IAHCSMM Practice Test Quiz!
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Our IAHCSMM Practice Test Quiz is designed to help you succeed. This comprehensive quiz covers all the essential topics and provides a realistic exam experience to assess your readiness. Test your knowledge, identify areas for improvement, and build confidence as you work towards achieving your certification goals. With our Practice Test Quiz, you'll have the opportunity to familiarize yourself with the format and types of questions you'll encounter on the actual exam.
Whether you're studying independently or as part of a group, this quiz is an invaluable resource to gauge your understanding of sterile processing principles, infection prevention, regulations, and Read moremore. Take advantage of this interactive and engaging quiz to reinforce your learning, track your progress, and ensure you're well-prepared for the IAHCSMM certification exam. Get started today and embark on your journey towards becoming a certified sterile processing professional!
IAHCSMM Practice Test Questions and Answers
- 1.
All soiled instruments and materials are received from the user units into Central Service ____________________ area.
- A.
Preparation
- B.
Decontamination
- C.
Sterilization
- D.
Process storage
Correct Answer
B. DecontaminationExplanation
All soiled instruments and materials are received from the user units into Central Service decontamination area. This area is specifically designed and equipped to remove or destroy any microorganisms or contaminants present on the instruments and materials. Decontamination is an essential step in the sterilization process, ensuring that the instruments are safe for further use.Rate this question:
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- 2.
All medical terms consist of each of the following word elements: prefix, root and suffix.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
While many medical terms do consist of a combination of word elements, not all of them necessarily have all three: a prefix, a root, and a suffix. Although many medical terms follow this pattern of having a prefix, root, and suffix, there are exceptions where medical terms might have only a root or combine two of these elements. The structure of medical terms can vary depending on the specific terminology and the concept being conveyed.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The purpose of the prefix is to alter or modify the meaning of the root element.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The purpose of a prefix is indeed to alter or modify the meaning of the root element. A prefix is a word part that is added to the beginning of a word and changes its meaning. It provides additional information or context to the root word, allowing for a more specific or nuanced understanding of the overall word. This alteration or modification of meaning is the primary function of a prefix, making the statement "True" correct.Rate this question:
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- 4.
There are two parts to the ear: the outer ear and the inner ear.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement in the question is incorrect. There are actually three parts to the ear: the outer ear, the middle ear, and the inner ear. The outer ear consists of the visible part of the ear as well as the ear canal. The middle ear is located behind the eardrum and contains the three tiny bones called ossicles. The inner ear is the deepest part of the ear and contains the cochlea, which is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A function of the digestive system is to convert food into energy for the body.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The digestive system plays a crucial role in converting food into energy for the body. It breaks down the food we consume into smaller molecules that can be absorbed and used by our cells. These molecules, such as glucose, are then transported to the cells where they undergo a series of chemical reactions to produce energy in the form of ATP. Therefore, it is correct to say that a function of the digestive system is to convert food into energy for the body.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The gastrointestinal tract is one portal of entry used by an infectious agent to enter a susceptible host.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because the gastrointestinal tract, which includes the mouth, esophagus, stomach, and intestines, can serve as a pathway for infectious agents to enter a susceptible host. This can occur through the ingestion of contaminated food or water, or through direct contact with infectious material. Once inside the gastrointestinal tract, these agents can then cause infections and spread throughout the body. Therefore, it is important to maintain proper hygiene and food safety practices to prevent the entry of infectious agents through this route.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following suffixes means "pertaining to" ?
- A.
Ac
- B.
Al
- C.
Ary
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the above suffixes - ac, al, and ary - can mean "pertaining to" when added to a word. For example, the suffix "ac" is used in words like cardiac (pertaining to the heart), "al" is used in words like musical (pertaining to music), and "ary" is used in words like honorary (pertaining to honor). Therefore, all three suffixes can indicate the meaning "pertaining to."Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is not an example of surgical asepsis?
- A.
Sterilization of instruments
- B.
Asset management
- C.
Operation room techniques to prevent contamination of sterile instruments
- D.
All of the above are example of surgical asepsis
Correct Answer
B. Asset managementExplanation
Asset management is not an example of surgical asepsis. Surgical asepsis refers to the practices and techniques used to prevent the introduction of microorganisms into a surgical wound or sterile field. This includes sterilizing instruments and implementing operation room techniques to prevent contamination. Asset management, on the other hand, involves the management and tracking of assets such as equipment and supplies, which is not directly related to preventing contamination in a surgical setting.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Given the word " hemigastrectomy ", which element of that word is the root?
