CDC A4N051 : Emergency care And Transportation Of The Sick And Injured! Trivia Quiz

195 Questions | Total Attempts: 82

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
CDC A4N051 : Emergency care And Transportation Of The Sick And Injured! Trivia Quiz

Below is a CDC A4n051: Emergency CARE and Transportation of the Sick and Injured! quiz. It is a perfect test to see how skilled you are when it comes to emergencies where you have to take people out of a scene. Think you know enough to get the top marks? Do give the quiz a try and get to find out for sure.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their missions?
    • A. 

      AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine

    • B. 

      AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development

    • C. 

      AFDD 2-8, Command and Control

    • D. 

      AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations

  • 2. 
    Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
    • A. 

      Recommends step by step actions

    • B. 

      Directs the actions of the commanders

    • C. 

      Guides commanders in using assets

    • D. 

      Changes faster than Air Force guidance

  • 3. 
    What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
    • A. 

      Basic

    • B. 

      Tactical

    • C. 

      Operational

    • D. 

      Foundational

  • 4. 
    Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
    • A. 

      The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy

    • B. 

      An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind

    • C. 

      An automotive designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure

    • D. 

      A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors

  • 5. 
    What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available?
    • A. 

      Significantly increase

    • B. 

      Significantly decrease

    • C. 

      Increased by only 10 percent

    • D. 

      Decreased by only 10 percent

  • 6. 
    Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds?
    • A. 

      EMEDS Basic

    • B. 

      EMEDS +10

    • C. 

      EMEDS +25

    • D. 

      All EMEDS have inpatient beds

  • 7. 
    Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?
    • A. 

      Mental Health personnel and the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) commander

    • B. 

      Aerospace Medical Specialist and the AEF or EMEDS commander

    • C. 

      Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training

    • D. 

      The AEF or EMEDS commanders and Aerospace Medical Specialist with additional training

  • 8. 
    Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?
    • A. 

      12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support

    • B. 

      12 hours for routine AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support

    • C. 

      24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support

    • D. 

      36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent AE support

  • 9. 
    What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25?
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      51

    • C. 

      86

    • D. 

      94

  • 10. 
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?
    • A. 

      4N000

    • B. 

      4N031

    • C. 

      N051

    • D. 

      4N071

  • 11. 
    Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
    • A. 

      Group superintendent

    • B. 

      Surgeon General

    • C. 

      Air Force Career Field Manager

    • D. 

      Career development course writer

  • 12. 
    What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fifth

  • 13. 
    Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?
    • A. 

      Chief Nurse

    • B. 

      Command Chief

    • C. 

      Career Field Manager

    • D. 

      Medical Group Commander

  • 14. 
    How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?
    • A. 

      Every 6 months

    • B. 

      Annually

    • C. 

      Every 3 years

    • D. 

      Every 5 years

  • 15. 
    Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      3-level

    • D. 

      5-level

  • 16. 
    Why is it required for a 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?
    • A. 

      Maintain skills

    • B. 

      Prevent lawsuits

    • C. 

      Ensure promotion

    • D. 

      To complete formal training course

  • 17. 
    Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) training in what location?
    • A. 

      Stateside base

    • B. 

      Deployed setting

    • C. 

      Reserve duty station

    • D. 

      Air National Guard base

  • 18. 
    What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?
    • A. 

      During shift change

    • B. 

      On training days

    • C. 

      In the afternoons

    • D. 

      In the morning

  • 19. 
    The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline?
    • A. 

      Patient treatment plans

    • B. 

      Patient treatment milestones

    • C. 

      Training milestones for enlisted within the assigned area

    • D. 

      Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area

  • 20. 
    Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the
    • A. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • B. 

      Air Force Training Records (AFTR)

    • C. 

      Specialty Training Standard (STS)

    • D. 

      Master Training Plan (MTP)

  • 21. 
    Your first step for creating and editing a Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select which option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?
    • A. 

      Edit MTP

    • B. 

      View MTP

    • C. 

      Delete MTP

    • D. 

      Create/Edit MTP

  • 22. 
    What is the fourth step in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks?
    • A. 

      The user must enter in a start month, end month, training days, training method, evaluation method, and training aid

    • B. 

      The user must enter in all the fields to complete the MTP information

    • C. 

      The user selects what method will be used for the training on the task

    • D. 

      After confirmation, the user is redirected to the Edit MTP tasks page

  • 23. 
    What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?
    • A. 

      MTP on the left and STS on the right

    • B. 

      STS on the left and MTL on the right

    • C. 

      797 on the right and 1098 on the left

    • D. 

      UTL on the right and MAJCOM on the left

  • 24. 
    The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirements to be edited?
    • A. 

      MTP tasks 5 and 7

    • B. 

      MTL tasks 5 and 7

    • C. 

      STS tasks 7 and 5

    • D. 

