Immunology: Tcrs, Cytokines, Immunity Reactions At The Cellular Level

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Immunology Quizzes & Trivia

TEST 3 IMMUNOLOGY


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Cytokines involved in acquired immunity

    • A.

      IL-1, IL-6, IL-18, IFN-A, IFN-B, AND TNF-A

    • B.

      IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, IFN-G, TNF-B, AND TGF-B

    • C.

      ONLY IL-1, IL-6, IL-12, AND TNF-A

    • D.

      ONLY IFN-G, AND IL-10

    Correct Answer
    B. IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, IFN-G, TNF-B, AND TGF-B
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, IFN-G, TNF-B, and TGF-B. These cytokines are involved in acquired immunity, which is the immune response that develops after exposure to a specific pathogen. IL-2 is important for the proliferation of T cells, IL-4 and IL-13 are involved in the activation of B cells and antibody production, IL-5 is involved in the activation of eosinophils and the production of antibodies, IFN-G is involved in the activation of macrophages and cytotoxic T cells, TNF-B is involved in inflammation and immune regulation, and TGF-B is involved in immune regulation and tissue repair.

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  • 2. 

    CHEMOKINES ARE PRODUCED MOSTLY BY WHICH MOLECULES

    • A.

      NK CELLS

    • B.

      MACROPHAGES

    • C.

      ENDOTHELIAL CELLS, EPITHELIAL CELLS, AND FIBROBLASTS

    • D.

      TH1 AND TH2 CELLS

    Correct Answer
    B. MACROpHAGES
    Explanation
    Macrophages are known to be the primary producers of chemokines. Chemokines are small signaling proteins that play a crucial role in immune responses by attracting immune cells to sites of infection or inflammation. Macrophages are immune cells that function as phagocytes, engulfing and destroying pathogens and cellular debris. They are widely distributed throughout the body and are capable of producing various immune molecules, including chemokines. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that macrophages are the molecules that produce chemokines mostly.

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  • 3. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MOLECULES ARE MACROpHAGE DEACTIVATING FACTORS BLOCKING MACROpHAGE FUNCTIONS, INCLUDING TNF-A RELEASE:

    • A.

      E SERIES PROSTAGLANDINS

    • B.

      TGF-B

    • C.

      IL-4 AND IL-10

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. E SERIES PROSTAGLANDINS
    B. TGF-B
    C. IL-4 AND IL-10
    Explanation
    E series prostaglandins, TGF-B, IL-4, and IL-10 are all molecules that can act as macrophage deactivating factors. These molecules can inhibit macrophage functions, including the release of TNF-A.

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  • 4. 

    IL-8 IS WHICH TYPE OF CHEMOKINE

    • A.

      CC-CC

    • B.

      CXC

    • C.

      CXCX

    • D.

      CXXC

    Correct Answer
    B. CXC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CXC because IL-8 belongs to the CXC chemokine family. CXC chemokines are characterized by the presence of a conserved amino acid motif, CXC, near their N-terminus. This motif indicates that there are two cysteine amino acids separated by another amino acid. IL-8 is a chemokine that plays a crucial role in inflammation and immune response by attracting and activating neutrophils to the site of infection or injury.

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  • 5. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE REGARDING THE NUMBER OF SUBFAMILIES OF CHEMOKINES

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      0 SUBFAMILIES

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    There are two subfamilies of chemokines.

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  • 6. 

    THE INNATE IMMUNITY CYTOKINES ARE:

    • A.

      IL-1, IL-6, IL-12 AND TNF-A ONLY

    • B.

      IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, IFN-G, TNF-B, AND TGF-B

    • C.

      ONLY IFN-G AND IL-2

    • D.

      IL-1, IL-6, IL-12, IL-18, IFN-A, IFN-B, AND TNF-A

    Correct Answer
    D. IL-1, IL-6, IL-12, IL-18, IFN-A, IFN-B, AND TNF-A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IL-1, IL-6, IL-12, IL-18, IFN-A, IFN-B, and TNF-A. These cytokines are part of the innate immune response, which is the body's first line of defense against pathogens. IL-1 and IL-6 are involved in inflammation and fever response. IL-12 and IL-18 help activate natural killer cells and T cells. IFN-A and IFN-B are antiviral cytokines, and TNF-A is involved in inflammation and cell death. Together, these cytokines play crucial roles in initiating and coordinating the innate immune response to protect the body from infections.

