CDC Mastery Practice Exam Quiz
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Test your knowledge with the CDC Mastery Practice Exam Quiz, designed to help you excel in your 3P051B CDC mastery journey. This comprehensive quiz is tailored to assess your understanding of key concepts and materials relevant to the 3P051B career field.
Whether you're preparing for an upcoming exam or simply aiming to enhance your expertise, this quiz offers a valuable resource to reinforce your learning. Covering a range of topics, the CDC mastery quiz challenges you with thought-provoking questions that mirror the complexity and depth of the actual exam.
Sharpen your skills, identify areas for improvement, and gain the confidence Read moreneeded to succeed. Embrace this opportunity to simulate the exam environment and enhance your preparation for the 3P051B quiz. Your path to mastery starts here as you engage with a compilation of questions crafted to support your educational advancement.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which weapon(s) is in risk category II?
- A.
M203 grenade launchers and morter tubes
- B.
M16 Rifle and MK19 machine gun
- C.
Redeye and stinger missiles
- D.
M9 Pistol
Correct Answer
B. M16 Rifle and MK19 machine gunExplanation
The M16 Rifle and MK19 machine gun are in risk category II. This means that they are considered to have a moderate risk associated with their use. This could be due to factors such as their power, range, or potential for collateral damage. It is important to handle and use these weapons with caution and follow proper safety protocols to minimize the risks involved.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What risk category includes the M9 handgun and M870 shotgun?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
D. IVExplanation
The M9 handgun and M870 shotgun fall under risk category IV. This category typically includes firearms that have a lower risk level compared to other categories. These weapons may still pose some danger, but they are generally considered to have a lower potential for harm or misuse. It is important to note that risk categories can vary depending on the specific context or classification system being used.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who may authorize unescorted entry into a WSA?
- A.
Chief, resource protection
- B.
Combat Arms NCOIC
- C.
Security Forces
- D.
Commander
Correct Answer
D. CommanderExplanation
The commander may authorize unescorted entry into a WSA. This is because the commander has the overall authority and responsibility for the security and protection of the area. They have the power to grant permission for individuals to enter the WSA without an escort, based on their assessment of the situation and the individual's qualifications or clearance level. The other options, such as Chief, resource protection, Combat Arms NCOIC, and Security Forces, may have roles in the security and protection of the WSA, but the ultimate authority lies with the commander.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is the maximum allowable intervals between inventories of keys to a firearm storage facility?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annual
Correct Answer
C. SemiannuallyExplanation
The maximum allowable intervals between inventories of keys to a firearm storage facility is semiannually, which means that the inventories should be conducted every six months. This ensures that the keys are properly accounted for and any discrepancies or losses can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Conducting inventories on a semiannual basis helps maintain the security and integrity of the firearm storage facility.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What AF Form must be displayed in a prominent location in a munitions storage area?
- A.
1047
- B.
1473
- C.
2047
- D.
2074
Correct Answer
C. 2047Explanation
The AF Form 2047 must be displayed in a prominent location in a munitions storage area. This form is used to document the daily storage and handling conditions of munitions, ensuring compliance with safety regulations and providing a record of accountability. Displaying this form prominently allows personnel to easily access and review the information, promoting safety and efficient management of munitions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
If primary or spare keys of weapons or munitions storage structures are lost, you should
- A.
Do nothing.
- B.
Replace the lock and cylinder.
- C.
Copy a new key from the master.
- D.
Report the lost key to resource protection.
Correct Answer
B. Replace the lock and cylinder.Explanation
If the primary or spare keys of weapons or munitions storage structures are lost, it is important to replace the lock and cylinder. This is necessary to ensure the security of the weapons and munitions stored in these structures. By replacing the lock and cylinder, unauthorized access can be prevented, reducing the risk of theft or misuse of the weapons and munitions.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which item is not required for the receipt of firearms?
- A.
Serial Number
- B.
Manufacturer
- C.
Butt Number
- D.