      UTL tasks 7 and 5

  • 25. 
    The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the
    • A. 

      Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu

    • B. 

      Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty menu

    • C. 

      AFTR Data/Duty Position menu

    • D. 

      AFTR Duty Position menu

  • 26. 
    Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?
    • A. 

      Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) tasks

    • B. 

      No other factors are considered

    • C. 

      AEF tasks and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements

    • D. 

      Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements

  • 27. 
    Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      First Sgt

    • C. 

      Base Training Office

    • D. 

      Unit Training Office

  • 28. 
    The total training program leads to
    • A. 

      Lower pay levels

    • B. 

      Higher pay levels

    • C. 

      Higher skill level

    • D. 

      Promotion

  • 29. 
    The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing the
    • A. 

      Behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; and the standards that fall under each task

    • B. 

      Behavior exhibited while completing the task; and the conditions where the task was performed

    • C. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • D. 

      Master Task List (MTL)

  • 30. 
    Which personnel provide specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge?
    • A. 

      Certifier

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      On-the-job training (OJT) trainer

    • D. 

      Your OJT trainer or supervisor

  • 31. 
    What does task-knowledge identify?
    • A. 

      RN orders

    • B. 

      Physician orders

    • C. 

      Your ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze

    • D. 

      Your ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze or evaluate the subject

  • 32. 
    To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?
    • A. 

      Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task

    • B. 

      Follow sequence in the proficiency task listing

    • C. 

      Determine the final step needed to complete the task

    • D. 

      Review the CFETP and identify task in the Part 1 specialty training standard

  • 33. 
    To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include
    • A. 

      Analyzing task knowledge with another Airmen in upgrade training

    • B. 

      Analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject

    • C. 

      Reviewing manufacturers material on subject knowledge

    • D. 

      Identifying detailed facts and acronyms about the subject

  • 34. 
    What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force Training  Record (AFTR)?
    • A. 

      Job qualification standard training start and complete date

    • B. 

      AF Form 623 II, On the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    • C. 

      Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable)

    • D. 

      AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training Qualification Training Packages

  • 35. 
    Each time and Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base or work center), the supervisor must perform
    • A. 

      A re-evaluation

    • B. 

      And initial evaluation

    • C. 

      An Enlisted Progress Report (EPR)

    • D. 

      An Annual Progress Report (APR)

  • 36. 
    After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?
    • A. 

      Can I do simple parts of the task?

    • B. 

      Can I do most parts of the task?

    • C. 

      How many supplies are needed?

    • D. 

      How much equipment is needed?

  • 37. 
    After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level?
    • A. 

      How many people can I train?

    • B. 

      How many continuing education hours did I achieve?

    • C. 

      Can I do all parts of the task? I need only a spot check of completed work.

    • D. 

      Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can I tell or show others how to do the task?

  • 38. 
    The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF For 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document
    • A. 

      Weekly training procedures

    • B. 

      Objective effectiveness

    • C. 

      Quarterly training steps

    • D. 

      Training effectiveness

  • 39. 
    If training is effective, what should trainees remember?
    • A. 

      The requirements to successfully complete the job

    • B. 

      Advanced requirements to complete the job

    • C. 

      50% of their training information

    • D. 

      80% of their training information

  • 40. 
    What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness?
    • A. 

      Review test questions

    • B. 

      Review class survey

    • C. 

      Analyze if 90 percent actively participated in training effectiveness

    • D. 

      Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process

  • 41. 
    Name one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field.
    • A. 

      Allergy/Immunization Technician

    • B. 

      Emergency Room Technician

    • C. 

      Neurology Technician

    • D. 

      Vascular Technician

  • 42. 
    Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins
    • A. 

      With meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626

    • B. 

      With meeting the requirements in the Officer Classification Directory and ETCA

    • C. 

      By submitting your last Enlisted Progress Report (EPR) and fitness test score

    • D. 

      By submitting your last achievement medal and quarterly award

  • 43. 
    What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?
    • A. 

      Complete all duty position training requirements

    • B. 

      Qualification training package (QTP) for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements

    • C. 

      Basic Life Support (BLS) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements

    • D. 

      National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements

  • 44. 
    What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?
    • A. 

      Retainability requirements

    • B. 

      Eligibility requirements

    • C. 

      PCS requirements

    • D. 

      PCA requirements

  • 45. 
    What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining?
    • A. 

      Technical training school grade point average

    • B. 

      Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery scores

    • C. 

      Number of achievement medals

    • D. 

      Last three EPRs

  • 46. 
    The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the
    • A. 

      Career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed

    • B. 

      Base force of each AF special experience identifier (SEI) as needed

    • C. 

      Unit force of each AF shredout as needed

    • D. 

      Career force of the AF squadron

  • 47. 
    To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), then click on
    • A. 

      Course list

    • B. 

      My profile

    • C. 

      Administration

    • D. 

