CDC A4N051 : Emergency care And Transportation Of The Sick And Injured! Trivia Quiz

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1. Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?

Explanation

Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training are qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD). This suggests that both individuals have the necessary expertise and knowledge to effectively address and manage the psychological impact of a critical incident on individuals involved. The additional training likely enhances their skills and understanding of the specific needs and challenges related to critical incident stress debriefing.

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CDC A4N051 : Emergency care And Transportation Of The Sick And Injured! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Below is a CDC A4n051: Emergency CARE and Transportation of the Sick and Injured! quiz. It is a perfect test to see how skilled you are when it comes to emergencies where you have to take people out of a scene. Think you know enough to get the top marks?... see moreDo give the quiz a try and get to find out for sure. see less

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2. Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?

Explanation

The correct answer states that deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements. This means that in addition to AEF tasks, there are other factors such as deployment requirements and other factors that contribute to the need for training. These additional factors could include operational demands, resource availability, specific job requirements, and organizational goals. By considering all these factors, a comprehensive training plan can be developed to ensure that the training meets the specific needs of the organization and its personnel.

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3. What is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached?

Explanation

Menarche is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached. It is the onset of menstruation in females, marking the beginning of their reproductive years. Menarche is a significant milestone in a girl's life, indicating the maturation of her reproductive system and the ability to conceive.

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4. What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?

Explanation

To apply for a technical training instructor position, one must complete the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification, as well as the Qualification Training Packages (QTPs) for the assigned position. Additionally, they must fulfill all duty position training requirements. This implies that having the NREMT certification and completing the QTPs are mandatory qualifications for this role, along with meeting all duty position training requirements.

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5. The total training program leads to

Explanation

The total training program leads to a higher skill level because training programs are designed to enhance an individual's knowledge and abilities in a specific area. By participating in a comprehensive training program, individuals acquire new skills and improve existing ones, which in turn increases their overall skill level. This can lead to better job prospects, increased job performance, and potentially higher pay levels in the long run.

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6. What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?

Explanation

Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in blood. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of injury to prevent excessive bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. This clotting process is essential for wound healing and preventing blood loss. Plasma is the liquid component of blood, while leukocytes (white blood cells) and erythrocytes (red blood cells) do not have a direct role in clotting.

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7. When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority?

Explanation

Category A is used to assign an urgent priority when setting priorities. This category is likely designated for tasks or issues that require immediate attention and cannot be delayed. It signifies the highest level of urgency and importance, indicating that prompt action is necessary.

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8. What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

Explanation

If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, it would be appropriate to ask the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order. This is because they are responsible for managing the medical equipment and would have the necessary information and resources to investigate the status of the backordered item. Cancelling the order or complaining to the commander may not be the most effective solutions, as they do not directly address the issue of the backorder. Waiting another 15 days and then following up may result in further delay and uncertainty.

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9. Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that tactical doctrine refers to the strategies and plans developed by individuals or organizations to achieve their goals. In this context, a car buyer can be seen as an example of tactical doctrine because they have the ability to choose specific qualities in a vehicle that align with their individual needs and preferences. By considering factors such as speed or safety, the car buyer is strategically selecting a vehicle that will best serve their purpose and help them achieve their desired outcome.

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10. What nerve is the pathway to vision?

Explanation

The optic nerve is the pathway to vision. It carries visual information from the eyes to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli.

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11. Each time and Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base or work center), the supervisor must perform

Explanation

When an Airman changes duty positions, the supervisor must perform an initial evaluation. This is necessary to assess the Airman's skills, knowledge, and performance in their new role. The initial evaluation helps the supervisor understand the Airman's strengths and areas for improvement, and it serves as a basis for setting performance expectations and goals. Unlike a re-evaluation, which may be conducted periodically to track progress, the initial evaluation is conducted when the Airman first assumes the new position.

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12. Why is it required for a 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?

Explanation

It is required for a 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training in order to maintain their skills. This training ensures that they stay updated with the latest techniques and knowledge in their field, allowing them to provide high-quality care and support to patients. By continuously refreshing their skills, they can stay competent and confident in their role, ensuring the best possible outcomes for their patients.

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13. What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available?

Explanation

When aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available, casualty survival rates significantly increase. This is because AE allows for the rapid and efficient transportation of injured individuals to medical facilities where they can receive specialized and timely care. AE units are equipped with medical personnel and equipment to provide critical care during transportation, further enhancing the chances of survival for casualties. By reducing the time it takes for injured individuals to reach medical care and providing immediate treatment, AE plays a crucial role in improving casualty survival rates.

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14. What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?

Explanation

The best timeframe to conduct inservice training within your unit is on training days. This is because on these specific days, the entire unit is already prepared and available for training. It ensures that all members of the unit can participate without any scheduling conflicts or disruptions to their regular duties. Additionally, conducting inservice training on training days allows for a focused and dedicated time for learning and skill development, maximizing the effectiveness of the training session.

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15. What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?

Explanation

The correct answer is Patella. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a triangular-shaped bone that sits over the anterior portion of the knee joint. It helps to protect the knee joint and provides leverage for the muscles of the thigh to extend the leg.

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16. The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline?

Explanation

The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area. This means that the MTP serves as a roadmap for setting and achieving training objectives for enlisted personnel in a specific area. It helps to establish clear goals and milestones that can be used to track progress and ensure that training is aligned with organizational objectives. By using the MTP, commanders and training managers can effectively plan and manage the training of enlisted personnel, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties.

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17. What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Cantered Medical Home (PCMH)?

Explanation

Team huddles in a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) are intended for problem solving and updating the team's work plan on a daily basis. These huddles provide an opportunity for the team to discuss any issues or challenges they are facing and come up with solutions together. They also allow the team to update their work plan and make any necessary adjustments based on the current needs of the patients. By having daily huddles, the team can stay proactive and address any issues in a timely manner, ensuring that patient care is effectively coordinated and delivered.

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18. What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?

Explanation

Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they are responsible for producing the majority of the cell's energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through a process called cellular respiration. Mitochondria have their own DNA and are believed to have originated from ancient bacteria that formed a symbiotic relationship with eukaryotic cells. They have a double membrane and contain their own ribosomes, which are involved in protein synthesis. Therefore, mitochondria are the primary source of cellular energy.

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19. Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patients stress?

Explanation

Remaining honest and in control is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress. Being honest with the patient about their condition, treatment, and prognosis can help alleviate anxiety and build trust. It shows that the healthcare provider is transparent and trustworthy. Additionally, remaining in control and providing a calm and reassuring presence can help the patient feel more at ease and reduce their anxiety levels.

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20. The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the

Explanation

The correct answer is to select the Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu. This is the first step because it allows the user to access the specific menu where they can create or edit the Duty Task List (DTL) in their Air Force Training Record (AFTR). By selecting this option, the user will be able to proceed with creating or editing the DTL as needed.

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21. Your first step for creating and editing a Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select which option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?

Explanation

To create and edit a Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the option "Create/Edit MTP" from the AFTR Data/MTP menu. This option allows you to create a new MTP or make changes to an existing one. By selecting this option, you can access the necessary tools and features to develop and modify your MTP according to your training needs and requirements.

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22. Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds?

Explanation

EMEDS Basic is the correct answer because it is the only option that states that it has no inpatient beds. The other options, EMEDS +10 and EMEDS +25, do not mention anything about inpatient beds. The last option, "All EMEDS have inpatient beds," is incorrect because EMEDS Basic specifically does not have inpatient beds.

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23. Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

Explanation

Nonmaleficence is a principle in medical ethics that emphasizes the obligation of healthcare professionals to avoid causing harm to their patients. It involves refraining from actions that could potentially harm the patient or worsen their condition. The duty to do no harm is a fundamental aspect of medical practice, highlighting the importance of prioritizing the well-being and safety of patients above all else.