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  • 7. 

    THE SIGNATURE CYTOKINES PRODUCED BY TH1 CELLS 

    • A.

      IL-10

    • B.

      IFN-G AND SOMETIMES IL-2

    • C.

      TNF-A

    Correct Answer
    B. IFN-G AND SOMETIMES IL-2
    Explanation
    Th1 cells are a subset of T helper cells that play a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity. They are known to produce specific cytokines that are involved in the immune response. The signature cytokines produced by Th1 cells are IFN-G (interferon-gamma) and sometimes IL-2 (interleukin-2). These cytokines are important for activating macrophages, promoting inflammation, and enhancing the cytotoxic activity of T cells. IL-10 and TNF-A are not typically produced by Th1 cells, making IFN-G and sometimes IL-2 the correct answer.

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  • 8. 

    WHICH ARE THE SIGNATURE CYTOKINES PRODUCED BY TH2 CELLS

    • A.

      IL-4

    • B.

      IL-2

    • C.

      IL-10

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. IL-4
    C. IL-10
    Explanation
    IL-4 and IL-10 are the signature cytokines produced by TH2 cells. IL-4 is involved in promoting the differentiation of B cells into plasma cells and the production of IgE antibodies. It also plays a role in allergic responses and the recruitment of eosinophils. IL-10, on the other hand, is an anti-inflammatory cytokine that inhibits the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and downregulates the immune response. Both IL-4 and IL-10 are important in regulating immune responses and maintaining immune homeostasis.

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  • 9. 

    WHICH INTERLUEKIN IS ALSO LAF?

    Correct Answer(s)
    IL-1
    Explanation
    IL-1 is also known as interleukin-1. Interleukins are a group of cytokines that play a crucial role in regulating the immune response. IL-1 is produced by various cells, including macrophages and monocytes, and it has multiple functions, including promoting inflammation and fever. Therefore, IL-1 is the correct answer as it is an interleukin and also known as IL-1.

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  • 10. 

    TRUE OR FALSE: A T CELL CAN RELEASE ITS RECEPTOR AND RECOGNIZE ANTIGEN IN ITS NATURAL STATE

    • A.

      FALSE

    • B.

      TRUE

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE
    Explanation
    T cells cannot release their receptors and recognize antigens in their natural state. T cell receptors (TCRs) are membrane-bound proteins that are necessary for T cells to recognize antigens. The TCRs bind to antigens that are presented on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This binding is essential for T cell activation and the initiation of an immune response. Therefore, T cells cannot release their receptors and still recognize antigens effectively.

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  • 11. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE ANTIGEN PRESENTING CELLS

    • A.

      MACROPHAGE

    • B.

      DENDRITIC CELLS

    • C.

      B CELLS

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. MACROpHAGE
    B. DENDRITIC CELLS
    C. B CELLS
    Explanation
    Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells are all examples of antigen-presenting cells (APCs). These cells play a crucial role in the immune response by capturing, processing, and presenting antigens to T cells. Macrophages are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, presenting the antigens on their cell surface. Dendritic cells are specialized APCs that capture antigens in peripheral tissues and migrate to lymph nodes to activate T cells. B cells, on the other hand, present antigens to T cells after they have been internalized, processed, and presented on their cell surface. Overall, these cells are essential for initiating and coordinating an effective immune response.

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  • 12. 

    A/B TCRs HAVE A TOTAL DIVERSITY OF:

    • A.

      ~ 1O^18

    • B.

      ~ 10^13

    • C.

      ~ 10^14

    • D.

      ~ 10^15

    Correct Answer
    D. ~ 10^15
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ~ 10^15. This indicates that A/B TCRs have a total diversity of around 10^15. This means that there are approximately 10^15 different possible combinations of A/B TCRs, highlighting the high level of diversity within the A/B TCR repertoire. This diversity allows the immune system to recognize and respond to a wide range of antigens.