      Training records

  • 48. 
    The procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center is performed by clicking
    • A. 

      My profile and editing root and sub organizations

    • B. 

      Administration and editing organizations

    • C. 

      Root and sub organizations

    • D. 

      Sub organizations

  • 49. 
    If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information?
    • A. 

      Base training manager

    • B. 

      Unit training manager

    • C. 

      Unit deployment manager

    • D. 

      Curriculum development manager

  • 50. 
    What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates?
    • A. 

      Master Training List (MTL)

    • B. 

      Master Training Plan (MTP)

    • C. 

      AF 623 Part I

    • D. 

      AF 623 Part II

  • 51. 
    The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the entire training record and
    • A. 

      Qualification Training

    • B. 

      Quarterly Training

    • C. 

      Annual Training

    • D. 

      Initial Training

  • 52. 
    What is the first button trainee's click on to sign off 623a entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)?
    • A. 

      ADMINISTRATOR

    • B. 

      CAC Sign Off

    • C. 

      Lon On ID

    • D. 

      USER

  • 53. 
    What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098?
    • A. 

      Click the SEARCH RECORD button

    • B. 

      Click the USER RECORD button

    • C. 

      Click the My AFTR button

    • D. 

      Click the ADLS

  • 54. 
    What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date?
    • A. 

      Select a task and click the CERTIFIER button

    • B. 

      Select a task and click the TRAINEE button

    • C. 

      Select a task and click the TRAINER button

    • D. 

      Click the UTM button

  • 55. 
    Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items?
    • A. 

      AF Form 794

    • B. 

      AF Form 795

    • C. 

      AF Form 796

    • D. 

      AF Form 797

  • 56. 
    The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps?
    • A. 

      Completion of job evaluations and training

    • B. 

      Completion of task evaluations and training

    • C. 

      Conduct and document completion of task evaluation during training

    • D. 

      Conduct and document completion of Master Training Plan evaluations during training

  • 57. 
    What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File?
    • A. 

      UPLOAD USER FILE

    • B. 

      READ FILE

    • C. 

      ADD FILE

    • D. 

      MENU

  • 58. 
    What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?
    • A. 

      Unit Manpower Document

    • B. 

      Unit Manpower Personnel Record

    • C. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • D. 

      Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System

  • 59. 
    Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Report?
    • A. 

      United States Air Force Medical Service (USAFMS)

    • B. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM)

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Medical group commander

  • 60. 
    Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the workcenter?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      First SGT

    • D. 

      Superintendent

  • 61. 
    When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority?
    • A. 

      Category A

    • B. 

      Category B

    • C. 

      Category C

    • D. 

      Category D

  • 62. 
    What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered?
    • A. 

      Use local guidance only to prepare a duty schedule

    • B. 

      Use all group operating instructions (IO), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule

    • C. 

      Use all squadron OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule

    • D. 

      Use all Air Force Instructions, OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule

  • 63. 
    Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic?
    • A. 

      The noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)

    • B. 

      Nurse managers

    • C. 

      Nurse managers and NCOICs

    • D. 

      Commander, nurse managers, and NCOICs

  • 64. 
    What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic?
    • A. 

      Air Force Instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance

    • B. 

      OI's and local guidance

    • C. 

      Local guidance

    • D. 

      AFI 36-3003

  • 65. 
    What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility?
    • A. 

      Conventional

    • B. 

      Compressed

    • C. 

      Cyclical

    • D. 

      Flextime

  • 66. 
    What type of information can you provide all new personnel on preparation of duty schedules?
    • A. 

      Local policies; chain of command; unit manning document; unit personnel management roster.

    • B. 

      Base policies; chain of command; unit manning document; unit personnel management and recall roster.

    • C. 

      Authority, responsibility, and delegation; length of cycle rotation and direction-forward, backward; accountability; chain of command, unit manning document, unit personnel management and recall roster.

    • D. 

      Authority, responsibility, and delegation; length of cycle rotation and direction-forward, backward; deadlines for postings, guidance for changes and/or exchanging hours; reporting schedule changes.

  • 67. 
    What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule?
    • A. 

      Mobility exercises

    • B. 

      Off-duty employments

    • C. 

      Volunteer charity events

    • D. 

      Dependent spouse conferences

  • 68. 
    Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria?
    • A. 

      Visible and qualitative

    • B. 

      Visible and quantitative

    • C. 

      Qualitative and understood

    • D. 

      Qualitative and quantitative

  • 69. 
    Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Each individual

    • B. 

      Unit supervisor

    • C. 

      Group commander

    • D. 

      Account custodian

  • 70. 
    By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
    • A. 

      Equipment damage and injury to a patient

    • B. 

      Injury to a patient and buying new technology

    • C. 

      Reporting damage and buying new technology

    • D. 