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24. What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

Explanation

The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through MEMO if a backorder item is no longer needed. This implies that the custodian should inform the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) about the situation and request the cancellation of the order. This is the most appropriate action to take in order to prevent unnecessary items from being received and to avoid any potential financial obligations.

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25. What part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for the involuntary body functions?

Explanation

The autonomic nervous system is responsible for controlling the involuntary functions of the body. It regulates activities such as heart rate, digestion, breathing, and glandular secretion. Unlike the somatic nervous system, which controls voluntary movements, the autonomic nervous system operates automatically and without conscious control. The cerebrum is responsible for higher cognitive functions, while the spinal cord is involved in relaying sensory and motor signals between the brain and the rest of the body. Therefore, the autonomic nervous system is the correct answer in this context.

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26. What is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body?

Explanation

The tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body is called the urethra. It is responsible for the passage of urine from the bladder out of the body. The other options listed are not correct because they are associated with the male reproductive system, not the urinary system. The epididymis is a coiled tube located on the back of each testicle, the ejaculatory duct is a tube that connects the vas deferens to the urethra, and the seminal vesicles are glands that produce seminal fluid.

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27. What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered?

Explanation

The scheduler within a unit or clinic is responsible for ensuring that all shifts are adequately covered. To fulfill this responsibility, they should refer to all Air Force Instructions, OIs (Operating Instructions), and local guidance when preparing a duty schedule. This ensures that they are following the standardized procedures and guidelines set by the Air Force, as well as any specific instructions or policies established within their unit or clinic. By utilizing all available sources of guidance, the scheduler can effectively create a duty schedule that meets all requirements and ensures adequate coverage for all shifts.

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28. What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25?

Explanation

The correct answer is 86. This means that there are a total of 86 personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25.

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29. What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining?

Explanation

The Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board uses the last three EPRs (Enlisted Performance Reports) as one criterion to rank Airmen applying for retraining. EPRs provide a comprehensive evaluation of an Airman's performance, including their accomplishments, skills, and potential. By reviewing the last three EPRs, the QRP board can assess an Airman's past performance and determine their suitability for retraining opportunities.

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30. Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of

Explanation

Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of flexion. Flexion refers to the movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. In this case, bending the elbow decreases the angle between the forearm and the upper arm.

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31. The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?

Explanation

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32. When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patients treatment?

Explanation

If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is crucial in healthcare as it serves as evidence of the care provided to the patient. Without proper documentation, it is difficult to track and monitor the patient's progress, ensure continuity of care, and communicate effectively among healthcare professionals. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was performed for the patient.

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33. Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns?

Explanation

To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment and are knowledgeable about the specific procedures and policies related to the equipment. They would have the most up-to-date information and would be able to provide guidance and assistance in resolving any problems or concerns with the equipment.

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34. Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria?

Explanation

Performance can be evaluated based on two types of criteria: qualitative and quantitative. Qualitative criteria involve subjective measures, such as the overall quality, user satisfaction, or the perception of the performance. On the other hand, quantitative criteria involve objective measures that can be expressed numerically, such as response time, throughput, or error rate. By considering both qualitative and quantitative criteria, a comprehensive assessment of performance can be made, taking into account both subjective and objective aspects.

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35. Why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately and legibly?

Explanation

It is important to ensure that medical abbreviations, documentation, and terminology are written accurately and legibly in order to provide clear and concise patient information and ensure patient safety. Accurate and legible documentation helps healthcare professionals understand the patient's condition, medical history, and treatment plan, allowing them to make informed decisions and provide appropriate care. It also helps prevent errors and misunderstandings that can lead to adverse events or harm to the patient. By ensuring clarity and accuracy in medical documentation, healthcare providers can effectively communicate and collaborate, leading to improved patient outcomes.

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36. Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

Explanation

Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient. This policy is specifically related to the responsibility of a chaperone. A chaperone is a third party who is present during a medical examination or treatment to ensure the safety and comfort of the patient and to provide support to the healthcare provider. The presence of a chaperone helps to maintain professionalism, prevent any potential misconduct, and protect both the patient and the provider.

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37. What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date?

Explanation

Trainees first need to select a task and then click the TRAINEE button in order to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS), even if the task already has a start date.

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38. Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?

Explanation

Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility is not limited to any specific rank or position, but applies to each individual within the organization. By holding each individual accountable, the Air Force aims to ensure the proper stewardship of public property and promote a culture of responsibility and accountability within its ranks.

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39. What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?

Explanation

The correct answer is Optic. The optic nerve is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain, allowing us to perceive the sensation of sight. The optic nerve carries signals from the eye to the visual cortex in the brain, where the information is processed and interpreted, resulting in our ability to see and perceive the world around us. The other cranial nerves listed (Facial, Trigeminal, and Oculomotor) are not directly involved in the sensation of sight.

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40. Pigmentation is attributed to

Explanation

Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It helps protect the skin from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation by absorbing and scattering the UV rays. The amount and type of melanin produced by melanocytes determine the color and shade of an individual's skin.

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41. The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the

Explanation

The correct answer is the career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed. This means that the overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to ensure that there is a balance in the workforce for each AFSC. This is important because it allows the Air Force to have the necessary skills and expertise in each specialty area to effectively carry out its mission. By retraining individuals and strategically managing the career force, the Air Force can ensure that it has the right personnel in the right positions to meet its operational needs.

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42. What fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint?

Explanation

Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps reduce friction between the bones, allowing smooth movement, and also provides essential nutrients to the cartilage, which lacks its own blood supply. This fluid is produced by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint cavity, and plays a crucial role in maintaining joint health and function.

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43. The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called

Explanation

The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the lunula. The lunula is a crescent-shaped area of the nail matrix that is visible through the nail plate. It appears white because it is the thickest part of the nail and blocks the underlying blood vessels. The lunula is an important part of the nail as it helps protect the nail matrix and supports nail growth.

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44. What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?

Explanation

Rods are responsible for viewing dimly lit images in the eye. These specialized photoreceptor cells are highly sensitive to light and are concentrated in the peripheral retina. They are more numerous than cones, which are responsible for color vision and visual acuity in brighter conditions. Rods contain a pigment called rhodopsin, which allows them to detect low levels of light and help us see in dimly lit environments.

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45. What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?

Explanation

Before applying for retraining, you must meet the eligibility requirements. These requirements are the necessary qualifications or criteria that an individual must possess in order to be considered eligible for the retraining program. Meeting these requirements ensures that the individual meets the necessary prerequisites and has the qualifications needed to successfully participate in the retraining program.

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46. If training is effective, what should trainees remember?

Explanation

If training is effective, trainees should remember the requirements to successfully complete the job. This implies that the training has successfully provided them with the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their job tasks. Remembering the requirements ensures that trainees can apply what they have learned during the training and perform their job effectively.

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47. What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility?

Explanation

A cyclical duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility. This type of schedule typically involves employees working in a fixed pattern or cycle, such as rotating between day and night shifts or between different departments. Unlike other schedules like conventional or compressed, which may offer more flexibility in terms of shift lengths or start times, a cyclical schedule is more rigid and predictable. This lack of flexibility can make it challenging for employees to accommodate personal needs or preferences, as they are bound to the predetermined rotation.

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48. What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule?

Explanation

When making a schedule, it is important to keep in mind mandatory formations such as mobility exercises. These exercises are crucial for maintaining physical fitness and ensuring readiness for duty. By including mobility exercises in the schedule, individuals can prioritize their health and well-being, which ultimately contributes to their overall performance and effectiveness in their roles.

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49. The small spaces between the neurons are called the

Explanation

Synapses are the small spaces between neurons where communication occurs. They are the junctions where electrical and chemical signals are transmitted from one neuron to another. These connections play a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system, allowing for the transmission of information and coordination of various bodily functions. Axons are the long, slender projections of neurons that transmit electrical signals away from the cell body. Nerve cells, or neurons, are the basic building blocks of the nervous system. Trigger zones are regions of neurons that initiate the firing of an action potential.