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  • 13. 

    COLIGATION OF TCR WITH MHC/PEPTIDE CTLA-4 WITH B7 LEADS TO 

    • A.

      ARREST OF CELL-CYCLE AND TERMINATION OF T-CELL ACTIVATION

    • B.

      ENABLES T CELL TO BE RECOGIZED BY BOTH CELL-CLL CONTACT AND CYTOKINES

    • C.

      PROMOTES B-CELL PROLIFERATION AND DIFFERENTIATION, PREVENTS APOPTOSIS OF GERMINAL CENTER B CELLS AND PROMOTES ANTIBODY CLASS SWITCHING

    Correct Answer
    A. ARREST OF CELL-CYCLE AND TERMINATION OF T-CELL ACTIVATION
    Explanation
    The coligation of TCR with MHC/peptide and CTLA-4 with B7 leads to the arrest of the cell-cycle and termination of T-cell activation. This means that when these molecules bind together, it stops the T-cell from continuing its normal cell division and activation processes. This is an important regulatory mechanism in the immune system to prevent excessive T-cell activation and maintain immune homeostasis.

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  • 14. 

    WHICH INTERACTIONS ARE ESSENTIAL FOR DIALOGUE BETWEN B AND T CELLS?

    • A.

      CD28-B7

    • B.

      CD2-CD58

    • C.

      CD40-CD40L

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. CD28-B7
    C. CD40-CD40L
    Explanation
    CD28-B7 and CD40-CD40L interactions are essential for dialogue between B and T cells. CD28 is a receptor found on T cells, while B7 is a ligand found on antigen-presenting cells. This interaction provides a co-stimulatory signal necessary for T cell activation and proliferation. CD40 is a receptor found on B cells, while CD40L (also known as CD154) is a ligand found on activated T cells. This interaction is critical for B cell activation, differentiation, and antibody production. Both of these interactions play crucial roles in the immune response and coordination between B and T cells.

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  • 15. 

    FOLLICULAR DENDRITIC CELLS

    • A.

      HOLD PROCESSED ANTIGEN ON SURFACE IN THE FORM OF SHORT-LIVED IMMUNE COMPLEXES

    • B.

      HOLD UNPROCESSED, INTACT, ANTIGEN ON THEIR SURFACE INT HE FORM OF SHORT LIVED IMMUNE COMPLEXES

    • C.

      HOLD INTACT, UNPROCESSED LONG LIVED IMMUNE COMPLEXES ON THEIR SURFACE

    • D.

      HOLD PROCESSED, INTACT LONG LIVED ANTIGEN IN THE FORM OF LONG LIVED IMMUNE COMPLEXES ON THEIR SURFACE

    Correct Answer
    C. HOLD INTACT, UNPROCESSED LONG LIVED IMMUNE COMPLEXES ON THEIR SURFACE
    Explanation
    Follicular dendritic cells hold intact, unprocessed long-lived immune complexes on their surface. This means that these cells can capture and retain large antigen-antibody complexes for an extended period of time. This function is important for the presentation of antigens to B cells, as it allows for the prolonged exposure of antigens to B cells in the germinal centers of lymphoid follicles. By holding onto these intact immune complexes, follicular dendritic cells contribute to the generation of an effective immune response.

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  • 16. 

    THYMUS IS ROUGHLY DIVIDED INTO

    • A.

      4 REGIONS

    • B.

      2 REGIONS

    • C.

      3 REGIONS

    • D.

      5 REGIONS

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 REGIONS
    Explanation
    The thymus is roughly divided into two regions. This means that the thymus can be categorized into two distinct parts or areas.

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  • 17. 

    CELLS ENTERING THE CORTICO-MEDULLARY JUNCTION EXPRESS CD3 ON THEIR CELL SURFACE

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because cells entering the cortico-medullary junction do not express CD3 on their cell surface. CD3 is a protein complex that is primarily found on T cells, which are a type of white blood cell. The cortico-medullary junction is a region in the kidney where the cortex and medulla meet. While various cell types can be found in this region, CD3 expression is not a characteristic feature of these cells. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 18. 

