The Ultimate Biology: Anatomy Exam Practice Test

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  • 1/191 Questions

    Perfect site for lumbar puncture (spinal tap) between

    • L1 & L2
    • T12 & L1
    • L3 & L4
    • L4 & L5
    • S1 & S2
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About This Quiz

The Ultimate Biology: Anatomy Exam Practice Test assesses key knowledge in human anatomy. It covers bone structure, sensory pathways, neurological impacts of diseases, and anatomical regions. Ideal for students preparing for medical exams, enhancing both fundamental and detailed understanding of anatomy.

The Ultimate Biology: Anatomy Exam Practice Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The strongest ligament in your hip is?

    • Ischiofemoral

    • Pubofemoral

    • Iliofemoral

    • Ligament head of femur

    • Transvers acetabulor ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Iliofemoral
    Explanation
    The iliofemoral ligament is the strongest ligament in the hip. It is located on the front of the hip joint and is responsible for preventing excessive extension and hyperextension of the hip. This ligament plays a crucial role in maintaining stability and preventing dislocation of the hip joint.

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  • 3. 

    Your hip is medially rotated mainly by?

    • Sciatic N

    • Femoral N

    • Superior Gluteal N

    • Obturator N

    • Saphenous N

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior Gluteal N
    Explanation
    The superior gluteal nerve is responsible for medially rotating the hip.

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  • 4. 

    Hanna, likes to wear tight knee-high boots when she goes out. Lately she has noticed that anterolateral surface of her legs is numb while wearing them and she also has some difficulty doesiflexing her foot. Which nerve do you suspect is being compressed?

    • Tibial N

    • Femoral N

    • Common fibular N

    • Obturator N

    • Saphenous N

    Correct Answer
    A. Common fibular N
    Explanation
    The common fibular nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles that dorsiflex the foot and the sensation on the anterolateral surface of the leg. In this case, Hanna's symptoms of numbness and difficulty dorsiflexing her foot suggest that the common fibular nerve is being compressed while wearing the tight knee-high boots.

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  • 5. 

    All the following are correct regarding the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), EXCEPT

    • Arises from the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia

    • The ACL has a relatively poor blood supply

    • The ACL has a relatively rich blood supply

    • Located outside the synovial cavity

    • Located within the fibrous capsule of knee

    Correct Answer
    A. The ACL has a relatively rich blood supply
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the ACL has a relatively poor blood supply. This means that the ACL does not receive as much blood flow compared to other ligaments in the body. This is significant because a poor blood supply can hinder the ACL's ability to heal and recover from injury.

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  • 6. 

    The radius articulates with the following bones EXCEPT

    • Scaphoid

    • Ulna

    • Capitate

    • Lunate

    • Humerus

    Correct Answer
    A. Capitate
    Explanation
    The radius articulates with the scaphoid, ulna, lunate, and humerus. The capitate bone is not one of the bones that articulates with the radius.

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  • 7. 

    Muscle/s that extended your thumb are the following EXCEPT

    • Extensor pollicis longus

    • 1st dorsal interossei

    • Extensor pollicis brevis

    • Abductor pollicis longus

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 1st dorsal interossei
    Explanation
    The 1st dorsal interossei is not a muscle that extends the thumb. The extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus are all muscles that contribute to the extension of the thumb. However, the 1st dorsal interossei muscle is responsible for abduction and flexion of the index finger, not the thumb.

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  • 8. 

    In knee jerk, or patellar reflex you are testing spinal cord levels?

    • L2, L3, L4

    • L4, L5, S1, S2 

    • T12, L1, L2, L3

    • L4, L5, S1

    • L5, S1, S2

    Correct Answer
    A. L2, L3, L4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is L2, L3, L4. The knee jerk or patellar reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that involves the sensory neurons from the muscle spindle in the quadriceps muscle and the motor neurons in the spinal cord. The sensory neurons receive the stimulus when the patellar tendon is tapped, and the signal is sent directly to the motor neurons in the spinal cord at the levels of L2, L3, and L4. These motor neurons then send a signal to the quadriceps muscle, causing it to contract and resulting in the knee jerk response.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following muscles affected stability of knee joint?

    • Piriformis M

    • Gluteus minimums M

    • Gluteus medias M

    • Gluteus max M

    • Obturator internes M

    Correct Answer
    A. Gluteus max M
    Explanation
    The gluteus maximus muscle is responsible for maintaining stability in the knee joint. This muscle is the largest of the gluteal muscles and is located in the buttocks. It plays a key role in extending the hip joint and rotating the thigh laterally. By doing so, it helps to stabilize the knee joint and prevent excessive movement or instability.