Signature
Correct Answer
C. Butt NumberExplanation
The butt number is not required for the receipt of firearms. The serial number is used to uniquely identify each firearm, the manufacturer provides information about the origin and specifications of the firearm, and the signature is necessary to verify the receipt of the firearm. However, the butt number is not a standard requirement for receiving firearms.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What AF Forms are used to hand receipt for weapons?
- A.
629 and 710
- B.
629 and 1297
- C.
2005 and 601
- D.
2005 and 710
Correct Answer
B. 629 and 1297Explanation
The AF Forms 629 and 1297 are used to hand receipt for weapons. The AF Form 629 is the Individual Weapons Record and is used to document the assignment and transfer of individual weapons. The AF Form 1297 is the Temporary Issue Receipt and is used when temporarily issuing weapons to individuals. These forms are important for maintaining accountability and tracking the possession of weapons within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What type of inventory is conducted when opening an armory that is not continuously manned?
- A.
10 Percent
- B.
50 Percent
- C.
100 Percent
- D.
Random
Correct Answer
C. 100 PercentExplanation
When opening an armory that is not continuously manned, a 100 percent inventory is conducted. This means that every item in the armory is counted and verified to ensure that the inventory is accurate and complete. Since the armory is not continuously manned, conducting a 100 percent inventory is necessary to maintain control and accountability over the weapons and equipment stored in the armory. This ensures that no items are missing or unaccounted for, reducing the risk of theft or unauthorized access to the armory's contents.Rate this question:
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- 10.
When are you operating an armory under field conditions and normal protection hardware is not available, what is the minimum required protection?
- A.
Constant survellance
- B.
Increased vigilance
- C.
Random checks
- D.
Hourly checks
Correct Answer
A. Constant survellanceExplanation
In field conditions where normal protection hardware is not available, constant surveillance is the minimum required protection. This means that you need to continuously monitor and observe the armory to ensure its security. This is necessary to prevent unauthorized access, theft, or any other potential threats. Constant surveillance allows for immediate detection and response to any suspicious activity, ensuring the safety and integrity of the armory and its contents.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is the most important immediate step to take when a chemical splashes into your eyes?
- A.
Call a friend
- B.
Go to a doctor
- C.
Get eye protection
- D.
Flush your eyes with water
Correct Answer
D. Flush your eyes with waterExplanation
When a chemical splashes into your eyes, the most important immediate step to take is to flush your eyes with water. This is crucial because water helps to dilute and remove the chemical from your eyes, minimizing potential damage. Flushing your eyes with water can help to prevent further injury and reduce the risk of long-term damage to your vision.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What type of hearing protection should a Combat Arms instructor wear during live fire training?
- A.
Earmuffs only
- B.
Earplugs only
- C.
Both earplugs and muffs
- D.
Either earplugs or muffs
Correct Answer
C. Both earplugs and muffsExplanation
During live fire training, a Combat Arms instructor should wear both earplugs and earmuffs for hearing protection. This is because live fire training involves loud noises and gunshots, which can cause significant damage to the ears. Using both earplugs and earmuffs provides an extra layer of protection by reducing the noise levels even further. This ensures that the instructor's hearing is adequately protected from the loud sounds during the training session.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What should you not do when lifting a crate of 5.56mm ammunition?
- A.
Crouch down
- B.
Bend legs at the knees
- C.
Keep your back straight
- D.
Set one foot ahead
Correct Answer
A. Crouch downExplanation
When lifting a crate of 5.56mm ammunition, crouching down is not recommended. This is because crouching down can put strain on the back and increase the risk of injury. Instead, it is important to bend the legs at the knees, keeping the back straight, and set one foot ahead for stability while lifting the crate. This proper lifting technique helps to distribute the weight evenly and reduce the strain on the back, minimizing the chances of injury.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What directive states the USAF policy on hazardous waste management?
- A.
Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard 41
- B.
Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 32-7043
- C.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36-226
- D.
AFI 91-102
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 32-7043Explanation
Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 32-7043 is the correct answer because it is a publication that specifically addresses hazardous waste management in the United States Air Force. It provides guidance and regulations for the proper handling, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste to ensure the safety of personnel and the environment. This pamphlet serves as a directive that outlines the USAF policy on hazardous waste management.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What unit on the base assist you in managing hazardous waste?