    WHERE MIGHT ONE FIND CD25+CD44+CD4-CD8-

    • A.

      REGION 1 OF THE THYMUS

    • B.

      REGION 2 OF THE THYMUS

    • C.

      REGION 3 OF THE THYMUS

    • D.

      REGION 4 THE THYMUS

    Correct Answer
    B. REGION 2 OF THE THYMUS
    Explanation
    CD25+CD44+CD4-CD8- refers to a specific subset of immune cells called double negative T cells. These cells are typically found in Region 2 of the thymus. The thymus is an organ located in the chest, behind the breastbone, and is responsible for the development and maturation of T cells. Region 2 of the thymus is where these double negative T cells undergo further differentiation and selection processes before they mature into functional T cells. Therefore, it is in Region 2 of the thymus where one would expect to find CD25+CD44+CD4-CD8- cells.

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  • 19. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CORRESPOND TO THE DN1 pHASE OF T CELL DEVELOPMENT

    • A.

      UNCOMMITTED PROGENITORS; CD44+CD25-CD4-CD8-

    • B.

      CLONAL EXPANSION

    • C.

      LOSE POTENTIAL TO BECOME B CELLS OR NK CELLS

    • D.

      CELLS COMMIT TO T CELL LINEAGE AND TCR B-CHAIN REARRANGEMENT OCCURS

    Correct Answer
    A. UNCOMMITTED PROGENITORS; CD44+CD25-CD4-CD8-
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UNCOMMITTED PROGENITORS; CD44+CD25-CD4-CD8-. This answer is correct because during the DN1 phase of T cell development, the cells are considered uncommitted progenitors, meaning they have not yet committed to becoming T cells. Additionally, they are characterized by the cell surface markers CD44+CD25-CD4-CD8-. These markers help identify the specific stage of T cell development and distinguish them from other cell types.

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  • 20. 

    DOUBLE POSITIVE CD44-CD25-CD4+CD8+ CELLS ARE FOUND 

    • A.

      IN REGION 1 OF THE THYMUS

    • B.

      IN REGION 2 OF THE THYMUS

    • C.

      IN REGION 3 OF THE THYMUS

    • D.

      IN REGION 4 OF THE THYMUS

    Correct Answer
    D. IN REGION 4 OF THE THYMUS
  • 21. 

    AT WHICH STAGE IS THE T CELL'S FATE DETERMINED 

    • A.

      STAGE 1

    • B.

      STAGE 2

    • C.

      STAGE 3

    • D.

      STAGE 4

    Correct Answer
    D. STAGE 4
    Explanation
    The T cell's fate is determined at Stage 4.

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  • 22. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE CHARACTERISTICS OF THE DN3 pHASE OR REGION 3 OF T CELL DEVELOPMENT?

    • A.

      CELLS COMMIT TO T CELL LINEAGE

    • B.

      TCR B-CHAIN REARRANGEMENT OCCURS

    • C.

      T CELL LINEAGES ALPHA/BETA OR GAMMA/DELTA DIVERGE

    • D.

      CD44-CD25+CD4-CD8-

    • E.

      ALL OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    E. ALL OF THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ALL OF THE ABOVE". In the DN3 phase or region 3 of T cell development, several characteristics occur. First, cells commit to the T cell lineage, meaning they differentiate into T cells. Second, TCR B-chain rearrangement occurs, which is an important step in T cell development. Third, T cell lineages alpha/beta or gamma/delta diverge, indicating the differentiation of T cells into different subsets. Finally, the cell surface markers CD44-CD25+CD4-CD8- are present during the DN3 phase. Therefore, all of these characteristics are observed in the DN3 phase or region 3 of T cell development.

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  • 23. 

    POSITIVE SELECTION OCCURS MAINLY

    • A.

      IN THE MEDULLA

    • B.

      IN THE SUBCAPSULAR EPITHELIUM

    • C.

      IN THE CORTEX

    • D.