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  • 10. 

    In case of posterior hip dislocation, which of the following is in danger?

    • Femoral N

    • Obturator N

    • Sciatic N

    • Femoral A

    • Femoral V

    Correct Answer
    A. Sciatic N
    Explanation
    In case of posterior hip dislocation, the sciatic nerve is in danger. Posterior hip dislocation occurs when the femoral head is forced out of the socket and moves posteriorly. This can put pressure on the sciatic nerve, which runs close to the hip joint. Compression or stretching of the sciatic nerve can result in pain, numbness, and weakness in the leg. Therefore, the sciatic nerve is at risk in cases of posterior hip dislocation.

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  • 11. 

    Inability in walking downhill, means damage to?

    • Posterior cruciate ligament

    • Anterior cruciate ligament

    • Oblique popliteal ligament

    • Fibular collateral ligament

    • Tibial collateral ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior cruciate ligament
    Explanation
    The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is responsible for stabilizing the knee joint and preventing the tibia from sliding too far backward in relation to the femur. Damage to the PCL can result in difficulty walking downhill because it weakens the stability of the knee joint, making it harder to control the movement of the tibia. This can lead to a feeling of instability and discomfort while walking downhill.

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  • 12. 

    Your ankle joint is more stable in?

    • Planter flexion

    • Inversion

    • Eversion

    • Dorsiflexion

    • Neutral between dorsi & planterflexion

    Correct Answer
    A. Dorsiflexion
    Explanation
    Dorsiflexion refers to the movement of the ankle joint where the top of the foot is brought closer to the shin. This position allows the bones of the ankle joint to align in a way that provides stability. When the ankle is in dorsiflexion, the bones are less likely to move out of place or become dislocated, making it a more stable position compared to plantar flexion, inversion, eversion, or being in a neutral position between dorsiflexion and plantar flexion.

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  • 13. 

    Muscle that initiates abduction in your upper limb is?

    • Deltoid

    • Trapezius

    • Infraspinatus

    • Supraspinatus

    • Teres major

    Correct Answer
    A. Supraspinatus
    Explanation
    The supraspinatus muscle is responsible for initiating abduction in the upper limb. It is one of the four muscles that make up the rotator cuff in the shoulder. When the supraspinatus contracts, it helps to lift the arm away from the body, allowing for abduction movement. The deltoid muscle also plays a role in abduction, but it is not the primary muscle responsible for initiating this movement. The trapezius, infraspinatus, and teres major muscles are not directly involved in initiating abduction in the upper limb.

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  • 14. 

    In fractured surgical neck of humerus, which of the following is in danger?

    • Accessory N

    • Suprascapular N

    • Axillary N

    • Dorsal scapular N

    • Subscapular N

    Correct Answer
    A. Axillary N
    Explanation
    In a fractured surgical neck of the humerus, the axillary nerve is in danger. The axillary nerve is responsible for innervating the deltoid muscle and the skin over the deltoid muscle. It also provides sensory innervation to the shoulder joint. A fracture in the surgical neck of the humerus can potentially damage or compress the axillary nerve, leading to weakness or paralysis of the deltoid muscle and loss of sensation in the shoulder region.

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  • 15. 

    In bicep's jerk, you are testing the integrity of? 

    • C4, C5, C6

    • C5, C6, C7

    • C7, C8, T1

    • C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

    • C8, T1

    Correct Answer
    A. C5, C6, C7
    Explanation
    In bicep's jerk, you are testing the integrity of the C5, C6, and C7 vertebrae. This exercise specifically targets these vertebrae to assess their strength and stability.

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  • 16. 

    Sensory innervation of fibrous pericardium operated by

    • T4, T5, T6 intercostal nerve

    • T7, T8, T9 intercostal nerves

    • Phrenic

    • Vagus

    • T1, T2, T3 intercostal nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Phrenic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Phrenic. The phrenic nerve is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the fibrous pericardium. It arises from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5 and travels through the thoracic cavity to reach the pericardium. This nerve plays a crucial role in transmitting sensory information from the pericardium to the brain, allowing for the perception of pain or discomfort in this region.

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  • 17. 

    In case of LEFT SIDE hemopneumothorax (blood & air accumulates in the pleural cavity), you insert chest tube for evacuation in mid-axillary line of the? 

