a) to obtain from a data controller, or otherwise, confirmation of whether or not the data controller has data relating to them; b) to have data relating to them communicated to them within a reasonable time; at a charge, if any, that is not excessive; in a reasonable manner, and in a form that is readily intelligible to them; c) to be given reasons if a request made under subparagraphs (a) and (b) is denied, and to be able to challenge such denial; and d) to challenge data relating to them and, if the challenge is successful, to have the data erased, rectified, completed or amended. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): FIPs

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67. _____ recognizes that data has different value, and requires approaches, as it moves through an organization from collection to deletion. The stages are generally considered to be: Collection, processing, use, disclosure, retention, and destruction.

Explanation

The given correct answer, "Information Life Cycle," refers to the concept that data goes through different stages as it moves through an organization. This includes collection, processing, use, disclosure, retention, and destruction. The information life cycle recognizes that data has varying value and requires different approaches at each stage.

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68. Also known as (DLM) or data governance, ILM is a policy-based approach to managing the flow of information through a life cycle from creation to final disposition. ILM provides a holistic approach to the processes, roles, controls and measures necessary to organize and maintain data, and has 11 elements: Enterprise objectives; minimalism; simplicity of procedure and effective training; adequacy of infrastructure; information security; authenticity and accuracy of one's own records; retrievability; distribution controls; auditability; consistency of policies; and enforcement. _____

Explanation

Acronym(s): DLM, ILM

Associated term(s): Data Life Cycle Management

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69. Practices that provide management, technical and operational controls to reduce probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized data access. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Information Security Practices," is correct because it accurately describes the practices that provide management, technical, and operational controls to reduce probable damage, loss, modification, or unauthorized data access. These practices are essential for protecting sensitive information and ensuring the security of data within an organization. By implementing information security practices, organizations can mitigate risks and safeguard against potential threats, ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their data.

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70. Also known as "the C-I-A triad"; consists of three common information security principles: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Information Security Triad," is the correct answer because it accurately describes the concept being referred to in the question. The information security triad, also known as the C-I-A triad, consists of three fundamental principles: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. These principles are crucial in ensuring the protection and secure management of information. Confidentiality focuses on preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information, integrity ensures the accuracy and reliability of data, and availability ensures that information is accessible to authorized users when needed.

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71. Professionals and departments within an organization who have ownership of privacy activities, e.g., human resources, marketing, information technology. _____

Explanation

The term "Internal Partners" refers to the professionals and departments within an organization who are responsible for privacy activities. These individuals and teams, such as human resources, marketing, and information technology, have ownership and accountability for ensuring privacy compliance within the organization. They work together to implement privacy policies, handle personal data, and protect the privacy rights of individuals.

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72. The authority of a court to hear a particular case. _____

Explanation

Courts must have jurisdiction over both the parties to the dispute (personal jurisdiction) and the type of dispute (subject matter jurisdiction). The term is also used to denote the geographical area or subject-matter to which such authority applies.

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73. Also known as "decentralized governance," this governance model involves the delegation of decision-making authority down to the lower levels in an organization, away from and lower than a central authority. There are fewer tiers in the organizational structure, wider span of control and bottom-to-top flow of decision-making and ideas. _____

Explanation

The given passage describes a governance model where decision-making authority is delegated to lower levels in an organization, away from a central authority. This model is commonly referred to as "decentralized governance" or "local governance." It involves fewer tiers in the organizational structure, wider span of control, and a bottom-to-top flow of decision-making and ideas. Therefore, the correct answer is "Local Governance."

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74. The processes and methods to sustain a metric to match the ever-changing needs of an organization. Consists of a 5-step process: (1) Identification of the intended audience; (2) Definition of data sources; (3) Selection of privacy metrics; (4) Collection and refinement of systems/application collection points; and (5) Analysis of the data/metrics to provide value to the organization and provide a feedback quality mechanism. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Metric Life Cycle," is the explanation for the 5-step process mentioned in the question. It refers to the processes and methods used to sustain a metric and adapt it to the changing needs of an organization. The 5-step process involves identifying the intended audience, defining data sources, selecting privacy metrics, collecting and refining collection points, and analyzing the data/metrics to provide value to the organization and establish a feedback quality mechanism. The term "Metric Life Cycle" encompasses all these steps in managing and maintaining metrics within an organization.

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75. The processes and methods to sustain a metric to match the ever-changing needs of an organization. The Metric Life Cycle consists of a 5-step process:

Explanation

(1) Identification of the intended audience;
(2) Definition of data sources;
(3) Selection of privacy metrics;
(4) Collection and refinement of systems/application collection points; and
(5) Analysis of the data/metrics to provide value to the organization and provide a feedback quality mechanism.

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76. Tools that facilitate decision-making and accountability through collection, analysis, and reporting of data. They must be measurable, meaningful, clearly defined (with boundaries), indicate progress, and answer a specific question to be valuable and practical. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Metric Life Cycle

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77. _____ or NIST is an agency within the Department of Commerce. NIST has the lead responsibility for the development and issuance of security standards and guidelines for the federal government, contractors, and the United States critical information infrastructure. The NIST has published a series of publications in support of its risk management framework (RMF). The RMF is a multi-tiered and structured methodology for creating a unified information security framework for the federal government in order to meet the vast array of requirements set forth in FISMA.

Explanation

Link to: National Institute of Standards and Technology

Acronym(s): NIST

Associated term(s): FISMA

Associated law(s): FISMA

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78. An organization will be liable for damages if it breaches a legal duty to protect personal information and an individual is harmed by that breach. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Private Right of Action

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79. NPI is defined by GLBA as: (i) provided by a consumer to a financial institution, (ii) resulting from a transaction or service performed for the consumer, or (iii) otherwise obtained by the financial institution. Excluded from the definition are (i) publicly available information and (ii) any consumer list that is derived without using personally identifiable financial information. _____

Explanation

Acronym(s): NPI
Associated law(s): GLBA

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80. A fair information practices principle. There should be a general policy of openness about developments, practices and policies with respect to personal data. Means should be readily available to establish the existence and nature of personal data, and the main purposes of their use, as well as the identity and usual residence of the data controller. Closely linked with transparency. _____

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Openness". This is because the explanation provided states that there should be a general policy of openness about developments, practices, and policies regarding personal data. This means that organizations should be transparent and provide readily available information about the existence and nature of personal data, the main purposes of its use, and the identity and usual residence of the data controller. Openness is closely linked with transparency, further emphasizing the importance of being open and honest about the handling of personal data.

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81. One of two central concepts of choice. It means an individual makes an active affirmative indication of choice; i.e., checking a box signaling a desire to share his or her information with third parties. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Choice; Consent; Opt-Out

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82. One of two central concepts of choice. It means an individual's lack of action implies that a choice has been made; i.e., unless an individual checks or unchecks a box, their information will be shared with third parties. _____

Explanation

The term "Opt-Out" refers to the concept of choice where an individual's lack of action implies that they have made a decision. In this context, it means that unless an individual actively checks or unchecks a box, their information will be shared with third parties. This concept allows individuals to choose whether or not they want their information to be shared by opting out of sharing.

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83. _____ (OECD) An international organization that promotes policies designed to achieve the highest sustainable economic growth, employment and a rising standard of living in both member and non member countries, while contributing to the world economy.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD). This international organization aims to promote policies that lead to sustainable economic growth, employment opportunities, and an improved standard of living in member and non-member countries. Additionally, the OECD also contributes to the global economy.

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84. A self-regulatory system that provides an enforceable security standard for payment card data. _____

Explanation

The rules were drafted by the Payment Card Industry Security Standards Council, which built on previous rules written by the various credit card companies. Except for small companies, compliance with the standard requires hiring a third party to conduct security assessments and detect violations. Failure to comply can lead to exclusion from Visa, MasterCard or other major payment card systems, as well as penalties.

Acronym(s): PCI-DSS

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85. The process of formulating or selecting metrics to evaluate implementation, efficiency or effectiveness; gathering data and producing quantifiable output that describes performance. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Performance Measurement," accurately describes the process of formulating or selecting metrics to evaluate implementation, efficiency, or effectiveness, gathering data, and producing quantifiable output that describes performance. Performance measurement involves assessing and analyzing various aspects of performance to track progress, identify areas for improvement, and make informed decisions. It helps organizations understand how well they are achieving their goals and objectives and enables them to make data-driven decisions to enhance their performance.

