The Ultimate Biology: Anatomy Exam Practice Test

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  • 1/191 Questions

    All the following are correct regarding the BONE, EXCEPT?

    • Covered by periosteum
    • It responds to stress
    • Bone forming cell named osteoclast
    • In long bone diaphysis, means the shaft
    • Very well innervated
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About This Quiz

The Ultimate Biology: Anatomy Exam Practice Test assesses key knowledge in human anatomy. It covers bone structure, sensory pathways, neurological impacts of diseases, and anatomical regions. Ideal for students preparing for medical exams, enhancing both fundamental and detailed understanding of anatomy.

The Ultimate Biology: Anatomy Exam Practice Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    All modality of senses relay in thalamus EXCEP? 

    • Thermal senses

    • Fine touch

    • Vision

    • Smell

    • Proprioception (position)

    Correct Answer
    A. Smell
    Explanation
    The correct answer is smell. The question asks for the modality of senses that do not relay in the thalamus. While thermal senses, fine touch, vision, and proprioception all relay in the thalamus, smell is an exception. Smell signals bypass the thalamus and instead travel directly to the olfactory cortex in the brain.

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  • 3. 

    In poliomyelitis, which of the followings get damaged by the polio virus

    • Dorsal root ganglia

    • Dorsal horn neurons

    • Ventral horn neurons

    • Lateral horn neruons

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventral horn neurons
    Explanation
    The polio virus damages the ventral horn neurons in poliomyelitis. Poliomyelitis is a viral infection that affects the nervous system, specifically the motor neurons in the spinal cord. The virus primarily targets and destroys the ventral horn neurons, which are responsible for transmitting motor signals from the spinal cord to the muscles. This damage leads to muscle weakness, paralysis, and other symptoms associated with polio.

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  • 4. 

    Dermatomal level of umbilicus is

    • T10

    • C7

    • L4

    • L3

    • T8

    Correct Answer
    A. T10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T10. The dermatomal level of the umbilicus refers to the specific spinal nerve that innervates the skin around the umbilicus. In this case, T10 refers to the 10th thoracic spinal nerve, which is responsible for providing sensation to the area around the umbilicus.

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  • 5. 

    Dorsal root ganglia involved in

    • Motor function

    • Sensory function

    • Sympathetic function

    • Parasympathetic function

    • Non-the-above

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensory function
    Explanation
    The dorsal root ganglia are involved in sensory function. These ganglia are located along the dorsal root of the spinal nerve and contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. These neurons receive sensory information from various parts of the body and transmit it to the central nervous system for processing and interpretation. Therefore, the correct answer is sensory function.

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  • 6. 

    Lymphatic drainage of anal region goes to?

    • Medial inguinal lymph nodes

    • Intermediate inguinal LN

    • Lateral inguinal LN

    • Popliteal LN

    • Non-the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral inguinal LN
    Explanation
    The lymphatic drainage of the anal region goes to the lateral inguinal lymph nodes. The lateral inguinal lymph nodes are located in the groin area and receive lymphatic drainage from the lower limbs, genitalia, and anal region. These lymph nodes play a role in filtering and draining lymph fluid from the anal region, helping to remove waste products and pathogens from the area.

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  • 7. 

    All the following are correct regarding great saphenous vein EXCEPT

    • Terminates in femoral vein

    • It contains a bunch of valves

    • Started from dorsal venous arch of foot

    • Runs on medial side of knee

    • Runs posterior to medial malleolus

    Correct Answer
    A. Runs posterior to medial malleolus
    Explanation
    The great saphenous vein is a long vein that runs along the medial side of the leg. It starts from the dorsal venous arch of the foot and terminates in the femoral vein. It contains a series of valves that prevent backflow of blood. However, it does not run posterior to the medial malleolus, which is the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle. Hence, the correct answer is that it does not run posterior to the medial malleolus.

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  • 8. 

    Lateral boundary of the femoral ring is?

