Dr Kallie Mini Part 3

30 Questions | Total Attempts: 182

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Dr Kallie Mini Part 3 - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which one of the following cell types produces collagen, proteoglycans and glycosaminoglycans?
    • A. 

      Plasma cells

    • B. 

      Mesenchymal cells

    • C. 

      Mast cells

    • D. 

      Fibroblasts

    • E. 

      Macrophages

  • 2. 
    Which of the following statements concerning immediate hypersensitivity reaction is CORRECT?
    • A. 

      The fibroblast cell secretes IgE, which binds to the mast cell

    • B. 

      The mast cell secretes IgE

    • C. 

      IgE secreted from plasma cell binds to the IgE receptor of mast cells

    • D. 

      Macrophages secretes leukotrienes

    • E. 

      Leukotrienes attract eosinophils to the site of inflammation

  • 3. 
    Which of the following statements regarding loose areolar connective tissue is CORRECT?
    • A. 

      There is an abundance of fibers and cells

    • B. 

      The ground substance is calcified

    • C. 

      There is hardly any ground substance between the fibers and cells

    • D. 

      Reticular fibers and mast cells are the predominant components of loose areolar connective tissue

    • E. 

      It has lots of ground substance, abundance of cell types and scattered fibers

  • 4. 
    Which of the following statements regarding collagen biosynthesis is CORRECT?
    • A. 

      Initial glycosylation of specific hydroxylysyl residues occurs in the Golgi complex

    • B. 

      Removal of the signal peptide occurs after hydroxylation of specific proline and lysine residues in the rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      Procollagen peptidase removes the registration peptides inside the cell

    • D. 

      Vitamin C is essential for the hydroxylation of proline residues in the rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • E. 

      The assembly of procollagen molecules i.e. the triple helix arrangement occurs in the secretory vesicles

  • 5. 
    Which of the following features regarding cartilage is CORRECT?
    • A. 

      Lymphatic vessels penetrate the cartilage matrix

    • B. 

      Nutrients for chondrocytes of cartilage are derived from blood capillaries found in the perichondrium

    • C. 

      The perichondrium that surrounds the cartilage is composed of collagen type II

    • D. 

      Nerve endings are found adjacent to chondrocytes

    • E. 

      Articular cartilage is covered by perichondrium

  • 6. 
    Which of the following processes is TRUE at the neuromuscular junction?
    • A. 

      Synaptic vesicles fuse with the postsynaptic membrane

    • B. 

      Synaptic vesicles release Ca++

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine binds to the presynaptic membrane to open up ionic channels

    • D. 

      Acetylcholine is broken down and the choline is reused in the postsynaptic membrane of the muscle cell

    • E. 

      Synaptic vesicles release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft

  • 7. 
    Which of the following statements during the time of menstruation is CORRECT?
    • A. 

      FSH causes the release of the secondary oocyte

    • B. 

      Estrogen causes the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone

    • C. 

      LH causes the final maturation of the Graafian follicle and release of the secondary oocyte

    • D. 

      Progesterone inhibits release of the secondary oocyte

    • E. 

      At the time of ovulation, the secondary oocyte is arrested in prophase II

  • 8. 
    Which substance or hormone influences the endometrium during the proliferative phase?
    • A. 

      LH (Luteinizing hormone)

    • B. 

      FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)

    • C. 

      Progesterone

    • D. 

      Activin

    • E. 

      Estrogen

  • 9. 
    Which of the following statement is CORRECT regarding the growing follicles before ovulation of the egg cell?
    • A. 

      FSH stimulates the theca externa cells

    • B. 

      LH causes the theca interna to secrete progesterone

    • C. 

      FSH stimulates the granulosa layer of cells to secrete estrogen

    • D. 

      The basal lamina prevents the androstenedione from entering the granulosa layer of cells

    • E. 

      LH stimulates the grAnulosa layer of cells to produce FSH

  • 10. 
    The inner mass of cells from the blastocyst stage of development eventually gives rise to:
    • A. 

      Morula

    • B. 

      Trophoblast

    • C. 

      Syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast

    • D. 

      Epiblast and hypoblast

    • E. 

      Zona pellucida

  • 11. 
    Which of the following statements regarding fertilization is CORRECT?
    • A. 

      Sperms that are incapacitated can penetrate the zona pellucida

    • B. 

      The zona pellucida normally blocks all sperms except one

    • C. 

      As soon as the sperm touches the oocyte plasma membrane, a zonal reaction takes place whereby the oocyte membrane and zona pellucida undergo a conformational change

    • D. 

      The cortical granules release enzymes that destroys a pathway in the zona pellucida for sperm entrance

    • E. 