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86. Defined broadly in the General Data Protection Regulation as any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person. _____

Explanation

The predominant term for Personal Information in the European Union, defined broadly in the General Data Protection Regulation as any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person.

Associated term(s): Personal Information; Personally Identifying Information; Personally Identifiable Information

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87. A synonym for "personal data." It is a term with particular meaning under the California Consumer Privacy Act _____

Explanation

A synonym for "personal data." It is a term with particular meaning under the California Consumer Privacy Act, which defines it as information that identifies, relates to, describes, is capable of being associated with, or could reasonably be linked, directly or indirectly, with a particular consumer.

Acronym(s): PI

Associated term(s): Personal Data; Personally Identifying Information; Personally Identifiable Information

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88. _____ (PIPEDA) A Canadian act with two goals: (1) to instill trust in electronic commerce and private sector transactions for citizens, and (2) to establish a level playing field where the same marketplace rules apply to all businesses.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA). This Canadian act aims to achieve two goals: instilling trust in electronic commerce and private sector transactions for citizens, and establishing a level playing field where the same marketplace rules apply to all businesses. PIPEDA is designed to protect personal information and ensure its proper handling by organizations in Canada.

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89. _____ (P3P) A machine-readable language that helps to express a website's data management practices in an automated fashion.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Platform for Privacy Preferences". P3P is a machine-readable language that allows websites to communicate their data management practices to users in an automated manner. It helps users understand how their personal information is collected, used, and shared by a website, allowing them to make informed decisions about their privacy. P3P provides a standardized way for websites to express their privacy policies, making it easier for users to compare and evaluate different websites' data practices.

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90. _____ as a specific term was first outlined in a framework in the mid-1990s by then-Information and Privacy Commissioner of Ontario, Canada, Ann Cavoukian, with seven foundational principles.

Explanation

Generally regarded as a synonym for Data Protection by Design (see Data Protection by Design). However, Privacy by Design as a specific term was first outlined in a framework in the mid-1990s by then-Information and Privacy Commissioner of Ontario, Canada, Ann Cavoukian, with seven foundational principles.

Acronym(s): PbD

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91. An executive who serves as the privacy program sponsor and acts as an advocate to further foster privacy as a core organization concept. _____

Explanation

The executive who serves as the privacy program sponsor and acts as an advocate to further foster privacy as a core organization concept is referred to as a "Privacy Champion." This individual takes on the responsibility of promoting and supporting privacy initiatives within the organization, ensuring that privacy is given due importance and integrated into the organization's overall strategy and culture.

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92. "An analysis of how information is handled: (i) to ensure handling conforms to applicable legal, regulatory and policy requirements regarding privacy; (ii) to determine the risks and effects of collecting, maintaining and disseminating information in identifiable form in an electronic information system, and (iii) to examine and evaluate protections and alternative processes for handling information to mitigate potential privacy risks." _____

Explanation

PIAs should disclose what PII is being collected, why it is being collected, what the intended uses of the PII are, whom the PII will be shared with, what opportunities individuals will have to opt-out of PII collection or use, how the PII will be secured, whether a system of records is being created under the Privacy Act and an analysis of the information life cycle. Checklists or tools used to ensure that the system used to collect personal information is evaluated for privacy risks, designed with lifecycle principles in mind and made to ensure that effective and required privacy protection measures are used. A PIA should be completed pre-implementation of the privacy project, product, or service and should be ongoing through its deployment. The PIA should identify these attributes of the data collected: what information is collected; why it is collected; the intended use of the information; with whom the information is shared, and the consent and choice rights of the data subjects. The PIA should be used to assess new systems, significant changes to existing systems, operational policies and procedures and intended use of the information. PIAs should also be used before, during, and after mergers and acquisitions. An effective PIA evaluates the sufficiency of privacy practices and policies with respect to existing legal, regulatory and industry standards, and maintains consistency between policy and operational practices.

Acronym(s): PIAs

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93. Provides a standardized reference for companies to use in assessing the level of maturity of their privacy programs. _____

Explanation

The Privacy Maturity Model provides a standardized reference for companies to use in assessing the level of maturity of their privacy programs. It helps organizations evaluate their privacy practices and identify areas for improvement. The model allows companies to measure their privacy program against industry best practices and benchmarks, helping them understand their current state and develop a roadmap for enhancing their privacy program. By using this model, companies can ensure that their privacy practices align with regulatory requirements and industry standards, ultimately enhancing their overall privacy posture.

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94. Focused on refining and improving privacy processes, this model continuously monitors and improves the privacy program, with the added benefits of a life cycle approach to measure (assess), improve (protect), evaluate (sustain) and support (respond), and then start again. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Assess; Protect; Sustain; Respond

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95. An implementation roadmap that provides the structure or checklists (documented privacy procedures and processes) to guide the privacy professional through privacy management and prompts them for the details to determine all privacy-relevant decisions for the organization. _____

Explanation

The given correct answer for this question is "Privacy Program Framework". The explanation for this answer is that a privacy program framework is a structured roadmap or set of guidelines that helps privacy professionals navigate through privacy management. It includes documented privacy procedures and processes, which serve as checklists to ensure that all privacy-relevant decisions are made for the organization. The framework prompts privacy professionals to consider all necessary details and ensures that privacy is effectively managed within the organization.

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96. One tool used to determine whether a PIA should be conducted. _____

Explanation

A Privacy Threshold Analysis (PTA) is a tool that is used to determine whether a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) should be conducted. The PTA helps to assess the potential risks and impacts on privacy that may arise from a proposed project or system. It helps organizations to identify if the project or system meets the threshold criteria for conducting a PIA. By conducting a PTA, organizations can make informed decisions about whether a PIA is necessary to ensure privacy protection.

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97. Privacy technology standards developed solely to be used for the transmission, storage and use of privacy data. Examples include Platform for Privacy Preferences (P3P) and Enterprise Privacy Authorization Language (EPAL). _____

Explanation

Privacy-Enhancing Technologies (PETs) refer to a set of tools, techniques, and protocols designed to enhance privacy and protect personal information during its transmission, storage, and use. These technologies, such as P3P and EPAL, provide standardized methods for implementing privacy controls and ensuring compliance with privacy regulations. They enable individuals to have more control over their personal data, allowing them to make informed decisions about its collection and usage. By implementing PETs, organizations can enhance privacy and build trust with their customers by demonstrating their commitment to protecting personal information.

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98. Unless otherwise restricted by law, any individual that is harmed by a violation of the law can file a lawsuit against the violator. _____

Explanation

Private Right of Action refers to the legal right of an individual to file a lawsuit against someone who has violated the law and caused harm to them. This right allows individuals to seek compensation for the damages they have suffered as a result of the violation. It is important to note that this right is generally available unless there are specific legal restrictions in place.

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99. _____ The second of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle.

Explanation

The second of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle. It provides the data life cycle, information security practices and Privacy by Design principles to “protect” personal information.

Associated term(s): Privacy Operational Life Cycle; Assess; Sustain; Respond

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100. Any individually identifiable health information transmitted or maintained in any form or medium that is held by an entity covered by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act or its business associate; identifies the individual or offers a reasonable basis for identification; is created or received by a covered entity or an employer; and relates to a past, present or future physical or mental condition, provision of healthcare or payment for healthcare to that individual. _____

Explanation

The given statement describes the definition of Protected Health Information (PHI). PHI refers to any individually identifiable health information that is held by a covered entity or its business associate, and relates to a person's physical or mental health, healthcare provision, or payment for healthcare. This information can be in any form or medium and is created or received by a covered entity or an employer. PHI is subject to strict privacy and security regulations under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).

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101. Data points which are not directly associated with a specific individual. The identity of the person is not known but multiple appearances of that person can be linked together. _____

Explanation

Uses an ID rather than PII to identify data as coming from the same source. IP address, GUID and ticket numbers are forms of pseudonymous values.