      Reporting damage to the commander and logistics

  • 71. 
    What is the name of the product that is generates through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?
    • A. 

      Backorder report

    • B. 

      Activity issue/turn-in summary

    • C. 

      Custodial actions/custodian report listing

    • D. 

      Medical equipment review and authorization activity

  • 72. 
    What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?
    • A. 

      Accept the item; once an item is ordered you must receive it when it arrives

    • B. 

      Build extra supply inventory; it is always better to have extra supplies on hand

    • C. 

      Tell the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it.

    • D. 

      Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO

  • 73. 
    What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
    • A. 

      Cancel the order

    • B. 

      Complain to the commander

    • C. 

      Wait another 15 days and then follow up

    • D. 

      Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order

  • 74. 
    How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections usually conducted?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 75. 
    What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt only

    • B. 

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing

    • C. 

      Activity issue/turn in summary or backorder report

    • D. 

      Activity issue/turn in summary only

  • 76. 
    Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns?
    • A. 

      District sales and maintenance representative

    • B. 

      Base supply and equipment maintenance

    • C. 

      Biomedical equipment repair technician

    • D. 

      Original equipment manufacturer

  • 77. 
    What are the two primary categories of items that require report of survey (ROS) documentation if lost, damaged, or destroyed?
    • A. 

      Supply system stocks, and property record items

    • B. 

      Supply system stocks and military real property

    • C. 

      Military real property and property record items

    • D. 

      Military real property and military personal property

  • 78. 
    Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-months base pay of
    • A. 

      A person who lost or damaged property

    • B. 

      An accountable officer who through negligence damaged assigned living quarters

    • C. 

      An accountable officer who through willful misconduct damaged assigned living quarters

    • D. 

      An individual who, through negligence or willful misconduct, damaged assigned living quarters

  • 79. 
    A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when
    • A. 

      The dollar value of the lost or damaged property is over $500

    • B. 

      The investigating officer did not perform a thorough job

    • C. 

      The report of survey pertains to lost ammunition

    • D. 

      Financial responsibility is assessed

  • 80. 
    What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment?
    • A. 

      AF From 106

    • B. 

      AF Form 198

    • C. 

      DD Form 362

    • D. 

      DD Form 1131

  • 81. 
    Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
    • A. 

      Telling the truth

    • B. 

      Respect for others

    • C. 

      The duty to do no harm

    • D. 

      Being faithful to do good

  • 82. 
    Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?
    • A. 

      Administrative

    • B. 

      Chaperone

    • C. 

      Supervisory

    • D. 

      Appointing

  • 83. 
    What category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect?
    • A. 

      Patients handling their information

    • B. 

      Anyone handling patient information

    • C. 

      Medical staff handling patient information

    • D. 

      Administrative staff handling patient information

  • 84. 
    For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use
    • A. 

      DOD Regulation 6025, 18-R

    • B. 

      AFJI 44-17

    • C. 

      AFI 41-210

    • D. 

      AFI 33-332

  • 85. 
    Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patients stress?
    • A. 

      Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness

    • B. 

      Remain honest and in control to decrease the patients anxiety

    • C. 

      Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider

    • D. 

      Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patients fear

  • 86. 
    Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online?
    • A. 

      Differentiate between opinion and official information

    • B. 

      No precautions taken wile off-duty

    • C. 

      Obey applicable laws

    • D. 

      Stay in your lane

  • 87. 
    Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?
    • A. 

      Physician-led model

    • B. 

      Nurse-led model

    • C. 

      Air Force-led model

    • D. 

      Team-based model

  • 88. 
    What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Cantered Medical Home (PCMH)?
    • A. 

      Intended for problem solving and updating the teams work plan; daily

    • B. 

      Intended for updating the teams work plan; bi-weekly

    • C. 

      Intended for updating the teams work plan; monthly

    • D. 

      Provides a method to delegate responsibilities and maintain control over assets and resources

  • 89. 
    What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint?
    • A. 

      Lab, X-rays, medication inventory, urgent outpatient category

    • B. 

      Monthly processes to capture lipids and screening tests with updates to patient coding statistics

    • C. 

      Diabetes screening results to determine circulatory health within action lists and patient counts

    • D. 

      Lab screening tests with updates to both action lists and patient counts

  • 90. 
    Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 91. 
    If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization?
    • A. 

      Composite Health Care System

    • B. 

      Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application

    • C. 

      Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System

    • D. 

      Defense Medical Logistics Standard

  • 92. 
    When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patients treatment?
    • A. 

      No care or treatment was accomplished

    • B. 

      There is no follow up care required

    • C. 

      There was no complications

    • D. 

      The outcome was positive

  • 93. 
    What step does a medical technician provide in the workflow process?
    • A. 

      Uses a common Alternative Input Method (TIM) form, and the provider enters data into AHLTA

    • B. 

      Uses Tri-Service Input Method (TIM) form to enter data into AHLTA

    • C. 

