Certified Information Privacy Manager (C.I.P.M.) Exam Prep Test

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1. Opting-in means an individual makes an active, affirmative indication of choice—for example, by checking a box to signal her desire to share her information with third parties. This choice should be clear and easy to execute. true or false?

Explanation

Opting-in refers to the act of actively and affirmatively indicating a choice, such as checking a box, to express the desire to share personal information with third parties. The statement correctly states that this choice should be clear and easy to execute. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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About This Quiz
Professional Certification Quizzes & Trivia

Prepare for the Certified Information Privacy Manager (C. I. P. M. ) exam with this targeted test. Assess your understanding of data protection laws like GDPR, techniques like... see moreanonymization, and accountability measures. Essential for professionals enhancing their privacy management skills. see less

2. True or false? All incidents are breaches, but not all breaches are incidents.

Explanation

This statement is incorrect. The correct statement would be "All breaches are incidents, but not all incidents are breaches." This means that every breach is an incident, but there are incidents that may not necessarily be breaches.

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3. The information life cycle recognizes that data has different value, and requires approaches, as it moves through an organization from collection to deletion. The stages are generally considered to be:
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4. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Controls can also be divided into several categories based on the control objective. Select all the elements which are technical controls.

Explanation

Technical controls are measures that are implemented through technology to protect information and systems. Logins, virus software, and firewalls are all examples of technical controls. Logins provide authentication and access control to ensure that only authorized users can access data. Virus software detects and removes malicious software that can harm systems and data. Firewalls monitor and control network traffic to prevent unauthorized access and protect against network-based attacks. These controls are specifically designed to address technical vulnerabilities and protect against unauthorized access and attacks on information systems.

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5. True or false? When communicating about a breach, an organization should make internal announcements well in advance of external announcements.

Explanation

When communicating about a breach, an organization should not make internal announcements well in advance of external announcements. This is because it can lead to confusion and speculation among employees, potentially causing panic or misinformation to spread. It is generally recommended to coordinate internal and external announcements to ensure consistent messaging and to minimize the impact on affected parties.

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6. Can you identify the five phases of a privacy program audit?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Audit planning, audit preparation, audit, report and follow-up." This sequence outlines the five phases of a privacy program audit. First, the audit planning phase involves determining the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit. Then, in the audit preparation phase, the necessary resources and documentation are gathered. The audit phase itself involves conducting the actual audit, which includes data collection, interviews, and analysis. Following the audit, a report is generated to summarize the findings and recommendations. Finally, the follow-up phase involves implementing the recommended actions and monitoring their effectiveness.

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7. Which best describes the disadvantages of a centralized privacy governance model?

Explanation

The disadvantages of a centralized privacy governance model include the fact that individual employees cannot make decisions. In this model, decision-making power is concentrated at the top levels of the organization, limiting the autonomy and authority of individual employees. This can lead to delays in decision-making, lack of flexibility, and decreased employee morale. It also hinders innovation and creativity, as ideas and suggestions from lower-level employees may not be taken into account. Overall, this lack of decision-making authority for individual employees can be a significant drawback of a centralized privacy governance model.

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8. In the U.S., many industries have sector-specific privacy-related laws or concerns with implications for consumers. Match each privacy concern with the sector to which it applies.

Explanation

While the intention of this exercise is to highlight specific relevant privacy issues for certain sectors, correct answers may be subjective.

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9. A privacy policy is generally an internal document that is addressed to employees. Policies clearly state how personal information is going to be handled. When launching communications related to the privacy program, which of the following considerations should be made:

Explanation

The suggested answer provides a comprehensive list of considerations that should be made when launching communications related to the privacy program. It emphasizes the importance of determining the goals of the policy, whether it is to spread knowledge or change behavior. It also highlights the need to collaborate with the communications team and utilize existing communication modes like a company intranet. Identifying the functional areas that align with the privacy program, motivating employees, and using metrics to demonstrate the value of privacy are also crucial aspects to consider. Lastly, understanding the audience is essential for effective communication.

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10. How do information security and privacy teams work in concert, so that their respective spends can complement each other? Check all that apply.

Explanation

Information security and privacy teams can work together by increasing the involvement of privacy personnel on information security teams. This ensures that privacy concerns are considered during the development and implementation of security measures. Additionally, employing core privacy functions with an IT orientation helps to better understand the data and corporate risks involved. Increased investment in privacy technology allows for more effective protection of sensitive information. The use of privacy impact assessments and data inventory and classification helps to identify and manage privacy risks. Lastly, implementing data retention policies ensures that data is stored and disposed of appropriately, protecting privacy.

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11. Control types and categories. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Match the control type with the categories:
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12. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Controls can also be divided into several categories based on the control objective. Select all the elements which are corrective controls.

Explanation

Corrective controls are measures taken to correct or mitigate the impact of a security incident or breach. In this case, business continuity plans, back-up data restoration, and updated policies are all examples of corrective controls. Business continuity plans help organizations recover from disruptions and continue operations, while back-up data restoration ensures that data can be restored in the event of a loss. Updated policies help address vulnerabilities and prevent future incidents.

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13. Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A Taxonomy of Privacy," wherein he proposed a common taxonomy of privacy risk factors. Although many of these activities can pose risks to privacy, they also have many benefits. For an organization, the key is in ensuring that impacts to privacy are identified and minimized by an organization. Select each description that is an element of Information dissemination:

Explanation

The correct answer includes several elements that are related to the dissemination of information. Breach of confidentiality refers to the unauthorized disclosure of confidential information. Disclosure refers to the intentional release of information to others. Exposure refers to the potential for information to be accessed or viewed by unauthorized individuals. Increased accessibility refers to making information more readily available to a larger audience. Blackmail refers to the act of using sensitive information to extort or manipulate someone. Appropriation refers to the unauthorized use or taking of someone else's information. Distortion refers to the alteration or misrepresentation of information.

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14. A metric owner is a process owner, champion and advocate responsible for management of the metric throughout the metric lifecycle. This person should have privacy knowledge, training and experience—to limit possible errors interpreting privacy-related laws, regulations and practices. Select the metric owner responsibilities.

Explanation

In addition:
o Minimize variance within a metric.
o Develop documentation of metrics using flowcharts, visual displays, graphics and other methods.
o Champion the metric in meetings, working groups and in other organization communications.

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15. Why does an organization need a privacy program? Identify the number 3 privacy team responsibility.

Explanation

An organization needs a privacy program to safeguard data against attacks and threats. This responsibility is crucial in protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access, ensuring the security and integrity of data. By implementing measures to prevent data breaches and cyberattacks, the organization can maintain the trust of its customers and stakeholders, avoid potential legal and financial consequences, and protect its reputation in the marketplace.

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16. Business alignment includes the following elements:

Explanation

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17. Data governance of personal information includes the following elements:

Explanation

The correct answer includes three elements that are crucial for data governance of personal information. Firstly, listing applicable privacy laws, regulations, and standards is important to ensure compliance and protect the privacy of individuals. Secondly, designing an approach to handling and protecting personal information is necessary to establish proper protocols and safeguards. Lastly, considering the entire data lifecycle, including collection, use, access, security, and destruction, is essential to maintain data integrity and minimize risks. These elements collectively contribute to effective data governance and privacy management.

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18. Inquiry/complaint-handling procedures includes the following elements:

Explanation

The given answer suggests that when designing an approach to handling and protecting personal information, it is important to consider processes for regulators, customers, and employees. This means that the organization should have procedures in place to address the needs and concerns of these different groups when it comes to privacy. This could include having mechanisms for responding to regulatory inquiries, addressing customer complaints, and ensuring that employees are trained on privacy policies and procedures. By considering these processes, the organization can ensure that it is effectively addressing privacy concerns from all relevant parties.

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19. Which best describes the advantages of a centralized privacy governance model?

Explanation

A centralized privacy governance model offers streamlined processes and procedures, meaning that there is a standardized and efficient way of handling privacy-related matters. This ensures consistency and reduces the risk of errors or inconsistencies in privacy practices. By having a centralized approach, information flows from the bottom to the top, allowing for better coordination and communication within the organization. Additionally, a centralized model offers the resources of a larger, centralized organization, which can provide more support and expertise in privacy matters.

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20. Which best describes the advantages of a local privacy governance model?

Explanation

A local privacy governance model allows for a bottom-to-top flow of information, meaning that information and feedback can be easily communicated from lower levels of the organization to higher levels. This allows for a more inclusive decision-making process and ensures that the perspectives and insights of employees at all levels are taken into account. This can lead to more informed and effective decision-making.

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21. Which best describes the advantages of a hybrid privacy governance model?

Explanation

A hybrid privacy governance model offers the resources of a larger, centralized organization. This means that the organization can benefit from the expertise, infrastructure, and resources of a larger entity, which can lead to improved efficiency and effectiveness in managing privacy. Additionally, having a centralized organization can help ensure consistency and standardization in privacy practices across different departments or units within the organization. This can be particularly advantageous when dealing with complex privacy regulations and requirements.

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22. Which best describes the disadvantages of a hybrid privacy governance model?

Explanation

The disadvantages of a hybrid privacy governance model include decentralized decision-making which provides less big-picture vision. This means that individual employees may make decisions based on their own perspectives and priorities, without considering the overall goals and strategies of the organization. This lack of centralized decision-making can result in a fragmented approach to privacy governance, with different departments or individuals duplicating efforts or pursuing conflicting strategies. As a result, the organization may struggle to achieve a cohesive and comprehensive privacy program.

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23. Which best describes the disadvantages of a local privacy governance model?

Explanation

The disadvantage of a local privacy governance model is that it lacks a centralized process, which can lead to duplication of efforts. Without a centralized process, different departments or individuals may unknowingly work on the same tasks or projects, wasting time and resources. This lack of coordination and communication can hinder efficiency and productivity within the organization.

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24. Which of the below are Tasks that the DPO is responsible for performing

Explanation

The Data Protection Officer (DPO) is responsible for several tasks related to privacy and compliance. They work closely with regulators to ensure that the organization is compliant with data protection laws and regulations. They also have the responsibility to ensure that the organization is aware of their training and awareness obligations regarding data protection. The DPO needs to keep up with changes in law and technology to ensure that the organization's privacy practices are up to date. Additionally, they are responsible for building, implementing, and managing privacy programs within the organization.

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25. Match the category and skills that a DPO should possess
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26. Match the following DPO responsibilities and categories
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27. True or false. The DPO needs to be located in Europe?

Explanation

The Article 29 Working Party’s “Guidelines on DPOs” recommended the DPO be located in Europe. Logistics, such as ability to communicate with data subjects and regulators, should be of top importance. In addition, we must keep in mind that this individual should be involved in all issues related to the protection of personal data and be in a position to communicate important issues to the highest level of management.

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28. GRC, is an umbrella term whose scope touches the privacy office, as well as other departments, including HR, IT, compliance and the C-suite. GRC tools aim to synchronize various internal functions toward "principled performance"—integrating the governance, management and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance activities. _____

Explanation

The correct answer is "Governance, risk management and compliance." This is because GRC tools are designed to integrate and synchronize various internal functions related to the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance activities. This includes the privacy office, HR, IT, compliance, and the C-suite. GRC encompasses these areas and aims to ensure that organizations adhere to principles and best practices in these areas to achieve principled performance.

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29. Within an organization, the privacy function should always reside within the legal department. true or false?

Explanation

The statement is false because the privacy function within an organization does not always have to reside within the legal department. While legal departments often play a role in ensuring compliance with privacy laws and regulations, the responsibility for privacy can also be assigned to other departments such as IT, data protection, or security. The placement of the privacy function within an organization may vary depending on the organization's structure, industry, and specific privacy requirements.