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50. Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least

Explanation

Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) quarterly. This means that the MTF receives updated enrollment information every three months. This frequency allows the MTF to have the most up-to-date information about the enrolled individuals, ensuring that they receive the appropriate medical care and benefits.

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51. The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as

Explanation

Cell differentiation refers to the process by which cells acquire specialized structures and functions. During development, cells go through a series of changes that allow them to become different types of cells with specific roles in the body. This process involves the activation and repression of specific genes, which leads to the production of proteins that give cells their unique characteristics. Cell differentiation is crucial for the proper functioning of tissues and organs, as it allows for the division of labor among different cell types.

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52. By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent?

Explanation

By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of accidents or mishandling that could lead to damage or harm to a patient.

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53. Name one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field.

Explanation

The correct answer is Neurology Technician. In the 4N0X1 career field, one of the three shredouts is the Neurology Technician. This means that individuals in this career field can specialize and work specifically in the field of neurology. They may be responsible for assisting with neurological procedures, conducting tests and assessments related to the nervous system, and providing care and support to patients with neurological conditions.

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54. Which personnel provide specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Your OJT trainer or supervisor". OJT trainers or supervisors are responsible for providing specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge. They have the expertise and experience to guide and train individuals in their respective roles and ensure that they acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their job effectively. These trainers or supervisors play a crucial role in the on-the-job training process by imparting targeted and task-specific information to the trainees.

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55. What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum?

Explanation

The correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum is posterior. This means that the spine is located behind or towards the back of the sternum.

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56. What attaches skeletal muscle to the bone?

Explanation

Tendons attach skeletal muscles to the bone. They are strong, fibrous connective tissues that transmit the force generated by the muscles to the bones, allowing movement and providing stability to the skeletal system. Ligaments, on the other hand, connect bones to other bones, providing stability and limiting excessive movement. Aponeuroses are also connective tissues that attach muscles to bones or other muscles. Visceral muscles are found in the internal organs and are not involved in attaching skeletal muscles to bones.

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57. In which function of the integumentary system would blood vessels constrict?

Explanation

Blood vessels constrict in the function of body temperature regulation in the integumentary system. When the body needs to conserve heat, the blood vessels in the skin constrict, reducing blood flow to the surface and minimizing heat loss. This helps to maintain the body's core temperature in cold environments. Conversely, in warm environments, the blood vessels dilate, allowing more blood flow to the surface and facilitating heat loss through sweating and radiation. This process helps to regulate body temperature and keep it within a narrow range for optimal functioning.

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58. Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

Explanation

Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle tissue because both have a striated appearance. While smooth muscle and epithelial tissues do not have this striated appearance, nervous tissue is not similar to skeletal muscle tissue in terms of its structure and function. Therefore, the correct answer is cardiac muscle.

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59. Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?

Explanation

Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets effectively. It provides a set of guidelines and principles that help commanders make informed decisions regarding the allocation and utilization of medical resources. By following medical doctrine, commanders can ensure that the right assets are used in the right way, maximizing their effectiveness and efficiency. This ultimately leads to better healthcare outcomes for military personnel and enables commanders to fulfill their responsibility of providing medical support to their units.

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60. What is the name of the largest intersection of interlaced spinal nerves?

Explanation

A plexus is a network of nerves that intersect and interlace with each other. The largest intersection of interlaced spinal nerves is known as a plexus. Therefore, the correct answer is Plexus.

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61. Fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the

Explanation

The seminal vesicles secrete fluid that contains nutrients and enzymes to nourish and protect the sperm. This fluid is then mixed with sperm from the testes and sperm-carrying fluid from the prostate gland to form semen. The ejaculatory duct is the passageway through which semen travels from the seminal vesicles and prostate gland to the urethra for ejaculation. Therefore, fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the ejaculatory duct.

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62. The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the

Explanation

Diastolic blood pressure refers to the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions. It represents the lowest pressure in the arteries and is an important indicator of cardiovascular health. Pulse pressure, on the other hand, is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure and represents the force generated by the heart with each contraction. Residual pressure is not a term commonly used in relation to blood pressure. Systolic blood pressure, on the other hand, refers to the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is contracting.

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63. Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?

Explanation

EMEDS Basic requires routine AE support within 24 hours of notification and urgent AE support within 12 hours of notification.

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64. What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic?

Explanation

The scheduler uses Air Force Instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic. These references provide the necessary guidelines and procedures that need to be followed in order to ensure an organized and efficient schedule. By referring to the AFI, OI, and local guidance, the scheduler can ensure that all necessary tasks and responsibilities are assigned to the appropriate personnel, taking into account any specific requirements or guidelines outlined in these references. This helps to maintain consistency and compliance with established protocols within the unit or clinic.

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65. To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?

Explanation

To fully understand task knowledge, one step used to assess your ability is to name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task. This involves identifying and understanding the different components, equipment, and basic information related to the task at hand. By being able to accurately name and describe these aspects, it demonstrates a level of comprehension and familiarity with the task, which is crucial for fully understanding and successfully completing it.

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66. What is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood?

Explanation

The pulmonary vein is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood. It is responsible for transporting oxygen-rich blood from the lungs back to the heart, where it is then pumped to the rest of the body. Unlike other veins that carry deoxygenated blood, the pulmonary vein plays a crucial role in the oxygenation process, ensuring that oxygen is delivered to the body's tissues and organs.

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67. What vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body?

Explanation

The inferior vena cava is the correct answer because it is the largest vein in the body that returns deoxygenated blood from the lower body back to the heart. It carries blood from the legs, pelvis, and abdominal organs, and delivers it to the right atrium of the heart.

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68. The lower third of the uterus is called the

Explanation

The lower third of the uterus is called the cervix. The cervix is a narrow, cylindrical structure that connects the uterus to the vagina. It acts as a passageway for menstrual blood to leave the body during menstruation, and it also plays a crucial role in childbirth by dilating and allowing the baby to pass through during labor.

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69. The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the strongest possible exhalation is known as

Explanation

Residual air refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs even after the strongest possible exhalation. This air is necessary to prevent the collapse of the lungs and maintain their structure. It is not involved in the normal breathing process and cannot be voluntarily exhaled. Tidal air refers to the amount of air that is inhaled and exhaled during normal breathing. Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation. Expiratory reserve is the additional amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation.

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70. You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. How should you document this information correctly?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye." This is the correct way to document the information because it clearly specifies that the patient is experiencing blurred vision in their right eye. The other options either use medical abbreviations (OD and AD) that may not be universally understood or do not provide enough information about which eye is affected. The last option, not documenting the information, is not appropriate as it is important to accurately record the patient's symptoms for future reference and treatment.

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71. What category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect?

Explanation

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone handling patient information. This includes not only medical staff, but also administrative staff and any other individuals who come into contact with patient data. HIPAA sets standards for the privacy and security of protected health information, and it applies to all healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses. Therefore, anyone who handles patient information must comply with HIPAA regulations to ensure the confidentiality and protection of sensitive data.

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72. For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use

Explanation

The correct answer is DOD Regulation 6025, 18-R because this regulation specifically pertains to the Department of Defense's (DOD) policies and procedures for implementing HIPAA. It provides guidance on how the DOD handles protected health information (PHI) and ensures compliance with HIPAA regulations. The other options listed are not specific to the DOD or do not pertain to HIPAA.

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73. The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF For 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document

Explanation

The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document training effectiveness. These documents serve as evidence of the effectiveness of the training programs and methods employed by the Air Force. They provide a record of the outcomes and impact of the training, allowing for evaluation and improvement of the training procedures.

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74. Where does lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty?