- A.
Base Civil Engineering (BCE)
- B.
Environmental Health Services (EHS)
- C.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
- D.
Bioenvironmental Engineering Section (BES)
Correct Answer
D. Bioenvironmental Engineering Section (BES)Explanation
The correct answer is Bioenvironmental Engineering Section (BES). The BES unit on the base assists in managing hazardous waste. They are responsible for ensuring that all hazardous waste is properly handled, stored, and disposed of in accordance with environmental regulations and guidelines. They also provide guidance and training to personnel on how to safely handle hazardous materials and waste.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The Bioenvironmental Engineering Section (BES) reviews the hazardous chemical inventory at least..
- A.
Weekly
- B.
Biweekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
D. AnnuallyExplanation
The correct answer is annually because reviewing the hazardous chemical inventory on a yearly basis allows the Bioenvironmental Engineering Section (BES) to ensure that all necessary safety measures are in place and that any changes or updates to the inventory are properly documented. This regular review helps to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents related to hazardous chemicals and ensures compliance with safety regulations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
On the firing range, an unsafe act is corrected
- A.
During a break in firing.
- B.
Instantly, the second after it happens.
- C.
The same day, after firing has stopped.
- D.
The next day, during remedial training.
Correct Answer
B. Instantly, the second after it happens.Explanation
During a break in firing, an unsafe act is corrected instantly, the second after it happens. This means that as soon as an unsafe act is observed, it is immediately addressed and corrected without any delay. This ensures the safety of everyone on the firing range and prevents any potential accidents or injuries from occurring.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which action does not require removing an individual from the firing line?
- A.
Repeating infractions
- B.
Disregarding instructions
- C.
Violating safety practices
- D.
Missing the target every time
Correct Answer
D. Missing the target every timeExplanation
Missing the target every time does not require removing an individual from the firing line because it does not pose a direct threat to the safety of others. While repeating infractions, disregarding instructions, and violating safety practices can all potentially endanger others, consistently missing the target does not necessarily put anyone at risk. Therefore, removing the individual from the firing line is not necessary in this case.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What factor must not be considered by anyone correcting unsafe acts on the firing range?
- A.
You must use a level-headed approach
- B.
You must be the tower operator
- C.
You must be impartial
- D.
You must be honest
Correct Answer
B. You must be the tower operatorExplanation
The factor that must not be considered by anyone correcting unsafe acts on the firing range is being the tower operator. This means that the person correcting unsafe acts should not have the responsibility of operating the tower, as their focus should be solely on identifying and addressing unsafe behaviors. Being the tower operator can create distractions and potentially compromise the safety of the firing range.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The primary purpose of trespass notices about Air Force firing range practices is to
- A.
Warn personnel of an imminent national alert
- B.
Assist personnel in scheduling weapons training
- C.
Warn personnel of the environmental hazards associated with the firing range
- D.
Make personnel aware of the location and dangers associated with the firing range
Correct Answer
D. Make personnel aware of the location and dangers associated with the firing rangeExplanation
The primary purpose of trespass notices about Air Force firing range practices is to make personnel aware of the location and dangers associated with the firing range. This implies that the notices are intended to inform individuals about the specific area where the firing range is located and the potential hazards that may be present in that area. It is not about warning personnel of an imminent national alert, assisting personnel in scheduling weapons training, or warning personnel of the environmental hazards associated with the firing range.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How often must you place notices in the base bulletin and local newspapers to keep people informed of the dangers of trespassing on the firing range?
- A.
Once a year
- B.
Twice a year
- C.
Once a month
- D.
Twice a quarter
Correct Answer
B. Twice a yearExplanation
To keep people informed of the dangers of trespassing on the firing range, notices must be placed in the base bulletin and local newspapers twice a year. This frequency ensures that the information is regularly updated and reaches a wide audience. Placing the notices once a year may not be sufficient to maintain awareness, while placing them once a month or twice a quarter may be excessive and could potentially be ignored or overlooked by the public.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The purpose of warning signs placed along boundaries of firing ranges is to
- A.