- A.
Hemi
- B.
Gastro
- C.
Ectomy
- D.
This word has no root.
Correct Answer
B. GastroExplanation
The root of the word "hemigastrectomy" is "gastro". This can be determined by breaking down the word into its constituent parts. "Hemi" means half or partial, "gastro" refers to the stomach, and "ectomy" means surgical removal. In this case, "gastro" is the root as it is the main component that gives the word its meaning related to the surgical removal of a part of the stomach.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following glands is located at the base of the brain and is considered the "master gland" ?
- A.
Pituitary
- B.
Thyroid
- C.
Adrenal
- D.
Parathyroid
Correct Answer
A. PituitaryExplanation
The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain and is considered the "master gland" because it controls the secretion of hormones from other glands in the body. It produces and releases a variety of hormones that regulate growth, metabolism, reproduction, and other important bodily functions. The pituitary gland is also responsible for controlling the release of hormones from the thyroid, adrenal glands, and other endocrine organs, making it a crucial regulator of the body's overall hormonal balance.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following is the circular opening of the eye which control the amount of light which enters the eye?
- A.
Iris
- B.
Pupil
- C.
Cornea
- D.
Lens
Correct Answer
B. PupilExplanation
The pupil is the correct answer because it is the circular opening in the center of the iris that regulates the amount of light entering the eye. The iris, cornea, and lens all play important roles in the functioning of the eye, but they do not specifically control the amount of light entering the eye like the pupil does.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Cells are the basic units of all living organisms and are the smallest element that can live, grow and reproduce.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Cells are indeed the basic units of all living organisms. They are the smallest structural and functional units of life, capable of carrying out all the necessary processes for survival, growth, and reproduction. Cells are responsible for performing various specialized functions within an organism and are the building blocks of tissues, organs, and ultimately, the entire organism. Therefore, the statement "Cells are the basic units of all living organisms and are the smallest element that can live, grow, and reproduce" is true.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A virus can move by means of its flagella.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Viruses do not have flagella. Flagella are whip-like structures found in bacteria and some eukaryotic cells that help them move. Viruses, on the other hand, are non-living particles that cannot move on their own. They rely on host cells to replicate and spread. Therefore, the statement that a virus can move by means of its flagella is false.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What type of bacteria develops spores?
- A.
Gram-positive
- B.
Gram-negative
- C.
Both of the above
- D.
Neither of the above
Correct Answer
C. Both of the aboveExplanation
Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria can develop spores. Spore formation is a survival mechanism used by certain bacteria to withstand harsh environmental conditions. The ability to form spores is not limited to a specific type of bacteria, but rather can be observed in both gram-positive and gram-negative species. Therefore, the correct answer is "both of the above".Rate this question:
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- 15.
Bacteria that cause diseases are called.
- A.
Aerobic
- B.
Anaerobic
- C.
Pathogenic
- D.
Thermophillic
Correct Answer
C. PathogenicExplanation
The correct answer is "pathogenic" because bacteria that cause diseases are commonly referred to as pathogenic bacteria. These bacteria have the ability to invade and harm the host organism, leading to the development of various diseases and infections.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What percent of microorganisms are harmful to humans because they can grow at approximately human body temperature?
- A.
1%
- B.
2%
- C.
3%
- D.
4%
Correct Answer
A. 1%Explanation
Only 1% of microorganisms are harmful to humans because they can grow at approximately human body temperature. This means that the vast majority of microorganisms are not harmful to humans and do not thrive at human body temperature.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What type of hepatitis vaccine is strongly recommended for most healthcare workers?
- A.
Hepatitis A
- B.
Hepatitis B
- C.
Hepatitis D
- D.