      The sperm plasma membrane does not fuse with the oocyte plasma membrane

  • 12. 
    Intraembryonic mesoderm is derived from the
    • A. 

      Amnioblast layer

    • B. 

      Hypoblast layer

    • C. 

      Definitive yolk sac

    • D. 

      Epiblast

    • E. 

      Chorion

  • 13. 
    Epiblast cells that enter the primitive node gives rise to:
    • A. 

      Intraembryonic mesoderm that migrates around and in front of the prochordal membrane

    • B. 

      Notochordal rod that extends to the prochordal plate

    • C. 

      Endoderm that lines the digestive tube

    • D. 

      Prochordal plate

    • E. 

      Lateral plate mesoderm

  • 14. 
    Which of the following structures is derived from ectoderm?
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Anterior pituitary gland

    • C. 

      Allantois

    • D. 

      Yolk sac

    • E. 

      Trachea

  • 15. 
    During meiosis, the secondary spermatocytes have
    • A. 

      4 N DNA

    • B. 

      23 chromosomes

    • C. 

      46 chromosomes

    • D. 

      1 N DNA

    • E. 

      46 chromosomes (2N DNA)

  • 16. 
    The posterior fontanelle is usually closed by
    • A. 

      Birth

    • B. 

      Age 6 months

    • C. 

      Age 18 months

    • D. 

      Age 2 years

    • E. 

      Age 5 years

  • 17. 
    Which of the following statements is NOT considered to be significant to meiosis?
    • A. 

      Crossing over of genetic information during prophase I of meiosis I

    • B. 

      Pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis I

    • C. 

      Independent assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes

    • D. 

      Unequal cell size

    • E. 

      Non disjunction

  • 18. 
    At the time of birth in the XX individual, the gonad will contain
    • A. 

      Primordial follicles with oogonia

    • B. 

      Mature graafian follicles

    • C. 

      Oogonia

    • D. 

      Primordial follicles with primary oocytes of prophase I

    • E. 

      Secondary oocytes at metaphase II

  • 19. 
    Which cell type produces the oocyte maturation inhibitory substance?
    • A. 

      Primary oocyte

    • B. 

      Leydig cells

    • C. 

      Follicular cells of the primordial follicle

    • D. 

      Oogonial cell

    • E. 

      Spermatogenic cells

  • 20. 
    If the secondary oocyte is ferti1ized
    • A. 

      The corpus luteum degenerates by 10 14 days

    • B. 

      Human chorionic gonadotropin produced by the syncytiotrophoblast cells maintains the viability of the corpus luteum

    • C. 

      The corpus luteum becomes the corpus luteum of menstruation

    • D. 

      LH from the pituitary gland continues to stimulate the corpus luteum throughout the pregnancy period

    • E. 

      The corpus luteum becomes the corpus albicans

  • 21. 
    Which of the following statements concerning fertilization is NOT             CORRECT?
    • A. 

      Sperms have to be capacitated in order to fertilize the secondary oocyte

    • B. 

      The sperm penetrates the corona radiata and then the zona pellucida

    • C. 

      Cortical granules are released as soon as the sperm touches the oocyte plasma membrane

    • D. 

      The zonal reaction allows other sperms to penetrate the oocyte

    • E. 

      The zonal reaction causes the zona pellucida to undergo a morphological change

  • 22. 
    Which of the following features regarding the second week of development is CORRECT?
    • A. 

      The lacunae spaces are formed in the primitive yolk sac

    • B. 

      Syncytiotrophoblast cells are involved in eroding maternal sinusoids to establish the primitive uteroplacental circulation

    • C. 

      Epiblast cells are involved in establishing the primitive uteroplacental circulation

    • D. 

      The cytotrophoblast layer erodes the maternal endometrium

    • E. 

      The hypoblast layer gives rise to the amnion

  • 23. 
    During the second week of development, the embryo proper is composed of
    • A. 

      Amnion, yolk sac, epiblast and hypoblast

    • B. 

      Epiblast and hypoblast

    • C. 

      Trophoblast cells

    • D. 

      Syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast

    • E. 

      Trophoblast, epiblast and hypoblast

  • 24. 
    The prochordal plate is a group of tall columnar cells that
    • A. 

      Develop during the 8th day after fertilization

    • B. 

      Are located within the amniotic sac

    • C. 

      Determine the future site of the mouth cavity

    • D. 

      Form the connecting stalk

    • E. 

      Form the extraembryonic mesoderm

  • 25. 
    During the female reproductive cycle
    • A. 

      LH stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum

    • B. 

      LH causes oogonia to become primary oocytes

    • C. 

      LH continues to influence the uterus in the absence of a fertilized egg

    • D. 

      LH causes the primordial follicles to develop

    • E. 

      LH is secreted by the hypothalamus

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