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30. The chief privacy officer for a telecommunications company wants to revise its privacy mission statement. What steps would be involved in this process? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The chief privacy officer for a telecommunications company would need to evaluate the intended objective of revising the privacy mission statement to ensure that it aligns with the company's goals and values. They would also need to acquire knowledge on privacy approaches to ensure that the revised statement reflects best practices and current industry standards. Gaining executive sponsor approval is important to ensure that the revised statement has the support and backing of top-level management. Finally, communicating the organization's privacy stance to all stakeholders is crucial to ensure transparency and understanding. Monitoring compliance with the company's privacy policies is not directly related to revising the privacy mission statement.

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31. Before determining an organization's privacy strategy, what should a privacy program manager define?

Explanation

Before determining an organization's privacy strategy, a privacy program manager should define the program's scope and charter. This involves clearly defining the boundaries and objectives of the privacy program, as well as identifying the key stakeholders and their roles and responsibilities. By establishing the program's scope and charter, the privacy program manager can ensure that the strategy aligns with the organization's goals and objectives, and that the necessary resources and support are in place for its successful implementation.

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32. In differentiating between a privacy strategy and a privacy framework, how can strategy be defined?

Explanation

In the context of differentiating between a privacy strategy and a privacy framework, the term "strategy" can be defined as the "why." A privacy strategy refers to the underlying reasons or objectives behind the implementation of privacy measures. It involves determining the purpose and goals of privacy initiatives, as well as understanding the potential risks and benefits associated with privacy practices. On the other hand, a privacy framework typically refers to the structure or set of guidelines that outlines how privacy measures should be implemented and managed within an organization.

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33. A law or regulation may constitute a privacy framework. true or false?

Explanation

A law or regulation can indeed constitute a privacy framework. Many countries have enacted laws or regulations specifically designed to protect individuals' privacy rights. These laws establish the legal framework for how personal information should be collected, stored, processed, and shared. They often include provisions for obtaining consent, providing individuals with access to their personal data, and imposing penalties for non-compliance. By setting out these rules and requirements, laws and regulations form the basis for ensuring privacy protection in various contexts, such as data handling by organizations or government surveillance activities.

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34. Match the order of the steps in developing a Privacy Program
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35. What type of privacy governance model is defined by a one team or one-person approach?

Explanation

A centralized privacy governance model is defined by a one team or one-person approach, where a single entity or group is responsible for making decisions and implementing privacy policies and procedures across the organization. This approach allows for consistency and uniformity in privacy practices, as all decisions are made by a central authority. It also ensures that there is a clear chain of command and accountability for privacy-related matters.

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36. The privacy team should always comprise more than one person. true or false?

Explanation

The statement is false because the privacy team does not necessarily have to comprise more than one person. It can consist of a single individual who is responsible for handling privacy-related matters. While having a team of multiple individuals can provide more diverse perspectives and expertise, it is not a requirement for a privacy team to be effective.

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37. Which business function ensures business and regulatory requirements are met through detailed market, credit, trade and counterparty analysis?

Explanation

Risk management is the correct answer because it is responsible for ensuring that business and regulatory requirements are met through detailed market, credit, trade, and counterparty analysis. Risk management identifies potential risks, assesses their potential impact on the organization, and implements strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. This function plays a crucial role in ensuring that the organization operates within legal and regulatory frameworks while also protecting the business from potential financial losses or reputational damage.

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38. Before the acquisition can take place the following should take place:
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39. What are the similarities between Canada's PIPEDA and the European Union's GDPR?

Explanation

Both Canada's PIPEDA and the European Union's GDPR have similarities in terms of individual rights and data transfers. Both regulations provide certain individual rights, such as the right to access and correct personal information. Additionally, both regulations address the issue of data transfers and require that adequate safeguards be in place when transferring data to countries outside of their respective jurisdictions. These similarities highlight the shared goal of protecting individual privacy and ensuring the secure transfer of personal data.

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40. What are the differences between Canada's PIPEDA and the European Union's GDPR?

Explanation

The answer lists some of the differences between Canada's PIPEDA and the European Union's GDPR. These differences include the presence of data portability and right to be forgotten in GDPR, the difficulty of relying solely on consent for processing in GDPR compared to additional options in PIPEDA, and the requirement of data breach reporting under certain circumstances in both regulations.

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41. Understanding the regulatory environment. Because the regulatory environment can be so complex, the privacy team, along with legal or outside counsel, should work directly with regulators to remain compliant. Match the following: • Fines and penalties for non-compliance • The scope and authority of regulators and oversight agencies • And recent or upcoming changes in privacy law
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42. GDPR: Rights and obligations. How familiar are you with the rights and obligations of consumers, organizations and regulators laid out in the EU's General Data Protection Regulation (or GDPR)? Sort each action into the appropriate category.
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43. CCPA: Rights and obligations. How familiar are you with the rights and obligations of consumers, organizations and regulators laid out in the California Consumer Privacy Act (or CCPA)? Sort each action into the appropriate category.
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44. The California Privacy Rights Act (CPRA) ballot initiative was passed. The CPRA amends and expands upon the CCPA in several ways, including requiring the establishment of an enforcement agency, the California Privacy Protection Agency, to implement and enforce consumer privacy laws. The CPRA will be enforceable on January 1, 2023. Top-10 Most Impactful Provisions of the CPRA:
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45. _____ means that one country (or jurisdiction, such as the EU) has deemed another country's data protection laws "adequate" to safeguard its own data. Privacy Shield, the agreement between the EU and the U.S., is an example of an adequacy agreement. See Article 45 of the GDPR for more information.

Explanation

Adequacy decisions refer to the determination made by one country or jurisdiction, such as the EU, that another country's data protection laws are sufficient to protect the privacy and security of its own data. These decisions are based on an evaluation of the country's legal framework, enforcement mechanisms, and individual rights. Adequacy decisions are important for international data transfers, as they allow for the free flow of personal data between countries without the need for additional safeguards. An example of an adequacy agreement is the Privacy Shield between the EU and the U.S., which ensures that data transferred from the EU to certified U.S. companies is adequately protected.

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46. _____ (language written into a contract) may be a way for organizations to facilitate cross-border transfers.In the wake of "Schrems II," the legality of SCCs was upheld, however, companies must verify, on a case-by-case basis, whether the law in the recipient country ensures adequate protection, under EU law, for personal data transferred under SCCs and, where it doesn't, companies must provide additional safeguards or suspend transfers.

Explanation

Standard contractual clauses are a language written into a contract that can help organizations facilitate cross-border transfers. After the "Schrems II" case, the legality of standard contractual clauses was confirmed. However, companies need to assess on a case-by-case basis whether the recipient country's laws provide adequate protection for personal data transferred under these clauses. If the recipient country's laws do not ensure adequate protection, companies must implement additional safeguards or suspend transfers.

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47. Under the GDPR, _____ resemble the self-regulatory programs used elsewhere to demonstrate to regulators and consumers that a company adheres to certain information privacy standards. Like codes of conduct, certification is available to controllers and processors outside the EU, provided they demonstrate, by contractual or other legally binding instruments, their willingness to adhere to the mandated data protection safeguards.

Explanation

See Also: Self-certification mechanisms

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48. _____ may also be used for GDPR compliance, although they must receive prior supervisory authority approval and thus are potentially a less attractive option for controllers.

Explanation

Ad hoc contractual clauses may also be used for GDPR compliance, although they must receive prior supervisory authority approval and thus are potentially a less attractive option for controllers.

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49. Under the GDPR, BCRs require approval from a supervisory authority. At a minimum, BCRs must include structure and contact details for the concerned group, information about the data and transfer processes, how the rules apply to general data protection principles, complaint procedures, and compliance mechanisms. _____

Explanation

Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs) are a set of legally binding internal rules that govern the transfer of personal data within a multinational organization. BCRs require approval from a supervisory authority, which ensures that the organization has implemented appropriate safeguards for the protection of personal data. BCRs must include various elements such as the structure and contact details of the concerned group, information about the data and transfer processes, how the rules align with general data protection principles, complaint procedures, and compliance mechanisms. Therefore, the correct answer is Binding corporate rules.

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50. Which are common elements of privacy-related legislation across jurisdictions? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Common elements of privacy-related legislation across jurisdictions include requirements for ensuring individual rights, security obligations, and Fair Information Practices (FIPs). These elements are essential to protect individuals' privacy and ensure that their rights are respected. Security obligations ensure that appropriate measures are taken to safeguard personal information, while requirements for ensuring individual rights guarantee that individuals have control over their personal data. FIPs provide guidelines for the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information, promoting transparency and accountability in privacy practices.

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51. Privacy and data protection regulators/oversight agencies have the right to impose penalties for noncompliance, including fines. true or false?

Explanation

Privacy and data protection regulators/oversight agencies have the authority to enforce penalties, including fines, for organizations that fail to comply with privacy and data protection regulations. This ensures that businesses take the necessary measures to protect individuals' personal information and maintain their privacy rights.

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52. What can controllers and processors do to avoid incurring penalties from regulators for noncompliance with laws and regulations? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Controllers and processors can avoid incurring penalties from regulators for noncompliance with laws and regulations by knowing which regulators oversee which processing activities within the organization. This ensures that they are aware of the specific regulations and requirements that apply to their operations. They should also ensure that regulators receive notification of data breaches under some circumstances, as this demonstrates transparency and compliance with reporting obligations. Additionally, they should stay updated and informed about any changes in legal obligations that may arise due to changes in the organization, such as mergers or acquisitions. This allows them to adapt their processes and procedures accordingly to remain compliant. Conducting data protection impact assessments whenever personal data is being processed is also a good practice to identify and address any potential risks or compliance issues.

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53. Two global pharmaceutical companies have recently merged. What are some actions they could take to remain in compliance with privacy-related laws and regulations? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The correct answer options suggest actions that the merged pharmaceutical companies could take to ensure compliance with privacy-related laws and regulations. Working with legal helps them navigate the complex regulatory environment and stay compliant. Creating a roadmap or "crosswalk" helps identify areas where legal requirements overlap, making it easier to address them. Working with regulators and oversight agencies helps understand their scope and authority, ensuring compliance with their guidelines. Understanding the corporate risks associated with merging with a company that has different regulatory concerns helps mitigate any potential compliance issues.

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54. Using a valid mechanism for transferring personal information across borders, such as binding corporate rules, allows for the legal processing of that data. true or false?

Explanation

Using a valid mechanism for transferring personal information across borders, such as binding corporate rules, does allow for the legal processing of that data. Therefore, the correct answer should be True.

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55. Which cross-border data transfer mechanism is used to demonstrate to regulators and consumers that a company adheres to certain information privacy standards?

Explanation

Codes of conduct are a cross-border data transfer mechanism used to demonstrate to regulators and consumers that a company adheres to certain information privacy standards. Codes of conduct are voluntary commitments made by organizations to follow specific privacy standards and practices. These codes are developed by industry associations or other groups and provide a framework for companies to demonstrate their commitment to protecting personal data. By adhering to a code of conduct, companies can build trust with regulators and consumers by showing that they are taking proactive measures to protect privacy.