      IN THE CORTICO-MEDULLARY JUNTION

    Correct Answer
    C. IN THE CORTEX
    Explanation
    Positive selection occurs mainly in the cortex of the thymus. This is where T cells undergo a process called thymic education, where they are tested for their ability to recognize and respond to antigens presented by self-MHC molecules. T cells that recognize self-antigens too strongly or not at all undergo apoptosis, while those that recognize self-antigens with moderate affinity are positively selected to mature and leave the thymus. The cortex is the region of the thymus where this process primarily takes place.

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  • 24. 

    NEGATIVE SELECTION OCCURS MAINLY 

    • A.

      IN THE CORTEX

    • B.

      IN THE SUBCAPSULAR EPITHELIUM

    • C.

      IN THE MEDULLA

    • D.

      IN THE CORTICO-MEDULLARY JUNCTION

    Correct Answer
    C. IN THE MEDULLA
    Explanation
    Negative selection refers to the process in the thymus where T cells that recognize self-antigens are eliminated to prevent autoimmune reactions. The medulla of the thymus is the primary site for negative selection. This is where T cells that have high affinity for self-antigens presented by thymic epithelial cells are deleted through apoptosis. The medulla provides an environment rich in self-antigens and dendritic cells, allowing for the efficient removal of autoreactive T cells. Therefore, negative selection mainly occurs in the medulla of the thymus.

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  • 25. 

    WHICH CELLS MEDIATE NEGATIVE SELECTION

    • A.

      THYMIC EPITHELIAL CELLS

    • B.

      THYMIC DENDRITIC CELLS

    • C.

      THYMIC MACROPHAGES

    • D.

      CD3+TCR+ T CELLS

    • E.

      A, B, AND C

    Correct Answer
    E. A, B, AND C
    Explanation
    Thymic epithelial cells, thymic dendritic cells, and thymic macrophages all play a role in mediating negative selection. Negative selection is a process in the thymus where developing T cells that recognize self-antigens too strongly are eliminated to prevent autoimmunity. Thymic epithelial cells present self-antigens to developing T cells, while thymic dendritic cells and thymic macrophages phagocytose and present self-antigens as well. Therefore, all three cell types are involved in the process of negative selection.

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  • 26. 

    POSITIVE SELECTION INVOLVES WHICH INTERACTIONS BETWEEN WHICH CELLS

    • A.

      CD3+TCR+ T CELLS AND CORTICAL TECs

    • B.

      CD3+TCR+ T CELLS AND IL-7

    • C.

      CD3+TCR+ T CELLS AND CD40L

    • D.

      CD3+TCR+ T CELLS AND CD4LOWCD8+ T CELLS

    Correct Answer
    A. CD3+TCR+ T CELLS AND CORTICAL TECs
  • 27. 

    THE TCR B LOCUS CONTAINS V-D-J SEGMENTS LIKE THE IgH LOCUS AND THE TCR ALpHA LOCUS CONTAINS

    • A.

      D SEGMENTS

    • B.

      V-J SEGMENTS LIKE Ig LIGHT CHAIN LOCI

    • C.

      SOMATIC MUTATION

    • D.

      DIVERSITY SEGMENTS

    Correct Answer
    B. V-J SEGMENTS LIKE Ig LIGHT CHAIN LOCI
    Explanation
    The TCR B locus contains V-D-J segments similar to the IgH locus, while the TCR alpha locus contains V-J segments like the Ig light chain loci. This suggests that the TCR B locus undergoes somatic mutation and contains diversity segments.

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  • 28. 

    ALpHA AND DELTA TCRs HAVE D REGIONS

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement "ALPHA AND DELTA TCRs HAVE D REGIONS" is false. T-cell receptors (TCRs) are proteins found on the surface of T cells and are responsible for recognizing antigens. While alpha and beta chains of TCRs do have D (diversity) regions, delta chains do not. Delta chains only have variable (V) and joining (J) regions. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 29. 

    CD3 EXISTS AS

    • A.

      ONLY DIMERIC MOLECULES

    • B.