      Uses a common AIM form to enter data into AHLTA

    • D. 

      Uses a common AIM for to enter data into CHCS

  • 94. 
    Who starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation?
    • A. 

      The patient signs in and is entered in an encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint

    • B. 

      The med technician completes the encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint

    • C. 

      The provider completes the encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint

    • D. 

      The patient completes the encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint

  • 95. 
    What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9)?
    • A. 

      Not elsewhere classified

    • B. 

      Next event cancelled

    • C. 

      Not elsewhere coded

    • D. 

      New event code

  • 96. 
    When do Preventative Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)?
    • A. 

      When PHA is due within 3 months

    • B. 

      When PHA is due within 6 months

    • C. 

      To indicate a medical board is in-processing

    • D. 

      If individual dental and immunization requirements are due within 60 days

  • 97. 
    When do Preventative Health Assessment (PHA) status turns red and what items may be overdue?
    • A. 

      When patient no-shows for a medical appointment and due for immunizations, PHAs and dental exam

    • B. 

      If scheduled PHA appointment is cancelled without 24 hour notice and due for immunizations and PHA

    • C. 

      Member needs to complete immunizations, PHAs, dental, and deployment health assessments (DHAs). It turns red on day 456

    • D. 

      Member needs to complete medical requirements as soon as possible (immunizations). It turns red on day 455

  • 98. 
    What are the principles of population health management?
    • A. 

      Support the USAF and our nations security interest

    • B. 

      Provide health services for the full range of military deployments

    • C. 

      Provides health services for the full range of peacetime deployments

    • D. 

      Support DOD and our nations security

  • 99. 
    What is the purpose of case management?
    • A. 

      Increase teamwork and cost-effective care

    • B. 

      Promote quality care

    • C. 

      Promote quality, safe, and cost-effective care

    • D. 

      Build trust, improve quality and safe care

  • 100. 
    What is the purpose of utilization management (UM)?
    • A. 

      Evaluate issues that may result in inefficient healthcare delivery or that may have an impact on resources and services

    • B. 

      Monitor and resolve issues that may result in inefficient healthcare delivery or that may have an impact on resources

    • C. 

      Document inefficient healthcare delivery that impact resources and services

    • D. 

      Identify, monitor, evaluate, and resolve issues

  • 101. 
    What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum?
    • A. 

      Posterior

    • B. 

      Superior

    • C. 

      Anterior

    • D. 

      Inferior

  • 102. 
    A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements?
    • A. 

      Circumduction

    • B. 

      Range of motion

    • C. 

      Longitudinal axis

    • D. 

      Axis of joint rotation

  • 103. 
    Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of
    • A. 

      Flexion

    • B. 

      Extension

    • C. 

      Dorsiflexion

    • D. 

      Hyperextension

  • 104. 
    Why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately and legibly?
    • A. 

      Avoid ambiguity and prevent expensive lawsuits

    • B. 

      Avoid the need to re-write notes in a patients medical chart

    • C. 

      Provide inspectors a document that is easy for them to critique

    • D. 

      Provide clear and concise patient information and patient safety

  • 105. 
    You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. How should you document this information correctly?
    • A. 

      Patient complains of blurred vision-OD

    • B. 

      Patient complains of blurred vision-AD

    • C. 

      Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye

    • D. 

      The technician informs the provider, but does not document

  • 106. 
    You would not find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell?
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Centrosomes

    • C. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • D. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

  • 107. 
    What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction?
    • A. 

      Lysosomes

    • B. 

      Microtubules

    • C. 

      Mitochondria

    • D. 

      Microfilaments

  • 108. 
    What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?
    • A. 

      Ribosomes

    • B. 

      Lysosomes

    • C. 

      Peroxisomes

    • D. 

      Mitochondria

  • 109. 
    Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing?
    • A. 

      Anaphase

    • B. 

      Prophase

    • C. 

      Telophase

    • D. 

      Metaphase

  • 110. 
    The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as
    • A. 

      Interphase

    • B. 

      Metaphase

    • C. 

      Cell differentiation

    • D. 

      Cytoplasmic division

  • 111. 
    What type of tissue is the major component of glands?
    • A. 

      Muscle

    • B. 

      Nervous

    • C. 

      Epithelial

    • D. 

      Connective

  • 112. 
    What type of tissue can change its shape?
    • A. 

      Muscle

    • B. 

      Nervous

    • C. 

      Epithelial

    • D. 

      Connective

  • 113. 
    Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?
    • A. 

      Nervous

    • B. 

      Epithelial

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle

    • D. 

      Cardiac muscle

  • 114. 
    Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the
    • A. 

      Iris

    • B. 

      Sclera

    • C. 

      Macula

    • D. 

      Conjunctiva

  • 115. 
    What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?
    • A. 

      Rods

    • B. 

      Cones

    • C. 