Hepatitis E
Correct Answer
B. Hepatitis BExplanation
The correct answer is hepatitis B. Healthcare workers are at a higher risk of exposure to hepatitis B due to their occupation. Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver and can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or body fluids. Therefore, it is strongly recommended for healthcare workers to receive the hepatitis B vaccine to protect themselves and prevent the spread of the virus to patients. Hepatitis A, D, and E vaccines may also be recommended in certain situations, but hepatitis B is the most important for healthcare workers.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Eliminating the infectious agent will interrupt the transmission of an infectious disease.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Eliminating the infectious agent refers to getting rid of the microorganism or pathogen that causes the disease. By doing so, there will be no source of infection, and therefore, the transmission of the infectious disease will be interrupted. This can be achieved through various means such as vaccination, proper hygiene practices, and effective treatment of infected individuals. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In Central Service, the term "customers" includes anyone who utilizes the department's services.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because in Central Service, the term "customers" refers to anyone who uses the department's services. This means that anyone who utilizes the services provided by the Central Service department, regardless of their role or position, is considered a customer.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The part of the cell that controls cell function is the:
- A.
Cytoplasm
- B.
Nucleus
- C.
Cell membrane
- D.
Capsule
Correct Answer
B. NucleusExplanation
The nucleus is the part of the cell that controls cell function. It contains the cell's genetic material, including DNA, which carries the instructions for cell growth, reproduction, and other important functions. The nucleus also regulates the synthesis of proteins and coordinates various cellular activities. It acts as the "command center" of the cell, making it the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Healthy people carry bacteria.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
It is true that healthy people carry bacteria. Our bodies are home to trillions of bacteria, known as the human microbiota, which play important roles in maintaining our overall health. These bacteria live on our skin, in our mouth, and in our digestive system, among other places. While some bacteria can cause illness, many are harmless or even beneficial. The presence of bacteria is a normal and natural part of being a healthy individual.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Involuntary muscles
- A.
Work without consciousness.
- B.
Work only when commanded.
- C.
Are not necessary.
- D.
Shut down when we are resting.
Correct Answer
A. Work without consciousness.Explanation
Involuntary muscles refer to the muscles that work without conscious control. These muscles are responsible for various automatic bodily functions such as digestion, breathing, and heartbeats. Unlike voluntary muscles that require conscious effort to move, involuntary muscles work automatically and do not require conscious commands to function. Therefore, the correct answer is "work without consciousness."Rate this question:
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- 23.
Rod-shaped bacteria are classified as:
- A.
Coccus
- B.
Bacillus
- C.
Anhydrous
- D.
Anerobic
Correct Answer
B. BacillusExplanation
Rod-shaped bacteria are classified as bacillus because the term "bacillus" refers to bacteria that have a cylindrical or rod-like shape. This classification is based on the morphology or physical appearance of the bacteria. Bacillus bacteria can be found in various environments and can cause diseases such as anthrax and food poisoning.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Air pressure in the decontamination area should be negative in relation to surrounding areas.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In a decontamination area, it is important to maintain negative air pressure in relation to surrounding areas. This helps to prevent the spread of contaminants and ensures that any airborne particles or gases are drawn into the decontamination area and not released into other areas. Negative air pressure creates a pressure gradient that keeps the contaminated air contained within the decontamination area, minimizing the risk of contamination to other spaces. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 25.
In medical terminology, the purpose of a combining vowel is to:
- A.
Tell the primary meaning of the word
- B.
Make the word easier to pronounce
- C.
Make the word easier to spell
- D.
Differentiate between past and present tense
Correct Answer
B. Make the word easier to pronounceExplanation
The purpose of a combining vowel in medical terminology is to make the word easier to pronounce. Combining vowels are often used to connect word roots, prefixes, and suffixes, and they help to create a smooth flow between the different components of a medical term. By adding a vowel between word parts, the pronunciation becomes clearer and more easily understood. This is particularly important in medical terminology, where precise pronunciation is crucial for effective communication among healthcare professionals.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Chemical indicators are FDA ______________ devices
- A.
Class I
- B.
Class II
- C.
Class III
- D.
Not regulated by FDA
Correct Answer
B. Class IIExplanation
Chemical indicators are classified as Class II devices by the FDA. This classification indicates that these devices are considered to have a moderate to high risk to the patient and require special controls to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Class II devices are subject to specific regulations and must undergo premarket notification, or 510(k) clearance, before they can be marketed. This classification helps to ensure that chemical indicators meet the necessary standards for their intended use in healthcare settings.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Watches and other jewelry should not be worn in the Central Service Department work area because:
- A.
They harbor bacteria
- B.
They are expensive
- C.