Explanation

The lymph from the right lymphatic duct empties into the right subclavian vein. The lymphatic system is responsible for draining excess fluid and waste products from the tissues and returning them to the bloodstream. The right lymphatic duct is one of the main lymphatic vessels in the body and it collects lymph from the right side of the head, neck, chest, and upper right extremity. It then empties this lymph into the right subclavian vein, which is located near the collarbone. From there, the lymph is returned to the bloodstream and circulated throughout the body.

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75. The part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the

Explanation

The medulla oblongata is the correct answer because it is the part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord. It is responsible for controlling vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. The pons is also a part of the brain stem, but it is located above the medulla oblongata and is involved in relaying signals between the cerebrum and the medulla. The midbrain and cerebrum are not directly connected to the spinal cord.

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76. Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins

Explanation

The correct answer is "with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626." This answer is correct because it mentions the specific resources and guidelines that need to be followed in order to successfully recommend formal training. The Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626 are all important references that provide the necessary information and requirements for formal training recommendations. Following these guidelines ensures that the recommendation process is done correctly and in accordance with the regulations and standards set by the military.

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77. Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) training in what location?

Explanation

The RSVP is designed to sustain AFSC training in a deployed setting. This means that it is specifically intended to support training for Air Force personnel who are deployed to locations outside of their home base. The program likely includes resources and support to ensure that individuals in a deployed setting are able to continue their training and maintain their skills while away from their regular duty station.

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78. What type of tissue can change its shape?

Explanation

Muscle tissue is capable of changing its shape. This is because muscle cells have the ability to contract and relax, allowing them to change their length and shape. This property enables muscle tissue to perform various functions such as movement, maintaining posture, and generating force. Nervous tissue, on the other hand, transmits signals and does not change its shape. Epithelial tissue provides a protective covering and does not have the ability to change shape. Connective tissue provides support and structure but also does not change its shape. Therefore, muscle tissue is the correct answer.

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79. After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level?

Explanation

The last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level is whether you can do the complete task quickly and accurately and if you can tell or show others how to do the task. This question assesses not only your own ability to perform the task efficiently and accurately but also your ability to effectively communicate and teach others how to do it. It demonstrates a higher level of proficiency as it requires not only mastery of the task but also the ability to transfer that knowledge to others.

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80. The "fight-or-flight" reaction is controlled by the

Explanation

The "fight-or-flight" reaction is a physiological response to a perceived threat or danger. It involves the activation of the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for preparing the body for action. This response includes an increase in heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure, as well as the release of stress hormones like adrenaline. The sympathetic nervous system helps mobilize the body's resources to either confront the threat or escape from it. Therefore, it is the correct answer for controlling the "fight-or-flight" reaction.

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81. Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items?

Explanation

AF Form 797 is the correct answer because it is the form used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items. The other forms listed (AF Form 794, AF Form 795, AF Form 796) are not specifically designated for accessing JQS continuation items.

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82. The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called the

Explanation

The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called the anterior lobe and the posterior lobe. This division is based on the different types of hormones produced and released by each section. The anterior lobe produces and releases hormones such as growth hormone, prolactin, and thyroid-stimulating hormone, while the posterior lobe releases hormones such as oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone. This division allows for the regulation and control of various bodily functions through the release of specific hormones from each lobe.

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83. Where are sperm calls produced?

Explanation

Sperm cells are produced in the testes. The testes are the male reproductive organs responsible for the production of sperm through a process called spermatogenesis. Sperm cells are then stored in the epididymis before being ejaculated through the ejaculatory duct. Semen, on the other hand, is a fluid that contains sperm cells and is produced by the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands. Therefore, the correct answer is testes as they are the site of sperm cell production.

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84. Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the workcenter?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for leading their teams and establishing clear standards for the workcenter. They are in charge of overseeing the day-to-day operations, assigning tasks, and ensuring that the work is done according to the set standards. The supervisor plays a crucial role in guiding and directing the team members, providing them with necessary instructions and support to achieve the desired goals. They are accountable for the overall performance and productivity of their team, making them the appropriate choice for this responsibility.

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85. The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing the

Explanation

The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing the behavior exhibited while completing the task, the conditions where the task was performed, and the standards that fall under each task. This means that in order to assess the competency of a 4N0X1, one must consider how they performed the task, the environment in which the task was carried out, and the specific standards that apply to that task. By evaluating these factors, a comprehensive assessment of the individual's competency can be made.

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86. What part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage?

Explanation

The trachea is a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage that connects the larynx to the bronchi in the lungs. It is responsible for allowing air to travel to and from the lungs. The larynx, pharynx, and esophagus are not composed of cartilage and do not serve as the main pathway for air to enter and exit the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is Trachea.

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87. What is the difference in the number of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will develop?

Explanation

A person will develop 20 primary teeth, also known as baby teeth, and 32 permanent teeth. The difference between these two numbers is 12.

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88. Where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone?

Explanation

The medullary cavity is the correct answer because it is the central cavity within the bone that contains nerves and blood vessels. This cavity is filled with bone marrow, which is responsible for producing blood cells and storing fat. The nerves and blood vessels in the medullary cavity supply nutrients and oxygen to the bone tissue, allowing for its growth and repair.

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89. During inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move

Explanation

During inhalation, the intercostal muscles contract, causing the ribs to move forward and slightly upward. This movement creates more space in the chest cavity, allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. The contraction of the intercostal muscles also helps to elevate the rib cage, further aiding in the expansion of the lungs. This upward and forward movement of the ribs is essential for proper breathing and allows for efficient inhalation of oxygen.

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90. What is the largest lymphatic organ?

Explanation

The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. It is located in the upper left side of the abdomen and plays a crucial role in the immune system. The spleen filters the blood, removing old or damaged red blood cells, and also helps to fight infections by producing white blood cells and antibodies. It stores platelets and acts as a reservoir for blood, releasing it when needed. Overall, the spleen is an important organ for maintaining a healthy immune response and blood function.

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91. What is the purpose of case management?

Explanation

The purpose of case management is to promote quality, safe, and cost-effective care. Case management involves coordinating and managing the care of individuals, ensuring that they receive the appropriate services and resources to meet their healthcare needs. By promoting quality care, case management helps to ensure that patients receive the best possible treatment and outcomes. It also focuses on ensuring patient safety by coordinating and monitoring their care to prevent errors or adverse events. Additionally, case management aims to optimize cost-effectiveness by ensuring that resources are used efficiently and that unnecessary or duplicative services are avoided.

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92. What are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity?

Explanation

The olfactory bulbs are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity. These bulbs are located at the base of the brain and contain specialized cells called olfactory receptor neurons. These neurons detect and transmit information about different smells to the brain, allowing us to perceive and distinguish various scents. The olfactory bulbs play a crucial role in our sense of smell and are responsible for our ability to detect and recognize different odors.

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93. Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their missions?

Explanation

AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations, is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their missions. This document specifically focuses on the medical aspects of Air Force operations and provides guidance on medical planning, response, and support in various operational environments. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of medical personnel, as well as the principles and processes for delivering medical care and support to Air Force personnel. This doctrine document helps ensure that Air Force Medical Service commanders have the necessary guidance and direction to effectively carry out their missions.

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94. What are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymphocytes and macrophages are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body. Macrophages are another type of white blood cell that engulf and destroy pathogens and dead cells. Both lymphocytes and macrophages work together to defend the body against infections by trapping and destroying harmful microorganisms in the lymph nodes.

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95. What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File?

Explanation

To add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File, you need to click on the "ADD FILE" button. This button will allow you to input and save the necessary data for the new file, ensuring that it is properly recorded and included in the AFTR User File.

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96. Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the

Explanation

The correct answer is the pulmonary vein. Oxygenated blood is carried from the lungs back to the heart through the pulmonary vein. This vein is responsible for delivering oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart, where it is then pumped to the rest of the body. The other options listed (aorta, pulmonary artery, right subclavian vein) do not carry oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart.