Associated term(s): Identifiability, Identifiers, GUID, Authentication, De-Identification, Re-Identification.

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102. Requires that the parties are prohibited from using or disclosing protected health information for any purpose other than the litigation and that the PHI will be returned or destroyed at the end of the litigation. _____

Explanation

Acronym(s): QPO

Associated law(s): HIPAA

Associated terms: PHI

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103. The fourth of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle. _____

Explanation

It includes the respond principles of information requests, legal compliance, incident-response planning and incident handling. The “respond” phase aims to reduce organizational risk and bolster compliance to regulations.

Associated term(s): Privacy Operational Life Cycle; Assess; Protect; Sustain

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104. Within the information life cycle, the concept that organizations should retain personal information only as long as necessary to fulfill the stated purpose. _____

Explanation

Retention is the concept within the information life cycle that organizations should retain personal information only as long as necessary to fulfill the stated purpose. This means that once the purpose for which the personal information was collected has been fulfilled, the organization should no longer keep that information. Retention is important for ensuring the privacy and security of individuals' personal data, as unnecessary retention can increase the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of the information. By adhering to the principle of retention, organizations can demonstrate their commitment to responsible data management and protection.

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105. An indicator used to measure the financial gain/loss (or "value") of a project in relation to its cost. _____

Explanation

Privacy ROI defines metrics to measure the effectiveness of investments to protect investments in assets.

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106. Under Article 15 of the Data Protection Directive, individuals are entitled to object to being subject to fully automated decisions. The right, however, does not allow an individual to object to automated processing that then leads to a human decision. _____

Explanation

Associated law(s): EU Data Protection Directive

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107. A fair information practices principle, it is the principle that personal data should be protected by reasonable security safeguards against such risks as loss or unauthorized access, destruction, use, modification or disclosure of data. _____

Explanation

This principle emphasizes the need for protecting personal data through reasonable security safeguards. These safeguards are necessary to prevent risks such as unauthorized access, loss, destruction, modification, or disclosure of data. By implementing security safeguards, organizations can ensure the protection and integrity of personal data, maintaining the privacy and confidentiality of individuals' information.

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108. A general term for how attackers can try to persuade a user to provide information or create some other sort of security vulnerability. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Phishing

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109. Individual executives within an organization who lead and "own" the responsibility of privacy activities. _____

Explanation

In the context of privacy activities within an organization, stakeholders are individuals who have an interest or concern in the organization's privacy practices. They are directly affected by the privacy activities and have a role in decision-making and implementation. Therefore, stakeholders can be seen as the individuals who lead and "own" the responsibility of privacy activities within the organization.

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110. The first high-level task necessary to implementing proactive privacy management through three subtasks: Define your organization's privacy vision and privacy mission statements; develop privacy strategy; and structure your privacy team. _____

Explanation

The correct answer is Strategic Management because it involves defining the organization's privacy vision and mission statements, developing a privacy strategy, and structuring the privacy team. Strategic management is the process of formulating and implementing strategies to achieve organizational goals, and in this case, it is specifically focused on privacy management. By using strategic management principles, organizations can effectively plan and execute proactive privacy measures to protect sensitive information and comply with privacy regulations.

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111. The first high-level task in Strategic Management necessary to implementing proactive privacy management through three subtasks:

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112. Most legislation recognizes that data breach notifications involving thousands of impacted data subjects could place an undue financial burden on the organization and therefore allow substitute notification methods. _____

Explanation

In Connecticut, for example, “Substitute notice shall consist of the following: (A) Electronic mail notice when the person, business or agency has an electronic mail address for the affected persons; (B) conspicuous posting of the notice on the website of the person, business or agency if the person maintains one, and (C) notification to major state-wide media, including newspapers, radio and television.”

Associated term(s): Data Breach

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113. The third of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle. It provides privacy management through the monitoring, auditing, and communication aspects of the management framework. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Privacy Operational Life Cycle; Assess; Protect; Respond

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114. Commercial conduct that intentionally causes substantial injury, without offsetting benefits, and that consumers cannot reasonably avoid. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Deceptive Trade Practices

Associated law(s): U.S. Federal Trade Commission Act

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115. A partnership between the Department of Homeland Security and the public and private sectors intended to coordinate the response to security threats from the Internet. As such, it releases information about current security issues, vulnerabilities and exploits via the National Cyber Alert System and works with software vendors to create patches for security vulnerabilities. _____

Explanation

Link to: National Cyber Alert System
Link to: U.S. Computer Emergency Readiness Team
Acronym(s): US-CERT

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116. Fourteen generic information security practice competency areas, including: Digital Security; Digital Forensics; Enterprise Continuity; Incident Management; IT Security and Training Awareness; IT Systems Operation and Maintenance; Network and Telecommunications Security; Personnel Security; Physical and Environmental Security; Procurement; Regulatory and Standards Compliance; Security Risk Management; Strategic Security Management; and System and Application Security. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "US-CERT IT Security Essential Body of Knowledge," is the title or name of the document or resource that provides information on the fourteen generic information security practice competency areas. It is likely a comprehensive guide or reference material that covers various aspects of IT security and provides essential knowledge in these competency areas.

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117. Assessment of a third-party vendor for the vendor's privacy and information security policies, access controls, where the personal information will be held and who has access to it. Privacy/security questionnaires, privacy impact assessments and other checklists can be used to assess this risk. _____

Explanation

The given answer "Vendor Management" is the appropriate term to fill in the blank. The question is discussing the assessment of a third-party vendor for their privacy and information security policies, access controls, and data handling practices. This process is commonly known as vendor management, where organizations evaluate and monitor their relationships with external vendors to ensure that they meet certain standards and comply with privacy and security requirements. This involves using various tools such as privacy/security questionnaires, privacy impact assessments, and checklists to assess the risk associated with the vendor's handling of personal information.

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118. Recordings that do not have sound. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Video Surveillance Guidelines
Associated law(s): FISA

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119. Created by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) and the Canadian Institute of Chartered Accountants (CICA). It is a self-regulating seal program which licenses qualifying certified public accountants. _____

Explanation

Associated term(s): Seal Programs

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120. • Identify privacy obligations • Identify business, employee and customer privacy risks • Identify existing documentation, policies and procedures • Create, revise and implement policies and procedures that effect positive practices and together comprise a privacy program.

Explanation

The general responsibilities of a Privacy Program Manager include identifying privacy obligations, identifying privacy risks for the business, employees, and customers, identifying existing documentation, policies, and procedures, and creating, revising, and implementing policies and procedures that promote positive privacy practices. This role is responsible for overseeing and managing the privacy program within an organization to ensure compliance with privacy regulations and protection of personal information.

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121. Include: • Demonstrate compliance with applicable laws and regulations (at a minimum) • Promote consumer trust and confidence • Enhance organization's reputation • Facilitate privacy program awareness, where relevant, of employees, customers, partners and service providers • Respond effectively to privacy breaches • Continuously maintain and improve the privacy program _____

Explanation

The given answer lists the goals of a privacy program. These goals include demonstrating compliance with laws and regulations, promoting consumer trust and confidence, enhancing the organization's reputation, facilitating privacy program awareness among employees, customers, partners, and service providers, responding effectively to privacy breaches, and continuously maintaining and improving the privacy program.

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122. Why does an organization need a privacy program? Identify the number 1 privacy team responsibility.

Explanation

An organization needs a privacy program in order to meet regulatory compliance obligations, including the GDPR. The GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal data of individuals within the European Union (EU). Compliance with the GDPR is crucial for organizations that handle personal data of EU citizens. Failure to comply with the GDPR can result in significant financial penalties and damage to the organization's reputation. Therefore, ensuring compliance with the GDPR is the number one responsibility of the privacy team in order to avoid legal consequences and maintain the trust of customers and stakeholders.

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123. Why does an organization need a privacy program? Identify the number 2 privacy team responsibility.

Explanation

An organization needs a privacy program to meet the expectations of its business clients and partners. This is important because clients and partners often have their own privacy requirements and expectations, and failing to meet these can result in loss of business opportunities and damage to relationships. By having a privacy program in place, an organization can demonstrate its commitment to protecting the privacy of its clients and partners, which helps to build trust and maintain strong business relationships.