    • Femoral vein

    • Inguinal ligament

    • Lacunar ligament

    • Pectineus muscle

    • Femoral artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Femoral vein
    Explanation
    The lateral boundary of the femoral ring is the femoral vein. The femoral ring is a passageway in the lower abdomen through which the femoral artery, femoral vein, and other structures pass. The femoral vein is located on the lateral side of the femoral ring, along with the femoral artery. The inguinal ligament forms the superior boundary of the femoral ring, while the lacunar ligament and pectineus muscle are not directly related to the boundaries of the femoral ring.

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  • 9. 

    In knee jerk, or patellar reflex you are testing spinal cord levels?

    • L2, L3, L4

    • L4, L5, S1, S2

    • T12, L1, L2, L3

    • L4, L5, S1

    • L5, S1, S2

    Correct Answer
    A. L2, L3, L4
    Explanation
    The knee jerk, or patellar reflex, tests the spinal cord levels L2, L3, and L4. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon, which stretches the quadriceps muscle. The sensory information from the stretch receptors in the muscle is transmitted to the spinal cord through the femoral nerve, and the motor response is generated by the spinal cord, causing contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the leg. The involvement of L2, L3, and L4 spinal cord levels in this reflex is well-established in medical literature.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following muscles have a dual innervation

    • Gracilis

    • Sartorius

    • Adductor longus

    • Adductor magnus

    • Biceps femoris

    Correct Answer
    A. Adductor magnus
    Explanation
    Adductor magnus is the correct answer because it is innervated by both the obturator nerve and the sciatic nerve. The obturator nerve supplies the anterior part of the muscle, while the sciatic nerve supplies the posterior part. This dual innervation allows for more precise control and coordination of the muscle's actions. The other muscles listed, such as Gracilis, Sartorius, Adductor longus, and Biceps femoris, do not have dual innervation.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following muscles flex hip & extend knee

    • Rectus femoris

    • Vastus lateralis

    • Adductor longus

    • Sartorius

    • Biceps femoris

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectus femoris
    Explanation
    The rectus femoris muscle is responsible for flexing the hip and extending the knee. It is one of the four quadriceps muscles located in the front of the thigh. When the rectus femoris contracts, it helps to lift the leg at the hip joint and straighten the knee joint. This muscle is important for movements such as walking, running, and jumping.

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  • 12. 

    All the following are the contain of the subsartorial canal EXCEPT

    • Femoral V

    • Femoral A

    • Long saphenous V

    • Saphenous N

    • Nerve to vastus medialis

    Correct Answer
    A. Long saphenous V
    Explanation
    The subsartorial canal contains the femoral vein, femoral artery, saphenous nerve, and nerve to vastus medialis. However, the long saphenous vein is not found in the subsartorial canal.

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  • 13. 

    Muscle that flex hip, flex knee, & lateral rotate your thigh bring the lower limbs into the cross legged sitting position is? 

    • Gracilis

    • Sartorius

    • Adductor longus

    • Rectus femoris

    • Semitendinosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Sartorius
    Explanation
    The muscle that flexes the hip, flexes the knee, and laterally rotates the thigh to bring the lower limbs into the cross-legged sitting position is the Sartorius muscle.

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  • 14. 

    Oblique popliteal ligament is the reflected part of a muscle operated by?

    • Sciatic N

    • Femoral N

    • Obturator N

    • Inferior gluteal N

    • Superior gluteal N

    Correct Answer
    A. Sciatic N
    Explanation
    The oblique popliteal ligament is a ligament located in the knee joint. It is not operated by a muscle, but rather it helps to stabilize the joint. The sciatic nerve is a major nerve that runs down the back of the leg and is closely associated with the knee joint. Therefore, it is possible that the sciatic nerve may have some influence on the oblique popliteal ligament, hence it is the most likely answer.

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  • 15. 