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56. Match the elements to either Data Inventory & Mapping or Privacy Assessments
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57. Match the elements with with the considerations for building a data inventory to the stages of the data life cycle.
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58. Match the following events with the relevant department in an organization that may prompt a data mapping update.
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59. From the list, check the events that may trigger the need for a Privacy Impact Assessment PIA

Explanation

The events listed in the answer all have the potential to trigger the need for a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA). Conversion of information from anonymous to identifiable format, conversion of records from paper-based to electronic format, significant merging, matching, and manipulation of multiple databases containing personal information, application of user-authentication technology to a publicly accessible system, system management changes involving significant new uses and/or application of new technologies, incorporating personal information obtained from commercial or public sources into existing databases, significant new inter-agency exchanges or uses of personal information, alteration of a business process resulting in significant new collection, use and disclosure of personal information, alteration of the character of personal information due to addition of qualitatively new types, and implementation of projects using third-party service providers all involve changes or actions that can impact privacy and therefore require a PIA.

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60. Match the following components of a DPIA in the order conducted.
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61. In addition to identifying areas of non-compliance, assessments may determine other privacy risks. Eric works for a financial institution that digitally stores all client records and destroys paper copies. He has discovered that, when working with a client, saving the record to his desktop makes accessing information easier and quicker. A conversation with Eric's team leader during their annual privacy assessment uncovers this practice that is both non-compliant with company privacy policy and puts personal information at risk of a breach. What are the privacy implications of this shortcut? Select all that apply.

Explanation

All are correct except for Eric losing his job—while it may be a risk, it is not a privacy implication.

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62. Match the considerations with the elements involved in assessing vendors:
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63. Match the terms to complete the sentences about items in a vendor assessment checklist.
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64. Mergers, acquisitions and divestitures serve as key junctures for assessing privacy risks. These processes should include a privacy checkpoint that evaluates:

Explanation

Divestitures should include a privacy check to ensure no unauthorized information—including personal information—remains on the organization’s infrastructure.

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65. Which of the following is a common function of a data inventory? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A data inventory is a comprehensive list or database of all the data assets and resources within an organization. It is used to assess the data, systems, and processes in order to gain a better understanding of the organization's data landscape. By assessing the data, systems, and processes, the organization can identify any gaps or areas for improvement. The data inventory also informs data assessments by providing the necessary information and context for evaluating the quality, accuracy, and relevance of the data. Additionally, it informs data classification by helping to categorize and organize the data based on its sensitivity, confidentiality, and regulatory requirements.

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66. Which of the following elements may be found in a data inventory? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A data inventory is a comprehensive record of all the data assets within an organization. It includes information about how data flows within the organization, the classification of data based on its sensitivity or importance, the record of authority for accessing and managing the data within organizational systems, and the types and uses of the data. Therefore, all of the given options - data flows, classification of data, record of authority of organizational systems, and types and uses of data - may be found in a data inventory.

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67. True or false? Data inventories are almost always created and maintained by the legal function within an organization.

Explanation

Data inventories are not almost always created and maintained by the legal function within an organization. While the legal department may play a role in ensuring compliance with data protection laws and regulations, data inventories are typically created and maintained by the data governance or data management function within an organization. These teams are responsible for identifying and cataloging all data assets, including personal data, across the organization. They work closely with various departments, such as IT, security, and compliance, to ensure accurate and up-to-date data inventories are maintained.

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68. Which of the following is a potential tool for keeping a data inventory up-to-date? Select all that apply.

Explanation

GRC software, spreadsheets and manual processes, and an internally developed system are all potential tools for keeping a data inventory up-to-date. GRC software can help automate the process of tracking and managing data inventory, ensuring that it is always up-to-date. Spreadsheets and manual processes can be used to manually track and update the data inventory, although this may be more time-consuming and prone to errors. An internally developed system can be customized to meet specific organizational needs and requirements for managing the data inventory effectively.

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69. Which of the following is an assessment that measures how closely an organization's practices align with its legal obligations and stated practices?

Explanation

A privacy assessment is an evaluation that measures how well an organization's practices align with its legal obligations and stated practices regarding privacy. This assessment focuses specifically on privacy-related issues and helps identify any gaps or areas of improvement in the organization's privacy practices. It ensures that the organization is compliant with privacy laws and regulations and helps in safeguarding individuals' personal information.

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70. True or false? A privacy impact assessment can help facilitate privacy by design.

Explanation

A privacy impact assessment is a systematic process to identify and assess the potential privacy risks and impacts of a project or initiative. By conducting a privacy impact assessment, organizations can identify and address privacy concerns early in the development process, thereby incorporating privacy by design principles. Privacy by design refers to the practice of considering privacy and data protection throughout the entire lifecycle of a project, from the initial design phase to implementation and beyond. Therefore, a privacy impact assessment can indeed help facilitate privacy by design.

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71. Ideally, when should a PIA be conducted? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) should be conducted prior to the deployment of a project, product, or service that involves the collection of personal information to ensure that privacy considerations are addressed from the beginning. It should also be conducted when there are new or revised industry standards, organizational policies, or laws and regulations to ensure compliance and adapt to any changes. Additionally, a PIA should be conducted when the organization makes changes to methods in which personal information is handled that create new privacy risks, to identify and address any potential privacy issues that may arise.

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72. Which of the following are methods for assessing vendors? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The methods for assessing vendors include privacy and security questionnaires, privacy impact assessments, and checklists. These methods help evaluate the vendors' compliance with privacy and security requirements. Privacy and security questionnaires enable organizations to gather information about the vendors' data protection practices. Privacy impact assessments assess the potential privacy risks associated with the vendor's products or services. Checklists provide a systematic approach to evaluate the vendor's capabilities and adherence to specific criteria. These methods collectively help organizations make informed decisions about selecting vendors that meet their privacy and security requirements.

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73. A privacy policy is one of the two primary types of documents that communicate privacy practices. Select the best definition from the list.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Internal document addressed to employees that clearly states how the organization handles personal information." This answer is the best definition because it specifically mentions that the document is internal and addresses employees. It also states that the document clearly states how the organization handles personal information, which aligns with the purpose of a privacy policy.

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74. Information security policies: Access and data classification. Internal information security policies serve which of the following purposes:

Explanation

Internal information security policies serve multiple purposes. They aim to protect against unauthorized access to data and information systems, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access sensitive information. These policies also prioritize providing stakeholders with information efficiently while maintaining confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) of the data. Additionally, they promote compliance with laws, regulations, standards, and other organizational policies to ensure that the organization operates within legal and ethical boundaries. Lastly, information security policies also strive to promote data quality, ensuring that data is accurate, reliable, and consistent.

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75. Vendors should be held to the same privacy standards as the organization. When you're engaging vendors, which of the following should be considered:

Explanation

When engaging vendors, it is important to consider several factors to ensure that they meet the same privacy standards as the organization. Creating a policy that outlines the selection and logistics, as well as identifying vendors and their legal obligations, helps to establish clear expectations. Evaluating risk, policies, and server locations allows for a thorough assessment of the vendor's capabilities and potential risks. Developing a thorough contract ensures that both parties are aware of their responsibilities and obligations. Finally, monitoring the vendors' practices and performance ensures that they continue to meet the required privacy standards.

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76. Procurement: Engaging vendors Match the considerations with the elements of each stage of vendor policies.
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77. HR handles diverse employee personal information and typically will have policies to guide processing. Match the concerns to be addressed through the corresponding types of HR policies:
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78. Data retention and destruction policies should support the idea that personal information should only be retained for as long as necessary to perform its stated purpose. Data destruction triggers and methods should be documented and followed consistently by all employees. These should align with laws, regulations and standards, such as time limits for which records must be saved. Ownership of a data retention/destruction policy may vary and intersect with privacy, legal, IT, operations, finance, the business function and so on. What actions could an organization take to develop a data retention policy? Select all that apply from the list.

Explanation

To develop a data retention policy, an organization should first determine what data is currently being retained, how it is being retained, and where it is stored. They should then work with legal to understand and comply with applicable legal data retention requirements. Brainstorming scenarios that would require data retention helps identify specific cases where data may need to be retained. Estimating the business impacts of retaining versus destroying the data helps weigh the costs and benefits. Finally, working with IT is necessary to develop and implement the actual policy.

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79. Privacy-related policies will not be effective if individuals do not care about or follow them. What order should privacy-related policies developed and implemented?
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80. Implementing policies. Privacy-related policies will not be effective if individuals do not care about or follow them.  Match the policies with the existing business procedures:
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81. Select the ones you like

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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82. An information security team is crafting an internal document that explains classifications of data processed on the company's data management system, as well as designates which employees and vendors may process each classification type. What is this document?

Explanation

This document is an information security policy. It outlines the classifications of data processed on the company's data management system and designates which employees and vendors may process each classification type. An information security policy is a set of guidelines and procedures that organizations use to protect their sensitive information and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data. It helps to establish the rules and responsibilities for employees and vendors regarding the handling and processing of data, ensuring that proper security measures are in place.

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83. A marketing team works with their legal department to create an external communication to customers that describes how their personal information is going to be handled. What is this communication?

Explanation

A privacy policy is a communication that describes how a company handles customers' personal information. It is a document that outlines the types of information collected, how it is used, and how it is protected. This policy is typically created in collaboration between the marketing team and the legal department to ensure that it complies with privacy laws and regulations. It serves as a transparency tool, informing customers about their rights and how their data will be handled, fostering trust and confidence in the company's data practices.

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84. What is the purpose of an acceptable use policy?

Explanation

An acceptable use policy is designed to stipulate rules and constraints for individuals both within and outside the organization who access the network or Internet connection. This policy helps to establish guidelines for appropriate and responsible use of the organization's resources, ensuring that users understand their rights and responsibilities when accessing the network or Internet. It helps to prevent misuse, unauthorized access, and potential security breaches by outlining the acceptable behaviors and activities that users should adhere to. By setting clear rules and constraints, the policy helps to maintain the integrity and security of the organization's network and Internet connection.

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85. True or false? Vendors should be held to the same privacy standards as the contracting organization.

Explanation

Vendors should be held to the same privacy standards as the contracting organization because they often have access to sensitive data and information about the organization's customers or clients. Holding vendors to the same standards ensures that they handle this data responsibly and securely, protecting the privacy of individuals involved. It also helps to maintain consistency and trust in the organization's privacy practices, regardless of whether the data is being handled internally or by a vendor.

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86. A vendor contract should include the following. Select all that apply.

Explanation

The correct answer is that a vendor contract should include the requirement to inform the organization when any privacy/security policies change, prohibition against making policy changes that weaken privacy/security protections, incident response procedures, and the right to audit. These provisions are important in ensuring that the vendor complies with the organization's privacy and security requirements, and that any changes to policies are communicated and approved by the organization. Incident response procedures and the right to audit also help in monitoring and addressing any security breaches or non-compliance issues that may arise.

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87. True or false? Some laws and regulations stipulate lengths of time during which individual records must be saved.

Explanation

Some laws and regulations do indeed require organizations to retain certain records for specific periods of time. These requirements are in place to ensure compliance, facilitate audits, protect individuals' rights, and enable legal proceedings if necessary. Failure to adhere to these retention periods can result in penalties and legal consequences. Therefore, it is true that some laws and regulations stipulate lengths of time during which individual records must be saved.

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88. How may an organization enable employees to integrate privacy policies into their daily tasks?

Explanation

To enable employees to integrate privacy policies into their daily tasks, an organization should align these policies with existing business procedures. This means incorporating privacy considerations into the regular workflow and processes of the organization. Additionally, raising awareness among employees about the importance of privacy and the specific policies in place will help them understand and integrate these policies into their daily tasks. Furthermore, providing training sessions to employees on privacy policies and best practices will equip them with the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively implement these policies.

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89. Across jurisdictions, data subjects typically have certain rights, including the right to know how their data will be used, and the right to opt out of certain processing activities. Of course, it’s vital to adhere to laws and regulations around data subject rights. The practices outlined can help your organization clarify its privacy-related communications and enable data subjects to make informed choices regarding how they share their information with you. Match the practices with the business area
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90. Select the ones you like

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer, Option 1, is not available.

