Anatomy Toughest Exam Quiz!

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Anatomy Toughest Exam Quiz! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The following muscles rotate the eyeball: 

    • A.

      Iris muscles

    • B.

      Ciliary muscles

    • C.

      Extrinsic muscles

    • D.

      All of these

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Extrinsic muscles
    Explanation
    The correct answer is extrinsic muscles. Extrinsic muscles are responsible for the movement and rotation of the eyeball. These muscles include the superior rectus, inferior rectus, lateral rectus, medial rectus, superior oblique, and inferior oblique muscles. The iris muscles control the size of the pupil, while the ciliary muscles are responsible for changing the shape of the lens. Therefore, the correct answer is extrinsic muscles, as they specifically rotate the eyeball.

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  • 2. 

    The following is NOT true about retinal cones: 

    • A.

      They produce sharp images, when excited

    • B.

      They are used in bright light

    • C.

      They are used for perception of colors

    • D.

      They need retinol to work 

    • E.

      They are less numerous than the rods

    Correct Answer
    D. They need retinol to work 
    Explanation
    Retinal cones are photoreceptor cells in the retina that are responsible for color vision and visual acuity in bright light conditions. They produce sharp images when excited and are used for the perception of colors. However, they do not need retinol to work. Retinol is a form of vitamin A that is important for the health of the retina, but it is not directly involved in the functioning of retinal cones. Additionally, retinal cones are indeed less numerous than the rods, which are another type of photoreceptor cells in the retina.

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  • 3. 

    The fovea is found in the center of: 

    • A.

      Macula

    • B.

      Lens

    • C.

      Iris

    • D.

      Pupil

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Macula
    Explanation
    The fovea is a small, central pit located in the macula of the eye. It is responsible for our central vision and contains a high concentration of cone cells, which are responsible for color perception and detailed vision. The macula, on the other hand, is a small, oval-shaped area near the center of the retina. It is also highly concentrated with cone cells and is responsible for our ability to see fine details and perform tasks that require sharp central vision. Therefore, the fovea is indeed found in the center of the macula.

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  • 4. 

    The ossicle that gets moved by the vibrations of the tympanic membrane is: 

    • A.

      Malleus

    • B.

      Incus

    • C.

      Stapes

    • D.

      Stirrup

    • E.

      Anvil

    Correct Answer
    A. Malleus
    Explanation
    The malleus is the ossicle that gets moved by the vibrations of the tympanic membrane. The malleus is the first of the three small bones in the middle ear, also known as the hammer. It is connected to the tympanic membrane on one end and to the incus on the other end. When sound waves hit the tympanic membrane, they cause it to vibrate, which in turn causes the malleus to move. This movement then transfers the vibrations to the other two ossicles, the incus and the stapes, ultimately leading to the transmission of sound to the inner ear.

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  • 5. 

    The inner most layer of the eyeball: 

    • A.

      Choroid

    • B.

      Vitreous body

    • C.

      Sclera

    • D.

      Cornea

    • E.

      Retina

    Correct Answer
    E. Retina
    Explanation
    The retina is the innermost layer of the eyeball that contains specialized cells called photoreceptors, which are responsible for detecting light and converting it into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. These signals are then transmitted to the brain via the optic nerve, allowing us to perceive visual images. The retina also contains other types of cells that help support and nourish the photoreceptors.

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  • 6. 

    The function of arrector pili muscle is: 

    • A.

      To contract to squeeze oil from the sebaceous glands

    • B.

      To squeeze the sweat out of glands

    • C.

      To raise the hairs in upright position

    • D.

      To contract in order to produce heat for heat regulation

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. To raise the hairs in upright position
    Explanation
    The arrector pili muscle is responsible for raising the hairs in an upright position. When this muscle contracts, it causes the hair follicles to stand up, resulting in the phenomenon commonly known as "goosebumps." This response can be triggered by various stimuli, such as cold temperatures or emotional arousal. The contraction of the arrector pili muscle does not have any direct relation to the secretion of oil or sweat, nor does it play a role in heat regulation.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is NOT found in Dermis?

    • A.

      Hair root

    • B.

      Arrector pili muscle

    • C.

      Sebaceous glands

    • D.

      Sweat glands

    • E.