    All the following passes through greater sciatic foramina EXCEPT

    • Tendon of obturator internus muscle

    • Piriformis muscle

    • Sciatic nerve

    • Inferior gluteal artery

    • Superior gluteal nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Tendon of obturator internus muscle
    Explanation
    The greater sciatic foramen is a large opening in the pelvic bone through which several structures pass. The piriformis muscle, sciatic nerve, inferior gluteal artery, and superior gluteal nerve all pass through the greater sciatic foramen. However, the tendon of the obturator internus muscle does not pass through this opening. Therefore, the correct answer is the tendon of the obturator internus muscle.

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  • 16. 

    Perfect site for lumbar puncture (spinal tap) between

    • L1 & L2

    • T12 & L1

    • L3 & L4

    • L4 & L5

    • S1 & S2

    Correct Answer
    A. L4 & L5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is L4 & L5. This is the ideal site for a lumbar puncture because the spinal cord ends at the level of L1-L2, so there is no risk of damaging the spinal cord during the procedure. The L4-L5 intervertebral space is also wide enough to allow for easy access to the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid is collected. Additionally, the spinous processes at this level are less prominent, making it easier to insert the needle without hitting bone.

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  • 17. 

    Sacroiliac joint is

    • Fibrous

    • Synovial

    • Gomphosis

    • Syndesmoses

    • Sutural

    Correct Answer
    A. Synovial
    Explanation
    The sacroiliac joint is a synovial joint. Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial cavity, which contains synovial fluid that lubricates and nourishes the joint. These joints allow for a wide range of movement and are found in various parts of the body, including the hips, knees, and shoulders. In the case of the sacroiliac joint, it is located between the sacrum and the ilium bones of the pelvis, and it allows for a small amount of movement to occur, primarily for shock absorption and stability during activities such as walking or running.

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  • 18. 

    In case of posterior hip dislocation, which of the following in danger?

    • Femoral N

    • Obturator N

    • Sciatic N

    • Femoral A

    • Femoral V

    Correct Answer
    A. Sciatic N
    Explanation
    In case of posterior hip dislocation, the sciatic nerve is in danger. Posterior hip dislocation occurs when the femoral head is forced out of the socket towards the back of the hip joint. This can result in compression or stretching of the sciatic nerve, which runs through the back of the hip joint. Damage to the sciatic nerve can lead to symptoms such as pain, numbness, tingling, or weakness in the leg and foot. Therefore, it is important to be cautious of the sciatic nerve when dealing with posterior hip dislocations.

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  • 19. 

    The strongest ligament in your hip is?

    • Ischiofemoral

    • Pubofemoral

    • Iliofemoral

    • Ligament head of femur

    • Transvers acetabulor ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Iliofemoral
    Explanation
    The iliofemoral ligament is the strongest ligament in the hip. It is located on the front of the hip joint and is responsible for preventing excessive extension and hyperextension of the hip. This ligament plays a crucial role in maintaining stability and preventing dislocation of the hip joint.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following muscles affected stability of knee joint? 

    • Piriformis M

    • Gluteus minimums M

    • Gluteus medias M

    • Gluteus max M

    • Obturator internes M

    Correct Answer
    A. Gluteus max M
    Explanation
    The gluteus maximus muscle plays a crucial role in stabilizing the knee joint. It is the largest muscle in the buttocks and is responsible for extending the hip joint and providing stability to the knee during activities such as walking, running, and jumping. Weakness or dysfunction of the gluteus maximus can lead to poor knee stability, which may increase the risk of knee injuries or pain.

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  • 21. 

    All the following are correct regarding tensor fascia latae muscle EXCEPT?

    • Innervated by femoral nerve

    • Total surrounded by deep fascia

    • Attached to IT band

    • Innervated by superior gluteal nerve

    • Located in the upper lateral side of thigh 

    Correct Answer
    A. Innervated by femoral nerve
    Explanation
    The tensor fascia latae muscle is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve, not the femoral nerve. The femoral nerve innervates other muscles in the thigh, but not the tensor fascia latae. The tensor fascia latae muscle is located in the upper lateral side of the thigh, attached to the iliotibial band, and is completely surrounded by deep fascia.