      HOMODIMERIC ZETA-ZETA, OR ZETA-NU COMBINATION

    • C.

      HETERODIMERIC NON-COVALENTLY ASSOCIATED GAMMA AND EPSILON COMBINATION

    • D.

      HETERODIMERIC NON-COVALENTLY ASSOCIATED EPSILON AND DELTA

    • E.

      NONE OF THE ABOVE

    • F.

      ALL OF THE ABOVE

    • G.

      A, B, C,

    • H.

      C, AND D ONLY

    Correct Answer
    F. ALL OF THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ALL OF THE ABOVE" because CD3 exists as only dimeric molecules. It can exist as homodimeric zeta-zeta or zeta-nu combinations, as well as heterodimeric non-covalently associated gamma and epsilon combination, and heterodimeric non-covalently associated epsilon and delta combination. Therefore, all of these options are correct.

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  • 30. 

    Granzyme fxn

    • A.

      -enzymes that cleave and activate enzymes called caspases, which induce apoptosis

    • B.

      -enhances leukocyte recruitment and inflammation

    • C.

      -inhibiting phagolysosome fusion -escaping from the vesicles of phagocytes -inhibiting the assembly of class I MHC-peptide complexes -producing inhibitory cytokines or decoy cytokine receptors

    • D.

      -when macrophages are not activated by the microbes themselves -when pathogenic microbes have evolved to resist the defense mechanisms of innate immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. -enzymes that cleave and activate enzymes called caspases, which induce apoptosis
    Explanation
    Granzyme is a type of enzyme that plays a role in inducing apoptosis, which is programmed cell death. It does this by cleaving and activating caspases, which are enzymes that initiate the process of cell death. This mechanism is an important defense mechanism of the immune system to eliminate infected or damaged cells. The other options listed do not accurately describe the function of granzyme.

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  • 31. 

    2 types of T cell-mediated immune rxns

    • A.

      -recognize the antigens of microbes that have been ingested by macrophages -expresses CD40 ligand and secrete IFN-gamma, which fxn cooperatively to activate macrophages -stimulates defense against intracellular microbes

    • B.

      -macrophages encounter microbe and produce IL-12 -IL-12 stimulates CD4+ T cells to the TH1 subset, which produces IFN-gamma on encountering antigen from microbe ingested by macrophage -IFN-gamma activates the phagocytes to kill ingested microbes and it stimulates more IL-12 production, which amplifies the response -ex of innat and adaptive immunity working together

    • C.

      -stimulate eosinophilic inflammation and inhibit the microbicidal fxns of activated macrophages -eosinophils are important against helminthic parasites -suppresses defense against intracellular microbes; also limits injurious consequences of macrophage activation (aka alternative macrophage activation)

    • D.

      -CD4+ T cell response: activate macrophages to kill ingested microbes that are able to survive in the vesicles of phagocytes -CD8+ T cell response: kills cells that are harboring microbes in their cytoplasm, which eliminates reservoires of infection

    Correct Answer
    D. -CD4+ T cell response: activate macropHages to kill ingested microbes that are able to survive in the vesicles of pHagocytes -CD8+ T cell response: kills cells that are harboring microbes in their cytoplasm, which eliminates reservoires of infection
    Explanation
    CD4+ T cells activate macrophages to kill ingested microbes that are able to survive in the vesicles of phagocytes. This response is important in defense against intracellular microbes. CD8+ T cells, on the other hand, kill cells that are harboring microbes in their cytoplasm, eliminating reservoirs of infection. Both types of T cell-mediated immune reactions play a crucial role in eliminating different types of microbes and contribute to the overall immune response against pathogens.

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  • 32. 

    Mechanisms whereby intracellular microbes resist cell-mediated immune responses

    • A.

      -enzymes that cleave and activate enzymes called caspases, which induce apoptosis

    • B.

      -secrete cytokines TNF, IL-1 and chemokines, and platelet-derived growth factor which stimulates growth of and activities of fibroblasts, which helps to repair tissue when the infection is gone -leads to increased expression of class II MHC molecules and costimulators, thereby enhancing APC fxn, which promtoes T cell activation

    • C.