They may be damage
- D.
They may be misplaced or stolen
Correct Answer
A. They harbor bacteriaExplanation
Watches and other jewelry should not be worn in the Central Service Department work area because they harbor bacteria. This is because jewelry can accumulate dirt, sweat, and other substances that can provide a breeding ground for bacteria. In a work area where cleanliness and hygiene are important, wearing jewelry can increase the risk of spreading bacteria and causing contamination. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid wearing jewelry in such areas to maintain a clean and safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Medical device reporting is regulated by the:
- A.
NFPA
- B.
EPA
- C.
WHO
- D.
FDA
Correct Answer
D. FDAExplanation
Medical device reporting is regulated by the FDA. The FDA, or the Food and Drug Administration, is responsible for ensuring the safety and effectiveness of medical devices in the United States. They require manufacturers, importers, and distributors of medical devices to report any adverse events or malfunctions associated with their products. This reporting is crucial in identifying potential risks and taking appropriate actions to protect public health. The FDA also uses this information to monitor the safety and performance of medical devices on the market.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Microorganisms reproduce by a process called:
- A.
Repopulation
- B.
Binary fision
- C.
Replication
- D.
Bilateral reproduction
Correct Answer
B. Binary fisionExplanation
Binary fission is the correct answer because it is the process by which microorganisms, such as bacteria, reproduce. During binary fission, a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells, each with its own genetic material. This process allows microorganisms to rapidly increase their population and is a common method of reproduction in single-celled organisms.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Purified water should have a ph of ________.
- A.
4.5 - 5.5
- B.
5.5 - 6.5
- C.
6.5 - 7.5
- D.
7.5 - 8.5
Correct Answer
C. 6.5 - 7.5Explanation
Purified water should have a pH of 6.5 - 7.5. This pH range is considered neutral or slightly acidic. Water with a pH below 6.5 may indicate the presence of contaminants or acidity, while a pH above 7.5 may indicate alkalinity. Maintaining a pH within the 6.5 - 7.5 range ensures that the water is safe for consumption and does not cause any adverse effects on the body.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Manufacturers of new Class I devices must obtain pre-market approval (PMA) from de FDA by submitting a PMA applications with extensive test data to demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of their products.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Manufacturers of new Class I devices do not need to obtain pre-market approval (PMA) from the FDA by submitting a PMA application with extensive test data. Class I devices are considered low-risk and are subject to general controls, such as labeling requirements and adherence to good manufacturing practices. These devices can be marketed without the need for pre-market approval, although they still need to register their establishment and list their device with the FDA. Therefore, the statement is false.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the following can be removed from water when a reverse osmosis process is used?
- A.
Bacteria
- B.
Pyrogens
- C.
Endotoxins
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Reverse osmosis is a water purification process that uses a semi-permeable membrane to remove impurities and contaminants from water. It is capable of removing bacteria, pyrogens, and endotoxins, making the statement "all of the above" correct. Reverse osmosis effectively filters out these substances, ensuring that the water is free from harmful microorganisms and toxins.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Failure to perform soiled pickup rounds as scheduled can lead to equipment shortages.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Failure to perform soiled pickup rounds as scheduled can lead to equipment shortages. This is because if the pickup rounds are not done on time, the soiled items will keep piling up, leading to a greater demand for equipment. If the equipment is not available in sufficient quantities, it can result in shortages and delays in the cleaning process. Therefore, it is important to perform the pickup rounds as scheduled to avoid equipment shortages.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A method of bacterial transmission that would take place when an infectious agent was transmitted through an item such as food or water is called:
- A.
Contact
- B.
Common vehicle
- C.
Airborne
- D.
Vector-borne
Correct Answer
B. Common vehicleExplanation
Common vehicle transmission refers to the spread of infectious agents through a contaminated item, such as food or water, that acts as a vehicle for transmission. In this method, multiple individuals are exposed to the same contaminated source, leading to the potential for widespread infection. This mode of transmission is common in outbreaks associated with contaminated food or water supplies, where many people consume or come into contact with the same contaminated item.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Agency which may intervene in a matter of worker protection even if there are no specific regulations covering the situation.
- A.
OSHA
- B.
EPA
- C.
FDA
- D.