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  • 22. 

    Trendelenberg sign positive indicates damage to?

    • Femoral nerve

    • Obturator nerve

    • Sciatic nerve

    • Superior gluteal nerve

    • Inferior gluteal nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior gluteal nerve
    Explanation
    The Trendelenberg sign is a clinical test used to assess the function of the hip abductor muscles. A positive Trendelenberg sign indicates weakness or paralysis of the hip abductors. The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles, which are responsible for hip abduction. Therefore, damage to the superior gluteal nerve would result in a positive Trendelenberg sign.

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  • 23. 

    Your hip is medially rotated mainly by?

    • Sciatic N

    • Femoral N

    • Superior Gluteal N

    • Obturator N

    • Saphenous N

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior Gluteal N
    Explanation
    The superior gluteal nerve is responsible for medially rotating the hip.

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  • 24. 

    In case of supracondylar fracture of the femur, which of the following in danger?

    • Common fibular N

    • Tibial N

    • Popliteal A

    • Popliteal V

    • Small saphenous V

    Correct Answer
    A. Popliteal A
    Explanation
    In case of a supracondylar fracture of the femur, the popliteal artery is in danger. This is because the fracture occurs just above the condyles of the femur, which can cause displacement of bone fragments and potential damage to the popliteal artery. The popliteal artery is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the lower leg and foot, so any injury to it can lead to significant complications such as ischemia or even limb-threatening conditions.

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  • 25. 

    Piriformis syndrome resulted from nerve compression due to long-distance walking or running or by direct compression to?

    • Femoral N

    • Superior gluteal N

    • Inferior gluteal N

    • Sciatic N

    • Obturator N

    Correct Answer
    A. Sciatic N
    Explanation
    Piriformis syndrome is a condition that occurs when the sciatic nerve is compressed or irritated by the piriformis muscle in the buttocks. The piriformis muscle can become tight or inflamed due to activities such as long-distance walking or running, which can then put pressure on the sciatic nerve. This can result in pain, tingling, or numbness in the buttocks and down the leg. Therefore, the correct answer is the Sciatic Nerve.

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  • 26. 

    Hanna, likes to wear tight knee-high boots when she goes out. Lately she has noticed that anterolateral surface of her legs is numb while wearing them and she also has some difficulty doesiflexing her foot. Which nerve do you suspect is being compressed?

    • Tibial N

    • Femoral N

    • Common fibular N

    • Obturator N

    • Saphenous N

    Correct Answer
    A. Common fibular N
    Explanation
    The common fibular nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles that dorsiflex the foot and the sensation on the anterolateral surface of the leg. In this case, Hanna's symptoms of numbness and difficulty dorsiflexing her foot suggest that the common fibular nerve is being compressed while wearing the tight knee-high boots.

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  • 27. 

    Lesser trochanter of femur is the site of distal attachment of?

    • Piriformis muscle

    • Obturator internus muscle

    • Iliopsoas muscle

    • Gluteus Max muscle

    • Tensor fascia latae muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Iliopsoas muscle
    Explanation
    The lesser trochanter of the femur is the site of distal attachment for the iliopsoas muscle. The iliopsoas muscle is a combination of two muscles, the psoas major and the iliacus, which work together to flex the hip joint. The lesser trochanter is a bony prominence located on the posterior aspect of the femur, and it serves as an attachment point for various muscles and ligaments. In this case, the iliopsoas muscle attaches to the lesser trochanter to assist in hip flexion.

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  • 28. 

    Artery of head of femur normally is a branch of

    • Femoral artery

    • Inferior gluteal artery

    • Superior gluteal artery

    • Pudendal artery

    • Obturator artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Obturator artery
    Explanation
    The artery of the head of the femur is normally a branch of the obturator artery.

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  • 29. 

    All the following are correct regarding popliteus muscle EXCEPT

    • Attached to medial meniscus

    • Innervated by tibial N

    • Attached to lateral meniscus

    • Attached to femoral lateral epicondyle

    • Its unlock your knee

    Correct Answer
    A. Attached to medial meniscus
    Explanation
    The popliteus muscle is not attached to the medial meniscus. It is a small muscle located at the back of the knee joint and is responsible for unlocking the knee by rotating the tibia. It is innervated by the tibial nerve and is not directly attached to the lateral meniscus or the femoral lateral epicondyle.

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  • 30. 

    Fibular collateral ligament

    • Connect the fibular head to medial tibial condyle

    • Its Flat extracapsular thickening

    • Tendon of popliteus muscle runs superficial to it

    • Has no connection lateral meniscus

    • Its blend or fused with medial meniscus

    Correct Answer
    A. Has no connection lateral meniscus
    Explanation
    The fibular collateral ligament is a ligament that connects the fibular head to the medial tibial condyle. It is a flat extracapsular thickening and the tendon of the popliteus muscle runs superficial to it. However, it does not have any connection to the lateral meniscus. Instead, it is blended or fused with the medial meniscus.

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  • 31. 

    Dr. Ali is subjected to traffic accident as crossing 5th Ave, Shadyside hospital diagnosed him as fracture fibular neck, after recovery period he notice inability to dorsi flex his foot on fractured side, which of the following nerve injured?

    • Femoral N

    • Obturator N

    • Tibial N

    • Common fibular N

    • Sural N

    Correct Answer
    A. Common fibular N
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Common fibular N. The Common fibular nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles that control dorsi flexion of the foot. In this case, the fracture of the fibular neck likely caused damage to the Common fibular nerve, resulting in the inability to dorsi flex the foot on the fractured side.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following nerves used usually for nerve biopsy?

    • Saphenous N

    • Obturator N

    • Tibial N

    • Common fibular N

    • Sural N

    Correct Answer
    A. Sural N
    Explanation
    The sural nerve is commonly used for nerve biopsy. It is a sensory nerve located in the lower leg and foot. It is easily accessible and relatively superficial, making it an ideal choice for biopsy procedures. Biopsies of the sural nerve can provide valuable information about nerve damage or disease, helping to diagnose conditions such as peripheral neuropathy.

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  • 33. 

    Lower tibiofibular joint is

    • Fibrous

    • Synovial

    • Gomphosis

    • Syndemoses

    • Sutural

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibrous
    Explanation
    The lower tibiofibular joint is classified as fibrous because it is connected by fibrous connective tissue. Fibrous joints are immovable or slightly movable joints that are held together by dense regular connective tissue, such as collagen fibers. In the case of the lower tibiofibular joint, the tibia and fibula bones are connected by a fibrous ligament, which allows for minimal movement between the two bones. This type of joint provides stability and support to the lower leg.

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  • 34. 

    In ankle jerk you are testing the integrity of

    • L4, L5

    • L3, L2

    • S2, S3

    • S1, S2

    • L5, S1

    Correct Answer
    A. S1, S2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is S1, S2. The ankle jerk reflex, also known as the Achilles reflex, is a deep tendon reflex that tests the integrity of the S1 and S2 spinal nerve roots. When the Achilles tendon is tapped, it stimulates sensory receptors in the muscle spindle, which then activates the S1 and S2 nerve roots. The resulting reflex contraction of the calf muscles indicates the normal functioning of these nerve roots.

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  • 35. 

    All the following are correct regarding the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), EXCEPT

    • Arises from the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia

    • The ACL has a relatively poor blood supply

    • The ACL has a relatively rich blood supply

    • Located outside the synovial cavity

    • Located within the fibrous capsule of knee

    Correct Answer
    A. The ACL has a relatively rich blood supply
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the ACL has a relatively poor blood supply. This means that the ACL does not receive as much blood flow compared to other ligaments in the body. This is significant because a poor blood supply can hinder the ACL's ability to heal and recover from injury.

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  • 36. 

    Inability in walking downhill, means damage to?

    • Posterior cruciate ligament

    • Anterior cruciate ligament

    • Oblique popliteal ligament

    • Fibular collateral ligament

    • Tibial collateral ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior cruciate ligament
    Explanation
    Inability in walking downhill suggests damage to the posterior cruciate ligament. The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is one of the major ligaments in the knee that helps stabilize the joint. It prevents the tibia (shinbone) from moving too far backward in relation to the femur (thighbone). When the PCL is damaged, it can cause instability in the knee, making it difficult to walk downhill.

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  • 37. 

    Inside the knee joint cavity is

    • ACL

    • PCL

    • Medial meniscus

    • Lateral meniscus

    • C & D

    Correct Answer
    A. C & D
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C & D because inside the knee joint cavity, both the medial meniscus and lateral meniscus are present. The menisci are crescent-shaped pieces of cartilage that act as shock absorbers and help to distribute weight evenly across the knee joint. The ACL (anterior cruciate ligament) and PCL (posterior cruciate ligament) are also important structures within the knee joint, but they are not located inside the joint cavity itself.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following bones have no muscle attachments

    • Navicular

    • Talus

    • Medial cuneiform

    • Cuboid

    • Calcaneus

    Correct Answer
    A. Talus
    Explanation
    The talus bone is unique because it does not have any muscle attachments. It is located in the ankle joint and acts as a connector between the leg and foot bones. While other bones in the foot, such as the navicular, medial cuneiform, cuboid, and calcaneus, have various muscle attachments that contribute to foot movement and stability, the talus bone's main function is to transmit weight from the leg to the foot.

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  • 39. 

    All the following are the contents of tarsal tunnel EXCEPT

    • Posterior tibial artery

    • Tibialis posterior tendon

    • Fibularis longus tendon

    • Tibial nerve

    • Flexor hallucis longus muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibularis longus tendon
    Explanation
    The tarsal tunnel is a narrow space in the ankle where several structures pass through. These structures include the posterior tibial artery, tibialis posterior tendon, tibial nerve, and flexor hallucis longus muscle. The fibularis longus tendon, however, does not pass through the tarsal tunnel. Therefore, it is the only structure listed that is not a content of the tarsal tunnel.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the metatarsal bone might be fatigue fractured in marathon runners

    • 1st 

    • 2nd 

    • 3rd 

    • 4th 

    • 5th

    Correct Answer
    A. 2nd 
    Explanation
    Marathon runners often experience stress fractures in the metatarsal bones of their feet due to the repetitive impact and pressure placed on their feet during long-distance running. The 2nd metatarsal bone is the most commonly affected bone in the foot for this type of fracture. This is because it is longer and thinner compared to the other metatarsal bones, making it more susceptible to stress and fatigue fractures.

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  • 41. 

    Posterior Tibial Pulse can usually be palpated between?

    • Extensor hallucis longus muscle & Tibialis posterior

    • Posterior surface of the medial malleolus & medial border of the calcaneal tendon

    • Posterior surface of the lateral malleolus & medial border of the calcaneal tendon 

    • Tendon of Tibialis anterior & Tendon of tibias posterior muscles

    • Tendon of extensor hallucis longus & tendon of extensor digitorum longus muscles 

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior surface of the medial malleolus & medial border of the calcaneal tendon
    Explanation
    The posterior tibial pulse can usually be palpated between the posterior surface of the medial malleolus (the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle) and the medial border of the calcaneal tendon (the tendon that connects the calf muscles to the heel bone).

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  • 42. 

    All the following are correct regarding Popliteal artery EXCEPT

    • Deep to popliteus muscle

    • Deep to gastrocnemius muscle

    • Deep to soleus muscle

    • It gives anterior & posterior arteries 

    • Its fibular branch usually arises from posterior tibial artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Deep to popliteus muscle
    Explanation
    The popliteal artery is deep to the popliteus muscle, which means it is located beneath it. This statement is incorrect because the popliteal artery is actually deep to the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, not the popliteus muscle. The popliteal artery gives rise to both anterior and posterior arteries, and its fibular branch typically arises from the posterior tibial artery.

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  • 43. 

    In case of fracture femur all the following are correct EXCEPT

    • Affected limb become short 

    • Usually elderly female is the victim

    • Limb is laterally rotated

    • Limb is medially rotated 

    • No acetabulor fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Limb is medially rotated 
    Explanation
    In case of a fracture femur, all the following statements are correct except for "Limb is medially rotated."

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  • 44. 

    Lower end of tibia, articulates with?

    • Calcaneus

    • Talus

    • Navicular

    • Cuboid

    • Medial cuneiform

    Correct Answer
    A. Talus
    Explanation
    The lower end of the tibia articulates with the talus bone. The talus is one of the seven tarsal bones in the foot and is located between the tibia and the calcaneus (heel bone). It forms a joint called the talocrural joint, which allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot. The articulation between the tibia and talus is important for weight-bearing and movement of the ankle joint.

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  • 45. 

    Your ankle joint is more stable in?

    • Planterflexion

    • Inversion

    • Eversion

    • Dorsiflexion

    • Neutral between dorsi & plantarflexion

    Correct Answer
    A. Dorsiflexion
    Explanation
    Dorsiflexion refers to the movement of the ankle joint where the foot is flexed upward towards the shin. This position allows for greater stability in the ankle joint as the bones of the foot are aligned in a way that provides better support. In contrast, plantarflexion, inversion, and eversion involve movements that can potentially compromise the stability of the ankle joint. Therefore, dorsiflexion is the most stable position for the ankle joint.

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  • 46. 

    All the following joints in your foot are synovial EXCEPT

    • Talocalcneal

    • Talonavicular

    • Calcaneocuboid

    • Cuboideonavicular

    • Naviculocuneiform

    Correct Answer
    A. Cuboideonavicular
    Explanation
    The cuboideonavicular joint is not a synovial joint. Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial fluid-filled cavity between the articulating surfaces, allowing for smooth movement. The talocalcneal, talonavicular, calcaneocuboid, and naviculocuneiform joints are all synovial joints found in the foot. However, the cuboideonavicular joint is a fibrous joint, which means it is connected by fibrous tissue rather than a synovial cavity.

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  • 47. 

    All the following muscles are participating in dynamic support of your foot arches EXCEPT

    • Tibialis anterior 

    • Gastrocnemius

    • Flexor hallucis longus

    • Fibularis longus

    • Tibialis posterior

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastrocnemius
    Explanation
    The gastrocnemius muscle is not participating in the dynamic support of the foot arches. The foot arches are primarily supported by the tibialis anterior, flexor hallucis longus, fibularis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles. The gastrocnemius muscle is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot, not for providing support to the arches.

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  • 48. 

    Muscle that inverts your foot & dorsiflex your ankle?

    • Tibialis posterior M

    • Tibialis anterior M

    • Extensor digitorum longus M

    • Flexor hallucis longus M

    • Soleus M

    Correct Answer
    A. Tibialis anterior M
    Explanation
    The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for both inversion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the ankle. Inversion refers to the movement of the foot towards the midline of the body, while dorsiflexion refers to the movement of the foot towards the shin. The tibialis anterior muscle is located on the front of the lower leg and plays a crucial role in stabilizing the ankle and foot during walking and running.

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  • 49. 

    Bone's that maintain medial longitudinal arch of your foot?

    • Calcaneus

    • Talus

    • Navicular

    • Three metatarsals

    • Three cuneiforms

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The bones that maintain the medial longitudinal arch of the foot are the calcaneus, talus, navicular, three metatarsals, and three cuneiforms. These bones work together to provide support and stability to the arch, allowing for proper weight distribution and shock absorption during walking and running.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jan 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Dec 08, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3

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