      -inhibiting phagolysosome fusion -escaping from the vesicles of phagocytes -inhibiting the assembly of class I MHC-peptide complexes -producing inhibitory cytokines or decoy cytokine receptors

    • D.

      -recognize the antigens of microbes that have been ingested by macrophages -expresses CD40 ligand and secrete IFN-gamma, which fxn cooperatively to activate macrophages -stimulates defense against intracellular microbes

    Correct Answer
    C. -inhibiting pHagolysosome fusion -escaping from the vesicles of pHagocytes -inhibiting the assembly of class I MHC-peptide complexes -producing inhibitory cytokines or decoy cytokine receptors
    Explanation
    Intracellular microbes can resist cell-mediated immune responses through various mechanisms. These include inhibiting phagolysosome fusion, which prevents the fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes, where microbes would typically be destroyed. They can also escape from the vesicles of phagocytes, allowing them to avoid destruction. Additionally, they can inhibit the assembly of class I MHC-peptide complexes, which are necessary for presenting antigens to cytotoxic T cells. Finally, they can produce inhibitory cytokines or decoy cytokine receptors, which can interfere with the immune response. These mechanisms help the microbes evade immune detection and destruction.

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  • 33. 

    Role of TH17

    • A.

      -recognize the antigens of microbes that have been ingested by macrophages -expresses CD40 ligand and secrete IFN-gamma, which fxn cooperatively to activate macrophages -stimulates defense against intracellular microbes

    • B.

      -occurs 24-48 hrs after exposure to immunization or microbial protein -these rxns are manifested by infiltrates of T cells and monocytes into tissues -the increased vascular permeability is caused by CD4+ T cells secreting cytokines -macrophages are activate by the T cells

    • C.

      -when macrophages are not activated by the microbes themselves -when pathogenic microbes have evolved to resist the defense mechanisms of innate immunity

    • D.

      -enhances leukocyte recruitment and inflammation

    Correct Answer
    D. -enhances leukocyte recruitment and inflammation
    Explanation
    TH17 plays a role in enhancing leukocyte recruitment and inflammation. It recognizes antigens of microbes ingested by macrophages and activates macrophages through the expression of CD40 ligand and secretion of IFN-gamma. This activation stimulates defense against intracellular microbes, leading to T cell and monocyte infiltration into tissues. The increased vascular permeability is caused by CD4+ T cells secreting cytokines, further enhancing the recruitment of leukocytes and promoting inflammation. This response is particularly important when macrophages are not activated by the microbes themselves or when pathogenic microbes have evolved to resist innate immune defenses.

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  • 34. 

    What are the mechanisms by which CD8+ T cells activate macrophages?

    • A.

      -macrophages encounter microbe and produce IL-12 -IL-12 stimulates CD4+ T cells to the TH1 subset, which produces IFN-gamma on encountering antigen from microbe ingested by macrophage -IFN-gamma activates the phagocytes to kill ingested microbes and it stimulates more IL-12 production, which amplifies the response -ex of innat and adaptive immunity working together

    • B.

      -recognize the antigens of microbes that have been ingested by macrophages -expresses CD40 ligand and secrete IFN-gamma, which fxn cooperatively to activate macrophages -stimulates defense against intracellular microbes

    • C.

      -sometimes the macrophages express class I MHC molecules -when this recognititon occurs, the CD8+ T cells can activate the macrophages the exact same way as the CD4+ T cells did; however, this activation is not useful; macrophages cannot digest intracellular microbes

    • D.

      -CD4+ T cell response: activate macrophages to kill ingested microbes that are able to survive in the vesicles of phagocytes -CD8+ T cell response: kills cells that are harboring microbes in their cytoplasm, which eliminates reservoires of infection

    Correct Answer
    C. -sometimes the macropHages express class I MHC molecules -when this recognititon occurs, the CD8+ T cells can activate the macropHages the exact same way as the CD4+ T cells did; however, this activation is not useful; macropHages cannot digest intracellular microbes
    Explanation
    CD8+ T cells can activate macrophages when the macrophages express class I MHC molecules. This recognition triggers the activation of macrophages in the same way as CD4+ T cells, but it is not useful because macrophages cannot digest intracellular microbes. This suggests that CD8+ T cell response is not effective in activating macrophages to kill ingested microbes, unlike CD4+ T cell response which can activate macrophages to eliminate reservoires of infection.

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  • 35. 

    What is the role of perforin?

    • A.

      -stimulates mast cell activation, which releases mediators that are toxic against parasites

    • B.

      -mainly by inducing DNA fragmentation and apoptosis -TCR and CD8 co-receptor necessary of CD8+ T cell recognition -CTLs kill target cell by releasing granule proteins granzyme and perforin

    • C.

      -when macrophages are not activated by the microbes themselves -when pathogenic microbes have evolved to resist the defense mechanisms of innate immunity

    • D.

      -necessary for delivery of granzymes into cytoplasm

    Correct Answer
    D. -necessary for delivery of granzymes into cytoplasm
    Explanation
    Perforin is necessary for the delivery of granzymes into the cytoplasm. Granzymes are proteases that induce DNA fragmentation and apoptosis, leading to the death of target cells. Perforin forms pores in the target cell membrane, allowing granzymes to enter the cytoplasm and initiate cell death. This mechanism is primarily utilized by cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) to kill infected or abnormal cells.

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  • 36. 

    Role of CD4+ TH1 cells

    • A.

      -IL-4: stimulates production of IgE, inhibits microbicidal macrophage activation -IL-5: activates eosinophils -IL-10, IL-13: also inhibit macrophage microbicidal activation

    • B.

      -recognize the antigens of microbes that have been ingested by macrophages -expresses CD40 ligand and secrete IFN-gamma, which fxn cooperatively to activate macrophages -stimulates defense against intracellular microbes

    • C.

      -secrete cytokines TNF, IL-1 and chemokines, and platelet-derived growth factor which stimulates growth of and activities of fibroblasts, which helps to repair tissue when the infection is gone -leads to increased expression of class II MHC molecules and costimulators, thereby enhancing APC fxn, which promtoes T cell activation

    • D.

      -occurs 24-48 hrs after exposure to immunization or microbial protein -these rxns are manifested by infiltrates of T cells and monocytes into tissues -the increased vascular permeability is caused by CD4+ T cells secreting cytokines -macrophages are activate by the T cells

    Correct Answer
    B. -recognize the antigens of microbes that have been ingested by macropHages -expresses CD40 ligand and secrete IFN-gamma, which fxn cooperatively to activate macropHages -stimulates defense against intracellular microbes
    Explanation
    CD4+ TH1 cells play a crucial role in recognizing antigens of microbes that have been ingested by macrophages. They express CD40 ligand and secrete IFN-gamma, which work together to activate macrophages. This activation stimulates defense against intracellular microbes. Additionally, CD4+ TH1 cells secrete cytokines and chemokines, leading to tissue repair once the infection is cleared. They also enhance antigen-presenting cell (APC) function by increasing the expression of class II MHC molecules and costimulators, promoting T cell activation. The infiltration of T cells and monocytes into tissues, along with increased vascular permeability, is caused by CD4+ T cells secreting cytokines, further activating macrophages.

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  • 37. 

    T cell-mediated killing involves:

    • A.

      Activation of TH cell

    • B.

      Activation of TC cell

    • C.

      A calcium-dependent reaction

    • D.

      Destruction of the T cell

    • E.

      All of the above

    • F.

      A and b

    Correct Answer
    F. A and b
    Explanation
    T cell-mediated killing involves the activation of both TH cells and TC cells. TH cells, or helper T cells, play a crucial role in coordinating immune responses by activating other immune cells. TC cells, or cytotoxic T cells, directly kill infected or abnormal cells. Therefore, the correct answer is "a and b" because both TH cells and TC cells are involved in T cell-mediated killing. The other options, such as a calcium-dependent reaction or destruction of the T cell, are not accurate explanations for T cell-mediated killing.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 06, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    NRVSTYLE
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