      Keratin

    Correct Answer
    E. Keratin
    Explanation
    Keratin is a protein that is primarily found in the epidermis, which is the outermost layer of the skin. It provides strength and structure to the skin, hair, and nails. The dermis, on the other hand, is the layer beneath the epidermis and is responsible for providing support and nourishment to the skin. It contains various structures such as hair roots, arrector pili muscles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands. Therefore, keratin is not found in the dermis.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not a function of skin?

    • A.

      Collection of sensory information

    • B.

      Protection from microbes

    • C.

      Production of Vitamin D 

    • D.

      Regulation of body temp

    • E.

      Absorption of water

    Correct Answer
    E. Absorption of water
    Explanation
    The skin serves various functions such as protection from microbes, production of Vitamin D, regulation of body temperature, and collection of sensory information. However, absorption of water is not one of the functions of the skin. The skin acts as a barrier that prevents excessive water loss from the body, but it does not actively absorb water.

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  • 9. 

    Decubitus ulcers usually result from:

    • A.

      Prolonged pressure that cuts of circulation

    • B.

      Necrosis caused by bacterial infection

    • C.

      Skin burn by rubbing

    • D.

      Fungal infection of the skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Prolonged pressure that cuts of circulation
    Explanation
    Decubitus ulcers, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores, typically occur due to prolonged pressure on a specific area of the body, which restricts blood circulation to that area. When blood flow is cut off, the affected tissues do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to tissue damage and ulcer formation. This condition is commonly observed in individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility, as they are more prone to prolonged pressure on certain body parts.

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  • 10. 

    The structures of the inner ear include these, except: 

    • A.

      Auricle

    • B.

      Cochlea

    • C.

      Vestibule

    • D.

      Semicircular canals

    • E.

      None 

    Correct Answer
    A. Auricle
    Explanation
    The auricle is not part of the structures of the inner ear. The structures of the inner ear include the cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals. The auricle, also known as the outer ear, is the visible part of the ear that helps collect sound waves and direct them into the ear canal. It is not involved in the actual processing of sound within the inner ear.

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  • 11. 

    The part of the inner ear that produces electric impulses in the auditory nerve to detect sound is:

    • A.

      Cochlea 

    • B.

      Vestibule

    • C.

      Semicircular canals

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cochlea 
    Explanation
    The cochlea is the correct answer because it is responsible for producing electric impulses in the auditory nerve to detect sound. The vestibule and semicircular canals are also parts of the inner ear, but they are not involved in producing electric impulses for sound detection.

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  • 12. 

    The outer ear includes:

    • A.

      Malleus

    • B.

      Vestibule

    • C.

      Pinna

    • D.

      Tympanic membrane

    Correct Answer
    C. Pinna
    Explanation
    The pinna is the visible part of the outer ear, also known as the auricle. It is the cartilage-covered structure that helps collect sound waves and funnel them into the ear canal. The other options mentioned in the question, such as the malleus, vestibule, and tympanic membrane, are not part of the outer ear. The malleus is one of the three small bones in the middle ear, the vestibule is a part of the inner ear, and the tympanic membrane, also known as the eardrum, separates the outer ear from the middle ear.

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  • 13. 

    The thin film like membrane that covers the front of the eye is called:

    • A.

      Sclera

    • B.

      Cornea

    • C.

      Conjunctiva

    • D.

      Choroid

    • E.

      Humor 

    Correct Answer
    C. Conjunctiva
    Explanation
    The conjunctiva is a thin, transparent membrane that covers the front of the eye, including the white part of the eye (sclera) and the inner surface of the eyelids. It helps to protect the eye from foreign particles and lubricates the eye by producing tears. The cornea, on the other hand, is the clear, dome-shaped front part of the eye that covers the iris and the pupil. The sclera is the tough, white outer layer of the eyeball. The choroid is a layer of blood vessels that provide oxygen and nutrients to the eye. Humor refers to the clear fluid that fills the front and back chambers of the eye.

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  • 14. 

    The function of the ossicles is: 

    • A.

      To collect sound waves

    • B.

      To amplify sound waves

    • C.

      To excite neurons of auditory nerve

    • D.

