CDC A4N051 : Emergency care And Transportation Of The Sick And Injured! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/195 Questions

    Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

    • The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy
    • An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind
    • An automotive designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure
    • A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
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About This Quiz

Below is a CDC A4n051: Emergency CARE and Transportation of the Sick and Injured! quiz. It is a perfect test to see how skilled you are when it comes to emergencies where you have to take people out of a scene. Think you know enough to get the top marks? Do give the quiz a try and get to find out for sure.

CDC A4N051 : Emergency care And Transportation Of The Sick And Injured! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available?

    • Significantly increase

    • Significantly decrease

    • Increased by only 10 percent

    • Decreased by only 10 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. Significantly increase
    Explanation
    When aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available, casualty survival rates significantly increase. This is because AE allows for the rapid and efficient transportation of injured individuals to medical facilities where they can receive specialized and timely care. AE units are equipped with medical personnel and equipment to provide critical care during transportation, further enhancing the chances of survival for casualties. By reducing the time it takes for injured individuals to reach medical care and providing immediate treatment, AE plays a crucial role in improving casualty survival rates.

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  • 3. 

    Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds?

    • EMEDS Basic

    • EMEDS +10

    • EMEDS +25

    • All EMEDS have inpatient beds

    Correct Answer
    A. EMEDS Basic
    Explanation
    EMEDS Basic is the correct answer because it is the only option that states that it has no inpatient beds. The other options, EMEDS +10 and EMEDS +25, do not mention anything about inpatient beds. The last option, "All EMEDS have inpatient beds," is incorrect because EMEDS Basic specifically does not have inpatient beds.

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  • 4. 

    Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?

    • Mental Health personnel and the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) commander

    • Aerospace Medical Specialist and the AEF or EMEDS commander

    • Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training

    • The AEF or EMEDS commanders and Aerospace Medical Specialist with additional training

    Correct Answer
    A. Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training
    Explanation
    Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training are qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD). This suggests that both individuals have the necessary expertise and knowledge to effectively address and manage the psychological impact of a critical incident on individuals involved. The additional training likely enhances their skills and understanding of the specific needs and challenges related to critical incident stress debriefing.

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  • 5. 

    Why is it required for a 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?

    • Maintain skills

    • Prevent lawsuits

    • Ensure promotion

    • To complete formal training course

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintain skills
    Explanation
    It is required for a 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training in order to maintain their skills. This training ensures that they stay updated with the latest techniques and knowledge in their field, allowing them to provide high-quality care and support to patients. By continuously refreshing their skills, they can stay competent and confident in their role, ensuring the best possible outcomes for their patients.

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  • 6. 

    What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?

    • During shift change

    • On training days

    • In the afternoons

    • In the morning

    Correct Answer
    A. On training days
    Explanation
    The best timeframe to conduct inservice training within your unit is on training days. This is because on these specific days, the entire unit is already prepared and available for training. It ensures that all members of the unit can participate without any scheduling conflicts or disruptions to their regular duties. Additionally, conducting inservice training on training days allows for a focused and dedicated time for learning and skill development, maximizing the effectiveness of the training session.

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  • 7. 

    The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline?

    • Patient treatment plans

    • Patient treatment milestones

    • Training milestones for enlisted within the assigned area

    • Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area

    Correct Answer
    A. Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area
    Explanation
    The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area. This means that the MTP serves as a roadmap for setting and achieving training objectives for enlisted personnel in a specific area. It helps to establish clear goals and milestones that can be used to track progress and ensure that training is aligned with organizational objectives. By using the MTP, commanders and training managers can effectively plan and manage the training of enlisted personnel, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties.

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  • 8. 

    Your first step for creating and editing a Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select which option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?

    • Edit MTP

    • View MTP

    • Delete MTP

    • Create/Edit MTP

    Correct Answer
    A. Create/Edit MTP
    Explanation
    To create and edit a Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the option "Create/Edit MTP" from the AFTR Data/MTP menu. This option allows you to create a new MTP or make changes to an existing one. By selecting this option, you can access the necessary tools and features to develop and modify your MTP according to your training needs and requirements.

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  • 9. 

    The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the

    • Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu

    • Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty menu

    • AFTR Data/Duty Position menu

    • AFTR Duty Position menu

    Correct Answer
    A. Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to select the Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu. This is the first step because it allows the user to access the specific menu where they can create or edit the Duty Task List (DTL) in their Air Force Training Record (AFTR). By selecting this option, the user will be able to proceed with creating or editing the DTL as needed.

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  • 10. 

    Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?

    • Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) tasks

    • No other factors are considered

    • AEF tasks and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements

    • Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements. This means that in addition to AEF tasks, there are other factors such as deployment requirements and other factors that contribute to the need for training. These additional factors could include operational demands, resource availability, specific job requirements, and organizational goals. By considering all these factors, a comprehensive training plan can be developed to ensure that the training meets the specific needs of the organization and its personnel.

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  • 11. 

    The total training program leads to

    • Lower pay levels

    • Higher pay levels

    • Higher skill level

    • Promotion

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher skill level
    Explanation
    The total training program leads to a higher skill level because training programs are designed to enhance an individual's knowledge and abilities in a specific area. By participating in a comprehensive training program, individuals acquire new skills and improve existing ones, which in turn increases their overall skill level. This can lead to better job prospects, increased job performance, and potentially higher pay levels in the long run.

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  • 12. 

    Each time and Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base or work center), the supervisor must perform

    • A re-evaluation

    • And initial evaluation

    • An Enlisted Progress Report (EPR)

    • An Annual Progress Report (APR)

    Correct Answer
    A. And initial evaluation
    Explanation
    When an Airman changes duty positions, the supervisor must perform an initial evaluation. This is necessary to assess the Airman's skills, knowledge, and performance in their new role. The initial evaluation helps the supervisor understand the Airman's strengths and areas for improvement, and it serves as a basis for setting performance expectations and goals. Unlike a re-evaluation, which may be conducted periodically to track progress, the initial evaluation is conducted when the Airman first assumes the new position.

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  • 13. 

    What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?

    • Complete all duty position training requirements

    • Qualification training package (QTP) for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements

    • Basic Life Support (BLS) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements

    • National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements
    Explanation
    To apply for a technical training instructor position, one must complete the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification, as well as the Qualification Training Packages (QTPs) for the assigned position. Additionally, they must fulfill all duty position training requirements. This implies that having the NREMT certification and completing the QTPs are mandatory qualifications for this role, along with meeting all duty position training requirements.

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  • 14. 

    When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority?

    • Category A

    • Category B

    • Category C

    • Category D

    Correct Answer
    A. Category A
    Explanation
    Category A is used to assign an urgent priority when setting priorities. This category is likely designated for tasks or issues that require immediate attention and cannot be delayed. It signifies the highest level of urgency and importance, indicating that prompt action is necessary.

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  • 15. 

    What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

    • Cancel the order

    • Complain to the commander

    • Wait another 15 days and then follow up

    • Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order

    Correct Answer
    A. Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order
    Explanation
    If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, it would be appropriate to ask the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order. This is because they are responsible for managing the medical equipment and would have the necessary information and resources to investigate the status of the backordered item. Cancelling the order or complaining to the commander may not be the most effective solutions, as they do not directly address the issue of the backorder. Waiting another 15 days and then following up may result in further delay and uncertainty.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

    • Telling the truth

    • Respect for others

    • The duty to do no harm

    • Being faithful to do good

    Correct Answer
    A. The duty to do no harm
    Explanation
    Nonmaleficence is a principle in medical ethics that emphasizes the obligation of healthcare professionals to avoid causing harm to their patients. It involves refraining from actions that could potentially harm the patient or worsen their condition. The duty to do no harm is a fundamental aspect of medical practice, highlighting the importance of prioritizing the well-being and safety of patients above all else.

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  • 17. 

    Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patients stress?

    • Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness

    • Remain honest and in control to decrease the patients anxiety

    • Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider

    • Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patients fear

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patients anxiety
    Explanation
    Remaining honest and in control is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress. Being honest with the patient about their condition, treatment, and prognosis can help alleviate anxiety and build trust. It shows that the healthcare provider is transparent and trustworthy. Additionally, remaining in control and providing a calm and reassuring presence can help the patient feel more at ease and reduce their anxiety levels.

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  • 18. 

    What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Cantered Medical Home (PCMH)?

    • Intended for problem solving and updating the teams work plan; daily

    • Intended for updating the teams work plan; bi-weekly

    • Intended for updating the teams work plan; monthly

    • Provides a method to delegate responsibilities and maintain control over assets and resources

    Correct Answer
    A. Intended for problem solving and updating the teams work plan; daily
    Explanation
    Team huddles in a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) are intended for problem solving and updating the team's work plan on a daily basis. These huddles provide an opportunity for the team to discuss any issues or challenges they are facing and come up with solutions together. They also allow the team to update their work plan and make any necessary adjustments based on the current needs of the patients. By having daily huddles, the team can stay proactive and address any issues in a timely manner, ensuring that patient care is effectively coordinated and delivered.