Identify personnel limitations
- B.
Emphasize weapons and ammunition restrictions
- C.
Emphasize the dangers of small arms firing ranges
- D.
Identify when recreational use of the range is permitted
Correct Answer
C. Emphasize the dangers of small arms firing rangesExplanation
The purpose of warning signs placed along boundaries of firing ranges is to emphasize the dangers of small arms firing ranges. These signs are meant to alert individuals to the potential hazards and risks associated with being in close proximity to an active shooting range. By highlighting the dangers, the signs serve as a visual reminder for people to exercise caution and take necessary precautions to ensure their safety.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The primary purpose of range flags and streamers is to
- A.
Identify range wind conditions
- B.
Identify type of weapon in use
- C.
Identify range location
- D.
Improve safety
Correct Answer
D. Improve safetyExplanation
Range flags and streamers are primarily used to improve safety during activities such as shooting or target practice. By using range flags and streamers, it becomes easier to identify and communicate the boundaries of a range, ensuring that individuals stay within a safe area. These visual markers also help to alert others to the presence of ongoing activities, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries. Therefore, the primary purpose of range flags and streamers is to enhance safety measures.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is a major factor in deciding on the design of a new firing range?
- A.
Cost
- B.
Base location
- C.
Personnel assigned
- D.
Availability of real estate
Correct Answer
D. Availability of real estateExplanation
The availability of real estate is a major factor in deciding on the design of a new firing range because it determines the size and location of the facility. The design of the range needs to fit within the available space, and the location should be suitable for noise and safety considerations. Additionally, the availability of real estate will impact the cost of acquiring the land for the firing range. Therefore, considering the availability of real estate is crucial in determining the design of a new firing range.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What type of baffle is angled or horizontal, and stops all direct-fired rounds from exiting the range?
- A.
Overhead
- B.
Canopy
- C.
Ground
- D.
Impact
Correct Answer
B. CanopyExplanation
A canopy baffle is angled or horizontal and is designed to prevent any direct-fired rounds from exiting the range. It acts as a protective barrier that stops bullets or projectiles from leaving the designated shooting area. This type of baffle is commonly used in shooting ranges to ensure safety by containing all rounds within the range and preventing any potential harm to people or property outside the range.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Why is soft wood used as a facing for baffles?
- A.
Stop ammunition
- B.
Control ricochets
- C.
Protect ammunition
- D.
Support target stands
Correct Answer
B. Control ricochetsExplanation
Soft wood is used as a facing for baffles to control ricochets. When ammunition hits the soft wood, it absorbs the impact and reduces the chances of the bullet bouncing off at unpredictable angles. This helps in maintaining a safe shooting environment by preventing bullets from ricocheting and potentially causing harm to people or property.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which range configuration allows the simultaneous firing of more than one type of weapon?
- A.
Indoor
- B.
Multipurpose
- C.
Superimposed
- D.
Special purpose
Correct Answer
B. MultipurposeExplanation
The range configuration that allows the simultaneous firing of more than one type of weapon is the multipurpose range configuration. This configuration is designed to accommodate different types of weapons and allows for the firing of multiple weapons at the same time. It is versatile and can be used for various purposes, making it suitable for different training scenarios and weapon systems.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Why is sand not used as a floor covering for ranges?
- A.
Sand retains moisture
- B.
Sand retains unburned gun powder
- C.
Dust is created when weapons fire
- D.
It is difficult to recover ammunition
Correct Answer
B. Sand retains unburned gun powderExplanation
Sand is not used as a floor covering for ranges because it retains unburned gun powder. This can be dangerous as unburned gun powder can ignite and cause accidents. Therefore, using sand as a floor covering would pose a safety risk in a shooting range.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which range configuration is usually less costly?
- A.
Indoor
- B.
Multipurpose
- C.
Superimposed
- D.