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124. What is the most important aspect of privacy program management?

Explanation

Accountability is the most important aspect of privacy program management because it ensures that individuals and organizations are held responsible for their actions and decisions related to privacy. It involves establishing clear roles and responsibilities, implementing policies and procedures, and regularly monitoring and enforcing compliance. Accountability helps to build trust with stakeholders, demonstrates a commitment to privacy protection, and reduces the risk of privacy breaches. By holding individuals and organizations accountable, privacy program management can effectively safeguard personal data and maintain privacy standards.

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125. True or false? Regulatory compliance is often the primary motivation for organizations to develop a privacy program.

Explanation

Regulatory compliance refers to the adherence to laws, regulations, and guidelines set by governing bodies. Developing a privacy program helps organizations ensure that they are compliant with these regulations. Therefore, it can be inferred that regulatory compliance is often the primary motivation for organizations to develop a privacy program.

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126. A privacy program should integrate privacy requirements and representation into which of the following functional areas? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A privacy program should integrate privacy requirements and representation into various functional areas to ensure that privacy is effectively managed throughout the organization. Human resources is involved in managing employee data and ensuring compliance with privacy regulations. Marketing and business development handle customer data and should prioritize privacy protection. Financial departments deal with financial information that may contain sensitive data. Information security is crucial for protecting personal information from unauthorized access. IT departments handle data systems and should implement privacy controls. Legal and compliance teams ensure that the organization complies with privacy laws and regulations.

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127. Customer service employees for a health insurance company are granted access to subscribers' sensitive personal information so they can assist with inquiries regarding coverage and billing. What business function is most likely responsible for determining which employees may access subscribers' sensitive personal information?

Explanation

The business function most likely responsible for determining which employees may access subscribers' sensitive personal information is information security. Information security is responsible for implementing and maintaining measures to protect sensitive data, including determining access levels and permissions for employees. They ensure that only authorized individuals have access to sensitive information, reducing the risk of data breaches and unauthorized use.

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128. The most senior officer responsible for privacy in an organization, having responsibility for oversight of the privacy program, and is most commonly the chief privacy officer or the data protection officer. However; the privacy leader could be anyone from the CEO to the chief privacy counsel. The CISO and the CTO are rarely privacy officers. _____

Explanation

The most senior officer responsible for privacy in an organization is referred to as the Privacy Leader. This individual is in charge of overseeing the privacy program and ensuring compliance with privacy regulations. While the most common titles for this role are Chief Privacy Officer or Data Protection Officer, it is possible for the Privacy Leader to be anyone from the CEO to the chief privacy counsel. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) and Chief Technology Officer (CTO) are not typically responsible for privacy matters.

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129. A statement of an organization concisely communicates its privacy stance to all stakeholders. This requires: • Acquiring knowledge on privacy approaches • Evaluating the intended objective • And gaining executive sponsor approval _____

Explanation

A privacy vision or mission statement is a concise statement that communicates an organization's privacy stance to all stakeholders. It is important for an organization to acquire knowledge on privacy approaches, evaluate the intended objective, and gain executive sponsor approval in order to develop an effective privacy vision or mission statement. This statement helps to define the organization's commitment to protecting privacy and guides its actions and decision-making in relation to privacy matters.

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130. Privacy Vision or Mission Statement of an organization concisely communicates its privacy stance to all stakeholders. This requires:

Explanation

The privacy vision or mission statement of an organization is a concise communication of its privacy stance to all stakeholders. In order to develop this statement, the organization needs to acquire knowledge on privacy approaches, evaluate the intended objective, and gain executive sponsor approval. Acquiring knowledge on privacy approaches ensures that the organization is aware of the different strategies and practices related to privacy. Evaluating the intended objective helps in aligning the privacy statement with the organization's goals and values. Gaining executive sponsor approval ensures that the statement has the support and endorsement of top-level management.

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131. Elements of a privacy vision and mission:

Explanation

The elements of a privacy vision and mission include global and local laws, regulations, and standards, cultural expectations and perspectives (including risk acceptance), business sector requirements, types of personal information the organization collects/stores and how it is used, and regulatory challenges. These elements are important because they provide a framework for organizations to develop and implement privacy policies and practices that align with legal requirements, cultural norms, industry standards, and the specific personal information they handle. Additionally, considering regulatory challenges helps organizations anticipate and address potential obstacles in achieving their privacy goals.

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132. Privacy Strategy Business Alignment Elements

Explanation

The correct answer is a list of elements that are necessary for aligning privacy strategy with business goals. These elements include making an operational business case for privacy, obtaining budget for privacy and the privacy team, identifying stakeholders and internal partnerships, making connections and fostering relationships, creating a privacy committee for interfacing within the organization, and aligning organizational culture and privacy objectives. These steps are essential in ensuring that privacy is integrated into the overall business strategy and that the necessary resources and support are allocated to privacy initiatives.

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133. These elements include:
  • Make an operational business case for privacy
  • Obtain budget for privacy and the privacy team
  • Identify stakeholders and internal partnerships
  • Make connections and foster relationships
  • Create a privacy committee for interfacing within the organization
  • Align organizational culture and privacy objectives
_____

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Business Alignment". This refers to the process of aligning the privacy objectives and initiatives with the overall business goals and objectives. It involves making an operational business case for privacy, obtaining budget for privacy and the privacy team, identifying stakeholders and internal partnerships, making connections and fostering relationships, and creating a privacy committee for interfacing within the organization. By aligning the organizational culture and privacy objectives, the business can ensure that privacy is integrated into its operations and decision-making processes.

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134. Business alignment includes the following elements:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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135. Data governance of personal information includes the following elements:

Explanation

The correct answer includes three elements that are crucial for data governance of personal information. Firstly, listing applicable privacy laws, regulations, and standards is important to ensure compliance and protect the privacy of individuals. Secondly, designing an approach to handling and protecting personal information is necessary to establish proper protocols and safeguards. Lastly, considering the entire data lifecycle, including collection, use, access, security, and destruction, is essential to maintain data integrity and minimize risks. These elements collectively contribute to effective data governance and privacy management.

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136. Inquiry/complaint-handling procedures includes the following elements:

Explanation

The given answer suggests that when designing an approach to handling and protecting personal information, it is important to consider processes for regulators, customers, and employees. This means that the organization should have procedures in place to address the needs and concerns of these different groups when it comes to privacy. This could include having mechanisms for responding to regulatory inquiries, addressing customer complaints, and ensuring that employees are trained on privacy policies and procedures. By considering these processes, the organization can ensure that it is effectively addressing privacy concerns from all relevant parties.

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137. Which best describes the advantages of a centralized privacy governance model?

Explanation

A centralized privacy governance model offers streamlined processes and procedures, meaning that there is a standardized and efficient way of handling privacy-related matters. This ensures consistency and reduces the risk of errors or inconsistencies in privacy practices. By having a centralized approach, information flows from the bottom to the top, allowing for better coordination and communication within the organization. Additionally, a centralized model offers the resources of a larger, centralized organization, which can provide more support and expertise in privacy matters.

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138. Which best describes the advantages of a local privacy governance model?

Explanation

A local privacy governance model allows for a bottom-to-top flow of information, meaning that information and feedback can be easily communicated from lower levels of the organization to higher levels. This allows for a more inclusive decision-making process and ensures that the perspectives and insights of employees at all levels are taken into account. This can lead to more informed and effective decision-making.

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139. Which best describes the advantages of a hybrid privacy governance model?

Explanation

A hybrid privacy governance model offers the resources of a larger, centralized organization. This means that the organization can benefit from the expertise, infrastructure, and resources of a larger entity, which can lead to improved efficiency and effectiveness in managing privacy. Additionally, having a centralized organization can help ensure consistency and standardization in privacy practices across different departments or units within the organization. This can be particularly advantageous when dealing with complex privacy regulations and requirements.

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140. Which best describes the disadvantages of a hybrid privacy governance model?