      Anterior portion of the iris

    • D. 

      Posterior portion of the iris

  • 116. 
    What nerve is the pathway to vision?
    • A. 

      Posterior

    • B. 

      Anterior

    • C. 

      Sclera

    • D. 

      Optic

  • 117. 
    What substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape?
    • A. 

      Tears

    • B. 

      Ciliary

    • C. 

      Aqueous humor

    • D. 

      Vitreous humor

  • 118. 
    The auditory ossicles are located in the
    • A. 

      Cochlea

    • B. 

      Inner ear

    • C. 

      Middle ear

    • D. 

      Semicircular canals

  • 119. 
    In the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the
    • A. 

      Pinna

    • B. 

      Cochlea

    • C. 

      Malleus

    • D. 

      Organ of corti

  • 120. 
    Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?
    • A. 

      Olfactory bulb

    • B. 

      Middle meatus

    • C. 

      Anterior meatus

    • D. 

      Olfactory receptor

  • 121. 
    Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?
    • A. 

      Seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them

    • B. 

      Six primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them

    • C. 

      Five primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them

    • D. 

      Four primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them

  • 122. 
    What are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity?
    • A. 

      Cilia

    • B. 

      Nasal cavity

    • C. 

      Cribiform plate

    • D. 

      Olfactory bulbs

  • 123. 
    The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the
    • A. 

      Stratum basale

    • B. 

      Stratum corneum

    • C. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • D. 

      Stratum granulosum

  • 124. 
    The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called
    • A. 

      Nail plate

    • B. 

      Dermis

    • C. 

      Lunula

    • D. 

      Nail bed

  • 125. 
    What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?
    • A. 

      Sebum

    • B. 

      Sweat

    • C. 

      Follicle

    • D. 

      Adipose

  • 126. 
    In which function of the integumentary system would blood vessels constrict?
    • A. 

      Body protection

    • B. 

      Body temperature regulation

    • C. 

      External physical characteristics

    • D. 

      Excess internal water lost prevention

  • 127. 
    Pigmentation is attributed to
    • A. 

      Melanin

    • B. 

      Dermal cells

    • C. 

      Subcutaneous cells

    • D. 

      Sebaceous gland secretion

  • 128. 
    Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?
    • A. 

      Bone ends

    • B. 

      Sesamoid bones

    • C. 

      Medullary bones

    • D. 

      Outermost portion of the bone

  • 129. 
    Where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone?
    • A. 

      Articular

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Cancellous bone

    • D. 

      Medullary cavity

  • 130. 
    What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?
    • A. 

      Long

    • B. 

      Short

    • C. 

      Irregular

    • D. 

      Sesamoid

  • 131. 
    What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?
    • A. 

      Patella

    • B. 

      Fibula

    • C. 

      Femur

    • D. 

      Tibia

  • 132. 
    What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?
    • A. 

      Voluntary; striated

    • B. 

      Involuntary; striated

    • C. 

      Voluntary; nonstriated

    • D. 

      Involuntary; nonstriated

  • 133. 
    The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the
    • A. 

      Fascia

    • B. 

      Tendon

    • C. 

      Perimysium

    • D. 

      Endomysium

  • 134. 
    What attaches skeletal muscle to the bone?
    • A. 

      Tendons

    • B. 

      Ligaments

    • C. 

      Aponeuroses

    • D. 

      Visceral muscles

  • 135. 
    What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula?
    • A. 

      Condyloid

    • B. 

      Gomphosis

    • C. 

      Sydesmosis

    • D. 

      Synchondrosis

  • 136. 
    What type of joint connects the sternum and first rib?
    • A. 

      Condyloid

    • B. 

      Gomphosis

    • C. 

      Syndesmosis

    • D. 

      Synchondrosis

  • 137. 
    What fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint?
    • A. 

      Gomphosis

    • B. 

      Synovial

    • C. 

      Mucosal

    • D. 

      Blood

  • 138. 
    What is the process that forms blood calls called?
    • A. 

      Hematopoiesis

    • B. 

      Hemoptosis

    • C. 

      Erythrocyte

    • D. 

      Thrombocytes

  • 139. 
    The valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the
    • A. 

      Aortic valve

    • B. 

      Mitral valve

    • C. 

      Tricuspid valve

    • D. 

      Pulmonary valve

  • 140. 
    What is the term for the thick muscular portion of the heart?
    • A. 

      Septum

    • B. 

      Pericardium

    • C. 

      Myocardium

    • D. 

      Endocardium

  • 141. 
    What is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle?
    • A. 

      Aortic

    • B. 

      Mitral

    • C. 

      Tricuspid

    • D. 

      Pulmonary

  • 142. 
    What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?
    • A. 

      Plasma

    • B. 

      Platelets

    • C. 

      Leukocytes

    • D. 