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91. Privacy notices are generally external communications, to customers, while privacy policies are generally internal documents, addressed to employees. Both describe how personal information is going to be handled. Can you identify which of the following is not a purpose of a privacy notice?

Explanation

A privacy notice can help an organization comply with applicable laws, but it does not provide blanket protection from privacy-related litigation. Visit the IAPP Resource Center to explore privacy notice tools and guidance.

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92. Privacy notice: Common elements. Your organization's privacy notice will typically explain which of  the following:

Explanation

Include whether information is collected directly or indirectly, and its likely future uses. Be sure there is a method to gain and record consent, if required. Consent should only be collected when it is necessary, as there are other conditions of processing that may be easier to rely on or more reliable.

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93. Privacy notices should be living documents, maintained in a lifecycle that includes designing and developing, testing, releasing, and reviewing and updating where necessary. Several design strategies can help keep privacy notices accessible to your customers or external stakeholders. Match the design challenge with its potential solution.
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94. Privacy notices should be living documents, maintained in a lifecycle that includes designing and developing, testing, releasing, and reviewing and updating where necessary. Several design strategies can help keep privacy notices accessible to your customers or external stakeholders. Match the design element with its potential strategies:
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95. Providing a privacy notice is not the same as soliciting consent. Review the following statements and check the ones that are true.

Explanation

All are correct except “Consent should be collected for all instances of processing personal information.” While consent may be required by law in many instances, it is not always required and may not be the only reliable basis for processing personal information. For example, under the GDPR, in addition to consent, lawful bases for processing personal data include contract, legal obligation, vital interests, public interest and legitimate interests.

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96. Opting-out means that an individual's lack of action implies a choice—for example, unless an individual checks or unchecks a box, her information will be shared with third parties. true or false?

Explanation

Opting-out means that an individual's lack of action implies a choice. In this case, unless the individual checks or unchecks a box, her information will be shared with third parties. Therefore, the statement is true.

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97. Opting-out means an individual makes an active, affirmative indication of choice—for example, by checking a box to signal her desire to share her information with third parties. This choice should be clear and easy to execute. true or false?

Explanation

Opting-out does not require an individual to actively indicate their choice to share their information with third parties. Instead, opting-out means that an individual makes an active, affirmative indication of choice to NOT share their information with third parties. Therefore, the statement that the choice should be clear and easy to execute is incorrect.

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98. Opting-in means that an individual's lack of action implies a choice—for example, unless an individual checks or unchecks a box, her information will be shared with third parties. true or false?

Explanation

The correct answer is False. Opting-in means that an individual actively chooses to participate or give consent. In this case, unless the individual checks or unchecks a box, their information will not be shared with third parties.

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99. There are several methods for tailoring privacy notices to children and ensuring parental consent for children under the age threshold. Match the elements with the consideration.
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100. Choice and control should be offered to individuals even after the opt-in stage. If an organization relies on consent to process personal information, it may want to—or be required to—state in the privacy notice that the individual can withdraw consent. An organization's procedures around withdrawal of consent may address which of the following:

Explanation

The process for withdrawing consent should be publicized—via privacy notices, consent requests, and so on—to inform individuals on the steps they should take.

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101. A privacy team should work with legal to establish policies and procedures that align with legal requirements.  Have a documented process and follow it. The process may be the first thing a regulator asks about in the event of an issue. Which of the potential procedural considerations should be considered:

Explanation

The potential procedural considerations that should be considered include the allocation of responsibilities, authentication of the requester, recording/documenting requests and actions, mechanism(s) for receiving, recording and fulfilling requests, types of data that may not be disclosed, time limits for responding and extensions, special circumstances, various details about the processing that must be provided upon request, providing the most up-to-date information, making corrections across all systems and with third parties, and procedures when the individual and organization do not agree on an amendment request. These considerations are important for establishing policies and procedures that align with legal requirements and ensuring compliance with privacy regulations.

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102. Data portability is a right that applies only in some circumstances—processing based on consent or contractual necessity. true or false?

Explanation

It means that personal data must be interoperable—transferrable from one organization to the individual, another controller or a third party designated by the individual in a format that is, according to Article 20 of the GDPR, “structured, commonly used and machine-readable,” and without hindrance. A privacy team should work with legal to determine when this right applies and, if so, work with IT to ensure this capability is built into technical systems.

Potential difficulties may arise from storing data in proprietary formats. Organizations that use their own internal data processing software may have difficulty transferring the personal data in an acceptable format.

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103. Under the GDPR, individuals have the right to request erasure of their personal data under specific circumstances—for example, if they withdraw their consent. true or false?

Explanation

If the organization is subject to the GDPR or other laws and regulations regarding erasure, the privacy team should work with legal to determine all the circumstances that may allow for the exercise of this right.

Erasure entails both:
• Ceasing processing
• And deleting data

Policies and procedures can help ensure these actions take place across all systems. Erasure has been broadened to include the right to be forgotten, which applies when personal data has been made public by the organization. The data controller is responsible for taking steps to ensure the personal data—including links, copies and replications—is erased by third parties.

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104. Complaints about how your organization manages data subject rights may come from both internal sources, such as employees, as well as external sources, such as customers, consumers, patients, the public, regulators and vendors. Internal procedures should define and enable mechanisms for which of the following:

Explanation

Departments and roles designated with receiving complaints should be easy to reach, whether through dedicated phone numbers, email addresses or physical addresses.

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105. A privacy notice typically explains what? Select all that apply.

Explanation

A privacy notice typically explains two important aspects regarding personal information. Firstly, it clarifies with whom the personal information will be shared, ensuring transparency and informing individuals about any potential third-party involvement. Secondly, it outlines what information will be collected, informing individuals about the specific data that will be gathered. The notice does not usually cover how personal information will be destroyed or stored as these aspects are typically addressed in data protection policies or procedures, rather than in a privacy notice.

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106. The chief privacy officer of a technology company has revised its privacy notice for users who download the company's applications onto their smartphones. The notice needs to be easily accessible to users so they can refer to it when desired. What is an appropriate solution to this design challenge?

Explanation

A privacy dashboard would be an appropriate solution to the design challenge of making the privacy notice easily accessible to users. A privacy dashboard is a centralized location where users can view and manage their privacy settings and preferences. By including the privacy notice within the dashboard, users can easily refer to it whenever they want to understand the company's privacy practices. This ensures transparency and empowers users to make informed decisions about their privacy.

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107. When does consent need to be reviewed and possibly refreshed? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Consent needs to be reviewed and possibly refreshed when an organization contracts with a new vendor that will process invoices to existing customers, when an organization falls under the scope of a new law with enhanced privacy notice requirements, and when an organization's industry standards for providing privacy notice change. In these situations, there may be changes in the way personal data is processed or the legal requirements for obtaining consent, which necessitates a review and potential refresh of consent.

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108. What may an organization's procedures around withdrawal of consent address? Select all that apply.

Explanation

An organization's procedures around withdrawal of consent may address when and how consent may be withdrawn, rules for communicating with individuals, methods for withdrawing consent, and documentation of requests and actions taken. These procedures ensure that individuals have the ability to withdraw their consent at any time and understand the process for doing so. They also provide guidelines for the organization on how to communicate with individuals regarding their consent, the methods available for withdrawing consent, and the documentation required to track and respond to requests for withdrawal of consent.

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109. True or false? Upon request from an individual, an organization must always provide access to her/his personal information and information about the processing performed upon it.

Explanation

False. While organizations generally have a responsibility to provide individuals with access to their personal information upon request, there are certain circumstances where access may be denied. These circumstances include situations where providing access would infringe upon the rights and freedoms of others, disclose confidential commercial information, or be contrary to legal obligations. Additionally, organizations may deny access if it is not feasible or would require disproportionate effort. Therefore, the statement that an organization must always provide access to personal information upon request is incorrect.

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110. Under the EU's General Data Protection Regulation, erasure entails ceasing processing, deleting personal data and informing regulators once the personal data has been deleted. true or false?

Explanation

Under the EU's General Data Protection Regulation, erasure entails ceasing processing, deleting personal data, and informing regulators once the personal data has been deleted. This statement is true.

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111. True or false? Regardless of the source (e.g., employees, etc.) of privacy complaints, the manner of processing should be the same, and they should be handled by the same recipients.

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer, False, is that the manner of processing privacy complaints should not be the same regardless of the source. Different sources of privacy complaints may require different approaches and considerations. For example, complaints from employees may involve internal procedures and policies, while complaints from external individuals may require compliance with specific legal regulations. Similarly, the recipients of privacy complaints may vary depending on the nature of the complaint and the individuals involved. Therefore, it is important to adapt the processing and handling of privacy complaints based on the source and circumstances.

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112. Awareness: Operational actions The privacy team, along with all relevant departments, can take which of the following operational actions to ensure ongoing awareness:

Explanation

The privacy team and relevant departments can ensure ongoing awareness by developing and using communication plans to ingrain organizational accountability. They should also communicate information about the organization's privacy program, ensure policy flexibility to incorporate changes to compliance requirements, and identify and maintain all documents requiring updates as privacy requirements change. This allows for effective communication, adaptability to changing regulations, and proper documentation to stay compliant with privacy requirements.

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113. Consider what motivates your organization's employees. How can you tailor training content to hold their interest? Motivators, incentives and even internal team competitions can help engage employees in privacy training. Remember to use metrics to measure results, and solicit feedback for improvement. Which of the below strategies for building a successful privacy training program should be considered?

Explanation

To build a successful privacy training program, several strategies should be considered. Partnering with the training department/HR ensures that the program is aligned with the organization's overall training goals and objectives. Making the training fun and customized to participants helps to hold their interest and increase engagement. Using motivators, such as digital badges, can provide incentives for employees to actively participate in the training. Ensuring that all new employees, contractors, etc. receive consistent training establishes a baseline level of knowledge and understanding. Repeat training should be provided to all relevant employees to reinforce and update their knowledge. Keeping track of who has trained ensures accountability and compliance. Soliciting feedback allows for continuous improvement of the training program. Finally, using metrics to measure results provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of the training and identifies areas for improvement.

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114. What should privacy training and awareness programs do? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Privacy training and awareness programs should communicate privacy policies to ensure that participants are aware of the organization's guidelines and expectations regarding privacy protection. They should also communicate processes and procedures, such as data usage and retention, access control, and incident reporting, to provide clear instructions on how to handle sensitive information. Additionally, these programs should motivate and incentivize participants to follow privacy policies and procedures to encourage compliance. Finally, using measures such as attendance and assessments can help evaluate the effectiveness of the training and ensure that participants are engaged and understanding the material.

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115. Who needs privacy training? Select all that apply.

Explanation

All of the mentioned individuals need privacy training because they handle sensitive information as part of their job responsibilities. A member of a customer service team may have access to customer data, while a receptionist may handle personal information of visitors or clients. A driver for a business waste disposal company may come across confidential documents or materials that need to be disposed of properly. Privacy training ensures that these individuals understand the importance of protecting privacy and are aware of the necessary protocols and regulations to follow.

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116. Which of the following qualifies as an awareness method?

Explanation

A company intranet announcement qualifies as an awareness method because it is a communication channel within the company that can be used to inform employees about important updates, news, and events. Intranet announcements are accessible to all employees and can be used to raise awareness about various topics such as policy changes, new initiatives, or upcoming trainings. By utilizing the company intranet, organizations can effectively disseminate information and ensure that employees are aware of important updates and developments within the company.