    • 4th intercostal space just above the rib

    • 5th intercostal space just below the rib

    • 3rd intercostal space below the rib

    • 2nd intercostal space just below the rib

    • 7th intercostal space just below the rib

    Correct Answer
    A. 4th intercostal space just above the rib
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 4th intercostal space just above the rib. In cases of LEFT SIDE hemopneumothorax, a chest tube is inserted to evacuate the accumulated blood and air in the pleural cavity. The 4th intercostal space is chosen as it allows for effective drainage and is located just above the rib to avoid injury to neurovascular structures.

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  • 18. 

    The sinuatrial (SA) node is located anterolaterally just deep to the epicardium at the junction of

    • SVC and right atrium

    • IVC and right atrium

    • Pulmonary trunk and right ventricle

    • Ascending aorta and left ventricle

    • In the wall of IVC

    Correct Answer
    A. SVC and right atrium
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SVC and right atrium. The SA node is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart's rhythm. It is located in the anterolateral region, just deep to the epicardium, at the junction of the superior vena cava (SVC) and the right atrium. This location allows for efficient conduction of the electrical impulses throughout the heart, ensuring coordinated contractions and proper pumping of blood.

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  • 19. 

    L1 is the root value of the testicles or gonads

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because L1 is indeed the root value of the testicles or gonads. This means that the nerves that innervate the testicles or gonads originate from the first lumbar vertebra (L1) in the spine.

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  • 20. 

    Anterior longitudinal ligament is heavy populated with nociceptive nerve endings 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Posterior longitudinal ligament not anterior longitudinal ligament

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  • 21. 

    Intravertebral disc is a secondary cartilaginous joint

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because an intravertebral disc is indeed a secondary cartilaginous joint. This type of joint is made up of fibrocartilage, which allows for limited movement between the vertebrae in the spine. The intravertebral disc acts as a cushion and shock absorber, helping to distribute forces and maintain the flexibility and stability of the spine.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is is true about the Platysma?

    • Nerve supply is the fascial nerve

    • Covers pectoralis major

    • All the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The Platysma is a thin, sheet-like muscle that covers the front of the neck. It is innervated by the facial nerve, which is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. The Platysma does not cover the pectoralis major, so the correct answer is "All the above".

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  • 23. 

    Fracture to the neck of the mandible puts the following artery at risk

    • Pharyngeal artery

    • Maxillary artery

    • Artery of pterygoid canal

    • Superior temporal artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Maxillary artery
    Explanation
    A fracture to the neck of the mandible puts the maxillary artery at risk. The maxillary artery is a branch of the external carotid artery and it supplies blood to the deep structures of the face, including the muscles of mastication, the teeth, and the oral cavity. A fracture to the neck of the mandible can cause damage to the maxillary artery, leading to bleeding and potential complications.

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  • 24. 

    Testicles begin at L1 and reach the scrotum

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because during the development of the male reproductive system, the testicles originate near the kidneys at the level of the first lumbar vertebra (L1) and then gradually descend into the scrotum. This descent of the testicles is a normal process that occurs during fetal development. By the time of birth or shortly after, the testicles should have reached the scrotum. This is important for proper temperature regulation of the testicles, which is necessary for sperm production and overall reproductive health.

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  • 25. 

    Muscles in your back have C2 for sensory innervation for the skin

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because C2 is one of the spinal nerves that innervate the skin in the back. The sensory innervation provided by C2 allows for the perception of touch, temperature, and pain in the corresponding area of the back. This innervation is important for maintaining proprioception and sensitivity in the back muscles, allowing for coordinated movements and protection against potential injuries.

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  • 26. 

    Torticollis is when the neck is twisted to the side 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Torticollis is a condition characterized by the twisting or tilting of the neck to one side. This can be caused by muscle spasms, injury, or abnormal development of the neck muscles. It can result in pain, stiffness, and limited range of motion. Therefore, the statement "Torticollis is when the neck is twisted to the side" is true.

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  • 27. 

    In normal individuals you can palpate sigmoid colon in?

    • Right inguinal region

    • Left Inguinal region

    • Right hypocondreium

    • Left hypocondreium

    • Umbilical

    Correct Answer
    A. Left Inguinal region
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Left Inguinal region because the sigmoid colon is the S-shaped part of the large intestine that connects the descending colon to the rectum. It is located on the left side of the abdomen and can sometimes be palpated in the left inguinal region, which is the lower left side of the abdomen near the groin area.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is TRUE about the Serratus Posterior muscles

    • Muscles operated by ventral primary rami

    • Main function is proprioception

    • Serratus posterior superior = stability of upper ribs

    • Serratus posterior inferior = stability of lower ribs

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The Serratus Posterior muscles are operated by ventral primary rami, meaning that the nerves that control these muscles originate from the ventral primary rami of the spinal nerves. Their main function is proprioception, which refers to the body's ability to sense the position, movement, and orientation of its parts. Additionally, the Serratus Posterior Superior muscles contribute to the stability of the upper ribs, while the Serratus Posterior Inferior muscles contribute to the stability of the lower ribs. Therefore, all of the statements given in the options are true about the Serratus Posterior muscles.

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  • 29. 

    Dermatomal level of umbilicus is

    • T10

    • C7

    • L4

    • L3

    • T8

    Correct Answer
    A. T10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T10. The dermatomal level of the umbilicus refers to the specific spinal nerve that innervates the skin around the umbilicus. In this case, T10 refers to the 10th thoracic spinal nerve, which is responsible for providing sensation to the area around the umbilicus.

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  • 30. 

    Oblique popliteal ligament is the reflected part of a muscle operated by?

    • Sciatic N

    • Femoral N

    • Obturator N

    • Inferior gluteal N

    • Superior gluteal N

    Correct Answer
    A. Sciatic N
    Explanation
    The oblique popliteal ligament is a ligament located in the knee joint. It is not operated by a muscle, but rather it helps to stabilize the joint. The sciatic nerve is a major nerve that runs down the back of the leg and is closely associated with the knee joint. Therefore, it is possible that the sciatic nerve may have some influence on the oblique popliteal ligament, hence it is the most likely answer.

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  • 31. 

    Sacroiliac joint is

    • Fibrous

    • Synovial

    • Gomphosis

    • Syndesmoses

    • Sutural

    Correct Answer
    A. Synovial
    Explanation
    The sacroiliac joint is a synovial joint. Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial cavity, which contains synovial fluid that lubricates and nourishes the joint. These joints allow for a wide range of movement and are found in various parts of the body, including the hips, knees, and shoulders. In the case of the sacroiliac joint, it is located between the sacrum and the ilium bones of the pelvis, and it allows for a small amount of movement to occur, primarily for shock absorption and stability during activities such as walking or running.

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  • 32. 

    In case of posterior hip dislocation, which of the following in danger?

    • Femoral N

    • Obturator N

    • Sciatic N

    • Femoral A

    • Femoral V

    Correct Answer
    A. Sciatic N
    Explanation
    In case of posterior hip dislocation, the sciatic nerve is in danger. Posterior hip dislocation occurs when the femoral head is forced out of the socket towards the back of the hip joint. This can result in compression or stretching of the sciatic nerve, which runs through the back of the hip joint. Damage to the sciatic nerve can lead to symptoms such as pain, numbness, tingling, or weakness in the leg and foot. Therefore, it is important to be cautious of the sciatic nerve when dealing with posterior hip dislocations.

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  • 33. 

    In case of supracondylar fracture of the femur, which of the following in danger?

    • Common fibular N

    • Tibial N

    • Popliteal A

    • Popliteal V

    • Small saphenous V

    Correct Answer
    A. Popliteal A
    Explanation
    In case of a supracondylar fracture of the femur, the popliteal artery is in danger. This is because the fracture occurs just above the condyles of the femur, which can cause displacement of bone fragments and potential damage to the popliteal artery. The popliteal artery is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the lower leg and foot, so any injury to it can lead to significant complications such as ischemia or even limb-threatening conditions.

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  • 34. 

    Piriformis syndrome resulted from nerve compression due to long-distance walking or running or by direct compression to?

    • Femoral N

    • Superior gluteal N

    • Inferior gluteal N

    • Sciatic N

    • Obturator N

    Correct Answer
    A. Sciatic N
    Explanation
    Piriformis syndrome is a condition that occurs when the sciatic nerve is compressed or irritated by the piriformis muscle in the buttocks. The piriformis muscle can become tight or inflamed due to activities such as long-distance walking or running, which can then put pressure on the sciatic nerve. This can result in pain, tingling, or numbness in the buttocks and down the leg. Therefore, the correct answer is the Sciatic Nerve.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following nerves used usually for nerve biopsy?

    • Saphenous N

    • Obturator N

    • Tibial N

    • Common fibular N

    • Sural N

    Correct Answer
    A. Sural N
    Explanation
    The sural nerve is commonly used for nerve biopsy. It is a sensory nerve located in the lower leg and foot. It is easily accessible and relatively superficial, making it an ideal choice for biopsy procedures. Biopsies of the sural nerve can provide valuable information about nerve damage or disease, helping to diagnose conditions such as peripheral neuropathy.