      To interpret sound waves

    Correct Answer
    B. To amplify sound waves
    Explanation
    The ossicles are a set of three small bones in the middle ear, namely the malleus, incus, and stapes. Their main function is to amplify sound waves that enter the ear. When sound waves reach the eardrum, they cause it to vibrate. These vibrations are then transmitted to the ossicles, which in turn amplify the vibrations and transmit them to the inner ear. This amplification is necessary because the inner ear contains fluid, which requires stronger vibrations to effectively stimulate the hair cells that are responsible for converting sound into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain.

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  • 15. 

    The part of the eye that maintains the shape of the eyeball is called 

    • A.

      Aqueous humor

    • B.

      Vitreous body

    • C.

      Choroid

    • D.

      Crystalline lens

    • E.

      Retina

    Correct Answer
    B. Vitreous body
    Explanation
    The vitreous body is a gel-like substance that fills the space between the lens and the retina in the eye. It helps to maintain the shape of the eyeball by providing support and keeping the retina in place. The vitreous body also plays a role in transmitting light to the retina and assisting with the overall function of the eye.

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  • 16. 

    The part of the inner ear that contains endolymph is 

    • A.

      Cochlea

    • B.

      Vestibule

    • C.

      Semicircular canals

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    The inner ear is made up of three main parts: the cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals. Each of these structures contains a fluid called endolymph. The cochlea is responsible for hearing, the vestibule helps with balance and orientation, and the semicircular canals detect rotational movements. Therefore, all of the above options are correct as they all contain endolymph in different parts of the inner ear.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not a special sense receptor?

    • A.

      Photoreceptor

    • B.

      Chemoreceptor

    • C.

      Proprioreceptor

    • D.

      None- all of these are special sense receptors

    Correct Answer
    C. Proprioreceptor
    Explanation
    A proprioceptor is not a special sense receptor. Special sense receptors are responsible for the five main senses: sight (photoreceptors), taste (chemoreceptors), smell (chemoreceptors), hearing (mechanoreceptors), and balance (mechanoreceptors). Proprioceptors, on the other hand, are sensory receptors located in muscles, tendons, and joints that provide information about body position and movement. They are responsible for our sense of body awareness and coordination.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is a general sense?

    • A.

      Vision

    • B.

      Hearing

    • C.

      Equilibrium

    • D.

      Position

    Correct Answer
    D. Position
    Explanation
    Position is a general sense because it refers to the spatial location or arrangement of an object or person. It is a fundamental concept that can be perceived and understood by all individuals, regardless of their specific sensory abilities. Unlike vision, hearing, and equilibrium, which are specific senses that rely on particular sensory organs, position can be comprehended through a combination of various sensory inputs, including proprioception and tactile sensations. Therefore, position is a more inclusive and universal sense that is not limited to any specific sensory modality.

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  • 19. 

    Stratum corneum of epidermis:

    • A.

      Contains pressure receptors

    • B.

      Is composed of dead cells

    • C.

      Contains touch receptors

    • D.

      Contains blood vessles

    Correct Answer
    B. Is composed of dead cells
    Explanation
    The stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis, and it is composed of dead cells. These dead cells are flattened and filled with keratin, a protein that provides strength and protection to the skin. The main function of the stratum corneum is to act as a barrier, preventing the loss of water from the body and protecting it from external factors such as pathogens and UV radiation. The dead cells in this layer continuously shed and are replaced by new cells from the underlying layers of the epidermis.

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  • 20. 

    The part of the inner ear that serves for equilibrium and balance is: 

    • A.

      Cochlea

    • B.

      Vestibule

    • C.

      Semicircular canals

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Semicircular canals
    Explanation
    The semicircular canals are the part of the inner ear responsible for equilibrium and balance. These canals are filled with fluid and contain hair cells that detect changes in head position and movement. When the head moves, the fluid in the semicircular canals also moves, causing the hair cells to bend and send signals to the brain, which helps maintain balance and coordinate movements. The cochlea is responsible for hearing, and the vestibule is involved in detecting linear acceleration and gravity. Therefore, the correct answer is semicircular canals.

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  • 21. 

    The function of the ciliary muscles is:

    • A.

      To move the eye ball

    • B.

      To constrict the pupil

    • C.

      To diate the pupil

    • D.

      To adjust thickness of the lens

    Correct Answer
    D. To adjust thickness of the lens
    Explanation
    The ciliary muscles are responsible for adjusting the thickness of the lens in the eye. When these muscles contract, they cause the lens to become thicker, allowing the eye to focus on near objects. Conversely, when the ciliary muscles relax, the lens becomes thinner, enabling the eye to focus on distant objects. This adjustment in lens thickness is crucial for proper vision and the ability to see objects clearly at different distances.

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  • 22. 

    The tube that connects the ear to the throat is:

    • A.

      Ear canal

    • B.

      External auditory canal

    • C.

      Semicircular canal

    • D.

      Eustachian tube

    Correct Answer
    D. Eustachian tube
    Explanation
    The eustachian tube is the correct answer because it is the tube that connects the ear to the throat. It helps equalize pressure between the middle ear and the environment, allowing for proper hearing and preventing damage to the eardrum. The ear canal and external auditory canal refer to the passage leading to the eardrum, while the semicircular canal is part of the inner ear responsible for balance.

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  • 23. 

    A patient has developed decubitus ulcer infected with MRSA that you can see deep to the bone. What stage is it?

    • A.

      Stage 1

    • B.

      Stage 2

    • C.

      Stage 4

    • D.

      Stage 5

    Correct Answer
    D. Stage 5
  • 24. 

    The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by:

    • A.

      Gyrus

    • B.

      Sulcus

    • C.

      Longitudinal fissure

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Longitudinal fissure
    Explanation
    The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by the longitudinal fissure. This deep groove runs along the midline of the brain and divides it into two hemispheres. The longitudinal fissure is responsible for maintaining the structural integrity of the brain and preventing the hemispheres from merging together. It also allows for communication between the hemispheres through a bundle of nerve fibers called the corpus callosum.

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  • 25. 

    The outermost part of the brain that consists of gray, unmyelinated neurons.

    • A.

      Amygdala

    • B.

      Hippocampus

    • C.

      RAS

    • D.

      Cerebral cortex

    Correct Answer
    D. Cerebral cortex
    Explanation
    The cerebral cortex is the outermost part of the brain and is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as perception, memory, language, and consciousness. It consists of gray matter, which is composed of unmyelinated neurons. The amygdala, hippocampus, and RAS are all important structures in the brain, but they are not specifically associated with the gray, unmyelinated neurons of the cerebral cortex. Therefore, the correct answer is cerebral cortex.

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  • 26. 

    Visual association area is located in:

    • A.

      Frontal lobe

    • B.

      Parietal lobe

    • C.

      Temporal lobe

    • D.

      Occipital lobe

    Correct Answer
    D. Occipital lobe
    Explanation
    The visual association area is responsible for processing and interpreting visual information received from the primary visual cortex. It is located in the occipital lobe, which is the region at the back of the brain. This area helps in recognizing and making sense of what we see, allowing us to identify objects, faces, and colors. It also plays a role in depth perception and visual memory.

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  • 27. 

    The meningeal membrane closet to the brain is:

    • A.

      Pia mater

    • B.

      Arachnoid

    • C.

      Dura mater

    • D.

      Periosteum

    Correct Answer
    A. Pia mater
    Explanation
    The pia mater is the innermost layer of the meningeal membrane, located closest to the brain. It is a thin and delicate membrane that directly covers the brain and spinal cord, providing protection and support. The arachnoid and dura mater are also layers of the meningeal membrane, but they are located between the pia mater and the skull. The periosteum, on the other hand, is a layer of connective tissue that covers the outer surface of the skull, not the meningeal membrane. Therefore, the correct answer is pia mater.

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  • 28. 

    Wernicke area is located in:

    • A.

      Frontal lobe

    • B.

      Parietal lobe

    • C.

      Temporal lobe

    • D.

      Occipital lobe

    Correct Answer
    C. Temporal lobe
    Explanation
    The Wernicke area is located in the temporal lobe. This area is responsible for language comprehension and is involved in processing and understanding spoken and written language. Damage to this area can result in Wernicke's aphasia, a condition characterized by difficulty understanding and producing coherent speech.

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  • 29. 

    The largest part of the brain in humans, responsible for conscious thought, decision making, information processing.

    • A.

      Amygdala

    • B.

      RAS

    • C.

      Hippocampus

    • D.

      Cerebrum

    Correct Answer
    D. Cerebrum
    Explanation
    The cerebrum is the correct answer because it is the largest part of the brain in humans and is responsible for conscious thought, decision making, and information processing. It is divided into two hemispheres and is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as memory, language, and problem-solving. The cerebrum plays a crucial role in our ability to perceive, think, and interact with the world around us.

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  • 30. 

    The part of the brain that sorts out sensory impulses and sends them to the appropriate parts of the primary sensory area is:

    • A.

      Thalamus

    • B.

      The pons

    • C.

      Medulla oblongata

    • D.

      Midbrain

    Correct Answer
    A. Thalamus
    Explanation
    The thalamus is responsible for sorting out sensory impulses and sending them to the appropriate parts of the primary sensory area. It acts as a relay station, receiving sensory information from various parts of the body and directing it to the relevant areas in the brain for further processing. This helps in organizing and interpreting sensory inputs, allowing us to perceive and respond to our environment effectively. The pons, medulla oblongata, and midbrain have other functions in the brain, but they are not specifically involved in sorting sensory impulses.

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  • 31. 

    This cranial nerve is responsible for olfaction:

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      V

    • C.

      X

    • D.

      XI

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I. Cranial nerve I, also known as the olfactory nerve, is responsible for the sense of smell. It transmits information from the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity to the brain, allowing us to detect and perceive different odors.

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  • 32. 

    Part of the limbic system responsible for emotions:

    • A.

      Amygdala

    • B.

      Hippocampus

    • C.

      RAS

    • D.

      Cerebral cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. Amygdala
    Explanation
    The amygdala is part of the limbic system and is responsible for processing emotions, such as fear and aggression. It plays a crucial role in the formation and storage of emotional memories and is involved in the regulation of emotional responses. The hippocampus, on the other hand, is responsible for memory formation and spatial navigation. The RAS (reticular activating system) is involved in arousal and wakefulness. The cerebral cortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions, such as thinking and problem-solving. Therefore, the correct answer is amygdala.

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  • 33. 

    Bronca area is located in:

    • A.

      Frontal lobe

    • B.

      Parietal lobe

    • C.

      Temporal lobe

    • D.

      Occipital lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal lobe
    Explanation
    The Bronca area is responsible for speech production and is located in the frontal lobe of the brain. This area plays a crucial role in the formation of words and sentences, as well as the coordination of the muscles involved in speech. Damage to the Bronca area can result in difficulty speaking or forming coherent sentences, a condition known as Bronca's aphasia.

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  • 34. 

    Part of the limbic system responsible for wakefulness and alertness.

    • A.

      Amygdala

    • B.

      RAS

    • C.

      Cerebrum

    • D.

      Hippocampus

    Correct Answer
    B. RAS
    Explanation
    The RAS (reticular activating system) is a part of the limbic system that is responsible for wakefulness and alertness. It is a network of neurons located in the brainstem that filters and relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex, helping to regulate arousal and maintain consciousness. The RAS plays a crucial role in keeping us awake and alert by receiving sensory input and activating the cerebral cortex, allowing us to respond to stimuli in our environment. The amygdala, cerebrum, and hippocampus are also important structures in the limbic system, but they are not specifically responsible for wakefulness and alertness like the RAS.

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  • 35. 

    The meningeal membrane that is closest to the skull bone is:

    • A.

      Pia mater

    • B.

      Arachnoid

    • C.

      Dura mater

    • D.

      Periosteum

    Correct Answer
    C. Dura mater
    Explanation
    The dura mater is the correct answer because it is the outermost layer of the meningeal membranes that surround and protect the brain and spinal cord. It is a tough and durable membrane that is in direct contact with the inner surface of the skull bone, providing a protective barrier between the brain and the skull. The pia mater and arachnoid are located deeper within the meninges, while the periosteum is the membrane that covers the outer surface of the skull bone.

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  • 36. 

    The center of controls body movement, posture, and coordination is:

    • A.

      Midbrain

    • B.

      The pons

    • C.

      Cerebellum

    • D.

      Medulla oblongata

    Correct Answer
    C. Cerebellum
    Explanation
    The cerebellum is responsible for controlling body movement, posture, and coordination. It receives information from the sensory systems, the spinal cord, and other parts of the brain to coordinate voluntary movements. It helps maintain balance and equilibrium and plays a crucial role in fine motor skills. The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are also important parts of the brainstem, but they have different functions such as relaying sensory information and controlling vital functions like breathing and heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is cerebellum.

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  • 37. 

    Primary motor area is located in:

    • A.

      Frontal lobe

    • B.

      Parietal lobe

    • C.

      Temporal lobe

    • D.

      Occipital lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal lobe
    Explanation
    The primary motor area is responsible for controlling voluntary movements of the body. It is located in the frontal lobe of the brain. This area sends signals to the muscles to initiate and coordinate movements. Damage to the primary motor area can result in difficulty in controlling movements and performing tasks that require fine motor skills.

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  • 38. 

    The part that seperates right from left hemispheres of the cerebellum (not cerebrum) is called:

    • A.

      Vermis

    • B.

      Central gyrus

    • C.

      Longitudinal fissure

    • D.

      Corpus callosum

    Correct Answer
    A. Vermis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is vermis. The vermis is the part that separates the right and left hemispheres of the cerebellum. It is a narrow, worm-like structure located in the middle of the cerebellum. The central gyrus is a part of the cerebral cortex, not the cerebellum. The longitudinal fissure is a deep groove that separates the two hemispheres of the cerebrum. The corpus callosum is a large bundle of nerve fibers that connects the two cerebral hemispheres.

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  • 39. 

    The following brain waves are produced during the REM period of sleep cycle:

    • A.

      Alpha waves

    • B.

      Beta waves

    • C.

      Delta waves

    • D.

      Kappa waves

    Correct Answer
    B. Beta waves
    Explanation
    During the REM (Rapid Eye Movement) period of the sleep cycle, the brain produces beta waves. Beta waves are high-frequency, low-amplitude brain waves that are associated with wakefulness and alertness. They are typically present when the brain is actively engaged in cognitive tasks and conscious thinking. In the context of REM sleep, beta waves indicate that the brain is in a state of heightened activity, which is consistent with the vivid dreaming and rapid eye movements that occur during this stage of sleep.

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  • 40. 

    The center of homeostatic control of most body functions, including body temperature is: 

    • A.

      Midbrain

    • B.

      The pons

    • C.

      Cerebellum

    • D.

      Hypothalamus

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is the correct answer because it is responsible for maintaining homeostasis in the body. It regulates various body functions, including body temperature, by receiving and interpreting signals from the nervous and endocrine systems. The hypothalamus can detect changes in body temperature and initiate appropriate responses to maintain a stable internal environment. It controls processes such as sweating or shivering to adjust body temperature as needed. Additionally, the hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating other functions like hunger, thirst, and sleep.

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  • 41. 

    The following brain waves are produced during deep sleep period of sleep cycle.

    • A.

      Alpha waves

    • B.

      Beta waves

    • C.

      Delta waves

    • D.

      Kappa waves

    Correct Answer
    C. Delta waves
    Explanation
    Delta waves are the correct answer because they are the brain waves that are typically produced during the deep sleep period of the sleep cycle. These waves have a frequency of less than 4 Hz and are associated with the restorative and restful phase of sleep. Delta waves are characterized by their large amplitude and slow oscillations, and they are believed to play a crucial role in the body's recovery and rejuvenation during sleep.

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  • 42. 

    The center of control for heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate is 

    • A.

      Midbrain

    • B.

      Medulla oblongata

    • C.

      The pons

    • D.

      Cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    B. Medulla oblongata
    Explanation
    The medulla oblongata is the correct answer because it is responsible for controlling vital functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate. It is located at the base of the brainstem and acts as a relay center between the brain and the spinal cord. The medulla oblongata contains important control centers that regulate these essential bodily functions, ensuring their proper functioning and maintaining homeostasis.

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  • 43. 

    This neurotransmitter produces the sense of calm, peace, content

    • A.

      GABA

    • B.

      Serotonin

    • C.

      Dopamine

    • D.

      Adrenaline

    Correct Answer
    B. Serotonin
    Explanation
    Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is known to regulate mood, emotions, and promote feelings of calmness, peace, and contentment. It plays a crucial role in promoting mental well-being and stability. Serotonin is often referred to as the "feel-good" neurotransmitter as it helps to regulate mood, reduce anxiety, and promote a sense of happiness. It is involved in various physiological processes, including sleep, appetite, and pain regulation. Therefore, serotonin is the correct answer as it is directly associated with producing the sense of calm, peace, and contentment.

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  • 44. 

    EEG can be used for the following, except

    • A.

      To establish brain disorders, such as epilepsy

    • B.

      To establish degree of brain damage after a head trauma

    • C.

      To measure intracranial pressure

    • D.

      To study the brain

    Correct Answer
    C. To measure intracranial pressure
    Explanation
    EEG (Electroencephalography) is a non-invasive technique used to measure and record electrical activity in the brain. It is commonly used to diagnose and monitor brain disorders, such as epilepsy, by analyzing abnormal brain wave patterns. EEG can also be used to assess the degree of brain damage after a head trauma by detecting any abnormalities in brain activity. Additionally, EEG is used as a tool to study the brain and understand its functioning. However, EEG is not used to directly measure intracranial pressure, which is the pressure inside the skull. Other methods, such as invasive procedures or imaging techniques, are used for this purpose.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is NOT true about brain ventricles?

    • A.

      There are 4 brain ventricles

    • B.

      All ventricles are connected to each other via canals

    • C.

      There is cerebrospinal fluid inside the ventricles

    • D.

      The CSF is drained from the ventricles into the central canal by ventriculo-peritoneal shunt

    Correct Answer
    D. The CSF is drained from the ventricles into the central canal by ventriculo-peritoneal shunt
    Explanation
    The CSF is not drained from the ventricles into the central canal by ventriculo-peritoneal shunt. The CSF is actually drained from the ventricles into the subarachnoid space surrounding the brain and spinal cord. The ventriculo-peritoneal shunt is a surgical procedure used to treat hydrocephalus, where excess CSF is redirected from the ventricles to the peritoneal cavity.

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  • 46. 

    The neurotransmitter slows down brain neuron activity, causes sedation.

    • A.

      Adrenaline

    • B.

      GABA 

    • C.

      Seratonin

    • D.

      Dopamine

    Correct Answer
    B. GABA 
    Explanation
    GABA is the correct answer because it is a neurotransmitter that inhibits or slows down brain neuron activity, leading to sedation. Adrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine are neurotransmitters that have different functions and do not cause sedation.

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  • 47. 

    The only cranial nerve that innervates visceral organs is:

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      V

    • C.

      X

    • D.

      XI

    Correct Answer
    C. X
    Explanation
    Cranial nerve X, also known as the vagus nerve, is the only cranial nerve that innervates visceral organs. It is responsible for providing parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lungs, and digestive system, among other organs. This means that it helps regulate functions such as heart rate, breathing, and digestion. The other cranial nerves primarily innervate sensory and motor functions of the head and neck, making cranial nerve X unique in its role in innervating visceral organs.

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  • 48. 

    The part of the brain that belongs in Diencephalon is:

    • A.

      Midbrain

    • B.

      Medulla oblongata

    • C.

      The pons

    • D.

      Hypothalamus

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is the correct answer because it is a part of the diencephalon, which is a division of the brain. The diencephalon is located between the brainstem and the cerebrum, and it consists of several structures including the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions such as temperature, hunger, thirst, and hormone production. It also helps in controlling the autonomic nervous system and is involved in emotions and behavior.

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  • 49. 

    The right and left cerebral hemispheres communicate with each other via:

    • A.

      Central sulcus

    • B.

      Vermis

    • C.

      Central gyrus

    • D.

      Corpus callosum

    Correct Answer
    D. Corpus callosum
    Explanation
    The corpus callosum is a large bundle of nerve fibers that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres of the brain. It allows for communication and coordination between the two hemispheres, enabling them to share information and work together. The other options listed, such as the central sulcus, vermis, and central gyrus, are not involved in the direct communication between the hemispheres.

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  • 50. 

    The vagus nerve is cranial nerve # and originates from?

    • A.

      Medulla oblongata, X

    • B.

      The pons, XI

    • C.

      Midbrain, X

    • D.

      The pons, I

    Correct Answer
    A. Medulla oblongata, X
    Explanation
    The vagus nerve is cranial nerve X and originates from the medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata is a part of the brainstem that controls various vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and digestion. The vagus nerve is the longest cranial nerve and has multiple functions, including regulating heart rate, controlling the muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, and transmitting sensory information from the organs to the brain.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 24, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Marie091289
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