CDC A4N051 : Emergency care And Transportation Of The Sick And Injured! Trivia Quiz
Below is a CDC A4n051: Emergency CARE and Transportation of the Sick and Injured! quiz. It is a perfect test to see how skilled you are when it comes to emergencies where you have to take people out of a scene. Think you know enough to get the top marks? Do give the quiz a try and get to find out for sure.
- 1.
Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their missions?
- A.
AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine
- B.
AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development
- C.
AFDD 2-8, Command and Control
- D.
AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations
Correct Answer
D. AFDD 4-02, Medical OperationsExplanation
AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations, is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their missions. This document specifically focuses on the medical aspects of Air Force operations and provides guidance on medical planning, response, and support in various operational environments. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of medical personnel, as well as the principles and processes for delivering medical care and support to Air Force personnel. This doctrine document helps ensure that Air Force Medical Service commanders have the necessary guidance and direction to effectively carry out their missions.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
- A.
Recommends step by step actions
- B.
Directs the actions of the commanders
- C.
Guides commanders in using assets
- D.
Changes faster than Air Force guidance
Correct Answer
C. Guides commanders in using assetsExplanation
Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets effectively. It provides a set of guidelines and principles that help commanders make informed decisions regarding the allocation and utilization of medical resources. By following medical doctrine, commanders can ensure that the right assets are used in the right way, maximizing their effectiveness and efficiency. This ultimately leads to better healthcare outcomes for military personnel and enables commanders to fulfill their responsibility of providing medical support to their units.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
- A.
Basic
- B.
Tactical
- C.
Operational
- D.
Foundational
Correct Answer
C. OperationalExplanation
Operational doctrine is a type of doctrine that guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives. It is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. Operational doctrine focuses on the planning and execution of military operations and provides guidance on how to achieve strategic objectives. It encompasses a wide range of military activities and is designed to provide flexibility and adaptability in various operational scenarios.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
- A.
The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy
- B.
An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind
- C.
An automotive designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure
- D.
A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
Correct Answer
D. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factorsExplanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that tactical doctrine refers to the strategies and plans developed by individuals or organizations to achieve their goals. In this context, a car buyer can be seen as an example of tactical doctrine because they have the ability to choose specific qualities in a vehicle that align with their individual needs and preferences. By considering factors such as speed or safety, the car buyer is strategically selecting a vehicle that will best serve their purpose and help them achieve their desired outcome.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available?
- A.
Significantly increase
- B.
Significantly decrease
- C.
Increased by only 10 percent
- D.
Decreased by only 10 percent
Correct Answer
A. Significantly increaseExplanation
When aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available, casualty survival rates significantly increase. This is because AE allows for the rapid and efficient transportation of injured individuals to medical facilities where they can receive specialized and timely care. AE units are equipped with medical personnel and equipment to provide critical care during transportation, further enhancing the chances of survival for casualties. By reducing the time it takes for injured individuals to reach medical care and providing immediate treatment, AE plays a crucial role in improving casualty survival rates.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds?
- A.
EMEDS Basic
- B.
EMEDS +10
- C.
EMEDS +25
- D.
All EMEDS have inpatient beds
Correct Answer
A. EMEDS BasicExplanation
EMEDS Basic is the correct answer because it is the only option that states that it has no inpatient beds. The other options, EMEDS +10 and EMEDS +25, do not mention anything about inpatient beds. The last option, "All EMEDS have inpatient beds," is incorrect because EMEDS Basic specifically does not have inpatient beds.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?
- A.
Mental Health personnel and the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) commander
- B.
Aerospace Medical Specialist and the AEF or EMEDS commander
- C.
Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training
- D.
The AEF or EMEDS commanders and Aerospace Medical Specialist with additional training
Correct Answer
C. Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional trainingExplanation
Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training are qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD). This suggests that both individuals have the necessary expertise and knowledge to effectively address and manage the psychological impact of a critical incident on individuals involved. The additional training likely enhances their skills and understanding of the specific needs and challenges related to critical incident stress debriefing.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?
- A.
12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support
- B.
12 hours for routine AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support
- C.
24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support
- D.
36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent AE support
Correct Answer
C. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE supportExplanation
EMEDS Basic requires routine AE support within 24 hours of notification and urgent AE support within 12 hours of notification.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25?
- A.
32
- B.
51
- C.
86
- D.
94
Correct Answer
C. 86Explanation
The correct answer is 86. This means that there are a total of 86 personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?
- A.
4N000
- B.
4N031
- C.
N051
- D.
4N071
Correct Answer
A. 4N000 -
- 11.
Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
- A.
Group superintendent
- B.
Surgeon General
- C.
Air Force Career Field Manager
- D.
Career development course writer
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Career Field ManagerExplanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager is responsible for developing and maintaining the currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). They oversee the training requirements and ensure that the plan is up to date with the latest standards and practices in the career field. They work closely with subject matter experts and other stakeholders to ensure that the CFETP accurately reflects the skills and knowledge needed for career field progression.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping?
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
Third
- D.
Fifth
Correct Answer
A. FirstExplanation
The figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that identifies career grouping is the "First" figure. This figure represents the career field grouping within the AFSC system. It helps to categorize and organize different career fields within the Air Force, allowing for easier identification and management of personnel and their specialties.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?
- A.
Chief Nurse
- B.
Command Chief
- C.
Career Field Manager
- D.
Medical Group Commander
Correct Answer
C. Career Field ManagerExplanation
The Career Field Manager may request a 4N0X1 job inventory. This individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the career field, including job assignments and inventory. They have the authority to request specific job inventories based on the needs and requirements of the field.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?
- A.
Every 6 months
- B.
Annually
- C.
Every 3 years
- D.
Every 5 years
Correct Answer
C. Every 3 yearsExplanation
The 4N0XX job inventory is normally completed every 3 years. This means that the inventory is conducted once every three years to assess and update the job positions, responsibilities, and requirements within the 4N0XX job category. This timeframe allows for a comprehensive review and adjustment of the inventory to ensure it remains accurate and up-to-date. Conducting the inventory every 3 years strikes a balance between keeping the information current and minimizing the frequency of the inventory process.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)?
- A.
Commander
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
3-level
- D.
5-level
Correct Answer
B. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS). This implies that the supervisor is in charge of ensuring that the survey is completed and submitted.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Why is it required for a 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?
- A.
Maintain skills
- B.
Prevent lawsuits
- C.
Ensure promotion
- D.
To complete formal training course
Correct Answer
A. Maintain skillsExplanation
It is required for a 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training in order to maintain their skills. This training ensures that they stay updated with the latest techniques and knowledge in their field, allowing them to provide high-quality care and support to patients. By continuously refreshing their skills, they can stay competent and confident in their role, ensuring the best possible outcomes for their patients.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) training in what location?
- A.
Stateside base
- B.
Deployed setting
- C.
Reserve duty station
- D.
Air National Guard base
Correct Answer
B. Deployed settingExplanation
The RSVP is designed to sustain AFSC training in a deployed setting. This means that it is specifically intended to support training for Air Force personnel who are deployed to locations outside of their home base. The program likely includes resources and support to ensure that individuals in a deployed setting are able to continue their training and maintain their skills while away from their regular duty station.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?
- A.
During shift change
- B.
On training days
- C.
In the afternoons
- D.
In the morning
Correct Answer
B. On training daysExplanation
The best timeframe to conduct inservice training within your unit is on training days. This is because on these specific days, the entire unit is already prepared and available for training. It ensures that all members of the unit can participate without any scheduling conflicts or disruptions to their regular duties. Additionally, conducting inservice training on training days allows for a focused and dedicated time for learning and skill development, maximizing the effectiveness of the training session.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline?
- A.
Patient treatment plans
- B.
Patient treatment milestones
- C.
Training milestones for enlisted within the assigned area
- D.
Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area
Correct Answer
D. Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned areaExplanation
The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area. This means that the MTP serves as a roadmap for setting and achieving training objectives for enlisted personnel in a specific area. It helps to establish clear goals and milestones that can be used to track progress and ensure that training is aligned with organizational objectives. By using the MTP, commanders and training managers can effectively plan and manage the training of enlisted personnel, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- B.
Air Force Training Records (AFTR)
- C.
Specialty Training Standard (STS)
- D.
Master Training Plan (MTP)
Correct Answer
D. Master Training Plan (MTP)Explanation
The Master Training Plan (MTP) is the correct answer because it is the document that contains the duty section job description and the upgrade training plan. The MTP outlines the specific training requirements and career progression for individuals in a particular specialty or career field. It serves as a comprehensive guide for training and development within the organization, ensuring that individuals receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively and advance in their careers.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Your first step for creating and editing a Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select which option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?
- A.
Edit MTP
- B.
View MTP
- C.
Delete MTP
- D.
Create/Edit MTP
Correct Answer
D. Create/Edit MTPExplanation
To create and edit a Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the option "Create/Edit MTP" from the AFTR Data/MTP menu. This option allows you to create a new MTP or make changes to an existing one. By selecting this option, you can access the necessary tools and features to develop and modify your MTP according to your training needs and requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
What is the fourth step in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks?
- A.
The user must enter in a start month, end month, training days, training method, evaluation method, and training aid
- B.
The user must enter in all the fields to complete the MTP information
- C.
The user selects what method will be used for the training on the task
- D.
After confirmation, the user is redirected to the Edit MTP tasks page
Correct Answer
A. The user must enter in a start month, end month, training days, training method, evaluation method, and training aid -
- 23.
What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?
- A.
MTP on the left and STS on the right
- B.
STS on the left and MTL on the right
- C.
797 on the right and 1098 on the left
- D.
UTL on the right and MAJCOM on the left
Correct Answer
B. STS on the left and MTL on the rightExplanation
The correct answer is STS on the left and MTL on the right. This means that the Master Training List (MTL) section is divided into two parts, with the STS (presumably referring to a specific training program or category) on the left and the MTL on the right.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirements to be edited?
- A.
MTP tasks 5 and 7
- B.
MTL tasks 5 and 7
- C.
STS tasks 7 and 5
- D.
UTL tasks 7 and 5
Correct Answer
B. MTL tasks 5 and 7Explanation
The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows the editing of certification level requirements for tasks 5 and 7.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the
- A.
Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu
- B.
Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty menu
- C.
AFTR Data/Duty Position menu
- D.
AFTR Duty Position menu
Correct Answer
A. Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menuExplanation
The correct answer is to select the Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu. This is the first step because it allows the user to access the specific menu where they can create or edit the Duty Task List (DTL) in their Air Force Training Record (AFTR). By selecting this option, the user will be able to proceed with creating or editing the DTL as needed.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?
- A.
Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) tasks
- B.
No other factors are considered
- C.
AEF tasks and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements
- D.
Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements
Correct Answer
D. Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirementsExplanation
The correct answer states that deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements. This means that in addition to AEF tasks, there are other factors such as deployment requirements and other factors that contribute to the need for training. These additional factors could include operational demands, resource availability, specific job requirements, and organizational goals. By considering all these factors, a comprehensive training plan can be developed to ensure that the training meets the specific needs of the organization and its personnel.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier?
- A.
Commander
- B.
First Sgt
- C.
Base Training Office
- D.
Unit Training Office
Correct Answer
C. Base Training OfficeExplanation
If there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier, you would contact the Base Training Office. They are responsible for overseeing and coordinating all training activities within the base. They would be able to assist in finding a suitable trainer or certifier for the specific requirement.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
The total training program leads to
- A.
Lower pay levels
- B.
Higher pay levels
- C.
Higher skill level
- D.
Promotion
Correct Answer
C. Higher skill levelExplanation
The total training program leads to a higher skill level because training programs are designed to enhance an individual's knowledge and abilities in a specific area. By participating in a comprehensive training program, individuals acquire new skills and improve existing ones, which in turn increases their overall skill level. This can lead to better job prospects, increased job performance, and potentially higher pay levels in the long run.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing the
- A.
Behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; and the standards that fall under each task
- B.
Behavior exhibited while completing the task; and the conditions where the task was performed
- C.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- D.
Master Task List (MTL)
Correct Answer
A. Behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; and the standards that fall under each taskExplanation
The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing the behavior exhibited while completing the task, the conditions where the task was performed, and the standards that fall under each task. This means that in order to assess the competency of a 4N0X1, one must consider how they performed the task, the environment in which the task was carried out, and the specific standards that apply to that task. By evaluating these factors, a comprehensive assessment of the individual's competency can be made.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Which personnel provide specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge?
- A.
Certifier
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
On-the-job training (OJT) trainer
- D.
Your OJT trainer or supervisor
Correct Answer
D. Your OJT trainer or supervisorExplanation
The correct answer is "Your OJT trainer or supervisor". OJT trainers or supervisors are responsible for providing specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge. They have the expertise and experience to guide and train individuals in their respective roles and ensure that they acquire the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their job effectively. These trainers or supervisors play a crucial role in the on-the-job training process by imparting targeted and task-specific information to the trainees.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What does task-knowledge identify?
- A.
RN orders
- B.
Physician orders
- C.
Your ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze
- D.
Your ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze or evaluate the subject
Correct Answer
D. Your ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze or evaluate the subjectExplanation
Task-knowledge refers to the ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze or evaluate a subject. It involves understanding and recognizing relevant information, applying principles or concepts to analyze the situation, and making judgments or evaluations based on the analysis. It is an important skill in various fields, as it allows individuals to effectively comprehend and interpret information, solve problems, and make informed decisions.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?
- A.
Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task
- B.
Follow sequence in the proficiency task listing
- C.
Determine the final step needed to complete the task
- D.
Review the CFETP and identify task in the Part 1 specialty training standard
Correct Answer
A. Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the taskExplanation
To fully understand task knowledge, one step used to assess your ability is to name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task. This involves identifying and understanding the different components, equipment, and basic information related to the task at hand. By being able to accurately name and describe these aspects, it demonstrates a level of comprehension and familiarity with the task, which is crucial for fully understanding and successfully completing it.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include
- A.
Analyzing task knowledge with another Airmen in upgrade training
- B.
Analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject
- C.
Reviewing manufacturers material on subject knowledge
- D.
Identifying detailed facts and acronyms about the subject
Correct Answer
B. Analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subjectExplanation
To fully understand subject knowledge, it is important to analyze facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject. This involves critically examining the information available, identifying key facts and principles, and using logical reasoning to draw meaningful conclusions. By engaging in this process, individuals can gain a deeper understanding of the subject matter and develop a solid foundation of knowledge. This step helps in consolidating information, making connections, and promoting critical thinking skills, ultimately enhancing subject knowledge.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force Training Record (AFTR)?
- A.
Job qualification standard training start and complete date
- B.
AF Form 623 II, On the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet
- C.
Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable)
- D.
AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training Qualification Training Packages
Correct Answer
C. Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable)Explanation
The information that is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is the start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable). This information helps track the progress of the trainee and ensures that the necessary individuals have verified the completion of the task.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Each time and Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base or work center), the supervisor must perform
- A.
A re-evaluation
- B.
And initial evaluation
- C.
An Enlisted Progress Report (EPR)
- D.
An Annual Progress Report (APR)
Correct Answer
B. And initial evaluationExplanation
When an Airman changes duty positions, the supervisor must perform an initial evaluation. This is necessary to assess the Airman's skills, knowledge, and performance in their new role. The initial evaluation helps the supervisor understand the Airman's strengths and areas for improvement, and it serves as a basis for setting performance expectations and goals. Unlike a re-evaluation, which may be conducted periodically to track progress, the initial evaluation is conducted when the Airman first assumes the new position.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?
- A.
Can I do simple parts of the task?
- B.
Can I do most parts of the task?
- C.
How many supplies are needed?
- D.
How much equipment is needed?
Correct Answer
A. Can I do simple parts of the task?Explanation
The first question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level is "Can I do simple parts of the task?" This question helps assess your ability to handle the basic elements or components of the task. It focuses on your capability to perform the fundamental aspects before moving on to more complex parts. By evaluating your proficiency in executing the simple parts, you can gauge your overall skill level and progress towards mastery of the task.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level?
- A.
How many people can I train?
- B.
How many continuing education hours did I achieve?
- C.
Can I do all parts of the task? I need only a spot check of completed work.
- D.
Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can I tell or show others how to do the task?
Correct Answer
D. Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can I tell or show others how to do the task?Explanation
The last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level is whether you can do the complete task quickly and accurately and if you can tell or show others how to do the task. This question assesses not only your own ability to perform the task efficiently and accurately but also your ability to effectively communicate and teach others how to do it. It demonstrates a higher level of proficiency as it requires not only mastery of the task but also the ability to transfer that knowledge to others.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF For 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document
- A.
Weekly training procedures
- B.
Objective effectiveness
- C.
Quarterly training steps
- D.
Training effectiveness
Correct Answer
D. Training effectivenessExplanation
The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document training effectiveness. These documents serve as evidence of the effectiveness of the training programs and methods employed by the Air Force. They provide a record of the outcomes and impact of the training, allowing for evaluation and improvement of the training procedures.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
If training is effective, what should trainees remember?
- A.
The requirements to successfully complete the job
- B.
Advanced requirements to complete the job
- C.
50% of their training information
- D.
80% of their training information
Correct Answer
A. The requirements to successfully complete the jobExplanation
If training is effective, trainees should remember the requirements to successfully complete the job. This implies that the training has successfully provided them with the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their job tasks. Remembering the requirements ensures that trainees can apply what they have learned during the training and perform their job effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness?
- A.
Review test questions
- B.
Review class survey
- C.
Analyze if 90 percent actively participated in training effectiveness
- D.
Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process
Correct Answer
D. Analyze if everyone actively participated in training processExplanation
One of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness is to analyze if everyone actively participated in the training process. This involves assessing whether all individuals involved in the training program actively engaged in the learning activities and contributed to the overall training experience. By evaluating the level of participation, trainers can determine the effectiveness of the training program and identify areas for improvement.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Name one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field.
- A.
Allergy/Immunization Technician
- B.
Emergency Room Technician
- C.
Neurology Technician
- D.
Vascular Technician
Correct Answer
C. Neurology TechnicianExplanation
The correct answer is Neurology Technician. In the 4N0X1 career field, one of the three shredouts is the Neurology Technician. This means that individuals in this career field can specialize and work specifically in the field of neurology. They may be responsible for assisting with neurological procedures, conducting tests and assessments related to the nervous system, and providing care and support to patients with neurological conditions.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins
- A.
With meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626
- B.
With meeting the requirements in the Officer Classification Directory and ETCA
- C.
By submitting your last Enlisted Progress Report (EPR) and fitness test score
- D.
By submitting your last achievement medal and quarterly award
Correct Answer
A. With meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626Explanation
The correct answer is "with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626." This answer is correct because it mentions the specific resources and guidelines that need to be followed in order to successfully recommend formal training. The Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626 are all important references that provide the necessary information and requirements for formal training recommendations. Following these guidelines ensures that the recommendation process is done correctly and in accordance with the regulations and standards set by the military.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?
- A.
Complete all duty position training requirements
- B.
Qualification training package (QTP) for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements
- C.
Basic Life Support (BLS) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements
- D.
National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements
Correct Answer
D. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirementsExplanation
To apply for a technical training instructor position, one must complete the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification, as well as the Qualification Training Packages (QTPs) for the assigned position. Additionally, they must fulfill all duty position training requirements. This implies that having the NREMT certification and completing the QTPs are mandatory qualifications for this role, along with meeting all duty position training requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?
- A.
Retainability requirements
- B.
Eligibility requirements
- C.
PCS requirements
- D.
PCA requirements
Correct Answer
B. Eligibility requirementsExplanation
Before applying for retraining, you must meet the eligibility requirements. These requirements are the necessary qualifications or criteria that an individual must possess in order to be considered eligible for the retraining program. Meeting these requirements ensures that the individual meets the necessary prerequisites and has the qualifications needed to successfully participate in the retraining program.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining?
- A.
Technical training school grade point average
- B.
Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery scores
- C.
Number of achievement medals
- D.
Last three EPRs
Correct Answer
D. Last three EPRsExplanation
The Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board uses the last three EPRs (Enlisted Performance Reports) as one criterion to rank Airmen applying for retraining. EPRs provide a comprehensive evaluation of an Airman's performance, including their accomplishments, skills, and potential. By reviewing the last three EPRs, the QRP board can assess an Airman's past performance and determine their suitability for retraining opportunities.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the
- A.
Career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed
- B.
Base force of each AF special experience identifier (SEI) as needed
- C.
Unit force of each AF shredout as needed
- D.
Career force of the AF squadron
Correct Answer
A. Career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as neededExplanation
The correct answer is the career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed. This means that the overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to ensure that there is a balance in the workforce for each AFSC. This is important because it allows the Air Force to have the necessary skills and expertise in each specialty area to effectively carry out its mission. By retraining individuals and strategically managing the career force, the Air Force can ensure that it has the right personnel in the right positions to meet its operational needs.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), then click on
- A.
Course list
- B.
My profile
- C.
Administration
- D.
Training records
Correct Answer
D. Training recordsExplanation
The correct answer is "Training records". This is because the question asks for the specific information that can be accessed in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) through the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS). The options provided are different categories or sections within the AFTR, and "Training records" is the most appropriate option as it directly relates to accessing one's electronic training record.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
The procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center is performed by clicking
- A.
My profile and editing root and sub organizations
- B.
Administration and editing organizations
- C.
Root and sub organizations
- D.
Sub organizations
Correct Answer
A. My profile and editing root and sub organizationsExplanation
To update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center, the correct procedure is to click on "My profile" and then proceed to edit the root and sub organizations. This option allows the user to make necessary changes and updates to their profile information, including their location details within the specified organizations. By selecting "My profile" and editing the root and sub organizations, the user can ensure that their location information is accurately reflected in the system.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information?
- A.
Base training manager
- B.
Unit training manager
- C.
Unit deployment manager
- D.
Curriculum development manager
Correct Answer
B. Unit training managerExplanation
When the training status code changes, the person responsible for updating the code in the user training information is the Unit training manager. They are specifically in charge of overseeing the training programs and ensuring that all personnel receive the necessary training. As such, they would be the appropriate point of contact for any updates or changes to the training code in the user training information.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates?
- A.
Master Training List (MTL)
- B.
Master Training Plan (MTP)
- C.
AF 623 Part I
- D.
AF 623 Part II
Correct Answer
D. AF 623 Part IIExplanation
The correct answer is AF 623 Part II. This section of the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is used to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates. The AF 623 Part II is specifically designed to track and document an individual's training and education accomplishments, including CDC completion. It serves as a comprehensive record of an Air Force member's career development and progress.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 17, 2018Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
Back to top