AORN
Correct Answer
A. OSHAExplanation
OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is the agency that may intervene in a matter of worker protection even if there are no specific regulations covering the situation. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees by enforcing standards and regulations. They have the authority to investigate complaints, conduct inspections, and take necessary actions to protect workers' rights and well-being. Therefore, OSHA is the most appropriate agency to intervene in situations where worker protection is at stake, regardless of specific regulations.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The main theory of Standard Precaution is that:
- A.
Patient in high-risk categories may be infectious.
- B.
Patients diagnosed with a specific disease may be infectious.
- C.
Patients are generally healthy unless they show symptoms of an infectious disease.
- D.
Patients may pose a risk infectious whether they have been diagnosed with an infectious disease or not.
Correct Answer
D. Patients may pose a risk infectious whether they have been diagnosed with an infectious disease or not.Explanation
The main theory of Standard Precaution is that patients may pose a risk of being infectious whether they have been diagnosed with an infectious disease or not. This means that healthcare providers should take precautions and assume that all patients have the potential to spread infections, regardless of their diagnosis. This approach is important in preventing the transmission of infections in healthcare settings and ensures the safety of both patients and healthcare workers. By following Standard Precautions, healthcare providers can minimize the risk of spreading infections and maintain a safe environment for everyone involved.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Floor in the Central Service Department should be:
- A.
Wet-mopped daily
- B.
Wet-mopped weekly
- C.
Swept-mopped and wet-mopped weekly
- D.
Swept daily
Correct Answer
A. Wet-mopped dailyExplanation
The correct answer is wet-mopped daily because the floor in the Central Service Department needs to be cleaned thoroughly on a daily basis. Wet-mopping helps remove dirt, dust, and stains effectively, ensuring a clean and hygienic environment. Since the Central Service Department likely experiences high foot traffic and potential spills or dirt accumulation, a daily wet-mopping routine is necessary to maintain cleanliness and prevent any hazards or hygiene issues.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The absence of microorganisms that cause disease is called:
- A.
Infection prevention
- B.
Infection control
- C.
Asepsis
- D.
HIA-control
Correct Answer
C. AsepsisExplanation
Asepsis refers to the absence of microorganisms that cause disease. It involves practices and techniques that prevent the introduction or spread of harmful pathogens, ensuring a sterile and clean environment. This includes measures such as hand hygiene, sterilization of equipment, and proper disposal of waste. Infection prevention and infection control are related concepts, but they focus more on reducing the risk and spread of infections rather than completely eliminating microorganisms. HIA-control is not a recognized term in the context of this question.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Standards and regulations help set levels of __________________ in Central Service Department.
- A.
Quality
- B.
Safety
- C.
Efficiency
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Standards and regulations play a crucial role in maintaining and improving the levels of quality, safety, and efficiency in the Central Service Department. These guidelines ensure that the department follows specific protocols and procedures to deliver high-quality services, prioritize the safety of employees and patients, and optimize operational efficiency. By adhering to these standards and regulations, the department can consistently provide reliable and effective services while meeting industry requirements and best practices.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Healthcare Regulations and Standards provide consistency of department activities by outlining ____
- A.
Minimal performance standards.
- B.
Equal pay practices.
- C.
Productivity time lines.
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Minimal performance standards.Explanation
Healthcare Regulations and Standards are put in place to ensure that healthcare departments adhere to a set of guidelines and requirements. These regulations and standards provide consistency by outlining minimal performance standards that all departments must meet. This helps to ensure that a certain level of quality and safety is maintained in healthcare practices. The other options, equal pay practices and productivity time lines, are not directly related to the purpose of healthcare regulations and standards.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Water softeners are used to remove _____________________ in the water.
- A.
Iron and pyrogens
- B.
Silicates and pyrogens
- C.
Chloride and iron
- D.
Calcium and magnesium
Correct Answer
D. Calcium and magnesiumExplanation
Water softeners are used to remove calcium and magnesium in the water. Calcium and magnesium are the minerals responsible for making water "hard". Hard water can cause various issues such as scale buildup in pipes and appliances, reduced efficiency of soaps and detergents, and can leave spots on dishes and fixtures. Water softeners work by using ion exchange to replace the calcium and magnesium ions with sodium ions, resulting in softened water.Rate this question:
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- 42.