Special purpose
Correct Answer
C. SuperimposedExplanation
Superimposed range configuration is usually less costly compared to other options. This is because superimposed ranges utilize existing structures or spaces, such as walls or floors of buildings, to create the shooting range. This eliminates the need for constructing separate structures, resulting in lower costs. In contrast, indoor ranges require dedicated construction and ventilation systems, multipurpose ranges need additional features to accommodate various shooting disciplines, and special purpose ranges are designed for specific training needs, all of which can increase the overall cost.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is the best surface for a firing platform?
- A.
Dirt
- B.
Clay
- C.
Asphalt
- D.
Crushed rock
Correct Answer
C. AsphaltExplanation
Asphalt is the best surface for a firing platform because it provides a stable and level surface. It is also durable and can withstand the heat and pressure generated during firing. Additionally, asphalt has good traction, which is important for the stability and safety of the person operating the firearm.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The recommended height of the tower floor above the firing platform is at least
- A.
2 feet
- B.
4 feet
- C.
5 feet
- D.
6 feet
Correct Answer
D. 6 feetExplanation
The recommended height of the tower floor above the firing platform is at least 6 feet. This height is necessary to ensure the safety of the individuals on the tower floor. A higher floor height provides a better vantage point for observation and reduces the risk of projectiles hitting the tower. It also allows for better maneuverability and minimizes the chances of accidental falls or injuries. Therefore, a height of 6 feet is the most appropriate choice for the tower floor above the firing platform.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the minimum width of the top of an earth berm?
- A.
5 meters
- B.
4 meters
- C.
3 meters
- D.
2 meters
Correct Answer
C. 3 metersExplanation
The minimum width of the top of an earth berm is 3 meters. This means that the berm must have a width of at least 3 meters at its highest point. It is important for the berm to have a sufficient width in order to provide stability and support. A wider top ensures that the berm can effectively hold back soil or water, preventing erosion or collapse. With a minimum width of 3 meters, the berm can adequately serve its purpose and withstand external forces.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A line drawn from the firing line under the las downrange overhead baffle must intersect the backstop no less than how many meters from the top?
- A.
2 meters
- B.
4 meters
- C.
6 meters
- D.
8 meters
Correct Answer
A. 2 metersExplanation
The line drawn from the firing line under the las downrange overhead baffle must intersect the backstop no less than 2 meters from the top. This means that the line must meet the backstop at a height of at least 2 meters from its top. This requirement ensures that the bullets fired during target practice or shooting range activities do not hit the top of the backstop, minimizing the risk of ricochets or bullets going over the backstop and potentially causing harm or damage.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What thickness of rock-free soil must cover the impact surface of an earth-covered backstop?
- A.
2 meters
- B.
3 meters
- C.
4 meters
- D.
6 meters
Correct Answer
A. 2 metersExplanation
The correct answer is 2 meters because this thickness is sufficient to provide adequate protection to the impact surface of the earth-covered backstop. A thicker layer of rock-free soil would be unnecessary and potentially wasteful, while a thinner layer might not provide enough protection. Therefore, 2 meters strikes a balance between ensuring safety and optimizing resources.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who can remove lead from bullet traps?
- A.
Combat Arms personnel
- B.
Bioenvironmental personnel
- C.
Personnel at Base CE
- D.
Only trained personnel wearing proper personal protection
Correct Answer
D. Only trained personnel wearing proper personal protectionExplanation
Only trained personnel wearing proper personal protection are able to remove lead from bullet traps. This is because lead is a toxic substance and can pose health risks if not handled properly. Trained personnel are knowledgeable about the proper procedures for removing lead and have the necessary equipment and personal protective gear to ensure their safety. Removing lead from bullet traps requires expertise and caution to prevent contamination and exposure to harmful lead particles.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Silica sand should not be used for bullet traps because it can solidify and
- A.
Cause ricochets
- B.
Become hard to clean
- C.
Create hazardous dust
- D.
Become hard to contain
Correct Answer
A. Cause ricochetsExplanation
Silica sand should not be used for bullet traps because it can cause ricochets. When bullets hit the silica sand, they can bounce off at unpredictable angles, posing a safety risk to those nearby. This can lead to accidents and injuries. Therefore, it is not recommended to use silica sand as a bullet trap material.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The two types of bullet traps normally found on firing ranges are
- A.