Explanation

The disadvantages of a hybrid privacy governance model include decentralized decision-making which provides less big-picture vision. This means that individual employees may make decisions based on their own perspectives and priorities, without considering the overall goals and strategies of the organization. This lack of centralized decision-making can result in a fragmented approach to privacy governance, with different departments or individuals duplicating efforts or pursuing conflicting strategies. As a result, the organization may struggle to achieve a cohesive and comprehensive privacy program.

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141. Which best describes the disadvantages of a local privacy governance model?

Explanation

The disadvantage of a local privacy governance model is that it lacks a centralized process, which can lead to duplication of efforts. Without a centralized process, different departments or individuals may unknowingly work on the same tasks or projects, wasting time and resources. This lack of coordination and communication can hinder efficiency and productivity within the organization.

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142. Which of the below are Tasks that the DPO is responsible for performing

Explanation

The Data Protection Officer (DPO) is responsible for several tasks related to privacy and compliance. They work closely with regulators to ensure that the organization is compliant with data protection laws and regulations. They also have the responsibility to ensure that the organization is aware of their training and awareness obligations regarding data protection. The DPO needs to keep up with changes in law and technology to ensure that the organization's privacy practices are up to date. Additionally, they are responsible for building, implementing, and managing privacy programs within the organization.

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143. Match the category and skills that a DPO should possess

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144. Match the following DPO responsibilities and categories

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145. True or false. The DPO needs to be located in Europe?

Explanation

The Article 29 Working Party’s “Guidelines on DPOs” recommended the DPO be located in Europe. Logistics, such as ability to communicate with data subjects and regulators, should be of top importance. In addition, we must keep in mind that this individual should be involved in all issues related to the protection of personal data and be in a position to communicate important issues to the highest level of management.

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146. GRC, is an umbrella term whose scope touches the privacy office, as well as other departments, including HR, IT, compliance and the C-suite. GRC tools aim to synchronize various internal functions toward "principled performance"—integrating the governance, management and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance activities. _____

Explanation

The correct answer is "Governance, risk management and compliance." This is because GRC tools are designed to integrate and synchronize various internal functions related to the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance activities. This includes the privacy office, HR, IT, compliance, and the C-suite. GRC encompasses these areas and aims to ensure that organizations adhere to principles and best practices in these areas to achieve principled performance.

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147. Within an organization, the privacy function should always reside within the legal department. true or false?

Explanation

The statement is false because the privacy function within an organization does not always have to reside within the legal department. While legal departments often play a role in ensuring compliance with privacy laws and regulations, the responsibility for privacy can also be assigned to other departments such as IT, data protection, or security. The placement of the privacy function within an organization may vary depending on the organization's structure, industry, and specific privacy requirements.

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148. The chief privacy officer for a telecommunications company wants to revise its privacy mission statement. What steps would be involved in this process? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The chief privacy officer for a telecommunications company would need to evaluate the intended objective of revising the privacy mission statement to ensure that it aligns with the company's goals and values. They would also need to acquire knowledge on privacy approaches to ensure that the revised statement reflects best practices and current industry standards. Gaining executive sponsor approval is important to ensure that the revised statement has the support and backing of top-level management. Finally, communicating the organization's privacy stance to all stakeholders is crucial to ensure transparency and understanding. Monitoring compliance with the company's privacy policies is not directly related to revising the privacy mission statement.

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149. Before determining an organization's privacy strategy, what should a privacy program manager define?

Explanation

Before determining an organization's privacy strategy, a privacy program manager should define the program's scope and charter. This involves clearly defining the boundaries and objectives of the privacy program, as well as identifying the key stakeholders and their roles and responsibilities. By establishing the program's scope and charter, the privacy program manager can ensure that the strategy aligns with the organization's goals and objectives, and that the necessary resources and support are in place for its successful implementation.

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150. In differentiating between a privacy strategy and a privacy framework, how can strategy be defined?

Explanation

In the context of differentiating between a privacy strategy and a privacy framework, the term "strategy" can be defined as the "why." A privacy strategy refers to the underlying reasons or objectives behind the implementation of privacy measures. It involves determining the purpose and goals of privacy initiatives, as well as understanding the potential risks and benefits associated with privacy practices. On the other hand, a privacy framework typically refers to the structure or set of guidelines that outlines how privacy measures should be implemented and managed within an organization.

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151. A law or regulation may constitute a privacy framework. true or false?

Explanation

A law or regulation can indeed constitute a privacy framework. Many countries have enacted laws or regulations specifically designed to protect individuals' privacy rights. These laws establish the legal framework for how personal information should be collected, stored, processed, and shared. They often include provisions for obtaining consent, providing individuals with access to their personal data, and imposing penalties for non-compliance. By setting out these rules and requirements, laws and regulations form the basis for ensuring privacy protection in various contexts, such as data handling by organizations or government surveillance activities.

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152. Match the order of the steps in developing a Privacy Program

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153. What type of privacy governance model is defined by a one team or one-person approach?

Explanation

A centralized privacy governance model is defined by a one team or one-person approach, where a single entity or group is responsible for making decisions and implementing privacy policies and procedures across the organization. This approach allows for consistency and uniformity in privacy practices, as all decisions are made by a central authority. It also ensures that there is a clear chain of command and accountability for privacy-related matters.

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154. The privacy team should always comprise more than one person. true or false?

Explanation

The statement is false because the privacy team does not necessarily have to comprise more than one person. It can consist of a single individual who is responsible for handling privacy-related matters. While having a team of multiple individuals can provide more diverse perspectives and expertise, it is not a requirement for a privacy team to be effective.

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155. Which business function ensures business and regulatory requirements are met through detailed market, credit, trade and counterparty analysis?

Explanation

Risk management is the correct answer because it is responsible for ensuring that business and regulatory requirements are met through detailed market, credit, trade, and counterparty analysis. Risk management identifies potential risks, assesses their potential impact on the organization, and implements strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. This function plays a crucial role in ensuring that the organization operates within legal and regulatory frameworks while also protecting the business from potential financial losses or reputational damage.

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156. Before the acquisition can take place the following should take place:

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157. What are the similarities between Canada's PIPEDA and the European Union's GDPR?

Explanation

Both Canada's PIPEDA and the European Union's GDPR have similarities in terms of individual rights and data transfers. Both regulations provide certain individual rights, such as the right to access and correct personal information. Additionally, both regulations address the issue of data transfers and require that adequate safeguards be in place when transferring data to countries outside of their respective jurisdictions. These similarities highlight the shared goal of protecting individual privacy and ensuring the secure transfer of personal data.

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158. What are the differences between Canada's PIPEDA and the European Union's GDPR?

Explanation

The answer lists some of the differences between Canada's PIPEDA and the European Union's GDPR. These differences include the presence of data portability and right to be forgotten in GDPR, the difficulty of relying solely on consent for processing in GDPR compared to additional options in PIPEDA, and the requirement of data breach reporting under certain circumstances in both regulations.

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159. Understanding the regulatory environment. Because the regulatory environment can be so complex, the privacy team, along with legal or outside counsel, should work directly with regulators to remain compliant. Match the following: • Fines and penalties for non-compliance • The scope and authority of regulators and oversight agencies • And recent or upcoming changes in privacy law

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160. GDPR: Rights and obligations. How familiar are you with the rights and obligations of consumers, organizations and regulators laid out in the EU's General Data Protection Regulation (or GDPR)? Sort each action into the appropriate category.

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161. CCPA: Rights and obligations. How familiar are you with the rights and obligations of consumers, organizations and regulators laid out in the California Consumer Privacy Act (or CCPA)? Sort each action into the appropriate category.

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162. The California Privacy Rights Act (CPRA) ballot initiative was passed. The CPRA amends and expands upon the CCPA in several ways, including requiring the establishment of an enforcement agency, the California Privacy Protection Agency, to implement and enforce consumer privacy laws. The CPRA will be enforceable on January 1, 2023. Top-10 Most Impactful Provisions of the CPRA:

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163. _____ means that one country (or jurisdiction, such as the EU) has deemed another country's data protection laws "adequate" to safeguard its own data. Privacy Shield, the agreement between the EU and the U.S., is an example of an adequacy agreement. See Article 45 of the GDPR for more information.