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  • 36. 

    All the following are the contents of tarsal tunnel EXCEPT

    • Posterior tibial artery

    • Tibialis posterior tendon

    • Fibularis longus tendon

    • Tibial nerve

    • Flexor hallucis longus muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibularis longus tendon
    Explanation
    The tarsal tunnel is a narrow space in the ankle where several structures pass through. These structures include the posterior tibial artery, tibialis posterior tendon, tibial nerve, and flexor hallucis longus muscle. The fibularis longus tendon, however, does not pass through the tarsal tunnel. Therefore, it is the only structure listed that is not a content of the tarsal tunnel.

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  • 37. 

    Posterior Tibial Pulse can usually be palpated between?

    • Extensor hallucis longus muscle & Tibialis posterior

    • Posterior surface of the medial malleolus & medial border of the calcaneal tendon

    • Posterior surface of the lateral malleolus & medial border of the calcaneal tendon 

    • Tendon of Tibialis anterior & Tendon of tibias posterior muscles

    • Tendon of extensor hallucis longus & tendon of extensor digitorum longus muscles 

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior surface of the medial malleolus & medial border of the calcaneal tendon
    Explanation
    The posterior tibial pulse can usually be palpated between the posterior surface of the medial malleolus (the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle) and the medial border of the calcaneal tendon (the tendon that connects the calf muscles to the heel bone).

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  • 38. 

    Lower end of tibia, articulates with?

    • Calcaneus

    • Talus

    • Navicular

    • Cuboid

    • Medial cuneiform

    Correct Answer
    A. Talus
    Explanation
    The lower end of the tibia articulates with the talus bone. The talus is one of the seven tarsal bones in the foot and is located between the tibia and the calcaneus (heel bone). It forms a joint called the talocrural joint, which allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot. The articulation between the tibia and talus is important for weight-bearing and movement of the ankle joint.

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  • 39. 

    Your ankle joint is more stable in?

    • Planterflexion

    • Inversion

    • Eversion

    • Dorsiflexion

    • Neutral between dorsi & plantarflexion

    Correct Answer
    A. Dorsiflexion
    Explanation
    Dorsiflexion refers to the movement of the ankle joint where the foot is flexed upward towards the shin. This position allows for greater stability in the ankle joint as the bones of the foot are aligned in a way that provides better support. In contrast, plantarflexion, inversion, and eversion involve movements that can potentially compromise the stability of the ankle joint. Therefore, dorsiflexion is the most stable position for the ankle joint.

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  • 40. 

    In shoulder dislocation the most lateral bony prominence is?

    • Coracoid process

    • Acromial process

    • Greater tubercle of humerus

    • Lesser tubercle of humerus

    • Inferior angle of scapula

    Correct Answer
    A. Acromial process
    Explanation
    The acromial process is the most lateral bony prominence in shoulder dislocation. The acromion is a part of the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder. In shoulder dislocation, the humeral head usually moves inferiorly and anteriorly, causing it to come into contact with the acromion. This can result in a dislocation of the shoulder joint. The other options listed are not the most lateral bony prominences in shoulder dislocation.

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  • 41. 

    Trapezius muscle attached to the followings EXCEPT

    • Skull (occipital bone)

    • Cervical vertebrae (through ligamentum nuchae)

    • Thoracic vertebrae (spinous processes)

    • Humerus (greater tubercle)

    • Clavicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Humerus (greater tubercle)
    Explanation
    The trapezius muscle is a large, triangular muscle that extends from the base of the skull down to the thoracic vertebrae and laterally to the spine of the scapula and acromion of the scapula. It also attaches to the clavicle. However, it does not attach to the humerus at the greater tubercle. The greater tubercle is a bony prominence on the lateral side of the humerus where other muscles, such as the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, attach. Therefore, the correct answer is the humerus (greater tubercle).

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  • 42. 

    Pectoralis Major Muscle

    • Attached to coracoid process of scapula

    • It is one of shoulder abductor muscles

    • Innervated by medial & lateral pectoral nerves

    • Its lateral rotator of your shoulder

    • Its nerve supply is axillary nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Innervated by medial & lateral pectoral nerves
    Explanation
    The pectoralis major muscle is innervated by both the medial and lateral pectoral nerves. This means that these nerves supply the muscle with the necessary motor and sensory information for its function. The medial pectoral nerve arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, while the lateral pectoral nerve arises from the lateral cord. Together, these nerves ensure the proper innervation of the pectoralis major muscle, allowing it to perform its actions, such as adduction and medial rotation of the shoulder joint.