Sand and dirt
- B.
Water and dirt
- C.
Sand and water
- D.
Gravel and asphalt
Correct Answer
C. Sand and waterExplanation
Bullet traps are used on firing ranges to safely capture and stop bullets. Sand is commonly used in bullet traps because it can slow down and absorb the impact of a bullet, reducing the risk of ricochets. Water is also used in bullet traps as it can further slow down the bullet and dissipate its energy. By combining sand and water, the bullet trap can effectively stop and contain the bullet, ensuring the safety of those using the firing range.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Who has the primary responsibility for range inspections?
- A.
Combat Arms personnel
- B.
Base Safety Office personnel
- C.
Base CE personnel
- D.
Operations Security (OPSEC) personnel
Correct Answer
A. Combat Arms personnelExplanation
Combat Arms personnel have the primary responsibility for range inspections because they are specifically trained in weapons handling, safety protocols, and range operations. They are responsible for ensuring that the range is safe for use, conducting inspections to identify any potential hazards or issues, and implementing necessary corrective actions. Their expertise and knowledge in this area make them the most suitable individuals to carry out range inspections. Base Safety Office personnel, Base CE personnel, and Operations Security (OPSEC) personnel may also have roles related to safety and security, but the primary responsibility for range inspections lies with Combat Arms personnel.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What is the minimum angle ricochets should be able to leave the range after striking an outdoor backstop?
- A.
30 degrees
- B.
35 degrees
- C.
40 degrees
- D.
45 degrees
Correct Answer
D. 45 degreesExplanation
Ricochets should be able to leave the range at a minimum angle of 45 degrees after striking an outdoor backstop. This angle ensures that the ricochet will have a steep trajectory and will not pose a danger to anyone in the vicinity. A higher angle would result in the ricochet traveling closer to the ground, potentially causing harm or damage. Therefore, 45 degrees is the minimum angle required for safety.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How should an outdoor earthen backstop be inspected for lead buildup?
- A.
Push a 3-foot rood into the dirt
- B.
Check for erosion behind target points
- C.
Use a 4 LB hammer to tap a 3/8in rod 3 feet into the dirt
- D.
Use a 4 LB hammer to tap a 3/4in rod 3 feet into the dirt
Correct Answer
C. Use a 4 LB hammer to tap a 3/8in rod 3 feet into the dirtExplanation
To inspect an outdoor earthen backstop for lead buildup, a 4 LB hammer should be used to tap a 3/8in rod 3 feet into the dirt. This method allows for a thorough inspection of the soil to check for any lead buildup.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Your MAJCOM Combat Arms program manager must be notified if the firing range is to be closed more than how many days?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
60
- D.
120
Correct Answer
D. 120Explanation
The correct answer is 120. This means that if the firing range is going to be closed for more than 120 days, the MAJCOM Combat Arms program manager must be notified. This is likely because a closure of this length may require additional planning, coordination, and resources, and the program manager needs to be informed in order to ensure proper management and oversight of the range closure.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Each Combat Arms section should develop separate OIs to
- A.
Repeat important portions of the AF directives
- B.
Provide detailed instructions unique to its base or range
- C.
Ensure all OIs are covered for each Combat Arms section
- D.
List all required directives contained in the publication library
Correct Answer
B. Provide detailed instructions unique to its base or rangeExplanation
The correct answer is "provide detailed instructions unique to its base or range." This is because each Combat Arms section operates in a specific base or range, and therefore, the OIs (Operating Instructions) developed by each section should include detailed instructions that are specific to their respective base or range. This ensures that the instructions provided are tailored to the specific needs and requirements of each section, promoting effective and efficient operations.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which kind of TO indicates the status of all TOs?
- A.
Index
- B.
Abbreviated
- C.
Time compliance
- D.
Methods and procedures
Correct Answer
A. IndexExplanation
An index is a comprehensive list or catalog that provides information or references to all the items or elements in a specific category or subject. In this context, an index TO (Technical Order) would indicate the status of all TOs by providing a complete list or overview of the various TOs and their respective statuses. This would allow users to easily access and track the status of all TOs in a convenient and organized manner.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What information is included to identify a defective weapon on an inspection report?