Explanation

Adequacy decisions refer to the determination made by one country or jurisdiction, such as the EU, that another country's data protection laws are sufficient to protect the privacy and security of its own data. These decisions are based on an evaluation of the country's legal framework, enforcement mechanisms, and individual rights. Adequacy decisions are important for international data transfers, as they allow for the free flow of personal data between countries without the need for additional safeguards. An example of an adequacy agreement is the Privacy Shield between the EU and the U.S., which ensures that data transferred from the EU to certified U.S. companies is adequately protected.

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164. _____ (language written into a contract) may be a way for organizations to facilitate cross-border transfers.In the wake of "Schrems II," the legality of SCCs was upheld, however, companies must verify, on a case-by-case basis, whether the law in the recipient country ensures adequate protection, under EU law, for personal data transferred under SCCs and, where it doesn't, companies must provide additional safeguards or suspend transfers.

Explanation

Standard contractual clauses are a language written into a contract that can help organizations facilitate cross-border transfers. After the "Schrems II" case, the legality of standard contractual clauses was confirmed. However, companies need to assess on a case-by-case basis whether the recipient country's laws provide adequate protection for personal data transferred under these clauses. If the recipient country's laws do not ensure adequate protection, companies must implement additional safeguards or suspend transfers.

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165. Under the GDPR, _____ resemble the self-regulatory programs used elsewhere to demonstrate to regulators and consumers that a company adheres to certain information privacy standards. Like codes of conduct, certification is available to controllers and processors outside the EU, provided they demonstrate, by contractual or other legally binding instruments, their willingness to adhere to the mandated data protection safeguards.

Explanation

See Also: Self-certification mechanisms

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166. _____ may also be used for GDPR compliance, although they must receive prior supervisory authority approval and thus are potentially a less attractive option for controllers.

Explanation

Ad hoc contractual clauses may also be used for GDPR compliance, although they must receive prior supervisory authority approval and thus are potentially a less attractive option for controllers.

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167. Under the GDPR, BCRs require approval from a supervisory authority. At a minimum, BCRs must include structure and contact details for the concerned group, information about the data and transfer processes, how the rules apply to general data protection principles, complaint procedures, and compliance mechanisms. _____

Explanation

Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs) are a set of legally binding internal rules that govern the transfer of personal data within a multinational organization. BCRs require approval from a supervisory authority, which ensures that the organization has implemented appropriate safeguards for the protection of personal data. BCRs must include various elements such as the structure and contact details of the concerned group, information about the data and transfer processes, how the rules align with general data protection principles, complaint procedures, and compliance mechanisms. Therefore, the correct answer is Binding corporate rules.

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168. Which are common elements of privacy-related legislation across jurisdictions? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Common elements of privacy-related legislation across jurisdictions include requirements for ensuring individual rights, security obligations, and Fair Information Practices (FIPs). These elements are essential to protect individuals' privacy and ensure that their rights are respected. Security obligations ensure that appropriate measures are taken to safeguard personal information, while requirements for ensuring individual rights guarantee that individuals have control over their personal data. FIPs provide guidelines for the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information, promoting transparency and accountability in privacy practices.

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169. Privacy and data protection regulators/oversight agencies have the right to impose penalties for noncompliance, including fines. true or false?

Explanation

Privacy and data protection regulators/oversight agencies have the authority to enforce penalties, including fines, for organizations that fail to comply with privacy and data protection regulations. This ensures that businesses take the necessary measures to protect individuals' personal information and maintain their privacy rights.

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170. What can controllers and processors do to avoid incurring penalties from regulators for noncompliance with laws and regulations? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Controllers and processors can avoid incurring penalties from regulators for noncompliance with laws and regulations by knowing which regulators oversee which processing activities within the organization. This ensures that they are aware of the specific regulations and requirements that apply to their operations. They should also ensure that regulators receive notification of data breaches under some circumstances, as this demonstrates transparency and compliance with reporting obligations. Additionally, they should stay updated and informed about any changes in legal obligations that may arise due to changes in the organization, such as mergers or acquisitions. This allows them to adapt their processes and procedures accordingly to remain compliant. Conducting data protection impact assessments whenever personal data is being processed is also a good practice to identify and address any potential risks or compliance issues.

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171. Two global pharmaceutical companies have recently merged. What are some actions they could take to remain in compliance with privacy-related laws and regulations? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The correct answer options suggest actions that the merged pharmaceutical companies could take to ensure compliance with privacy-related laws and regulations. Working with legal helps them navigate the complex regulatory environment and stay compliant. Creating a roadmap or "crosswalk" helps identify areas where legal requirements overlap, making it easier to address them. Working with regulators and oversight agencies helps understand their scope and authority, ensuring compliance with their guidelines. Understanding the corporate risks associated with merging with a company that has different regulatory concerns helps mitigate any potential compliance issues.

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172. Using a valid mechanism for transferring personal information across borders, such as binding corporate rules, allows for the legal processing of that data. true or false?

Explanation

Using a valid mechanism for transferring personal information across borders, such as binding corporate rules, does allow for the legal processing of that data. Therefore, the correct answer should be True.

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173. Which cross-border data transfer mechanism is used to demonstrate to regulators and consumers that a company adheres to certain information privacy standards?

Explanation

Codes of conduct are a cross-border data transfer mechanism used to demonstrate to regulators and consumers that a company adheres to certain information privacy standards. Codes of conduct are voluntary commitments made by organizations to follow specific privacy standards and practices. These codes are developed by industry associations or other groups and provide a framework for companies to demonstrate their commitment to protecting personal data. By adhering to a code of conduct, companies can build trust with regulators and consumers by showing that they are taking proactive measures to protect privacy.

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174. Match the elements to either Data Inventory & Mapping or Privacy Assessments

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175. Match the elements with with the considerations for building a data inventory to the stages of the data life cycle.

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176. Match the following events with the relevant department in an organization that may prompt a data mapping update.

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177. From the list, check the events that may trigger the need for a Privacy Impact Assessment PIA

Explanation

The events listed in the answer all have the potential to trigger the need for a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA). Conversion of information from anonymous to identifiable format, conversion of records from paper-based to electronic format, significant merging, matching, and manipulation of multiple databases containing personal information, application of user-authentication technology to a publicly accessible system, system management changes involving significant new uses and/or application of new technologies, incorporating personal information obtained from commercial or public sources into existing databases, significant new inter-agency exchanges or uses of personal information, alteration of a business process resulting in significant new collection, use and disclosure of personal information, alteration of the character of personal information due to addition of qualitatively new types, and implementation of projects using third-party service providers all involve changes or actions that can impact privacy and therefore require a PIA.

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178. Match the following components of a DPIA in the order conducted.

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179. In addition to identifying areas of non-compliance, assessments may determine other privacy risks. Eric works for a financial institution that digitally stores all client records and destroys paper copies. He has discovered that, when working with a client, saving the record to his desktop makes accessing information easier and quicker. A conversation with Eric's team leader during their annual privacy assessment uncovers this practice that is both non-compliant with company privacy policy and puts personal information at risk of a breach. What are the privacy implications of this shortcut? Select all that apply.

Explanation

All are correct except for Eric losing his job—while it may be a risk, it is not a privacy implication.

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180. Match the considerations with the elements involved in assessing vendors:

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181. Match the terms to complete the sentences about items in a vendor assessment checklist.

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182. Mergers, acquisitions and divestitures serve as key junctures for assessing privacy risks. These processes should include a privacy checkpoint that evaluates:

Explanation

Divestitures should include a privacy check to ensure no unauthorized information—including personal information—remains on the organization’s infrastructure.

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183. Which of the following is a common function of a data inventory? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A data inventory is a comprehensive list or database of all the data assets and resources within an organization. It is used to assess the data, systems, and processes in order to gain a better understanding of the organization's data landscape. By assessing the data, systems, and processes, the organization can identify any gaps or areas for improvement. The data inventory also informs data assessments by providing the necessary information and context for evaluating the quality, accuracy, and relevance of the data. Additionally, it informs data classification by helping to categorize and organize the data based on its sensitivity, confidentiality, and regulatory requirements.