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117. The HR team within an organization is being trained on the proper process for handling job applicants' personal information. Which strategy could be used to motivate participants and help them remember the training materials?

Explanation

A competitive simulation game that tests knowledge and skills gained from the training can be used to motivate participants and help them remember the training materials. By incorporating a competitive element, participants are more likely to engage and actively participate in the training. The game allows them to apply their knowledge and skills in a practical and interactive way, making the learning experience more enjoyable and memorable. Additionally, the competitive aspect fosters a sense of achievement and encourages participants to strive for improvement, further enhancing their retention of the training materials.

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118. To resolve the potential security issues a DPO/CPO may observe, what questions must she first ask? Consider the situation with privacy principles in mind. Match the privacy-related questions with the related business units:
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119. Privacy and security professionals alike agree that the most important feature of their information governance regime is communication between the privacy and security teams, many of which are now populated with staff from each discipline. true or false?

Explanation

The given statement is true. Privacy and security professionals consider communication between the privacy and security teams as the most important feature of their information governance regime. This is because both teams play crucial roles in protecting sensitive information and ensuring compliance with privacy and security regulations. By working together and sharing knowledge and insights, they can effectively identify and address potential risks and vulnerabilities, leading to a stronger overall information governance framework.

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120. What privacy functions are valuable in mitigating a data breach? Check all that apply.

Explanation

The privacy functions that are valuable in mitigating a data breach include data minimization, data inventory and mapping, privacy policies, and privacy impact assessments. Data minimization involves collecting and retaining only the necessary data, reducing the risk of a breach. Data inventory and mapping help organizations understand what data they have and where it is located, enabling better security measures. Privacy policies outline how the organization handles and protects data, ensuring compliance with privacy regulations. Privacy impact assessments assess the potential risks and impacts of data processing activities, allowing organizations to identify and address vulnerabilities.

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121. Information security provides administrative, technical and physical controls, or safeguards, to reduce probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized data access. Check all that apply:

Explanation

Information security involves identifying potential risks to data, selecting and implementing measures to mitigate those risks, and then tracking and evaluating the effectiveness of those measures. By identifying risks, organizations can understand the potential threats and vulnerabilities they face. Selecting and implementing measures to mitigate risk involves putting in place controls and safeguards to reduce the likelihood or impact of those risks. Finally, tracking and evaluating risk allows organizations to monitor the effectiveness of their security measures and make any necessary adjustments to ensure ongoing protection.

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122. ISO/IEC 27001 and 27002 are internationally recognized information security standards published by the International Organization for Standardization, or ISO, and the International Electrotechnical Commission, or IEC. true or false?

Explanation

ISO/IEC 27001 and 27002 are indeed internationally recognized information security standards published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). These standards provide guidelines and best practices for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving an information security management system (ISMS). They help organizations protect their sensitive information, manage risks, and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their information assets. Therefore, the given answer "True" is correct.

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123. ISO/IEC 27701 is an extension of ISO/IEC 27001. It defines processes and provides guidance for protecting PII in an ongoing, evolving basis and specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving a privacy-specific information security management system. true or false?

Explanation

ISO/IEC 27701 is indeed an extension of ISO/IEC 27001. It focuses on privacy-specific information security management and provides guidance for protecting personally identifiable information (PII) on an ongoing basis. It outlines the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving a privacy-specific information security management system. Therefore, the statement is true.

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124. ISO/IEC 27001 and 27002 which of the below are elements of a privacy-specific information security management system? Check all that apply.

Explanation

https://iapp.org/resources/article/iapp-onetrust-research-bridging-iso-27001-to-gdpr/ to read the IAPP-OneTrust report, Bridging ISO 27001 to GDPR.

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125. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Controls can also be divided into several categories based on the control objective. Select all the elements which are physical controls.

Explanation

Physical controls are measures that are put in place to physically protect assets and prevent unauthorized access. Fences, doors, and locks are examples of physical controls as they physically restrict access to certain areas or assets. These controls provide a physical barrier that helps prevent unauthorized individuals from gaining access to sensitive information or resources.

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126. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Controls can also be divided into several categories based on the control objective. Select all the elements which are preventive controls.

Explanation

The elements that are listed as preventive controls are firewalls, passwords, procedures, and training. Firewalls act as a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, preventing unauthorized access. Passwords provide a layer of security by ensuring that only authorized individuals can access systems or data. Procedures outline specific steps and guidelines to follow in order to maintain security. Training educates individuals on best practices and security protocols to prevent security breaches. These elements focus on proactively preventing unauthorized access and reducing the risk of potential damage or loss.

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127. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Controls can also be divided into several categories based on the control objective. Select all the elements which are administrative or policy controls.

Explanation

The elements listed in the answer (incident response processes, management oversight, security awareness and training, data handling policies) are administrative or policy controls because they involve the implementation and enforcement of policies, procedures, and guidelines to ensure the security of data. These controls are not physical or technical in nature, such as fences, doors and locks, logins, virus software, and firewalls.

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128. Information security provides physical, technical and administrative controls to manage risk by reducing probable damage, loss, modification or unauthorized access to data. Controls can also be divided into several categories based on the control objective. Select all the elements which are preventive controls.

Explanation

Preventive controls are measures that are put in place to prevent or deter potential risks and threats. Audits help to identify any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the system and ensure compliance with security policies. Security software is designed to detect and prevent unauthorized access or malicious activities. Monitoring and logging systems help to track and record events and activities, allowing for early detection and response to potential security breaches. Therefore, audits, security software, and monitoring and logging are all examples of preventive controls.

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129. Access controls. A privacy team should work with information security and IT to ensure effective access controls, which govern who has the right to access specific information. Role-based controls and guidelines for managing user access can help ensure that only people who absolutely need access to certain information have it. The organization must also teach the importance of user responsibility. It should train and regularly remind employees of good security practices in selecting and protecting passwords, as well as practices that promote physical security, such as a clean desk policy. Match the role-based controls and user access management.
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130. Security policies. A well-functioning internal security policy prevents unauthorized or unnecessary access to corporate data or resources, including intellectual property, financial data and personal information. Physical security measures such as locks, safes, cameras and fences offer a first layer of protection from both internal and external threats. Select all that apply:

Explanation

The correct answer includes a comprehensive list of security policies that should be established and enforced to prevent unauthorized access to corporate data or resources. This includes data classification policies to control access based on the classification of assets and information, database schemas that separate customer information into relative tables for controlled access, data retention policies and procedures to ensure data is handled and stored properly, and data deletion policies to securely remove data when it is no longer needed. These policies collectively contribute to a well-functioning internal security policy and help protect sensitive information from both internal and external threats.

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131. Technical privacy controls. In addition to security and administrative controls, technical privacy controls offer ways to protect personal information. Match the definitions of each example to its technical privacy control type.
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132. Evaluating security controls. When you are evaluating security controls, your goal should be to ensure they are implemented and operating effectively to support the organization's privacy practices. Which of the below should be used in evaluating controls:

Explanation

When evaluating security controls, it is important to work closely with information security and IT teams as they have the expertise and knowledge to assess the effectiveness of the controls. Leveraging audits and reviews that are already being conducted, such as SOC1 and SOC2 audits, can provide valuable insights into the security controls' performance. Including relevant security risks in the privacy framework ensures that all potential vulnerabilities are considered during the evaluation process. Keeping a scorecard of risk factors, including high, medium, and low risk, helps in prioritizing and addressing the most critical security issues first.

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133. Technical privacy controls.  In addition to security and administrative controls, technical privacy controls offer ways to protect personal information. Select of each of the below examples that are obfuscation technical privacy controls.

Explanation

Masking, randomization, noise, and hashing are examples of obfuscation technical privacy controls. These controls help to conceal or disguise personal information, making it difficult for unauthorized individuals to access or understand the data. Masking involves replacing sensitive data with fictitious or scrambled values, randomization adds randomness to the data to prevent identification, noise introduces irrelevant or misleading information, and hashing converts data into a fixed-length string of characters. These techniques are commonly used in data anonymization and privacy protection practices.

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134. Technical privacy controls.  In addition to security and administrative controls, technical privacy controls offer ways to protect personal information. Select of each of the below examples that are data minimization technical privacy controls.

Explanation

Data segregation, compression, aggregation, deidentification, and deletion are all examples of data minimization technical privacy controls.

Data segregation involves separating different types of data to limit access and minimize the risk of unauthorized disclosure. Compression reduces the size of data files, making them less susceptible to unauthorized access or disclosure. Aggregation combines multiple data sets into a single dataset, reducing the amount of personal information that needs to be stored and processed. Deidentification involves removing or altering identifiable information from data to protect privacy. Deletion involves permanently removing personal information when it is no longer needed. These controls help to minimize the amount of personal information that is collected, stored, and processed, reducing the risk of privacy breaches.

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135. Technical privacy controls.  In addition to security and administrative controls, technical privacy controls offer ways to protect personal information. Select of each of the below examples that are common security practices technical privacy controls.

Explanation

Technical privacy controls are an important aspect of protecting personal information. Data loss prevention, destruction, auditing and testing, encryption, and access controls for physical and virtual systems are all examples of common security practices that fall under technical privacy controls. These measures help to prevent unauthorized access, loss, or misuse of personal data. By implementing these controls, organizations can ensure the privacy and security of sensitive information.

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136. Technical privacy controls.  In addition to security and administrative controls, technical privacy controls offer ways to protect personal information. Select of each of the below examples that are privacy engineering technologies privacy controls.

Explanation

Differential privacy and homomorphic encryption are both privacy engineering technologies that can be used as privacy controls. Differential privacy is a technique that adds noise to query results in order to protect the privacy of individuals in a dataset. Homomorphic encryption is a form of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it, thus preserving privacy. Both of these technologies provide methods for protecting personal information and are considered technical privacy controls.

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137. Several of the data processing principles outlined in the GDPR may be implemented through privacy by design. Match each of the GDPR processing principles with their definition:
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138. Privacy risk models and frameworks. Risk management is an integral aspect of developing reliable software. When analyzing risk, one can choose from a number of privacy risk models and frameworks that may be employed individually or in combination. Match the model with the definition.
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139. Privacy risks In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A Taxonomy of Privacy," wherein he proposed a common taxonomy of privacy risk factors.  Although many of these activities can pose risks to privacy, they also have many benefits. For an organization, the key is in ensuring that impacts to privacy are identified and minimized by an organization. Match the type of privacy risks with the risk factor category.

Explanation

Daniel J. Solove, “A Taxonomy of Privacy,” University of Pennsylvania Law Review, 154, no. 3 (January 2006), https://www.law.upenn.edu/journals/lawreview/articles/volume154/issue3/Solove154U.Pa.L.Rev.477(2006).pdf

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140. Privacy risks In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A Taxonomy of Privacy," wherein he proposed a common taxonomy of privacy risk factors.  Although many of these activities can pose risks to privacy, they also have many benefits. For an organization, the key is in ensuring that impacts to privacy are identified and minimized by an organization. Match the type of privacy risks with the definition.

Explanation

Daniel J. Solove, “A Taxonomy of Privacy,” University of Pennsylvania Law Review, 154, no. 3 (January 2006), https://www.law.upenn.edu/journals/lawreview/articles/volume154/issue3/Solove154U.Pa.L.Rev.477(2006).pdf

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141. Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A Taxonomy of Privacy," wherein he proposed a common taxonomy of privacy risk factors. Although many of these activities can pose risks to privacy, they also have many benefits. For an organization, the key is in ensuring that impacts to privacy are identified and minimized by an organization. Select each description that is an element of Information Collection:

Explanation

The correct answer includes "Surveillance" and "Interrogation" as elements of Information Collection. Surveillance refers to the monitoring or observation of individuals or groups, often done covertly, to gather information. Interrogation refers to the act of questioning or obtaining information from someone through systematic and often formal methods. Both of these activities involve the collection of information.