      Erythrocytes

  • 143. 
    The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the
    • A. 

      Pulse pressure

    • B. 

      Residual pressure

    • C. 

      Systolic blood pressure

    • D. 

      Diastolic blood pressure

  • 144. 
    Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the
    • A. 

      Aorta

    • B. 

      Pulmonary vein

    • C. 

      Pulmonary artery

    • D. 

      Right subclavian vein

  • 145. 
    What vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body?
    • A. 

      Capillaries

    • B. 

      Pulmonary vein

    • C. 

      Superior vena cava

    • D. 

      Inferior vena cava

  • 146. 
    What is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood?
    • A. 

      Aorta

    • B. 

      Pulmonary

    • C. 

      Superior vena cava

    • D. 

      Inferior vena cava

  • 147. 
    Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called
    • A. 

      Lymphatic ducts

    • B. 

      Lymphatic capillaries

    • C. 

      Afferent lymphatic vessels

    • D. 

      Efferent lymphatic vessels

  • 148. 
    What is the largest lymphatic organ?
    • A. 

      Heart

    • B. 

      Spleen

    • C. 

      Thymus

    • D. 

      Right lymphatic duct

  • 149. 
    What part of the lymph system acts as the filter?
    • A. 

      Capillaries

    • B. 

      Vessels

    • C. 

      Nodes

    • D. 

      Ducts

  • 150. 
    What are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes?
    • A. 

      Thymus and spleen

    • B. 

      Lymph ducts and trunks

    • C. 

      Afferent and efferent vessels

    • D. 

      Lymphocytes and macrophages

  • 151. 
    Where does lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty?
    • A. 

      Aorta

    • B. 

      Left ventricle

    • C. 

      Left subclavian vein

    • D. 

      Right subclavian vein

  • 152. 
    Once excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries, it is known as
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Lymph

    • C. 

      Plasma

    • D. 

      Body fluid

  • 153. 
    The superior portion of the pharynx that contains the Eustachian tubes is the
    • A. 

      Adenoid

    • B. 

      Oropharynx

    • C. 

      Nasopharynx

    • D. 

      Laryngopharynx

  • 154. 
    The larynx is composed of how many cartilages?
    • A. 

      Two single cartilages

    • B. 

      Three single cartilages

    • C. 

      Two single and two paired cartilages

    • D. 

      Three single and three paired cartilages

  • 155. 
    What part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage?
    • A. 

      Larynx

    • B. 

      Trachea

    • C. 

      Pharynx

    • D. 

      Esophagus

  • 156. 
    During inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move
    • A. 

      Back and slightly upward

    • B. 

      Back and slightly downward

    • C. 

      Forward and slightly upward

    • D. 

      Forward and slightly downward

  • 157. 
    The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the strongest possible exhalation is known as
    • A. 

      Tidal air

    • B. 

      Residual air

    • C. 

      Vital capacity

    • D. 

      Expiratory reserve

  • 158. 
    The small spaces between the neurons are called the
    • A. 

      Axons

    • B. 

      Synapses

    • C. 

      Nerve cells

    • D. 

      Trigger zones

  • 159. 
    What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other?
    • A. 

      Bipolar

    • B. 

      Sensory

    • C. 

      Multipolar

    • D. 

      Interneuron

  • 160. 
    What is the primary function of the cerebellum other than coordinating muscular movements?
    • A. 

      Interpret sensations

    • B. 

      Govern all conscious functions

    • C. 

      Control activity of the brain itself

    • D. 

      Control heartbeat and blood pressure

  • 161. 
    The part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Midbrain

    • C. 

      Cerebrum

    • D. 

      Medulla oblongata

  • 162. 
    What is one of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum?
    • A. 

      Storing knowledge

    • B. 

      Control of the brain

    • C. 

      Control of vision and hearing

    • D. 

      Coordination of muscle movement

  • 163. 
    What is the name of the largest intersection of interlaced spinal nerves?
    • A. 

      Trigeminal

    • B. 

      Autonomic

    • C. 

      Brachial

    • D. 

      Plexus

  • 164. 
    What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?
    • A. 

      Optic

    • B. 

      Facial

    • C. 

      Trigeminal

    • D. 

      Oculomotor

  • 165. 
    What cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus eye muscle?
    • A. 

      Vagus

    • B. 

      Facial

    • C. 

      Trochlear

    • D. 

      Abducent

  • 166. 
    The "fight-or-flight" reaction is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Cerebrum

    • B. 

      Meninges

    • C. 

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • D. 

      Parasympathetic nervous system

  • 167. 
    What part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for the involuntary body functions?
    • A. 

      Somatic

    • B. 

      Cerebrum

    • C. 

      Autonomic

    • D. 

      Spinal cord

  • 168. 
    The layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the
    • A. 

      Serous

    • B. 

      Muscular

    • C. 

      Submucosa

    • D. 