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184. Which of the following elements may be found in a data inventory? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A data inventory is a comprehensive record of all the data assets within an organization. It includes information about how data flows within the organization, the classification of data based on its sensitivity or importance, the record of authority for accessing and managing the data within organizational systems, and the types and uses of the data. Therefore, all of the given options - data flows, classification of data, record of authority of organizational systems, and types and uses of data - may be found in a data inventory.

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185. True or false? Data inventories are almost always created and maintained by the legal function within an organization.

Explanation

Data inventories are not almost always created and maintained by the legal function within an organization. While the legal department may play a role in ensuring compliance with data protection laws and regulations, data inventories are typically created and maintained by the data governance or data management function within an organization. These teams are responsible for identifying and cataloging all data assets, including personal data, across the organization. They work closely with various departments, such as IT, security, and compliance, to ensure accurate and up-to-date data inventories are maintained.

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186. Which of the following is a potential tool for keeping a data inventory up-to-date? Select all that apply.

Explanation

GRC software, spreadsheets and manual processes, and an internally developed system are all potential tools for keeping a data inventory up-to-date. GRC software can help automate the process of tracking and managing data inventory, ensuring that it is always up-to-date. Spreadsheets and manual processes can be used to manually track and update the data inventory, although this may be more time-consuming and prone to errors. An internally developed system can be customized to meet specific organizational needs and requirements for managing the data inventory effectively.

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187. Which of the following is an assessment that measures how closely an organization's practices align with its legal obligations and stated practices?

Explanation

A privacy assessment is an evaluation that measures how well an organization's practices align with its legal obligations and stated practices regarding privacy. This assessment focuses specifically on privacy-related issues and helps identify any gaps or areas of improvement in the organization's privacy practices. It ensures that the organization is compliant with privacy laws and regulations and helps in safeguarding individuals' personal information.

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188. True or false? A privacy impact assessment can help facilitate privacy by design.

Explanation

A privacy impact assessment is a systematic process to identify and assess the potential privacy risks and impacts of a project or initiative. By conducting a privacy impact assessment, organizations can identify and address privacy concerns early in the development process, thereby incorporating privacy by design principles. Privacy by design refers to the practice of considering privacy and data protection throughout the entire lifecycle of a project, from the initial design phase to implementation and beyond. Therefore, a privacy impact assessment can indeed help facilitate privacy by design.

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189. Ideally, when should a PIA be conducted? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) should be conducted prior to the deployment of a project, product, or service that involves the collection of personal information to ensure that privacy considerations are addressed from the beginning. It should also be conducted when there are new or revised industry standards, organizational policies, or laws and regulations to ensure compliance and adapt to any changes. Additionally, a PIA should be conducted when the organization makes changes to methods in which personal information is handled that create new privacy risks, to identify and address any potential privacy issues that may arise.

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190. Which of the following are methods for assessing vendors? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The methods for assessing vendors include privacy and security questionnaires, privacy impact assessments, and checklists. These methods help evaluate the vendors' compliance with privacy and security requirements. Privacy and security questionnaires enable organizations to gather information about the vendors' data protection practices. Privacy impact assessments assess the potential privacy risks associated with the vendor's products or services. Checklists provide a systematic approach to evaluate the vendor's capabilities and adherence to specific criteria. These methods collectively help organizations make informed decisions about selecting vendors that meet their privacy and security requirements.

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191. A privacy policy is one of the two primary types of documents that communicate privacy practices. Select the best definition from the list.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Internal document addressed to employees that clearly states how the organization handles personal information." This answer is the best definition because it specifically mentions that the document is internal and addresses employees. It also states that the document clearly states how the organization handles personal information, which aligns with the purpose of a privacy policy.

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192. Information security policies: Access and data classification. Internal information security policies serve which of the following purposes:

Explanation

Internal information security policies serve multiple purposes. They aim to protect against unauthorized access to data and information systems, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access sensitive information. These policies also prioritize providing stakeholders with information efficiently while maintaining confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) of the data. Additionally, they promote compliance with laws, regulations, standards, and other organizational policies to ensure that the organization operates within legal and ethical boundaries. Lastly, information security policies also strive to promote data quality, ensuring that data is accurate, reliable, and consistent.

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193. Vendors should be held to the same privacy standards as the organization. When you're engaging vendors, which of the following should be considered:

Explanation

When engaging vendors, it is important to consider several factors to ensure that they meet the same privacy standards as the organization. Creating a policy that outlines the selection and logistics, as well as identifying vendors and their legal obligations, helps to establish clear expectations. Evaluating risk, policies, and server locations allows for a thorough assessment of the vendor's capabilities and potential risks. Developing a thorough contract ensures that both parties are aware of their responsibilities and obligations. Finally, monitoring the vendors' practices and performance ensures that they continue to meet the required privacy standards.

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194. Procurement: Engaging vendors Match the considerations with the elements of each stage of vendor policies.

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195. HR handles diverse employee personal information and typically will have policies to guide processing. Match the concerns to be addressed through the corresponding types of HR policies:

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196. Data retention and destruction policies should support the idea that personal information should only be retained for as long as necessary to perform its stated purpose. Data destruction triggers and methods should be documented and followed consistently by all employees. These should align with laws, regulations and standards, such as time limits for which records must be saved. Ownership of a data retention/destruction policy may vary and intersect with privacy, legal, IT, operations, finance, the business function and so on. What actions could an organization take to develop a data retention policy? Select all that apply from the list.

Explanation

To develop a data retention policy, an organization should first determine what data is currently being retained, how it is being retained, and where it is stored. They should then work with legal to understand and comply with applicable legal data retention requirements. Brainstorming scenarios that would require data retention helps identify specific cases where data may need to be retained. Estimating the business impacts of retaining versus destroying the data helps weigh the costs and benefits. Finally, working with IT is necessary to develop and implement the actual policy.

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197. Privacy-related policies will not be effective if individuals do not care about or follow them. What order should privacy-related policies developed and implemented?

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198. Implementing policies. Privacy-related policies will not be effective if individuals do not care about or follow them.  Match the policies with the existing business procedures:

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199. Select the ones you like

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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200. An information security team is crafting an internal document that explains classifications of data processed on the company's data management system, as well as designates which employees and vendors may process each classification type. What is this document?

Explanation

This document is an information security policy. It outlines the classifications of data processed on the company's data management system and designates which employees and vendors may process each classification type. An information security policy is a set of guidelines and procedures that organizations use to protect their sensitive information and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data. It helps to establish the rules and responsibilities for employees and vendors regarding the handling and processing of data, ensuring that proper security measures are in place.