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142. Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A Taxonomy of Privacy," wherein he proposed a common taxonomy of privacy risk factors. Although many of these activities can pose risks to privacy, they also have many benefits. For an organization, the key is in ensuring that impacts to privacy are identified and minimized by an organization. Select each description that is an element of Information processing:

Explanation

The question asks for descriptions that are elements of information processing. Aggregation refers to the collection and consolidation of data, Insecurity refers to the lack of security or vulnerability of information, Identification refers to the process of recognizing and establishing the identity of individuals or entities, Secondary use refers to the use of information for purposes other than its original intended use, and Exclusion refers to the deliberate act of keeping certain individuals or entities from accessing information. These descriptions are all related to the processing of information and its potential impact on privacy.

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143. Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A Taxonomy of Privacy," wherein he proposed a common taxonomy of privacy risk factors. Although many of these activities can pose risks to privacy, they also have many benefits. For an organization, the key is in ensuring that impacts to privacy are identified and minimized by an organization. Select each description that is an element of Invasion:

Explanation

The correct answer includes "Intrusion" and "Decisional interference" as elements of invasion. Intrusion refers to unauthorized access or entry into someone's private space or property, while decisional interference involves the intrusion into an individual's autonomy or ability to make decisions. Both of these elements are forms of invasion that can pose privacy risks.

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144. The implementation of appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure and be able to demonstrate that the handling of personal data is performed in accordance with relevant law, an idea codified in the EU General Data Protection Regulation and other frameworks, including APEC's Cross Border Privacy Rules. _____

Explanation

Traditionally, accountability has been a fair information practices principle, that due diligence and reasonable steps will be undertaken to ensure that personal information will be protected and handled consistently with relevant law and other fair use principles.

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145. DLP network, storage, scans and privacy tools can be used to identify security and privacy risks to personal information. They can also be used to monitor for compliance with internal policies and procedures, and block e-mail or file transfers based on the data category and definitions. _____

Explanation

Active scanning tools are used to identify security and privacy risks to personal information. These tools can scan the network, storage, and other resources to detect any vulnerabilities or potential breaches. They can also monitor for compliance with internal policies and procedures, ensuring that data is handled according to the defined guidelines. Additionally, active scanning tools can block e-mail or file transfers if they contain data that falls under certain categories or definitions, providing an extra layer of protection against unauthorized data transfer.

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146. Two major groups of privacy design strategies can play an important role in an organization's application of privacy by design: process-oriented and data-oriented. Process-oriented strategies for data protection are based on an organization's commitment to processing personal information in a privacy-friendly way and ensuring that these commitments are honored. Select the elements of process-oriented strategies:

Explanation

Process-oriented strategies for data protection in an organization involve enforcing established policies and processes, demonstrating compliance with these policies and processes, informing individuals about how their data will be handled, and providing users with control over how their data will be handled. These strategies ensure that personal information is processed in a privacy-friendly manner and that the organization's commitments to data protection are upheld. By enforcing policies and processes, demonstrating compliance, informing individuals, and providing control, the organization can effectively protect the privacy of personal information.

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147. A U.S. professional organization of certified public accountants and co-creator of the WebTrust seal program. _____

Explanation

The given correct answer for this question is the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants. This organization is a U.S. professional organization that represents certified public accountants. They are also the co-creator of the WebTrust seal program, which is a program that provides assurance to users of websites that their personal information is secure and that the website is trustworthy. The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants plays a significant role in promoting and maintaining high professional standards in the accounting industry.

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148. Two major groups of privacy design strategies can play an important role in an organization's application of privacy by design: process-oriented and data-oriented. Data-oriented strategies focus on the technical ways that data can be processed with the maximization of privacy in mind. Select the elements of Data-oriented strategies:

Explanation

Data-oriented strategies in privacy design focus on technical methods to maximize privacy. The elements of data-oriented strategies include separating the processing of data logically or physically, minimizing the amount of data collected and processed, abstracting data to limit detail, and hiding data to make it unconnectable or unobservable to others. These strategies aim to protect individuals' privacy by ensuring that data is handled in a way that minimizes risk and maintains confidentiality.

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149. The process in which individually identifiable data is altered in such a way that it no longer can be related back to a given individual. _____

Explanation

Among many techniques, there are three primary ways that data is anonymized. Suppression is the most basic version of anonymization and it simply removes some identifying values from data to reduce its identifiability. Generalization takes specific identifying values and makes them broader, such as changing a specific age (18) to an age range (18-24). Noise addition takes identifying values from a given data set and switches them with identifying values from another individual in that data set.

Note that all of these processes will not guarantee that data is no longer identifiable and have to be performed in such a way that does not harm the usability of the data.

Associated law(s):Anonymous Data, De-Identification, Mircodata Sets, Re-identification

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150. Privacy design strategies Two major groups of privacy design strategies can play an important role in an organization's application of privacy by design: process-oriented and data-oriented. Process-oriented strategies for data protection are based on an organization's commitment to processing personal information in a privacy-friendly way and ensuring that these commitments are honored. Data-oriented strategies focus on the technical ways that data can be processed with the maximization of privacy in mind. Match the element with the strategy.

Explanation

Daniel J. Solove, “A Taxonomy of Privacy,” University of Pennsylvania Law Review, 154, no. 3 (January 2006), https://www.law.upenn.edu/journals/lawreview/articles/volume154/issue3/Solove154U.Pa.L.Rev.477(2006).pdf

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151. _____ takes specific identifying values and makes them broader, such as changing a specific age (18) to an age range (18-24).

Explanation

Generalization is the process of taking specific identifying values and making them broader. This involves changing a specific age, such as 18, to an age range like 18-24. By generalizing, we can categorize and group similar values together, allowing for easier analysis and comparison.

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152. Keeping up with disruptive technologies. Evolving and disruptive technologies have the potential to affect many aspects of privacy and information security management. Select the strategies that should be considered to deal with disruptive technologies:

Explanation

To deal with evolving and disruptive technologies, organizations should consider the following strategies: data inventory and mapping to understand the data they possess and how it is used, compliance with changing laws, regulations, and standards to ensure legal and regulatory requirements are met, developing and implementing flexible policies and procedures to adapt to technological advancements, ensuring data subject rights to protect the privacy of customers and employees, protecting personal information throughout the life cycle of projects or initiatives, and implementing timely and effective controls to mitigate risks associated with disruptive technologies.

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153. _____ addition takes identifying values from a given data set and switches them with identifying values from another individual in that data set.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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154. True or false? Security focuses on information and the people represented by that information.

Explanation

Security focuses on protecting assets, including information, systems, and infrastructure, from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction. While information and the people represented by that information are important aspects of security, they are not the sole focus. Security also encompasses physical security, network security, application security, and other areas to ensure overall protection. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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155. _____ is the most basic version of anonymization and it simply removes some identifying values from data to reduce its identifiability.

Explanation

Suppression is the most basic version of anonymization as it involves removing identifying values from data to reduce its identifiability. This means that certain information, such as names or specific identifiers, is eliminated from the dataset to protect the privacy of individuals. By suppressing these identifying values, the data becomes less identifiable and helps to ensure that individuals cannot be directly linked to the information.

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156. True or false? The existence of information processing risks means that data is not secure.

Explanation

The statement is false because the existence of information processing risks does not necessarily mean that data is not secure. While information processing risks can pose threats to data security, it is possible to implement measures and safeguards to mitigate these risks and ensure the security of data. Therefore, the presence of information processing risks does not automatically imply that data is insecure.

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157. Anonymization is the process in which individually identifiable data is altered in such a way that it no longer can be related back to a given individual. Among many techniques, there are three primary ways that data is anonymized.
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158. Which of the following are security controls included in the ISO/IEC 27001 and 27002 standards?

Explanation

The ISO/IEC 27001 and 27002 standards include security controls such as supplier relations, operational security, information security incident management, and asset management. Supplier relations involve establishing and maintaining secure relationships with external suppliers. Operational security focuses on protecting the organization's systems and assets from unauthorized access, damage, or disruption. Information security incident management involves handling and responding to security incidents effectively. Asset management involves identifying and managing the organization's information assets to ensure their confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

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159. A set of non-binding principles adopted by the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperative that mirror the OECD Fair Information Privacy Practices. Though based on OECD Guidelines, they seek to promote electronic commerce throughout the Asia-Pacific region by balancing information privacy with business needs. _____

Explanation

The given correct answer is APEC Privacy Principles. This is because the passage states that the set of non-binding principles adopted by the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperative (APEC) aims to promote electronic commerce in the Asia-Pacific region while balancing information privacy with business needs. Therefore, the APEC Privacy Principles align with this objective and are the most appropriate answer.

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160. What category of security control may rely on segregation of duties?

Explanation

Access control is a category of security control that may rely on segregation of duties. This means that different individuals or roles are assigned specific access rights and responsibilities to ensure that no single person has complete control or authority over a system or sensitive information. By implementing segregation of duties, organizations can reduce the risk of fraud, errors, and unauthorized access, as multiple individuals are required to work together to perform critical tasks or access sensitive data.

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161. The first of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle _____

Explanation

The first of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle; provides the steps, checklists and processes necessary to assess any gaps in a privacy program as compared to industry best practices, corporate privacy policies, applicable privacy laws, and objective-based privacy program frameworks.

Associated term(s): Privacy Operational Life Cycle; Protect; Sustain; Respond

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162. A scorecard of risk factors may assist an organization in doing what?

Explanation

A scorecard of risk factors may assist an organization in evaluating security controls by providing a systematic and standardized way to assess the effectiveness of these controls. It allows the organization to measure and compare the performance of different security controls, identify any gaps or weaknesses, and make informed decisions on how to improve them. This evaluation process helps ensure that the organization's security measures are adequate and aligned with its risk management objectives.

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163. Privacy Operational Life Cycle  Focused on refining and improving privacy processes, this model continuously monitors and improves the privacy program, with the added benefits of a life cycle approach to:
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164. True or false? A key difference between the U.S. and EU concepts of invasion of privacy is based on whether the invasion caused actual harm to the individual.

Explanation

The statement is true. The key difference between the U.S. and EU concepts of invasion of privacy is indeed based on whether the invasion caused actual harm to the individual. In the U.S., invasion of privacy is generally considered a violation only if it causes harm or distress to the person. On the other hand, in the EU, invasion of privacy is seen as a violation regardless of whether harm or distress is caused. This reflects a difference in the legal and cultural approaches to privacy in the two regions.

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165. High-level, five-phase audit approach. The steps include: Audit Planning; Audit Preparation; Conducting the Audit; Reporting; and Follow-up. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Audit Life Cycle," is the missing term that completes the statement. The explanation is that the high-level, five-phase audit approach mentioned in the question is commonly referred to as the "Audit Life Cycle." This cycle includes the steps of Audit Planning, Audit Preparation, Conducting the Audit, Reporting, and Follow-up. The Audit Life Cycle provides a structured framework for conducting audits and ensures that all necessary steps are followed to effectively assess and report on the audited entity's compliance and performance.

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166. Which of the following is an administrative control?

Explanation

An administrative control refers to a measure implemented by an organization to manage and regulate its operations. In this case, responding to data subject access requests within one week of reception is an administrative control as it involves establishing a procedure and timeline for addressing such requests. This control ensures that the organization is compliant with data protection regulations and demonstrates transparency and accountability in handling individuals' data.

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167. Audit Life Cycle is a high-level, five-phase audit approach. The steps include:
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168. True or false? Data processing principles, such as those found in the GDPR, may be used to successfully implement privacy by design.

Explanation

Data processing principles, such as those found in the GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), can be effectively utilized to implement privacy by design. The GDPR emphasizes the importance of incorporating privacy measures into the design and development of systems, products, and services that involve the processing of personal data. By adhering to the principles outlined in the GDPR, organizations can ensure that privacy considerations are taken into account from the very beginning, thereby enhancing data protection and privacy for individuals.

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169. _____ is targeted at individuals based on the observation of their behavior over time.

Explanation

Advertising that is targeted at individuals based on the observation of their behavior over time. Most often done via automated processing of personal data, or profiling, the General Data Protection Regulation requires that data subjects be able to opt-out of any automated processing, to be informed of the logic involved in any automatic personal data processing and, at least when based on profiling, be informed of the consequences of such processing. If cookies are used to store or access information for the purposes of behavioral advertising, the ePrivacy Directive requires that data subjects provide consent for the placement of such cookies, after having been provided with clear and comprehensive information.

Acronym(s): OBA

Associated term(s): Online Behavioral Advertising, Behavioral Targeting, Contextual Advertising, Demographic Advertising, Premium Advertising, Psychographic Advertising, Remnant Advertising

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170. If a data breach occurs, what's at risk for an organization? What damage might be suffered by an individual?  Sort the potential consequences of a breach according to whether they apply to an organization or to an individual.
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171. _____ are appropriate safeguards allowed by the General Data Protection Regulation to facilitate cross-border transfers of personal data between the various entities of a corporate group worldwide.

Explanation

They do so by ensuring that the same high level of protection of personal data is complied with by all members of the organizational group by means of a single set of binding and enforceable rules. BCRs compel organizations to be able to demonstrate their compliance with all aspects of applicable data protection legislation and are approved by a member state data protection authority. To date, relatively few organizations have had BCRs approved.

Acronym(s): BCR

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172. Test your knowledge: According to the most recent Ponemon report, which category is the top cause of breaches?

Explanation

Feedback: The correct answer is shown here. Malicious or criminal attacks are the top cause, causing 52% of breaches.

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173. The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoC) enforces the nation's antitrust laws, which form the foundation of our free market economy. The antitrust laws promote the interests of consumers; they support unfettered markets and result in lower prices and more choices.

Explanation

Associated term(s): Bureau of Consumer Protection; Bureau of Economics

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174. Breaches can occur in many ways, including through hacking or malware, device loss or theft, and unintended disclosure of information. Breaches are more than just a technical or IT issue; everyone in an organization can and should play a role in following responsible data privacy and collection practices. This study lists characteristics commonly associated with breaches. Match each item in the list below to the percentage of breaches associated with it.
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175. The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoCP) stops unfair, deceptive and fraudulent business practices by collecting complaints and conducting investigations, suing companies and people that break the law, developing rules to maintain a fair marketplace, and educating consumers and businesses about their rights and responsibilities.

Explanation

Associated term(s): Bureau of Competition; Bureau of Economics

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176. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to Information Security

Explanation

The elements of planning and responses related to Information Security include providing guidance regarding detection, isolation, removal, and preservation of affected systems. This involves identifying and addressing data compromises and carrying out forensic investigations. These actions are crucial in mitigating the impact of a breach and preventing further damage.

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177. The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoE) helps the FTC evaluate the economic impact of its actions by providing economic analysis for competition and consumer protection investigations and rulemakings, and analyzing the economic impact of government regulations on businesses and consumers.

Explanation

Associated term(s): Bureau of Competition; Bureau of Consumer Protection

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178. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to Legal

Explanation

The elements of planning and response related to Legal include advising on response requirements and limiting liability and economic consequences. Legal teams provide guidance on detection, isolation, removal, and preservation of affected systems, as well as addressing data compromises and carrying out forensic investigations. They also advise on customer relationship management, establish a consistent message, and represent knowledge in handling and keeping the account. Additionally, legal teams notify key accounts, plan strategic and tactical communication, assume positions on the front line, and represent union interests. They also calculate and manage the bottom-line impact of containment and correction, secure resources for resolution, and publicly comment on the breach. Legal teams offer insight on customer/caller behavior and handle breach-related call traffic.

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179. The starting point for assessing the needs of the privacy organization, it defines the individual program needs and the ways to meet specific business goals, such as compliance with privacy laws or regulations, industry frameworks, customer requirements and other considerations. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Business case," is the correct answer because a business case is a document that outlines the justification for a proposed project or initiative. In the context of assessing the needs of a privacy organization, a business case would outline the individual program needs and provide a framework for meeting specific business goals, such as compliance with privacy laws, industry frameworks, customer requirements, and other considerations. The business case would outline the financial, strategic, and operational benefits of implementing the proposed privacy program, helping to justify the allocation of resources and support decision-making.

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180. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to HR

Explanation

The elements of planning and response related to HR include providing an employee perspective and serving as an information conduit to employees. HR plays a crucial role in addressing the impact of a breach on employees and ensuring effective communication between the organization and its workforce. They provide insights on how the breach affects employees, offer guidance on response requirements, and establish and maintain a positive and consistent message to keep employees informed and engaged. By serving as an information conduit, HR ensures that employees receive timely and accurate information about the breach and its implications.

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181. BCDR or _____ is a risk mitigation plan designed to prepare an organization for crises and to ensure critical business functions continue. The focus is to recover from a disaster when disruptions of any size are encountered.

Explanation

The given answer, "Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Plan," accurately describes the acronym BCDR. BCDR is a risk mitigation plan that helps organizations prepare for crises and ensure that critical business functions can continue even in the face of disruptions or disasters. This plan focuses on recovering from a disaster and maintaining business continuity regardless of the size or nature of the disruption.

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182. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to Marketing

Explanation

The elements of planning and response related to marketing include advising about customer relationship management and establishing and maintaining a positive and consistent message. These responsibilities involve providing guidance on how to handle customer interactions during a breach, ensuring that the company's messaging is coherent and reassuring, and addressing any potential impact on customer relationships. By advising on customer relationship management and maintaining a positive message, the marketing team plays a crucial role in managing the reputation and public perception of the company during a breach.

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183. The _____ (BCP) is typically drafted and maintained by key stakeholders, spelling out departmental responsibilities and actions teams must take before, during and after an event in order to help operations run smoothly. Situations covered in a BCP often include fire, flood, natural disasters (tornadoes and hurricanes), and terrorist attack.

Explanation

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a document that outlines the responsibilities and actions that key stakeholders and teams must take in order to ensure that operations run smoothly before, during, and after an event. It is typically drafted and maintained by these stakeholders and covers various situations such as fire, flood, natural disasters, and terrorist attacks. The purpose of a BCP is to provide a roadmap for businesses to follow in order to minimize disruptions and ensure the continuity of critical functions in the face of unexpected events.

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184. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to Business development

Explanation

The elements of planning and response related to Business development include representing knowledge in handling and keeping the account and notifying key accounts. This means that the Business development team is responsible for leveraging their expertise and experience to effectively manage and retain important accounts during a breach. They also play a crucial role in promptly informing key accounts about the breach and providing necessary updates and support to maintain a positive and consistent relationship.

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185. _____ (COPPA) is a U.S. federal law that applies to the operators of commercial websites and online services that are directed to children under the age of 13. It also applies to general audience websites and online services that have actual knowledge that they are collecting personal information from children under the age of 13.

Explanation

COPPA requires these website operators: to post a privacy notice on the homepage of the website; provide notice about collection practices to parents; obtain verifiable parental consent before collecting personal information from children; give parents a choice as to whether their child’s personal information will be disclosed to third parties; provide parents access and the opportunity to delete the child’s personal information and opt out of future collection or use of the information, and maintain the confidentiality, security and integrity of personal information collected from children.

Acronym(s): COPPA

Link to text of law: 15 U.S.C. §§ 6501-6508

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186. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to Public relations

Explanation

The elements of planning and response related to public relations include planning strategic and tactical communication to inform and influence, as well as assuming positions on the front line. This means that the public relations team is responsible for developing a communication plan to effectively inform and influence the public during a breach. They also play a crucial role in representing the organization and addressing any concerns or questions from the public, assuming a visible and proactive role in managing the crisis.

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187. In the context of consent, _____ refers to the idea that consent must be freely given.

Explanation

In the context of consent, choice refers to the idea that consent must be freely given and that data subjects must have a genuine choice as to whether to provide personal data or not. If there is no true choice it is unlikely the consent will be deemed valid under the General Data Protection Regulation.

Associated term(s): Consent

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188. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to Union Leadership

Explanation

Union leadership plays a crucial role in both the planning and response periods of a breach. They represent the interests of the union and communicate and coordinate with the union throughout the process. This includes providing guidance on detection, isolation, and removal of affected systems, addressing data compromises, and carrying out forensic investigations. They also play a role in managing the bottom-line impact of containment and correction, securing resources for resolution, and publicly commenting on the breach. Overall, union leadership ensures that the union's interests are represented and that effective communication and coordination take place between the union and other stakeholders.

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189. Three common information security principles from the 1960s. _____

Explanation

Also known as information security triad; three common information security principles from the 1960s: Confidentiality, integrity, availability.

Associated term(s): Information Security Triad

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190. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to Finance

Explanation

The elements of planning and response related to Finance include calculating and managing the bottom-line impact of containment and correction, as well as securing resources to fund the resolution. This involves analyzing the financial implications of the breach, determining the costs associated with containing and correcting the breach, and allocating funds accordingly. It also involves securing additional resources, such as budget and manpower, to effectively address the breach and mitigate its impact. Additionally, publicly commenting on the breach and showing value on preventing breaches through actions are also part of the Finance team's responsibilities.

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191. The three common information security principles from the 1960s that comprise the CIA Triad also known as Information Security Triad: _____

Explanation

The CIA Triad, also known as the Information Security Triad, consists of three fundamental principles: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that information is only accessible to authorized individuals, protecting it from unauthorized disclosure. Integrity ensures that information remains accurate, complete, and unaltered, preventing unauthorized modifications. Availability ensures that information is accessible and usable by authorized individuals when needed. These three principles form the foundation of information security, providing a comprehensive approach to protect sensitive information from unauthorized access, manipulation, and unavailability.

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192. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to CEO/President

Explanation

The CEO/President has responsibilities in both the planning and response periods of a breach. They need to show the value of preventing breaches through their actions, which includes allocating funds and manpower promptly. They also have to publicly comment on the breach to address the concerns of stakeholders and maintain a positive and consistent message. By taking these actions, the CEO/President can effectively manage the bottom-line impact of containment and correction and secure the necessary resources to resolve the breach.

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193. A fair information practices principle, it is the principle stating there should be limits to the collection of personal data, that any such data should be obtained by lawful and fair means and, where appropriate, with the knowledge or consent of the data subject. _____

Explanation

The given answer, "Collection Limitation," is the correct answer because it accurately describes the fair information practices principle mentioned in the question. This principle states that there should be limits to the collection of personal data, and any such data should be obtained through lawful and fair means, with the knowledge or consent of the data subject. "Collection Limitation" summarizes this principle effectively.

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194. Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both planning and responding to a breach. These tables detail sample departmental responsibilities for the planning and response periods. Identify the elements of planning and responses related to Customer care

Explanation

The elements of planning and responses related to Customer care include offering insight on customer/caller behavior and handling breach-related call traffic. This means that the customer care team is responsible for providing valuable information about how customers or callers may react or behave during a breach, as well as managing the increased volume of calls related to the breach. They play a crucial role in addressing customer concerns and ensuring that communication with affected individuals is handled effectively and efficiently.