To impede the growth of bacteria, soil on used instruments should be allowed to dry.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Allowing soil on used instruments to dry will not impede the growth of bacteria. Bacteria can survive and multiply even in dry conditions. It is important to properly clean and sterilize instruments to effectively kill bacteria and prevent their growth.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The human resources tool that identifies major tasks performed by persons in specific positions is called a:
- A.
Job duty list
- B.
Job specification
- C.
Task summary review
- D.
Job description
Correct Answer
D. Job descriptionExplanation
A job description is a human resources tool that identifies major tasks performed by persons in specific positions. It provides a detailed overview of the responsibilities, duties, and requirements of a particular job. It outlines the essential functions, skills, qualifications, and expectations for the position. This document is used for recruitment, selection, performance evaluation, and employee development purposes. It helps both the employer and employees to have a clear understanding of the role and responsibilities associated with a specific job.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Bacteria that are often pathogenic to humans because they grow well at body temperature are called:
- A.
Aerobic
- B.
Anaerobic
- C.
Thermophiles
- D.
Mesophiles
Correct Answer
D. MesophilesExplanation
Mesophiles are bacteria that grow well at moderate temperatures, typically around body temperature (37 degrees Celsius). This temperature range is ideal for the growth of many bacteria that are commonly pathogenic to humans. Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria refer to the presence or absence of oxygen, while thermophiles are bacteria that thrive in high temperatures. Therefore, the correct answer is mesophiles.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The largest customer of Central Service is:
- A.
The emergency department
- B.
Labor and delivery
- C.
Material management
- D.
The operating room
Correct Answer
D. The operating roomExplanation
The operating room is the largest customer of Central Service because it requires a wide range of supplies and equipment for surgical procedures. This department relies heavily on Central Service to provide sterile instruments, surgical trays, and other necessary items. The operating room also generates a significant amount of revenue for the hospital through surgeries, making it a priority customer for Central Service.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The organization that sets recommended practice and standards for sterilization is:
- A.
FDA
- B.
CDC
- C.
AAMI
- D.
SGNA
Correct Answer
C. AAMIExplanation
AAMI, or the Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation, is the organization that sets recommended practice and standards for sterilization. They provide guidance on sterilization processes, equipment, and monitoring to ensure the safety and effectiveness of medical devices. AAMI collaborates with healthcare professionals, manufacturers, and regulatory bodies to establish these standards and promote best practices in sterilization.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Intermediate-level disinfectants can kill all bacterial spores.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Intermediate-level disinfectants cannot kill all bacterial spores. Bacterial spores are highly resistant structures formed by some bacteria as a means of survival under unfavorable conditions. They have a tough outer coating that protects them from disinfectants and other harsh conditions. Only high-level disinfectants, such as those that contain strong oxidizing agents or high concentrations of alcohol, are capable of killing bacterial spores. Intermediate-level disinfectants are effective against vegetative bacteria, fungi, and some viruses, but not against bacterial spores.Rate this question:
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- 48.
To achieve a reasonable level of disinfection, alcohol used as an intermediate-level disinfectant must remain in wet contact with the surface of the object being disinfected for a minimum of ____ minutes.
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
D. 5Explanation
Alcohol used as an intermediate-level disinfectant needs to remain in wet contact with the surface for a minimum of 5 minutes to achieve a reasonable level of disinfection. This is because alcohol requires sufficient contact time to effectively kill or inactivate microorganisms on the surface being disinfected. A shorter contact time may not be enough to fully eliminate the pathogens present, hence the need for a minimum of 5 minutes.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When using the ph scale, which of the following numbers would suggest the most alkaline?
- A.
1
- B.
6
- C.
10
- D.
14
Correct Answer
D. 14Explanation
The pH scale measures the acidity or alkalinity of a substance. It ranges from 0 to 14, with 0 being the most acidic and 14 being the most alkaline. Therefore, a pH number of 14 suggests the most alkaline solution.Rate this question:
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- 50.
400 series stainless steel is also called Martensitic.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Martensitic stainless steel is a type of stainless steel that is known for its high strength, hardness, and wear resistance. It belongs to the 400 series of stainless steels, which are magnetic and have a higher carbon content compared to other stainless steel grades. Therefore, it is correct to say that 400 series stainless steel is also called Martensitic.Rate this question:
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May 03, 2024Quiz Edited by
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May 07, 2017Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
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