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The information life cycle recognizes that data has different value,...
Opting-in means an individual makes an active, affirmative indication...
True or false? All incidents are breaches, but not all breaches are...
Information security provides physical, technical and administrative...
True or false? When communicating about a breach, an organization...
Can you identify the five phases of a privacy program audit?
Which best describes the disadvantages of a centralized privacy...
Why does an organization need a privacy program? Identify the number 3...
In the U.S., many industries have sector-specific privacy-related laws...
A privacy policy is generally an internal document that is addressed...
How do information security and privacy teams work in concert, so that...
Control types and categories. Information security provides physical,...
Information security provides physical, technical and administrative...
Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A...
A metric owner is a process owner, champion and advocate responsible...
The implementation of appropriate technical and organizational...
DLP network, storage, scans and privacy tools can be used to identify...
A U.S. professional organization of certified public accountants and...
The process in which individually identifiable data is altered in such...
_____ takes specific identifying values and makes them broader, such...
_____ addition takes identifying values from a given data set and...
_____ is the most basic version of anonymization and it simply removes...
Anonymization is the process in which individually identifiable data...
A set of non-binding principles adopted by the Asia-Pacific Economic...
The first of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle _____
Privacy Operational Life Cycle  Focused on refining and improving...
High-level, five-phase audit approach. The steps include: Audit...
Audit Life Cycle is a high-level, five-phase audit approach. The steps...
_____ is targeted at individuals based on the observation of their...
_____ are appropriate safeguards allowed by the General Data...
The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoC) enforces the...
The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoCP) stops...
The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoE) helps the...
The starting point for assessing the needs of the privacy...
BCDR or _____ is a risk mitigation plan designed to prepare an...
The _____ (BCP) is typically drafted and maintained by key...
_____ (COPPA) is a U.S. federal law that applies to the operators of...
In the context of consent, _____ refers to the idea that consent must...
Three common information security principles from the 1960s. _____
The three common information security principles from the 1960s that...
A fair information practices principle, it is the principle stating...
This privacy requirement is one of the fair information practices....
A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her...
Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from...
Any person or entity that complies or evaluates personal information...
"As-is" data privacy requirements; the current environment and any...
Relatively new form of insurance protection that fills gaps typically...
The unauthorized acquisition of computerized data that compromises the...
The natural or legal person, public authority, agency or any other...
Also known as a record of authority, identifies personal data as it...
Also known as Information Life Cycle Management (ILM) or data...
The idea that one should only collect and retain that personal data...
Independent public authorities that supervise the application of data...
Required by the General Data Protection Regulation in some instances,...
A fair information practices principle, it is the principle that...
Also known as "local governance," this governance model involves the...
When the seller directly contacts an individual. _____
Proposed regulatory policy, similar to the existing Do-Not-Call...
This law updated the Federal Wiretap Act of 1968. As amended, it...
This Directive was replaced by the General Data Protection...
Performed to determine the capability of current privacy management to...
_____ (GAPP) is a framework promulgated by the American Institute of...
_____ or GLBA is the commonly used name for The Financial Services...
A U.S. law passed to create national standards for electronic...
This privacy governance model allows for a combination of centralized...
It is fair information practices principle that an individual should...
_____ recognizes that data has different value, and requires...
Also known as (DLM) or data governance, ILM is a policy-based approach...
Practices that provide management, technical and operational controls...
Also known as "the C-I-A triad"; consists of three common information...
Professionals and departments within an organization who have...
The authority of a court to hear a particular case. _____
Also known as "decentralized governance," this governance model...
The processes and methods to sustain a metric to match the...
The processes and methods to sustain a metric to match the...
Tools that facilitate decision-making and accountability through...
_____ or NIST is an agency within the Department of Commerce. NIST has...
An organization will be liable for damages if it breaches a legal duty...
NPI is defined by GLBA as: (i) provided by a consumer to a financial...
A fair information practices principle. There should be a general...
One of two central concepts of choice. It means an individual makes an...
One of two central concepts of choice. It means an individual's lack...
_____ (OECD) An international organization that promotes policies...
A self-regulatory system that provides an enforceable security...
The process of formulating or selecting metrics to evaluate...
Defined broadly in the General Data Protection Regulation as any...
A synonym for "personal data." It is a term with particular...
_____ (PIPEDA) A Canadian act with two goals: (1) to instill trust in...
_____ (P3P) A machine-readable language that helps to express a...
_____ as a specific term was first outlined in a framework in the...
An executive who serves as the privacy program sponsor and acts as an...
"An analysis of how information is handled: (i) to ensure handling...
Provides a standardized reference for companies to use in assessing...
Focused on refining and improving privacy processes, this model...
An implementation roadmap that provides the structure or checklists...
One tool used to determine whether a PIA should be conducted. _____
Privacy technology standards developed solely to be used for the...
Unless otherwise restricted by law, any individual that is harmed by a...
_____ The second of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle.
Any individually identifiable health information transmitted or...
Data points which are not directly associated with a specific...
Requires that the parties are prohibited from using or disclosing...
The fourth of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle. _____
Within the information life cycle, the concept that organizations...
An indicator used to measure the financial gain/loss (or "value") of a...
Under Article 15 of the Data Protection Directive, individuals are...
A fair information practices principle, it is the principle that...
A general term for how attackers can try to persuade a user to provide...
Individual executives within an organization who lead and "own" the...
The first high-level task necessary to implementing proactive privacy...
The first high-level task in Strategic Management necessary to...
Most legislation recognizes that data breach notifications involving...
The third of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle. It...
Commercial conduct that intentionally causes substantial injury,...
A partnership between the Department of Homeland Security and the...
Fourteen generic information security practice competency areas,...
Assessment of a third-party vendor for the vendor's privacy and...
Recordings that do not have sound. _____
Created by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants...
• Identify privacy obligations ...
Include: ...
Why does an organization need a privacy program? Identify the number 1...
Why does an organization need a privacy program? Identify the number 2...
What is the most important aspect of privacy program management?
True or false? Regulatory compliance is often the primary motivation...
A privacy program should integrate privacy requirements and...
Customer service employees for a health insurance company are granted...
The most senior officer responsible for privacy in an organization,...
A statement of an organization concisely communicates its privacy...
Privacy Vision or Mission Statement of an organization concisely...
Elements of a privacy vision and mission:
Privacy Strategy Business Alignment Elements
These elements include: ...
Business alignment includes the following elements:
Data governance of personal information includes the following...
Inquiry/complaint-handling procedures includes the following elements:
Which best describes the advantages of a centralized privacy...
Which best describes the advantages of a local privacy governance...
Which best describes the advantages of a hybrid privacy governance...
Which best describes the disadvantages of a hybrid privacy governance...
Which best describes the disadvantages of a local privacy governance...
Which of the below are Tasks that the DPO is responsible for...
Match the category and skills that a DPO should possess
Match the following DPO responsibilities and categories
True or false. The DPO needs to be located in Europe?
GRC, is an umbrella term whose scope touches the privacy office, as...
Within an organization, the privacy function should always reside...
The chief privacy officer for a telecommunications company wants to...
Before determining an organization's privacy strategy, what should a...
In differentiating between a privacy strategy and a privacy framework,...
A law or regulation may constitute a privacy framework. true or false?
Match the order of the steps in developing a Privacy Program
What type of privacy governance model is defined by a one team or...
The privacy team should always comprise more than one person. true or...
Which business function ensures business and regulatory requirements...
Before the acquisition can take place the following should take place:
What are the similarities between Canada's PIPEDA and the European...
What are the differences between Canada's PIPEDA and the European...
Understanding the regulatory environment. Because the regulatory...
GDPR: Rights and obligations. How familiar are you with the rights and...
CCPA: Rights and obligations. How familiar are you with the rights and...
The California Privacy Rights Act (CPRA) ballot initiative was passed....
_____ means that one country (or jurisdiction, such as the EU) has...
_____ (language written into a contract) may be a way for...
Under the GDPR, _____ resemble the self-regulatory programs used...
_____ may also be used for GDPR compliance, although they must receive...
Under the GDPR, BCRs require approval from a supervisory authority. At...
Which are common elements of privacy-related legislation across...
Privacy and data protection regulators/oversight agencies have the...
What can controllers and processors do to avoid incurring penalties...
Two global pharmaceutical companies have recently merged. What are...
Using a valid mechanism for transferring personal information across...
Which cross-border data transfer mechanism is used to demonstrate to...
Match the elements to either Data Inventory & Mapping or Privacy...
Match the elements with with the considerations for building a data...
Match the following events with the relevant department in an...
From the list, check the events that may trigger the need for a...
Match the following components of a DPIA in the order conducted.
In addition to identifying areas of non-compliance, assessments may...
Match the considerations with the elements involved in assessing...
Match the terms to complete the sentences about items in a vendor...
Mergers, acquisitions and divestitures serve as key junctures for...
Which of the following is a common function of a data inventory?...
Which of the following elements may be found in a data inventory?...
True or false? Data inventories are almost always created and...
Which of the following is a potential tool for keeping a data...
Which of the following is an assessment that measures how closely an...
True or false? A privacy impact assessment can help facilitate privacy...
Ideally, when should a PIA be conducted? Select all that apply.
Which of the following are methods for assessing vendors? Select all...
A privacy policy is one of the two primary types of documents that...
Information security policies: Access and data classification....
Vendors should be held to the same privacy standards as the...
Procurement: Engaging vendors Match the considerations with the...
HR handles diverse employee personal information and typically will...
Data retention and destruction policies should support the idea that...
Privacy-related policies will not be effective if individuals do not...
Implementing policies. Privacy-related policies will not be effective...
Select the ones you like
An information security team is crafting an internal document that...
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