- A.
Butt number, caliber, and serial number
- B.
Manufacture, lot number, and butt number
- C.
Weapon type, stock number, and butt number
- D.
Weapon type, caliber, serial number, and condition
Correct Answer
D. Weapon type, caliber, serial number, and conditionExplanation
The information included to identify a defective weapon on an inspection report is the weapon type, caliber, serial number, and condition. This information is necessary to accurately identify and track the specific weapon in question, as well as assess its current condition. The weapon type and caliber provide details about the specific model and size of the weapon, while the serial number is a unique identifier that distinguishes it from other weapons. Additionally, the condition of the weapon is crucial in determining if it is defective or not.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Within how many days after an owning unit corrects its weapons inspection discrepancies must Combat Arms perform a follow-up inspection?
- A.
1
- B.
7
- C.
14
- D.
30
Correct Answer
C. 14Explanation
Combat Arms must perform a follow-up inspection within 14 days after an owning unit corrects its weapons inspection discrepancies. This allows enough time for the owning unit to address and rectify any issues found during the initial inspection. It also ensures that Combat Arms can verify the effectiveness of the corrections made by the owning unit in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The number of assistant instructors needed in a classroom is determined by the
- A.
Size of the classroom and number of students
- B.
Course of fire being taught and weapons available
- C.
Type weapon being taught and the number of students
- D.
Number of instructors and the number of weapons needed
Correct Answer
C. Type weapon being taught and the number of studentsExplanation
The number of assistant instructors needed in a classroom is determined by the type of weapon being taught and the number of students. This is because different types of weapons may require different levels of supervision and instruction, and the number of students will also affect the instructor-to-student ratio. Therefore, the specific combination of weapon type and number of students will determine the number of assistant instructors needed to ensure effective teaching and safety in the classroom.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who has primary responsibility for the safe operation of the range during live fire training?
- A.
Tower operator
- B.
Lead instructor
- C.
Chief range officer
- D.
Firing line instructor
Correct Answer
A. Tower operatorExplanation
The tower operator has primary responsibility for the safe operation of the range during live fire training. They are responsible for controlling the firing range activities, including monitoring the firing line and ensuring that all safety protocols and procedures are followed. They play a crucial role in maintaining a safe environment and preventing any accidents or mishaps during the training sessions.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which one of the following areas of student performance should a Combat Arms instructor evaluate?
- A.
Field of fire
- B.
Command skills
- C.
Preventative maintenance
- D.
AF Occupational Safety and Health compliance
Correct Answer
C. Preventative maintenanceExplanation
A Combat Arms instructor should evaluate the area of student performance related to preventative maintenance. This is important because in combat situations, it is crucial for soldiers to properly maintain their equipment and ensure that it is in good working condition. Preventative maintenance includes tasks such as cleaning, inspecting, and repairing equipment to prevent malfunctions and ensure its reliability. By evaluating students' knowledge and skills in preventative maintenance, the instructor can ensure that they are equipped to effectively maintain their equipment and contribute to the overall readiness and effectiveness of the combat unit.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Instructor's training is documented on the 3P0X1B specialty training standard (STS) or AF Form
- A.
797
- B.
623
- C.
475
- D.
403
Correct Answer
A. 797Explanation
Instructor's training is documented on the 3P0X1B specialty training standard (STS) or AF Form 797.Rate this question:
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- 50.
How soon after completing lead instructor certification are instructors reevaluated?
- A.
3 months
- B.
6 months
- C.
9 months
- D.
12 months
Correct Answer
D. 12 monthsExplanation
Instructors are reevaluated 12 months after completing lead instructor certification. This suggests that there is a specific time frame for reassessing the instructors' performance and skills after they have obtained their certification. This could be done to ensure that the instructors are maintaining their knowledge and skills over time and to identify any areas for improvement or additional training if necessary.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 28, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Oct 05, 2011Quiz Created by
Zachrice21
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