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97. To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include

Explanation

To fully understand subject knowledge, it is important to analyze facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject. This involves critically examining the information available, identifying key facts and principles, and using logical reasoning to draw meaningful conclusions. By engaging in this process, individuals can gain a deeper understanding of the subject matter and develop a solid foundation of knowledge. This step helps in consolidating information, making connections, and promoting critical thinking skills, ultimately enhancing subject knowledge.

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98. What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other?

Explanation

A bipolar neuron is a type of neuron that has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other. This type of neuron is commonly found in sensory organs such as the retina of the eye, where they transmit signals from sensory receptors to other neurons. The bipolar structure allows for a clear separation of the input (through the dendrite) and output (through the axon) of the neuron, making it well-suited for sensory processing.

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99. Once excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries, it is known as

Explanation

Excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries and is known as lymph. Lymph is a clear fluid that contains white blood cells and other substances. It is formed when interstitial fluid, which is the fluid that surrounds the body's cells, is collected by the lymphatic vessels. Lymph plays a crucial role in the immune system by carrying immune cells and waste products away from tissues and back into the bloodstream.

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100. The valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the

Explanation

The tricuspid valve is the correct answer because it is the valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle in the heart. It consists of three flaps or cusps, which allow blood to flow from the atrium to the ventricle while preventing backflow. This valve plays a crucial role in ensuring the proper circulation of blood through the heart and the rest of the body.

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101. What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?

Explanation

Sebum is the correct answer because it is a substance secreted by the sebaceous glands. The sebaceous glands are located in the skin and produce sebum, which is an oily substance that helps to moisturize and protect the skin and hair. Sebum also helps to keep the skin waterproof and acts as a natural lubricant for the hair and skin. Sweat, follicle, and adipose are not substances secreted by the sebaceous glands.

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102. What is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle?

Explanation

The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is called the mitral valve. It is also known as the bicuspid valve because it consists of two cusps or flaps. The mitral valve prevents the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium during ventricular contraction. It ensures that blood flows in one direction, from the left atrium to the left ventricle, allowing for efficient circulation throughout the body.

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103. When do Preventative Health Assessment (PHA) status turns red and what items may be overdue?

Explanation

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104. Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic?

Explanation

Nurse managers and NCOICs are responsible for the final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic. This means that both the nurse managers and the noncommissioned officer in charge have the authority to review and approve the duty schedule. It suggests that these individuals play a crucial role in ensuring that the schedule is accurate, fair, and meets the needs of the unit or clinic. The inclusion of both nurse managers and NCOICs indicates that it is a collaborative effort between these two positions to finalize the duty schedule.

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105. Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager is responsible for developing and maintaining the currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). They oversee the training requirements and ensure that the plan is up to date with the latest standards and practices in the career field. They work closely with subject matter experts and other stakeholders to ensure that the CFETP accurately reflects the skills and knowledge needed for career field progression.

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106. What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping?

Explanation

The figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that identifies career grouping is the "First" figure. This figure represents the career field grouping within the AFSC system. It helps to categorize and organize different career fields within the Air Force, allowing for easier identification and management of personnel and their specialties.

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107. Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?

Explanation

The Career Field Manager may request a 4N0X1 job inventory. This individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the career field, including job assignments and inventory. They have the authority to request specific job inventories based on the needs and requirements of the field.

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108. How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?

Explanation

The 4N0XX job inventory is normally completed every 3 years. This means that the inventory is conducted once every three years to assess and update the job positions, responsibilities, and requirements within the 4N0XX job category. This timeframe allows for a comprehensive review and adjustment of the inventory to ensure it remains accurate and up-to-date. Conducting the inventory every 3 years strikes a balance between keeping the information current and minimizing the frequency of the inventory process.

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109. What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?

Explanation

Sesamoid bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied. These small, round bones act as pulleys, providing a smooth surface for tendons to slide over, reducing friction and increasing efficiency of movement. They are commonly found in areas such as the hands, feet, and knees, where tendons are subjected to significant pressure and stress.

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110. Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the

Explanation

The correct answer is "Thoracic to the lumbar spinal region." The kidneys are located in the posterior abdominal cavity, and they extend from the thoracic region (near the diaphragm) to the lumbar region (lower back). They do not extend all the way to the coccyx or sacrum.

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111. What happens to the ovum after a sperm fertilizes it?

Explanation

After a sperm fertilizes the ovum, it travels to the uterus and attaches to the endometrium. The endometrium is the lining of the uterus that thickens in preparation for the implantation of a fertilized egg. This attachment is necessary for the development of the embryo and the subsequent pregnancy.

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112. Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?

Explanation

The correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) is the Team-based model. This model emphasizes collaboration and coordination among healthcare professionals, including physicians, nurses, and other members of the healthcare team. In a team-based model, multiple healthcare providers work together to provide comprehensive and coordinated care to patients, focusing on their individual needs and preferences. This approach ensures that patients receive holistic and patient-centered care, with each team member contributing their expertise and skills to achieve the best possible outcomes.

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113. Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?

Explanation

Odors are described as belonging to the group of seven primary odors or a combination of at least two of them. This means that there are seven distinct categories of odors, and any given odor can be classified under one or a combination of these categories. This suggests that the perception of smell is not limited to a specific number of primary odors, but rather a combination of various olfactory stimuli.

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114. Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online?

Explanation

The procedure of not taking any precautions while off-duty is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online. It is important to always be cautious and mindful of the content shared online, even when off-duty, to maintain professionalism and protect personal and sensitive information.

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115. The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately how many milliliters of urine?

Explanation

The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately 250 milliliters of urine. This is because the bladder has stretch receptors that send signals to the brain when it reaches a certain level of fullness. When the bladder contains around 250 milliliters of urine, the stretch receptors are activated and the brain interprets this as the need to empty the bladder.

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116. What is the process that forms blood calls called?

Explanation

Hematopoiesis is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which new blood cells are formed in the body. This process takes place in the bone marrow and involves the production of various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Hematopoiesis is essential for maintaining a healthy blood supply and ensuring proper functioning of the immune system. Hemoptosis, Erythrocyte, and Thrombocytes are incorrect options as they refer to specific components or conditions related to blood cells, but not the process of their formation.

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117. What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

Explanation

Operational doctrine is a type of doctrine that guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives. It is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. Operational doctrine focuses on the planning and execution of military operations and provides guidance on how to achieve strategic objectives. It encompasses a wide range of military activities and is designed to provide flexibility and adaptability in various operational scenarios.

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118. Growth of body hair on a male is a

Explanation

Body hair growth on a male is considered a secondary sex characteristic. Secondary sex characteristics are physical traits that develop during puberty and differentiate between males and females. In males, the increase in body hair is a result of the production of androgens, such as testosterone, which are responsible for the development of masculine features. This includes the growth of facial hair, chest hair, and hair in other parts of the body. Primary sex characteristics, on the other hand, refer to the reproductive organs and structures necessary for reproduction.

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119. Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier?

Explanation

If there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier, you would contact the Base Training Office. They are responsible for overseeing and coordinating all training activities within the base. They would be able to assist in finding a suitable trainer or certifier for the specific requirement.

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120. Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones?

Explanation

Thyroxine is the correct answer because it is the main hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones and plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, growth, and development in the body. Thyroxine is also known as T4 and is converted into the more active form, triiodothyronine (T3), in the body. While the other options mentioned (aldosterone and thyroid stimulating hormone) are also related to the thyroid gland, they do not account for the majority of the thyroid hormones.

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121. To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), then click on

Explanation

The correct answer is "Training records". This is because the question asks for the specific information that can be accessed in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) through the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS). The options provided are different categories or sections within the AFTR, and "Training records" is the most appropriate option as it directly relates to accessing one's electronic training record.

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122. What is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Frenulum." The frenulum is a mucous membrane that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth. It helps to stabilize and control the movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing.

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123. What hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla has little effect on the blood suger level?

Explanation

Norepinephrine is the correct answer because it has little effect on the blood sugar level. Norepinephrine primarily functions as a neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, where it helps regulate heart rate, blood pressure, and other physiological responses. However, it does not have a significant impact on blood sugar levels, unlike other hormones like epinephrine (which can increase blood sugar levels by stimulating glycogen breakdown) or antidiuretic hormone (which has no direct effect on blood sugar but can affect water balance in the body).

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124. Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS). This implies that the supervisor is in charge of ensuring that the survey is completed and submitted.

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125. The procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center is performed by clicking

Explanation

To update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center, the correct procedure is to click on "My profile" and then proceed to edit the root and sub organizations. This option allows the user to make necessary changes and updates to their profile information, including their location details within the specified organizations. By selecting "My profile" and editing the root and sub organizations, the user can ensure that their location information is accurately reflected in the system.

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126. If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information?

Explanation

When the training status code changes, the person responsible for updating the code in the user training information is the Unit training manager. They are specifically in charge of overseeing the training programs and ensuring that all personnel receive the necessary training. As such, they would be the appropriate point of contact for any updates or changes to the training code in the user training information.

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127. What is the purpose of utilization management (UM)?

Explanation

Utilization management (UM) serves the purpose of identifying, monitoring, evaluating, and resolving issues related to healthcare delivery and resource allocation. This process helps in identifying any inefficiencies in healthcare delivery, monitoring and resolving issues that may impact resources, and evaluating the overall effectiveness of healthcare services. By identifying and resolving these issues, UM ensures that resources are utilized efficiently and that the quality of healthcare services is optimized.

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128. After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?

Explanation

The first question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level is "Can I do simple parts of the task?" This question helps assess your ability to handle the basic elements or components of the task. It focuses on your capability to perform the fundamental aspects before moving on to more complex parts. By evaluating your proficiency in executing the simple parts, you can gauge your overall skill level and progress towards mastery of the task.

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129. The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the entire training record and

Explanation

The Training Type drop-down menu allows users to select and view specific types of training records. In this case, the correct answer is "Qualification Training," which suggests that the drop-down menu can be used to filter and display records related to qualification training specifically. It enables users to easily access and review all the training records associated with qualification training, allowing for efficient management and tracking of employees' qualifications.

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130. What part of the lymph system acts as the filter?

Explanation

The lymph nodes act as the filter in the lymph system. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are distributed throughout the body and are connected by lymphatic vessels. They contain specialized cells that help filter and trap foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses, as well as abnormal cells, like cancer cells, from the lymph fluid. This filtering process helps to remove harmful substances and activate the immune response to defend against infections and diseases. Therefore, nodes are the correct answer as they play a crucial role in filtering the lymph fluid.

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131. What is the first button trainee's click on to sign off 623a entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)?

Explanation

The trainee would click on the "USER" button to sign off 623a entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR).

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132. You would not find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell?

Explanation

The nucleus is not found in the cytoplasm of a cell. It is a distinct organelle that is enclosed by its own membrane and contains the cell's genetic material. The cytoplasm, on the other hand, refers to the fluid-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds the organelles. The other options listed (centrosomes, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum) are all components that can be found within the cytoplasm of a cell.

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133. A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when

Explanation

A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when financial responsibility is assessed. This means that if there is a need to determine who is financially responsible for the lost or damaged property, the ROS is sent to the legal office for further evaluation. The legal office will review the report to assess the financial responsibility and make a decision accordingly.

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134. What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations?

Explanation

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney that filters blood to remove waste products and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations. It consists of a glomerulus, which filters blood, and a tubule, which reabsorbs necessary substances and excretes waste products. The nephron plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid balance and eliminating toxins from the bloodstream. The other options, ureter, cortex, and external sphincter, are not directly involved in the filtration and regulation processes of the kidney.

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135. What liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder?

Explanation

Bile is the correct answer because it is a liquid produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. Bile plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine. It helps in the breakdown of fats into smaller molecules so that they can be easily absorbed by the body. Bile also aids in the elimination of waste products, such as bilirubin, from the body.

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136. What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction?

Explanation

Microfilaments are responsible for cell contraction. These are thin, thread-like structures made up of the protein actin. They form a network throughout the cytoplasm and are involved in various cellular processes, including cell contraction. When the microfilaments contract, they can cause the cell to change shape, move, or contract. This is important for processes such as muscle contraction, cell division, and cell movement. Lysosomes, microtubules, and mitochondria have other functions in the cell but are not directly involved in cell contraction.

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137. What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is classified as voluntary because it is under conscious control. This means that we can choose to contract or relax these muscles at will. Additionally, skeletal muscle is striated, which means that it has a striped appearance under a microscope. This is due to the arrangement of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle fibers.

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138. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9)?

Explanation

In the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9), the abbreviation NEC stands for "Not elsewhere classified". This term is used to categorize diseases or conditions that do not fit into any other specific category or classification. It is a way to indicate that the disease or condition in question is unique and does not have a more specific code within the classification system.

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139. If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization?

Explanation

The Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) should be used to determine the deployment status of a unit. AHLTA supports Force Health Protection by providing comprehensive health records and medical information for military personnel. It also supports Population Health by allowing for the analysis and tracking of health trends and patterns within the military population. Additionally, AHLTA contributes to the optimization of the Military Health System (MHS) by facilitating the sharing and integration of health information across different MHS components and ensuring continuity of care for service members.

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140. Backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by

Explanation

A flap of mucous membrane prevents the backflow of urine into the ureters. This flap, known as the ureterovesical valve, is located at the junction where the ureter enters the bladder. It acts as a one-way valve, allowing urine to flow from the kidneys to the bladder, but preventing it from flowing back into the ureters. This mechanism is important for maintaining the proper flow of urine and preventing reflux of urine, which can lead to urinary tract infections and other complications.

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141. What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?

Explanation

The correct answer is STS on the left and MTL on the right. This means that the Master Training List (MTL) section is divided into two parts, with the STS (presumably referring to a specific training program or category) on the left and the MTL on the right.

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142. What is the term for the thick muscular portion of the heart?

Explanation

The term for the thick muscular portion of the heart is myocardium. The myocardium is the middle layer of the heart wall and is responsible for the contraction and pumping action of the heart. It is composed of cardiac muscle tissue, which is specialized for continuous and rhythmic contractions. The myocardium is essential for maintaining the circulation of blood throughout the body.

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143. The larynx is composed of how many cartilages?

Explanation

The larynx is composed of three single cartilages, which are the thyroid cartilage, the cricoid cartilage, and the epiglottis. Additionally, it is also composed of three paired cartilages, which are the arytenoid cartilages, the corniculate cartilages, and the cuneiform cartilages. These cartilages work together to support the vocal cords and control the production of sound during speech and swallowing.

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144. How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections usually conducted?

Explanation

Medical and nonmedical equipment inspections are usually conducted on a daily basis. This frequency ensures that any potential issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of accidents or compromised patient care. Daily inspections also help maintain the overall functionality and safety of the equipment, ensuring that it is in proper working condition at all times. Regular inspections are crucial in healthcare settings to ensure the well-being of patients and the effectiveness of medical procedures.

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145. What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair?

Explanation

The primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair is AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing. This form is used to document temporary issues of equipment and any actions taken by the custodian or the custodial report listing. It provides a record of repairs and maintenance performed on the equipment, ensuring accountability and tracking of the equipment's condition and history.

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146. What step does a medical technician provide in the workflow process?

Explanation

A medical technician provides the step of using a common AIM form to enter data into AHLTA. This suggests that the technician uses a standardized form called AIM (Alternative Input Method) to input the necessary information into the AHLTA system. The use of a common form ensures consistency and accuracy in the data entry process.

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147. Approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney?

Explanation

Each kidney contains approximately 1 million nephrons. Nephrons are the functional units of the kidneys responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and producing urine. The high number of nephrons in each kidney allows for efficient filtration and waste removal, ensuring the proper functioning of the kidneys in maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance in the body.

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148. The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirements to be edited?

Explanation

The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows the editing of certification level requirements for tasks 5 and 7.

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149. What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

Explanation

The Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. This system allows for tracking and analysis of medical expenses and performance data, which helps in making informed decisions regarding the allocation of resources such as manpower and budget. It provides valuable insights into the cost and effectiveness of medical services, allowing for efficient resource management and decision-making.

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150. What is the name of the product that is generates through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

Explanation

The correct answer is Activity issue/turn-in summary. This report generated through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) lists information about all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section. It provides a summary of the activity's issue and turn-in transactions, allowing for better tracking and management of supplies and equipment.

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151. When do Preventative Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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152. Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the

Explanation

The aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the iris. The iris is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil and regulates the amount of light that enters the eye. It is located between the cornea and the lens. The aqueous humor is a clear fluid that provides nutrients to the cornea and lens, maintains the shape of the eye, and helps to regulate intraocular pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is Iris.

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153. What is the fourth step in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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154. Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Report?

Explanation

The Major Command (MAJCOM) approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Report. This is because the MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of multiple squadrons and medical groups within the United States Air Force Medical Service (USAFMS). They have the authority to review and make decisions on changes to authorizations within their command, ensuring that they align with the overall mission and objectives of the USAFMS.

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155. The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of

Explanation

The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of connective tissue. Connective tissue is a type of tissue that provides support and structure to various organs and body parts. In the case of the testes, connective tissue helps to hold the various components of the testes together and provides a framework for the functioning of the reproductive system. This connective tissue also helps in the production and transportation of sperm cells. Adipose tissue is a type of fat tissue, and seminal muscle and seminiferous muscle are not accurate descriptions of the tissue composition of the testes.

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156. Which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body?

Explanation

The colon is responsible for absorbing water from the remaining digested material that passes through the small intestines. This absorption process helps in maintaining the body's water balance and prevents dehydration. The colon absorbs the water and electrolytes from the waste material, leaving behind a more solid stool.

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157. Which hormone would you expect the Islets of Langerhans to secrete?

Explanation

The Islets of Langerhans are clusters of cells in the pancreas responsible for producing and releasing hormones. Insulin is one of the hormones secreted by these islets. It plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells. Insulin also helps in the storage of excess glucose as glycogen in the liver and muscles. Therefore, it is expected that the Islets of Langerhans would secrete insulin.

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158. In the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the

Explanation

The cochlea is a spiral-shaped structure in the inner ear that is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. When the stapes, one of the three tiny bones in the middle ear, moves, it causes vibrations in the fluid-filled cochlea. These vibrations then stimulate the hair cells in the organ of Corti, which is located within the cochlea. The hair cells convert the vibrations into electrical signals that are transmitted to the brain, allowing us to perceive sound. Therefore, the movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the cochlea.

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159. Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?

Explanation

Bone ends would have very little compact bone because they are primarily composed of spongy bone. Spongy bone is less dense and has a more porous structure compared to compact bone. The ends of long bones, such as the femur or humerus, contain spongy bone to provide support and reduce the weight of the bone. This allows for greater flexibility and movement at the joints. Compact bone, on the other hand, is found in the outer layer of bones and provides strength and protection.

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160. What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness?

Explanation

One of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness is to analyze if everyone actively participated in the training process. This involves assessing whether all individuals involved in the training program actively engaged in the learning activities and contributed to the overall training experience. By evaluating the level of participation, trainers can determine the effectiveness of the training program and identify areas for improvement.

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161. What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment?

Explanation

DD Form 1131 is the correct answer because it is the form used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment. This form is specifically designed for individuals to make cash payments to the government to settle their pecuniary liabilities. The other forms listed, AF Form 106, AF Form 198, and DD Form 362, do not pertain to cash payments or pecuniary liability.

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162. What makes up the majority of the adrenal gland?

Explanation

The majority of the adrenal gland is made up of the adrenal cortex. The adrenal cortex is the outer layer of the gland and is responsible for producing hormones such as cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones. These hormones play important roles in regulating metabolism, blood pressure, and the body's response to stress. The adrenal medulla, on the other hand, is the inner portion of the gland and is responsible for producing adrenaline and noradrenaline, which are involved in the body's fight or flight response.

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163. A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements?

Explanation

The term "axis of joint rotation" refers to a line that is perpendicular to the plane of motion of a joint. This line represents the axis around which the joint rotates during movement. Circumduction, range of motion, and longitudinal axis are not directly related to the description given in the question.

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164. Who starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the patient signs in and is entered in an encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint. This means that the patient is the one who initiates the Tri-Service workflow form documentation by signing in and providing the necessary information on the encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint.

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165. Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?

Explanation

The middle meatus is a correct answer because it is a nasal air passageway. The nasal cavity is divided into three meatuses: superior, middle, and inferior. The middle meatus is located between the superior and inferior meatuses and is responsible for allowing air to pass through the nasal cavity. It is an important pathway for airflow and plays a role in filtering, warming, and humidifying the inhaled air.

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166. Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing?

Explanation

Anaphase is the phase of mitosis where the sister chromatids, which are the replicated copies of the chromosomes, separate and move towards opposite ends of the cell. This movement signifies the actual division of the nucleus, as the genetic material is being distributed equally between the two daughter cells. Therefore, Anaphase is the correct answer.

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167. What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula?

Explanation

A syndesmosis joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula. This type of joint allows for limited movement and is characterized by the presence of ligaments that connect the bones. The ligaments in a syndesmosis joint are longer and more flexible compared to other types of joints, allowing for some degree of movement between the tibia and fibula.

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168. The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when

Explanation

During the second phase of the menstrual cycle, known as the ovulatory phase, an ovum is released from one of the ovaries. This process is known as ovulation. The release of the ovum marks the beginning of the fertile period, where fertilization can occur if sperm is present. This phase typically occurs around day 14 of a 28-day menstrual cycle.

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169. What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint?

Explanation

CarePoint completes nightly updates for lab screening tests, which include updating both action lists and patient counts. This means that any lab screening tests conducted are recorded and updated in the action lists, which are lists of tasks or actions that need to be completed, and in the patient counts, which refer to the number of patients who have undergone lab screening tests. These updates help in keeping track of the lab screening tests and ensuring accurate patient records.

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170. What type of tissue is the major component of glands?

Explanation

Epithelial tissue is the major component of glands. Epithelial tissue is composed of tightly packed cells that form a protective layer or lining on the body's surfaces, organs, and glands. Glands are specialized structures that produce and release substances, such as hormones or enzymes, and they are primarily made up of epithelial tissue. This tissue type is responsible for the secretion and absorption of various substances, making it the correct answer for the question.

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171. What type of joint connects the sternum and first rib?

Explanation

A synchondrosis is a type of joint that connects bones with hyaline cartilage. In the case of the sternum and first rib, they are connected by a synchondrosis joint called the costal cartilage. This joint allows for slight movement and flexibility, while still maintaining stability.

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172. What is one of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum?

Explanation

The interior of the cerebrum is responsible for storing knowledge. This is because the cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is involved in higher cognitive functions such as learning, memory, and language. It contains the hippocampus, which is crucial for the formation and retrieval of memories. Additionally, the cerebrum consists of various regions, such as the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, and occipital lobe, which are involved in different aspects of cognition and memory processing. Therefore, it can be concluded that one of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum is storing knowledge.

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173. What does task-knowledge identify?

Explanation

Task-knowledge refers to the ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze or evaluate a subject. It involves understanding and recognizing relevant information, applying principles or concepts to analyze the situation, and making judgments or evaluations based on the analysis. It is an important skill in various fields, as it allows individuals to effectively comprehend and interpret information, solve problems, and make informed decisions.

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174. Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-months base pay of

Explanation

This answer states that pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-month's base pay for a person who lost or damaged property. This means that if someone is responsible for damaging or losing someone else's property, they will typically be held financially liable for a maximum amount equal to one month's base pay.

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175. The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the

Explanation

The stratum spinosum is the layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer. It is located above the stratum basale and below the stratum granulosum. The stratum spinosum is characterized by its spiny appearance due to the presence of desmosomes, which are protein structures that help to hold the cells together. This layer is responsible for providing strength and support to the skin, as well as aiding in the production of keratinocytes, which are the main type of cells found in the epidermis.

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176. The superior portion of the pharynx that contains the Eustachian tubes is the

Explanation

The correct answer is Nasopharynx. The nasopharynx is the superior portion of the pharynx, located behind the nasal cavity and above the oropharynx and laryngopharynx. It contains the openings of the Eustachian tubes, which connect the middle ear to the nasopharynx and help equalize pressure. The adenoid, or pharyngeal tonsil, is located in the nasopharynx. The oropharynx is the middle portion of the pharynx, and the laryngopharynx is the inferior portion.

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177. What type of information can you provide all new personnel on preparation of duty schedules?

Explanation

The correct answer provides information on various aspects related to the preparation of duty schedules. It includes details on authority, responsibility, and delegation, which are important for assigning tasks and roles. It also mentions the length of cycle rotation and the direction of rotation, which helps in organizing the schedule. Deadlines for postings and guidance for changes and exchanging hours are provided to ensure timely and effective schedule management. Additionally, it emphasizes the importance of reporting schedule changes, which helps in maintaining transparency and accountability.

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178. How many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30-year old male?

Explanation

The ureter is a tube that connects the kidneys to the bladder, and its length can vary depending on factors such as age, sex, and body size. In the case of a 30-year-old male, it is expected that the ureter would be around ten inches long.

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179. The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the

Explanation

The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the cecum. The cecum is the first part of the large intestine, located in the lower right abdomen. It receives the partially digested food from the small intestine through the ileocecal valve. The cecum is responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from the remaining indigestible food, and also plays a role in the immune system by housing beneficial bacteria.

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180. What are the principles of population health management?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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181. The auditory ossicles are located in the

Explanation

The auditory ossicles, which consist of the malleus, incus, and stapes, are located in the middle ear. They play a crucial role in transmitting sound vibrations from the outer ear to the inner ear. The middle ear is the space between the eardrum and the inner ear, and it contains these tiny bones that amplify and transmit sound waves. Therefore, the correct answer is middle ear.

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182. What is the primary function of the cerebellum other than coordinating muscular movements?

Explanation

The cerebellum is primarily responsible for coordinating muscular movements, but it also plays a role in controlling activity within the brain itself. It helps regulate and fine-tune the function of other brain regions, ensuring smooth and coordinated movements. Additionally, the cerebellum is involved in cognitive functions such as attention, language, and emotion. While it does not directly govern all conscious functions or control heartbeat and blood pressure, it does contribute to various aspects of brain activity beyond just coordinating muscular movements.

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183. Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called

Explanation

Efferent lymphatic vessels are the vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes. These vessels carry lymph fluid away from the lymph nodes and towards other parts of the body. Lymphatic ducts, lymphatic capillaries, and afferent lymphatic vessels are not the correct terms for the vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes.

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184. What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF 623 Part II. This section of the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is used to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates. The AF 623 Part II is specifically designed to track and document an individual's training and education accomplishments, including CDC completion. It serves as a comprehensive record of an Air Force member's career development and progress.

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185. Where will undigested chime go after leaving the ileum?

Explanation

After leaving the ileum, undigested chyme will enter the cecum. The cecum is the first part of the large intestine and serves as a storage pouch for undigested food. It receives the chyme from the ileum and allows for the absorption of water and electrolytes. From the cecum, the chyme will continue its journey through the large intestine, where further absorption of water and nutrients will occur before reaching the rectum and being eliminated from the body through the anal canal.

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186. What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force Training  Record (AFTR)?

Explanation

The information that is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is the start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable). This information helps track the progress of the trainee and ensures that the necessary individuals have verified the completion of the task.

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187. What substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape?

Explanation

Vitreous humor is a gel-like substance that fills the space between the lens and the retina in the eyeball. It helps to maintain the round shape of the eyeball by exerting pressure on the inner surface of the eye. This substance also provides support to the structures within the eye and helps to transmit light to the retina. Tears, ciliary, and aqueous humor do not play a role in maintaining the round shape of the eyeball.

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188. What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098?

Explanation

The first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098 is to click the SEARCH RECORD button.

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189. What are the two primary categories of items that require report of survey (ROS) documentation if lost, damaged, or destroyed?

Explanation

The correct answer is supply system stocks and property record items. When items are lost, damaged, or destroyed, a report of survey (ROS) documentation is required for supply system stocks and property record items. This documentation helps to track and account for the loss or damage of these items and is necessary for proper inventory management and accountability.

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190. Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the

Explanation

The Master Training Plan (MTP) is the correct answer because it is the document that contains the duty section job description and the upgrade training plan. The MTP outlines the specific training requirements and career progression for individuals in a particular specialty or career field. It serves as a comprehensive guide for training and development within the organization, ensuring that individuals receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively and advance in their careers.

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191. The layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the

Explanation

The muscular layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for the movement of substances through the canal. This layer contains smooth muscle fibers that contract and relax to propel food and other substances along the digestive tract. These muscular contractions, known as peristalsis, help to mix and churn the contents of the canal, facilitating digestion and absorption.

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192. What cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus eye muscle?

Explanation

The cranial nerve that controls the lateral rectus eye muscle is the abducent nerve. This nerve is responsible for the abduction of the eye, which means it moves the eye laterally away from the midline. The other options, Vagus, Facial, and Trochlear, are not involved in the control of the lateral rectus muscle.

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193. The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the

Explanation

The perimysium is the correct answer because it is the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual muscle fascicles. It lies just below the epimysium, which is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. The perimysium contains blood vessels, nerves, and collagen fibers that provide support and structure to the muscle fascicles.

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194. Which organ secrets the adrenocorticotropic hormone?

Explanation

The adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. This hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce and release cortisol, which is involved in regulating various bodily functions such as metabolism, immune response, and stress response. The thyroid gland is responsible for producing hormones such as thyroxine and triiodothyronine, which regulate metabolism and growth. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing hormones such as cortisol and aldosterone, which regulate stress response and salt balance. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes hormones such as oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are involved in reproductive functions and water balance respectively.

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195. The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps?

Explanation

The purpose of an AF Form 803 is to conduct and document the completion of task evaluation during training. This form is used to assess the trainee's performance and ensure that they have successfully completed the required tasks. By documenting the evaluations, the form provides a record of the trainee's progress and can be used for future reference or to track their performance over time. This step is essential in ensuring that the trainee has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge during their training.

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What is the fourth step in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for...
Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Report?
The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of
Which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body?
Which hormone would you expect the Islets of Langerhans to secrete?
In the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within...
Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?
What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training...
What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and...
What makes up the majority of the adrenal gland?
A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best...
Who starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation?
Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?
Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is...
What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula?
The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when
What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint?
What type of tissue is the major component of glands?
What type of joint connects the sternum and first rib?
What is one of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum?
What does task-knowledge identify?
Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-months...
The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the
The superior portion of the pharynx that contains the Eustachian tubes...
What type of information can you provide all new personnel on...
How many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30-year...
The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the
What are the principles of population health management?
The auditory ossicles are located in the
What is the primary function of the cerebellum other than coordinating...
Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called
What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update...
Where will undigested chime go after leaving the ileum?
What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and...
What substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape?
What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to...
What are the two primary categories of items that require report of...
Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in...
The layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for...
What cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus eye muscle?
The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the
Which organ secrets the adrenocorticotropic hormone?
The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps?
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