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195. This privacy requirement is one of the fair information practices. Individuals must be able to prevent the collection of their personal data, unless the disclosure is required by law. _____

Explanation

If an individual has choice about the use or disclosure of his or her information, consent is the individual's way of giving permission for the use or disclosure. Consent may be affirmative; i.e., opt-in; or implied; i.e., the individual didn’t opt out.

(1) Affirmative/Explicit Consent: A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her agreement with a data controller by some active communication between the parties.

(2) Implicit Consent: Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from the action or inaction of the individual.

Associated term(s): Choice

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196. A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her agreement with a data controller by some active communication between the parties. _____

Explanation

(1) Affirmative/Explicit Consent: A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her agreement with a data controller by some active communication between the parties.

(2) Implicit Consent: Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from the action or inaction of the individual.

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197. Employee training for incident preparedness and preparation can help: (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

Employee training for incident preparedness and preparation can help in several ways. Firstly, it can expose gaps in applications, plans, and procedures before an incident occurs. This allows organizations to identify and address any weaknesses or vulnerabilities, improving their overall preparedness. Secondly, it can reduce financial liability and regulatory exposure by ensuring that employees are knowledgeable about relevant laws, regulations, and best practices. Thirdly, it can lower breach-related costs, such as legal counsel and consumer notification, by equipping employees with the skills and knowledge to prevent and respond to incidents effectively. Lastly, it can cultivate greater overall security for customers, partners, and employees by promoting a culture of vigilance and awareness.

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198. Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from the action or inaction of the individual. _____

Explanation

(1) Affirmative/Explicit Consent: A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her agreement with a data controller by some active communication between the parties.

(2) Implicit Consent: Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from the action or inaction of the individual.

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199. Which of the following are critical duties of an organization's legal team in planning and responding to an incident? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The organization's legal team plays a critical role in planning and responding to an incident by limiting liability and economic consequences. They provide guidance and advice on the necessary response requirements to effectively handle the situation.

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200. Any person or entity that complies or evaluates personal information for the purpose of furnishing it to third parties for a fee. _____

Explanation

Acronym(s): CRAs

Associated term(s): Credit Reporting Agency

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Opting-in means an individual makes an active, affirmative indication...
True or false? All incidents are breaches, but not all breaches are...
The information life cycle recognizes that data has different value,...
Information security provides physical, technical and administrative...
True or false? When communicating about a breach, an organization...
Can you identify the five phases of a privacy program audit?
Which best describes the disadvantages of a centralized privacy...
In the U.S., many industries have sector-specific privacy-related laws...
A privacy policy is generally an internal document that is addressed...
How do information security and privacy teams work in concert, so that...
Control types and categories. Information security provides physical,...
Information security provides physical, technical and administrative...
Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A...
A metric owner is a process owner, champion and advocate responsible...
Why does an organization need a privacy program? Identify the number 3...
Business alignment includes the following elements:
Data governance of personal information includes the following...
Inquiry/complaint-handling procedures includes the following elements:
Which best describes the advantages of a centralized privacy...
Which best describes the advantages of a local privacy governance...
Which best describes the advantages of a hybrid privacy governance...
Which best describes the disadvantages of a hybrid privacy governance...
Which best describes the disadvantages of a local privacy governance...
Which of the below are Tasks that the DPO is responsible for...
Match the category and skills that a DPO should possess
Match the following DPO responsibilities and categories
True or false. The DPO needs to be located in Europe?
GRC, is an umbrella term whose scope touches the privacy office, as...
Within an organization, the privacy function should always reside...
The chief privacy officer for a telecommunications company wants to...
Before determining an organization's privacy strategy, what should a...
In differentiating between a privacy strategy and a privacy framework,...
A law or regulation may constitute a privacy framework. true or false?
Match the order of the steps in developing a Privacy Program
What type of privacy governance model is defined by a one team or...
The privacy team should always comprise more than one person. true or...
Which business function ensures business and regulatory requirements...
Before the acquisition can take place the following should take place:
What are the similarities between Canada's PIPEDA and the European...
What are the differences between Canada's PIPEDA and the European...
Understanding the regulatory environment. Because the regulatory...
GDPR: Rights and obligations. How familiar are you with the rights and...
CCPA: Rights and obligations. How familiar are you with the rights and...
The California Privacy Rights Act (CPRA) ballot initiative was passed....
_____ means that one country (or jurisdiction, such as the EU) has...
_____ (language written into a contract) may be a way for...
Under the GDPR, _____ resemble the self-regulatory programs used...
_____ may also be used for GDPR compliance, although they must receive...
Under the GDPR, BCRs require approval from a supervisory authority. At...
Which are common elements of privacy-related legislation across...
Privacy and data protection regulators/oversight agencies have the...
What can controllers and processors do to avoid incurring penalties...
Two global pharmaceutical companies have recently merged. What are...
Using a valid mechanism for transferring personal information across...
Which cross-border data transfer mechanism is used to demonstrate to...
Match the elements to either Data Inventory & Mapping or Privacy...
Match the elements with with the considerations for building a data...
Match the following events with the relevant department in an...
From the list, check the events that may trigger the need for a...
Match the following components of a DPIA in the order conducted.
In addition to identifying areas of non-compliance, assessments may...
Match the considerations with the elements involved in assessing...
Match the terms to complete the sentences about items in a vendor...
Mergers, acquisitions and divestitures serve as key junctures for...
Which of the following is a common function of a data inventory?...
Which of the following elements may be found in a data inventory?...
True or false? Data inventories are almost always created and...
Which of the following is a potential tool for keeping a data...
Which of the following is an assessment that measures how closely an...
True or false? A privacy impact assessment can help facilitate privacy...
Ideally, when should a PIA be conducted? Select all that apply.
Which of the following are methods for assessing vendors? Select all...
A privacy policy is one of the two primary types of documents that...
Information security policies: Access and data classification....
Vendors should be held to the same privacy standards as the...
Procurement: Engaging vendors Match the considerations with the...
HR handles diverse employee personal information and typically will...
Data retention and destruction policies should support the idea that...
Privacy-related policies will not be effective if individuals do not...
Implementing policies. Privacy-related policies will not be effective...
Select the ones you like
An information security team is crafting an internal document that...
A marketing team works with their legal department to create an...
What is the purpose of an acceptable use policy?
True or false? Vendors should be held to the same privacy standards as...
A vendor contract should include the following. Select all that apply.
True or false? Some laws and regulations stipulate lengths of time...
How may an organization enable employees to integrate privacy policies...
Across jurisdictions, data subjects typically have certain rights,...
Select the ones you like
Privacy notices are generally external communications, to customers,...
Privacy notice: Common elements. Your organization's privacy notice...
Privacy notices should be living documents, maintained in a lifecycle...
Privacy notices should be living documents, maintained in a lifecycle...
Providing a privacy notice is not the same as soliciting consent. ...
Opting-out means that an individual's lack of action implies a...
Opting-out means an individual makes an active, affirmative indication...
Opting-in means that an individual's lack of action implies a...
There are several methods for tailoring privacy notices to children...
Choice and control should be offered to individuals even after the...
A privacy team should work with legal to establish policies and...
Data portability is a right that applies only in some...
Under the GDPR, individuals have the right to request erasure of their...
Complaints about how your organization manages data subject rights may...
A privacy notice typically explains what? Select all that apply.
The chief privacy officer of a technology company has revised its...
When does consent need to be reviewed and possibly refreshed? Select...
What may an organization's procedures around withdrawal of consent...
True or false? Upon request from an individual, an organization must...
Under the EU's General Data Protection Regulation, erasure entails...
True or false? Regardless of the source (e.g., employees, etc.) of...
Awareness: Operational actions ...
Consider what motivates your organization's employees. How can you...
What should privacy training and awareness programs do? Select all...
Who needs privacy training? Select all that apply.
Which of the following qualifies as an awareness method?
The HR team within an organization is being trained on the proper...
To resolve the potential security issues a DPO/CPO may observe, what...
Privacy and security professionals alike agree that the most important...
What privacy functions are valuable in mitigating a data breach? Check...
Information security provides administrative, technical and physical...
ISO/IEC 27001 and 27002 are internationally recognized information...
ISO/IEC 27701 is an extension of ISO/IEC 27001. It defines processes...
ISO/IEC 27001 and 27002 which of the below are elements of a...
Information security provides physical, technical and administrative...
Information security provides physical, technical and administrative...
Information security provides physical, technical and administrative...
Information security provides physical, technical and administrative...
Access controls. A privacy team should work with information security...
Security policies. A well-functioning internal security policy...
Technical privacy controls. In addition to security and administrative...
Evaluating security controls. When you are evaluating security...
Technical privacy controls.  In addition to security and...
Technical privacy controls.  In addition to security and...
Technical privacy controls.  In addition to security and...
Technical privacy controls.  In addition to security and...
Several of the data processing principles outlined in the GDPR may be...
Privacy risk models and frameworks. Risk management is an integral...
Privacy risks ...
Privacy risks ...
Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A...
Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A...
Privacy risks. In 2006, Daniel Solove authored an article entitled, "A...
The implementation of appropriate technical and organizational...
DLP network, storage, scans and privacy tools can be used to identify...
Two major groups of privacy design strategies can play an important...
A U.S. professional organization of certified public accountants and...
Two major groups of privacy design strategies can play an important...
The process in which individually identifiable data is altered in such...
Privacy design strategies Two major groups of privacy design...
_____ takes specific identifying values and makes them broader, such...
Keeping up with disruptive technologies. Evolving and disruptive...
_____ addition takes identifying values from a given data set and...
True or false? Security focuses on information and the people...
_____ is the most basic version of anonymization and it simply removes...
True or false? The existence of information processing risks means...
Anonymization is the process in which individually identifiable data...
Which of the following are security controls included in the ISO/IEC...
A set of non-binding principles adopted by the Asia-Pacific Economic...
What category of security control may rely on segregation of duties?
The first of four phases of the privacy operational life cycle _____
A scorecard of risk factors may assist an organization in doing what?
Privacy Operational Life Cycle  Focused on refining and improving...
True or false? A key difference between the U.S. and EU concepts of...
High-level, five-phase audit approach. The steps include: Audit...
Which of the following is an administrative control?
Audit Life Cycle is a high-level, five-phase audit approach. The steps...
True or false? Data processing principles, such as those found in the...
_____ is targeted at individuals based on the observation of their...
If a data breach occurs, what's at risk for an organization? What...
_____ are appropriate safeguards allowed by the General Data...
Test your knowledge: According to the most recent Ponemon report,...
The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoC) enforces the...
Breaches can occur in many ways, including through hacking or malware,...
The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoCP) stops...
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
The United States' Federal Trade Commission's _____ (BoE) helps the...
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
The starting point for assessing the needs of the privacy...
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
BCDR or _____ is a risk mitigation plan designed to prepare an...
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
The _____ (BCP) is typically drafted and maintained by key...
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
_____ (COPPA) is a U.S. federal law that applies to the operators of...
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
In the context of consent, _____ refers to the idea that consent must...
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
Three common information security principles from the 1960s. _____
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
The three common information security principles from the 1960s that...
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
A fair information practices principle, it is the principle stating...
Different stakeholder teams have different responsibilities in both...
This privacy requirement is one of the fair information practices....
A requirement that an individual "signifies" his or her...
Employee training for incident preparedness and preparation can help:...
Implied consent arises where consent may reasonably be inferred from...
Which of the following are critical duties of an organization's legal...
Any person or entity that complies or evaluates personal information...
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