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  • 43. 

    Winged scapula resulted from damage of

    • Axillary N

    • Thoracodorsal N

    • Long thoracic N

    • Ulnar N 

    • Msculocutaneous N

    Correct Answer
    A. Long thoracic N
    Explanation
    The long thoracic nerve is responsible for innervating the serratus anterior muscle, which plays a crucial role in stabilizing the scapula. Damage to the long thoracic nerve can result in winged scapula, where the scapula protrudes from the back and causes weakness in shoulder movement. This condition can occur due to trauma, repetitive strain, or nerve compression. Therefore, the long thoracic nerve is the most likely culprit for the development of winged scapula.

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  • 44. 

    Rotator cuff muscles, are vital for strengthening of your shoulder fibrous capsule, those muscles operated by? 

    • Radial & Accessory Ns

    • Axillary & dorsal scapular Ns

    • Axillary, Suprascapular, & Subscapular Ns

    • Medial & lateral pectoral Ns

    • Axillary, dorsal scapular, & suprascapular Ns

    Correct Answer
    A. Axillary, Suprascapular, & Subscapular Ns
    Explanation
    The rotator cuff muscles are responsible for stabilizing and moving the shoulder joint. The axillary, suprascapular, and subscapular nerves innervate these muscles, allowing them to contract and perform their functions. These nerves provide the necessary signals for the rotator cuff muscles to strengthen the shoulder fibrous capsule. The other options listed do not include all three of these nerves, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 45. 

    Tendon of supraspinatus muscle, as it reaches it distil attachment it runs?

    • Deep to coracoid process

    • Superficial to coracoid process

    • Superficial to acromion process

    • Deep to acromion process

    • Not related to acromion & coracoid processes

    Correct Answer
    A. Deep to acromion process
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Deep to acromion process." The supraspinatus muscle is one of the rotator cuff muscles located in the shoulder. As it reaches its distal attachment, it runs deep to the acromion process, which is a bony projection of the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder. This positioning allows the supraspinatus tendon to pass underneath the acromion process and attach to the greater tuberosity of the humerus, contributing to shoulder movement and stability.

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  • 46. 

    All the following are correct regarding Musculocutaneous nerve EXCEPT

    • Is a terminal branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus

    • Descends in the arm between biceps and brachialis

    • In its course its closely related to profound brachii artery

    • Supplies coracobrachialis

    • Ends at the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm

    Correct Answer
    A. In its course its closely related to profound brachii artery
    Explanation
    The Musculocutaneous nerve is closely related to the brachial artery, not the profound brachii artery.

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  • 47. 

    Fracture of medial epicondyle of Humerus might injured

    • Radial N

    • Brachial artery

    • Ulnar N

    • Median N

    • Musculocutaneous N

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulnar N
    Explanation
    Fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus can result in injury to the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve runs along the inner side of the arm and passes through the elbow joint. A fracture in this area can cause compression or damage to the ulnar nerve, leading to symptoms such as numbness, tingling, or weakness in the hand and fingers.

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  • 48. 

    All the following nerves might be affected in Erb-Duchenne palsy, EXCEPT

    • Ulnar

    • Suprascapular

    • Nerve to subclavius

    • Musculocutaneous

    • Axillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulnar
    Explanation
    Erb-Duchenne palsy, also known as Erb's palsy, is a condition that affects the nerves in the brachial plexus, a network of nerves that control movement and sensation in the arm. It typically occurs due to injury during childbirth. In Erb-Duchenne palsy, the nerves that may be affected include the suprascapular nerve, nerve to subclavius, musculocutaneous nerve, and axillary nerve. However, the ulnar nerve is not typically affected in this condition.

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  • 49. 

    You can palpate the radial artery just lateral to the tendon of 

    • Flexor carpi ulnaris

    • Flexor digitorum profundus 

    • Flexor carpi radialis

    • Palmaris longus

    • Extensor pollicis longus

    Correct Answer
    A. Flexor carpi radialis
    Explanation
    The radial artery can be palpated just lateral to the tendon of the Flexor carpi radialis. This is because the Flexor carpi radialis muscle runs along the radial side of the forearm and its tendon can be used as a landmark to locate the radial artery. Palpating the radial artery in this location is commonly done to assess the pulse and blood flow in the wrist.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 08, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3
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