CDC A4N051 : Emergency care And Transportation Of The Sick And Injured! Trivia Quiz

195 Questions | Total Attempts: 173

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CDC A4N051 : Emergency care And Transportation Of The Sick And Injured! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Below is a CDC A4n051: Emergency CARE and Transportation of the Sick and Injured! quiz. It is a perfect test to see how skilled you are when it comes to emergencies where you have to take people out of a scene. Think you know enough to get the top marks? Do give the quiz a try and get to find out for sure.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their missions?
    • A. 

      AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine

    • B. 

      AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development

    • C. 

      AFDD 2-8, Command and Control

    • D. 

      AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations

  • 2. 
    Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
    • A. 

      Recommends step by step actions

    • B. 

      Directs the actions of the commanders

    • C. 

      Guides commanders in using assets

    • D. 

      Changes faster than Air Force guidance

  • 3. 
    What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
    • A. 

      Basic

    • B. 

      Tactical

    • C. 

      Operational

    • D. 

      Foundational

  • 4. 
    Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
    • A. 

      The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy

    • B. 

      An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind

    • C. 

      An automotive designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure

    • D. 

      A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors

  • 5. 
    What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available?
    • A. 

      Significantly increase

    • B. 

      Significantly decrease

    • C. 

      Increased by only 10 percent

    • D. 

      Decreased by only 10 percent

  • 6. 
    Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds?
    • A. 

      EMEDS Basic

    • B. 

      EMEDS +10

    • C. 

      EMEDS +25

    • D. 

      All EMEDS have inpatient beds

  • 7. 
    Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?
    • A. 

      Mental Health personnel and the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) commander

    • B. 

      Aerospace Medical Specialist and the AEF or EMEDS commander

    • C. 

      Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training

    • D. 

      The AEF or EMEDS commanders and Aerospace Medical Specialist with additional training

  • 8. 
    Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?
    • A. 

      12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support

    • B. 

      12 hours for routine AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support

    • C. 

      24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support

    • D. 

      36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent AE support

  • 9. 
    What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25?
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      51

    • C. 

      86

    • D. 

      94

  • 10. 
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?
    • A. 

      4N000

    • B. 

      4N031

    • C. 

      N051

    • D. 

      4N071

  • 11. 
    Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
    • A. 

      Group superintendent

    • B. 

      Surgeon General

    • C. 

      Air Force Career Field Manager

    • D. 

      Career development course writer

  • 12. 
    What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fifth

  • 13. 
    Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?
    • A. 

      Chief Nurse

    • B. 

      Command Chief

    • C. 

      Career Field Manager

    • D. 

      Medical Group Commander

  • 14. 
    How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?
    • A. 

      Every 6 months

    • B. 

      Annually

    • C. 

      Every 3 years

    • D. 

      Every 5 years

  • 15. 
    Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      3-level

    • D. 

      5-level

  • 16. 
    Why is it required for a 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?
    • A. 

      Maintain skills

    • B. 

      Prevent lawsuits

    • C. 

      Ensure promotion

    • D. 

      To complete formal training course

  • 17. 
    Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) training in what location?
    • A. 

      Stateside base

    • B. 

      Deployed setting

    • C. 

      Reserve duty station

    • D. 

      Air National Guard base

  • 18. 
    What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?
    • A. 

      During shift change

    • B. 

      On training days

    • C. 

      In the afternoons

    • D. 

      In the morning

  • 19. 
    The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline?
    • A. 

      Patient treatment plans

    • B. 

      Patient treatment milestones

    • C. 

      Training milestones for enlisted within the assigned area

    • D. 

      Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area

  • 20. 
    Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the
    • A. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • B. 

      Air Force Training Records (AFTR)

    • C. 

      Specialty Training Standard (STS)

    • D. 

      Master Training Plan (MTP)

  • 21. 
    Your first step for creating and editing a Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select which option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?
    • A. 

      Edit MTP

    • B. 

      View MTP

    • C. 

      Delete MTP

    • D. 

      Create/Edit MTP

  • 22. 
    What is the fourth step in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks?
    • A. 

      The user must enter in a start month, end month, training days, training method, evaluation method, and training aid

    • B. 

      The user must enter in all the fields to complete the MTP information

    • C. 

      The user selects what method will be used for the training on the task

    • D. 

      After confirmation, the user is redirected to the Edit MTP tasks page

  • 23. 
    What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?
    • A. 

      MTP on the left and STS on the right

    • B. 

      STS on the left and MTL on the right

    • C. 

      797 on the right and 1098 on the left

    • D. 

      UTL on the right and MAJCOM on the left

  • 24. 
    The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirements to be edited?
    • A. 

      MTP tasks 5 and 7

    • B. 

      MTL tasks 5 and 7

    • C. 

      STS tasks 7 and 5

    • D. 

      UTL tasks 7 and 5

  • 25. 
    The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the
    • A. 

      Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu

    • B. 

      Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty menu

    • C. 

      AFTR Data/Duty Position menu

    • D. 

      AFTR Duty Position menu

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