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  • 19. 

    What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?

    • Ribosomes

    • Lysosomes

    • Peroxisomes

    • Mitochondria

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitochondria
    Explanation
    Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they are responsible for producing the majority of the cell's energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through a process called cellular respiration. Mitochondria have their own DNA and are believed to have originated from ancient bacteria that formed a symbiotic relationship with eukaryotic cells. They have a double membrane and contain their own ribosomes, which are involved in protein synthesis. Therefore, mitochondria are the primary source of cellular energy.

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  • 20. 

    What nerve is the pathway to vision?

    • Posterior

    • Anterior

    • Sclera

    • Optic

    Correct Answer
    A. Optic
    Explanation
    The optic nerve is the pathway to vision. It carries visual information from the eyes to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli.

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  • 21. 

    What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?

    • Patella

    • Fibula

    • Femur

    • Tibia

    Correct Answer
    A. Patella
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Patella. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a triangular-shaped bone that sits over the anterior portion of the knee joint. It helps to protect the knee joint and provides leverage for the muscles of the thigh to extend the leg.

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  • 22. 

    What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?

    • Plasma

    • Platelets

    • Leukocytes

    • Erythrocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelets
    Explanation
    Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in blood. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of injury to prevent excessive bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. This clotting process is essential for wound healing and preventing blood loss. Plasma is the liquid component of blood, while leukocytes (white blood cells) and erythrocytes (red blood cells) do not have a direct role in clotting.

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  • 23. 

    What is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached?

    • Ova

    • Menses

    • Estrogen

    • Menarche

    Correct Answer
    A. Menarche
    Explanation
    Menarche is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached. It is the onset of menstruation in females, marking the beginning of their reproductive years. Menarche is a significant milestone in a girl's life, indicating the maturation of her reproductive system and the ability to conceive.

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  • 24. 

    What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25?

    • 32

    • 51

    • 86

    • 94

    Correct Answer
    A. 86
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 86. This means that there are a total of 86 personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25.

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  • 25. 

    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?

    • 4N000

    • 4N031

    • N051

    • 4N071

    Correct Answer
    A. 4N000
  • 26. 

    What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining?

    • Technical training school grade point average

    • Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery scores

    • Number of achievement medals

    • Last three EPRs

    Correct Answer
    A. Last three EPRs
    Explanation
    The Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board uses the last three EPRs (Enlisted Performance Reports) as one criterion to rank Airmen applying for retraining. EPRs provide a comprehensive evaluation of an Airman's performance, including their accomplishments, skills, and potential. By reviewing the last three EPRs, the QRP board can assess an Airman's past performance and determine their suitability for retraining opportunities.

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  • 27. 

    What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date?

    • Select a task and click the CERTIFIER button

    • Select a task and click the TRAINEE button

    • Select a task and click the TRAINER button

    • Click the UTM button

    Correct Answer
    A. Select a task and click the TRAINEE button
    Explanation
    Trainees first need to select a task and then click the TRAINEE button in order to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS), even if the task already has a start date.

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  • 28. 

    What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered?

    • Use local guidance only to prepare a duty schedule

    • Use all group operating instructions (IO), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule

    • Use all squadron OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule

    • Use all Air Force Instructions, OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule

    Correct Answer
    A. Use all Air Force Instructions, OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule
    Explanation
    The scheduler within a unit or clinic is responsible for ensuring that all shifts are adequately covered. To fulfill this responsibility, they should refer to all Air Force Instructions, OIs (Operating Instructions), and local guidance when preparing a duty schedule. This ensures that they are following the standardized procedures and guidelines set by the Air Force, as well as any specific instructions or policies established within their unit or clinic. By utilizing all available sources of guidance, the scheduler can effectively create a duty schedule that meets all requirements and ensures adequate coverage for all shifts.

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  • 29. 

    Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria?

    • Visible and qualitative

    • Visible and quantitative

    • Qualitative and understood

    • Qualitative and quantitative

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualitative and quantitative
    Explanation
    Performance can be evaluated based on two types of criteria: qualitative and quantitative. Qualitative criteria involve subjective measures, such as the overall quality, user satisfaction, or the perception of the performance. On the other hand, quantitative criteria involve objective measures that can be expressed numerically, such as response time, throughput, or error rate. By considering both qualitative and quantitative criteria, a comprehensive assessment of performance can be made, taking into account both subjective and objective aspects.

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  • 30. 

    Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?

    • Each individual

    • Unit supervisor

    • Group commander

    • Account custodian

    Correct Answer
    A. Each individual
    Explanation
    Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility is not limited to any specific rank or position, but applies to each individual within the organization. By holding each individual accountable, the Air Force aims to ensure the proper stewardship of public property and promote a culture of responsibility and accountability within its ranks.

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  • 31. 

    What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

    • Accept the item; once an item is ordered you must receive it when it arrives

    • Build extra supply inventory; it is always better to have extra supplies on hand

    • Tell the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it.

    • Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO

    Correct Answer
    A. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO
    Explanation
    The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through MEMO if a backorder item is no longer needed. This implies that the custodian should inform the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) about the situation and request the cancellation of the order. This is the most appropriate action to take in order to prevent unnecessary items from being received and to avoid any potential financial obligations.

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  • 32. 

    Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns?

    • District sales and maintenance representative

    • Base supply and equipment maintenance

    • Biomedical equipment repair technician

    • Original equipment manufacturer

    Correct Answer
    A. Biomedical equipment repair technician
    Explanation
    To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment and are knowledgeable about the specific procedures and policies related to the equipment. They would have the most up-to-date information and would be able to provide guidance and assistance in resolving any problems or concerns with the equipment.

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  • 33. 

    Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

    • Administrative

    • Chaperone

    • Supervisory

    • Appointing

    Correct Answer
    A. Chaperone
    Explanation
    Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient. This policy is specifically related to the responsibility of a chaperone. A chaperone is a third party who is present during a medical examination or treatment to ensure the safety and comfort of the patient and to provide support to the healthcare provider. The presence of a chaperone helps to maintain professionalism, prevent any potential misconduct, and protect both the patient and the provider.

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  • 34. 

    When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patients treatment?

    • No care or treatment was accomplished

    • There is no follow up care required

    • There was no complications

    • The outcome was positive

    Correct Answer
    A. No care or treatment was accomplished
    Explanation
    If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is crucial in healthcare as it serves as evidence of the care provided to the patient. Without proper documentation, it is difficult to track and monitor the patient's progress, ensure continuity of care, and communicate effectively among healthcare professionals. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was performed for the patient.

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  • 35. 

    Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of

    • Flexion

    • Extension

    • Dorsiflexion

    • Hyperextension

    Correct Answer
    A. Flexion
    Explanation
    Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of flexion. Flexion refers to the movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. In this case, bending the elbow decreases the angle between the forearm and the upper arm.

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  • 36. 

    Why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately and legibly?

    • Avoid ambiguity and prevent expensive lawsuits

    • Avoid the need to re-write notes in a patients medical chart

    • Provide inspectors a document that is easy for them to critique

    • Provide clear and concise patient information and patient safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide clear and concise patient information and patient safety
    Explanation
    It is important to ensure that medical abbreviations, documentation, and terminology are written accurately and legibly in order to provide clear and concise patient information and ensure patient safety. Accurate and legible documentation helps healthcare professionals understand the patient's condition, medical history, and treatment plan, allowing them to make informed decisions and provide appropriate care. It also helps prevent errors and misunderstandings that can lead to adverse events or harm to the patient. By ensuring clarity and accuracy in medical documentation, healthcare providers can effectively communicate and collaborate, leading to improved patient outcomes.

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  • 37. 

    Pigmentation is attributed to

    • Melanin

    • Dermal cells

    • Subcutaneous cells

    • Sebaceous gland secretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Melanin
    Explanation
    Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It helps protect the skin from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation by absorbing and scattering the UV rays. The amount and type of melanin produced by melanocytes determine the color and shade of an individual's skin.

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  • 38. 

    What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?

    • Optic

    • Facial

    • Trigeminal

    • Oculomotor

    Correct Answer
    A. Optic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Optic. The optic nerve is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain, allowing us to perceive the sensation of sight. The optic nerve carries signals from the eye to the visual cortex in the brain, where the information is processed and interpreted, resulting in our ability to see and perceive the world around us. The other cranial nerves listed (Facial, Trigeminal, and Oculomotor) are not directly involved in the sensation of sight.

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  • 39. 

    What part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for the involuntary body functions?

    • Somatic

    • Cerebrum

    • Autonomic

    • Spinal cord

    Correct Answer
    A. Autonomic
    Explanation
    The autonomic nervous system is responsible for controlling the involuntary functions of the body. It regulates activities such as heart rate, digestion, breathing, and glandular secretion. Unlike the somatic nervous system, which controls voluntary movements, the autonomic nervous system operates automatically and without conscious control. The cerebrum is responsible for higher cognitive functions, while the spinal cord is involved in relaying sensory and motor signals between the brain and the rest of the body. Therefore, the autonomic nervous system is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 40. 

    What is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body?

    • Urethra

    • Epididymis

    • Ejaculatory duct

    • Seminal vesicles

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethra
    Explanation
    The tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body is called the urethra. It is responsible for the passage of urine from the bladder out of the body. The other options listed are not correct because they are associated with the male reproductive system, not the urinary system. The epididymis is a coiled tube located on the back of each testicle, the ejaculatory duct is a tube that connects the vas deferens to the urethra, and the seminal vesicles are glands that produce seminal fluid.

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  • 41. 

    The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the

    • Career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed

    • Base force of each AF special experience identifier (SEI) as needed

    • Unit force of each AF shredout as needed

    • Career force of the AF squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed. This means that the overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to ensure that there is a balance in the workforce for each AFSC. This is important because it allows the Air Force to have the necessary skills and expertise in each specialty area to effectively carry out its mission. By retraining individuals and strategically managing the career force, the Air Force can ensure that it has the right personnel in the right positions to meet its operational needs.

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  • 42. 

    What fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint?

    • Gomphosis

    • Synovial

    • Mucosal

    • Blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Synovial
    Explanation
    Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps reduce friction between the bones, allowing smooth movement, and also provides essential nutrients to the cartilage, which lacks its own blood supply. This fluid is produced by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint cavity, and plays a crucial role in maintaining joint health and function.

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  • 43. 

    If training is effective, what should trainees remember?

    • The requirements to successfully complete the job

    • Advanced requirements to complete the job

    • 50% of their training information

    • 80% of their training information

    Correct Answer
    A. The requirements to successfully complete the job
    Explanation
    If training is effective, trainees should remember the requirements to successfully complete the job. This implies that the training has successfully provided them with the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their job tasks. Remembering the requirements ensures that trainees can apply what they have learned during the training and perform their job effectively.

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  • 44. 

    Name one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field.

    • Allergy/Immunization Technician

    • Emergency Room Technician

    • Neurology Technician

    • Vascular Technician

    Correct Answer
    A. Neurology Technician
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Neurology Technician. In the 4N0X1 career field, one of the three shredouts is the Neurology Technician. This means that individuals in this career field can specialize and work specifically in the field of neurology. They may be responsible for assisting with neurological procedures, conducting tests and assessments related to the nervous system, and providing care and support to patients with neurological conditions.

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  • 45. 

    What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?

    • Retainability requirements

    • Eligibility requirements

    • PCS requirements

    • PCA requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Eligibility requirements
    Explanation
    Before applying for retraining, you must meet the eligibility requirements. These requirements are the necessary qualifications or criteria that an individual must possess in order to be considered eligible for the retraining program. Meeting these requirements ensures that the individual meets the necessary prerequisites and has the qualifications needed to successfully participate in the retraining program.

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  • 46. 

    What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility?

    • Conventional

    • Compressed

    • Cyclical

    • Flextime

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyclical
    Explanation
    A cyclical duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility. This type of schedule typically involves employees working in a fixed pattern or cycle, such as rotating between day and night shifts or between different departments. Unlike other schedules like conventional or compressed, which may offer more flexibility in terms of shift lengths or start times, a cyclical schedule is more rigid and predictable. This lack of flexibility can make it challenging for employees to accommodate personal needs or preferences, as they are bound to the predetermined rotation.

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  • 47. 

    What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule?

    • Mobility exercises

    • Off-duty employments

    • Volunteer charity events

    • Dependent spouse conferences

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobility exercises
    Explanation
    When making a schedule, it is important to keep in mind mandatory formations such as mobility exercises. These exercises are crucial for maintaining physical fitness and ensuring readiness for duty. By including mobility exercises in the schedule, individuals can prioritize their health and well-being, which ultimately contributes to their overall performance and effectiveness in their roles.

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  • 48. 

    By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent?

    • Equipment damage and injury to a patient

    • Injury to a patient and buying new technology

    • Reporting damage and buying new technology

    • Reporting damage to the commander and logistics

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment damage and injury to a patient
    Explanation
    By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of accidents or mishandling that could lead to damage or harm to a patient.

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  • 49. 

    Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) quarterly. This means that the MTF receives updated enrollment information every three months. This frequency allows the MTF to have the most up-to-date information about the enrolled individuals, ensuring that they receive the appropriate medical care and benefits.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 17, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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