      Mucous membrane

  • 169. 
    The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the
    • A. 

      Colon

    • B. 

      Cecum

    • C. 

      Jejunum

    • D. 

      Pyloric region

  • 170. 
    What is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth?
    • A. 

      Septum

    • B. 

      Papillae

    • C. 

      Frenulum

    • D. 

      Gastric gland

  • 171. 
    What is the difference in the number of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will develop?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      16

  • 172. 
    Where will undigested chime go after leaving the ileum?
    • A. 

      Colon

    • B. 

      Cecum

    • C. 

      Anal canal

    • D. 

      Duodenum

  • 173. 
    Which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body?
    • A. 

      Ileum

    • B. 

      Colon

    • C. 

      Duodenum

    • D. 

      Small intestines

  • 174. 
    What liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder?
    • A. 

      Bile

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Saliva

    • D. 

      Chyme

  • 175. 
    Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the
    • A. 

      Thoracic to the lumbar spinal region

    • B. 

      Thoracic to the coccyx spinal region

    • C. 

      Lumbar to the coccyx spinal region

    • D. 

      Lumbar to the sacrum spinal region

  • 176. 
    Approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney?
    • A. 

      10,000

    • B. 

      500,000

    • C. 

      1 million

    • D. 

      2 million

  • 177. 
    How many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30-year old male?
    • A. 

      Four

    • B. 

      Six

    • C. 

      Eight

    • D. 

      Ten

  • 178. 
    Backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by
    • A. 

      Conscious control

    • B. 

      The internal sphincter

    • C. 

      The external sphincter

    • D. 

      A flap of mucous membrane

  • 179. 
    The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately how many milliliters of urine?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      250

    • C. 

      500

    • D. 

      600

  • 180. 
    What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations?
    • A. 

      Ureter

    • B. 

      Cortex

    • C. 

      Nephron

    • D. 

      External sphincter

  • 181. 
    The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of
    • A. 

      Adipose tissue

    • B. 

      Seminal muscle

    • C. 

      Connective tissue

    • D. 

      Seminiferous muscle

  • 182. 
    What is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body?
    • A. 

      Urethra

    • B. 

      Epididymis

    • C. 

      Ejaculatory duct

    • D. 

      Seminal vesicles

  • 183. 
    Growth of body hair on a male is a
    • A. 

      Primary sex characteristic

    • B. 

      Secondary sex characteristic

    • C. 

      Primary function of the pituitary gland

    • D. 

      Secondary function of the pituitary gland

  • 184. 
    Where are sperm calls produced?
    • A. 

      Testes

    • B. 

      Semen

    • C. 

      Epididymis

    • D. 

      Ejaculatory duct

  • 185. 
    Fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the
    • A. 

      Testes

    • B. 

      Epididymis

    • C. 

      Prostate gland

    • D. 

      Ejaculatory duct

  • 186. 
    The lower third of the uterus is called the
    • A. 

      Vestibule

    • B. 

      Fundus

    • C. 

      Cervix

    • D. 

      Body

  • 187. 
    What happens to the ovum after a sperm fertilizes it?
    • A. 

      Travels to the uterus and attaches to the endometrium

    • B. 

      Remains in the ovaries then travels to the perimetrium

    • C. 

      Travels to the uterus and attaches to the myometrium

    • D. 

      Remains in the ovaries then attaches to the prometrium

  • 188. 
    The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when
    • A. 

      Fertilization occurs

    • B. 

      An ovum travels through the fallopian tube

    • C. 

      An ovum is released from one of the ovaries

    • D. 

      Blood flows from the uterus through the vagina

  • 189. 
    What is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached?
    • A. 

      Ova

    • B. 

      Menses

    • C. 

      Estrogen

    • D. 

      Menarche

  • 190. 
    The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called the
    • A. 

      Islets of Langerhans

    • B. 

      Cortes and medulla

    • C. 

      Stomatotropin and thyrotropin

    • D. 

      Anterior lobe and the posterior lobe

  • 191. 
    Which organ secrets the adrenocorticotropic hormone?
    • A. 

      Thyroid gland

    • B. 

      Adrenal cortex

    • C. 

      Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

    • D. 

      Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland

  • 192. 
    Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones?
    • A. 

      Thyroxine

    • B. 

      Aldosterone

    • C. 

      Triiodothyronine

    • D. 

      Thyroid stimulating

  • 193. 
    What makes up the majority of the adrenal gland?
    • A. 

      Pituitary

    • B. 

      Parathyroid

    • C. 

      Adrenal cortex

    • D. 

      Adrenal medulla

  • 194. 
    What hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla has little effect on the blood suger level?
    • A. 

      Antidiuretic

    • B. 

      Somatropin

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine

  • 195. 
    Which hormone would you expect the Islets of Langerhans to secrete?
    • A. 

      Insulin

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Aldosterone

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine