A Toughest Trivia Quiz On Cosmetology

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A Toughest Trivia Quiz On Cosmetology - Quiz

Cosmetology is the study and application of beauty treatment. People come in different skin types and views of what works for them in everything beauty, but it is the job of a cosmetologist to give them what is best for their skin and hair. Take up this tough cosmetology trivia and see how much you understand the field and will be of assistance to your clients.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Light, gliding strokes or circular motion during a massage is called ____.

    • A.

      Petrissage

    • B.

      Friction

    • C.

      Vibration

    • D.

      Effleurage

    Correct Answer
    D. Effleurage
    Explanation
    Effleurage is a massage technique that involves using light, gliding strokes or circular motions. It is typically used at the beginning and end of a massage session to help relax the client and warm up or cool down the muscles. This technique helps to increase blood flow, promote relaxation, and prepare the body for deeper massage techniques.

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  • 2. 

    Extra moisture may alter the bonds that give hair its shape and may cause the hair to become ____.

    • A.

      Frizzy

    • B.

      Dry

    • C.

      Wet

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Frizzy
    Explanation
    Extra moisture can disrupt the natural bonds within the hair, leading to a loss of shape and control. This can result in frizzy hair, where the strands become unruly, flyaway, and lack smoothness. The excess moisture can cause the hair to absorb water, causing it to swell and become frizzy in appearance.

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  • 3. 

    Melanin in dark or black hair is found in the ____.

    • A.

      Cortex only

    • B.

      Cuticle and cortex

    • C.

      Cuticle only

    • D.

      Medulla only

    Correct Answer
    B. Cuticle and cortex
    Explanation
    Melanin, the pigment responsible for hair color, is found in both the cuticle and cortex of dark or black hair. The cuticle is the outermost layer of the hair shaft, while the cortex is the middle layer. The presence of melanin in these two layers gives the hair its dark or black color. The medulla, on the other hand, is the innermost layer of the hair shaft and does not contain melanin in dark or black hair.

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  • 4. 

    Alopecia may be caused by a/an ___.

    • A.

      Fungal infection

    • B.

      Bacterial cell infection

    • C.

      Inflammatory disease

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Alopecia, or hair loss, can be caused by various factors including fungal infections, bacterial cell infections, and inflammatory diseases. These conditions can disrupt the normal growth cycle of hair follicles, leading to hair loss. Fungal infections such as ringworm can cause patches of hair loss, while bacterial cell infections like folliculitis can damage the hair follicles. Inflammatory diseases like lupus or alopecia areata can trigger an immune response that attacks the hair follicles, resulting in hair loss. Therefore, all of the above options can contribute to alopecia.

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  • 5. 

    Avoid giving a scalp massage if ____ is/are present.

    • A.

      Scalp abrasions

    • B.

      Fragilitis crinium

    • C.

      Congenital canities

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Scalp abrasions
    Explanation
    Scalp abrasions are open wounds or cuts on the scalp, which can be painful and sensitive. Massaging the scalp in the presence of abrasions can further irritate and worsen the condition, causing discomfort and potentially delaying the healing process. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid giving a scalp massage if scalp abrasions are present. Fragilitis crinium refers to hair fragility, and congenital canities refers to premature graying of hair, which are unrelated to the need to avoid scalp massage in the presence of scalp abrasions.

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  • 6. 

    The papilla provides nourishment for the primitive hair germ.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The papilla is a small, protruding structure at the base of each hair follicle. It is responsible for providing nourishment to the hair germ, which is the part of the hair follicle that produces new hair cells. The papilla contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the hair germ, allowing it to grow and develop. Therefore, the statement that the papilla provides nourishment for the primitive hair germ is true.

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  • 7. 

    The number of melanocytes in the hair and the pigment they produce is determined by the papilla.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The number of melanocytes in the hair and the pigment they produce is not determined by the papilla. Melanocytes are actually located in the hair bulb, which is a structure at the base of the hair follicle. The papilla, on the other hand, is responsible for supplying nutrients and oxygen to the hair follicle. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 8. 

    Hair is primarily made of protein, which is made from the linking together of _____.

    • A.

      Polypeptide chains

    • B.

      Amino acids

    • C.

      Thioglycolic acid

    • D.

      Salt bonds

    Correct Answer
    B. Amino acids
    Explanation
    Hair is primarily made of protein, and proteins are made up of amino acids. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and are linked together to form polypeptide chains, which make up the structure of hair. Thioglycolic acid and salt bonds are not involved in the formation of hair proteins.

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  • 9. 

    Red hair has a high concentration of _______.

    • A.

      Eumelanin

    • B.

      Pheomelanin

    • C.

      Cuticle

    • D.

      Malanocytes

    Correct Answer
    B. Pheomelanin
    Explanation
    Red hair has a high concentration of pheomelanin. Pheomelanin is a pigment that is responsible for the red and yellow colors in hair. It is produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. The amount of pheomelanin in the hair determines its shade of red, ranging from strawberry blonde to deep auburn. This pigment is different from eumelanin, which is responsible for brown and black hair colors. The presence of pheomelanin in high concentration is what gives red hair its distinct color.

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  • 10. 

    Pilica polonica is a term for matted hair that can't be undone.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pilica polonica refers to a condition where hair becomes severely matted and tangled, making it difficult to untangle or undo. This statement is true as it accurately describes the term and its meaning.

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  • 11. 

    Ringworm of the scalp is called _____.

    • A.

      Tinea favosa

    • B.

      Scabies

    • C.

      Tinea capitis

    • D.

      Psoriasis

    Correct Answer
    C. Tinea capitis
    Explanation
    Ringworm of the scalp is a fungal infection that affects the hair and scalp. It is characterized by red, itchy patches on the scalp, hair loss, and sometimes the presence of scaly or crusty lesions. This condition is commonly known as tinea capitis. Tinea favosa is another fungal infection that affects the scalp, but it is characterized by yellow, crusty lesions and a distinctive "egg-like" odor. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by mites, and psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune disease that causes red, scaly patches on the skin.

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  • 12. 

    Light, chemical, and magnetic changes are producecd by ____.

    • A.

      Electricity

    • B.

      A short circuit

    • C.

      Force

    • D.

      Conductors

    Correct Answer
    A. Electricity
    Explanation
    Electricity is the correct answer because it is known to produce light, chemical, and magnetic changes. When an electric current flows through a conductor, it can produce light in the form of incandescent bulbs or LEDs. Electricity can also cause chemical reactions, such as in batteries or electrolysis processes. Additionally, electric currents can generate magnetic fields, which are used in various applications such as electromagnets or electric motors. Therefore, electricity is the most appropriate choice to explain the production of light, chemical, and magnetic changes.

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  • 13. 

    In order to apply special currents to the skin, a device called a/an ____ is used to reduce the current from a typical 120 volt power source to a level safely handled by the human body.

    • A.

      Rectifier

    • B.

      Converter

    • C.

      Wall plate

    • D.

      Electrode

    Correct Answer
    C. Wall plate
    Explanation
    A wall plate is a device used to reduce the current from a typical 120 volt power source to a level that is safe for the human body. It acts as a protective barrier between the power source and the skin, preventing any harm or injury that could be caused by the high voltage. The wall plate ensures that the current applied to the skin is at a safe and manageable level, allowing for the application of special currents without any risk to the individual.

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  • 14. 

    _____ current electrotherapy produceds chemical changes by passing the current through particular acid or alkaline solutions and/or by passing the current through body tissues and fluids.

    • A.

      Tesla

    • B.

      Galvanic

    • C.

      Faradic

    • D.

      Sinusoidal

    Correct Answer
    B. Galvanic
    Explanation
    Galvanic current electrotherapy produces chemical changes by passing the current through particular acid or alkaline solutions and/or by passing the current through body tissues and fluids. This type of electrotherapy is commonly used for applications such as iontophoresis, where medications or other substances are delivered into the body through the skin using the electrical current. Galvanic current can also be used for desincrustation, a process that helps to soften and remove impurities from the skin.

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  • 15. 

    The nagive pole of galvanic current is believed to have the following temporary effect on the area of the body to which it is applied:

    • A.

      Increases blood flow

    • B.

      Hardens tissue

    • C.

      Produces acidic reaction

    • D.

      Closes pores

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases blood flow
    Explanation
    The negative pole of galvanic current is believed to increase blood flow in the area of the body to which it is applied. This is because the negative pole attracts positively charged ions, which in turn stimulates blood vessels to dilate and improve circulation. This increased blood flow can help in delivering more oxygen and nutrients to the tissues, promoting healing and reducing inflammation.

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  • 16. 

    ____ is a process using the positive electrode to force acidic solutions into the skin without breaking the skin.

    • A.

      Anaphoresis

    • B.

      Cataphoresis

    • C.

      Faradic therapy

    • D.

      Telsa therapy

    Correct Answer
    B. Cataphoresis
    Explanation
    Cataphoresis is a process that uses the positive electrode to force acidic solutions into the skin without breaking the skin. This process is commonly used in skincare treatments to deliver beneficial ingredients deep into the skin, such as vitamins or other active compounds. It helps to enhance the effectiveness of skincare products and promote better absorption of the active ingredients.

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  • 17. 

    ____ is/are most commonly used in a faradic current treatment.

    • A.

      Amperages of more than 1 milliampere

    • B.

      120 volts

    • C.

      The direct method

    • D.

      The indirect method

    Correct Answer
    D. The indirect method
    Explanation
    The indirect method is most commonly used in a faradic current treatment. This method involves placing the electrodes on the skin away from the area being treated, and the current is then transmitted through the body to stimulate the muscles or nerves. This method is preferred as it allows for a more controlled and targeted treatment, and reduces the risk of discomfort or injury to the patient. The direct method, on the other hand, involves placing the electrodes directly on the area being treated, which can be more intense and may cause discomfort or pain.

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  • 18. 

    The use of ____ has an electrochemical effect.

    • A.

      Telsa

    • B.

      Faradic

    • C.

      Galvanic

    • D.

      Sinusoidal

    Correct Answer
    C. Galvanic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "galvanic." Galvanic refers to the use of direct current (DC) in electrotherapy, which produces an electrochemical effect. This type of therapy involves the use of two electrodes, one positive and one negative, to create a chemical reaction in the body. The galvanic current stimulates the nerves and muscles, promoting circulation and helping with pain relief.

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  • 19. 

    An Underwriters Labratory (UL) designation idicates ____.

    • A.

      The appliance has been certified to operate safely under the conditions specified

    • B.

      It is free from all mechanical defects

    • C.

      The manufacturer's warranty is doubled

    • D.

      It operates with less power than the specified on the label

    Correct Answer
    A. The appliance has been certified to operate safely under the conditions specified
    Explanation
    The UL designation indicates that the appliance has undergone testing and certification by Underwriters Laboratory, ensuring that it meets safety standards and can operate safely under the specified conditions.

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  • 20. 

    A generator produces alternating current _______.

    • A.

      By using mechanical energy to produce electricity

    • B.

      By pumping a high number of electrons into power lines

    • C.

      Through two terminals (one positive and one negative)

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". A generator produces alternating current by using mechanical energy to produce electricity, by pumping a high number of electrons into power lines, and through two terminals (one positive and one negative).

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  • 21. 

    A closed path circuit ______.

    • A.

      Allows electrons to leave hte source to operate an appliace

    • B.

      Ends at your driveway

    • C.

      Will blow a fuse quickly

    • D.

      Is against all UL regulations

    Correct Answer
    A. Allows electrons to leave hte source to operate an appliace
    Explanation
    A closed path circuit allows electrons to leave the source to operate an appliance. This means that the circuit provides a complete loop for the flow of electric current, allowing the electrons to travel from the power source to the appliance and back again. Without a closed path, the circuit would be open and the electrons would not be able to flow, preventing the appliance from operating.

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  • 22. 

    Parallel wiring of electrical circuits _____.

    • A.

      Forces the user to have all loads operating at the same time

    • B.

      Will cause an open circuit if one appliance ceases to function

    • C.

      Allows several loads to be used at different times or all at once

    • D.

      Is common in battery-operated equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Allows several loads to be used at different times or all at once
    Explanation
    Parallel wiring of electrical circuits allows several loads to be used at different times or all at once. In parallel wiring, each load is connected to the power source individually, creating separate paths for the current to flow. This means that each load operates independently, and if one load ceases to function or is turned off, the other loads will still receive power and continue to operate. This flexibility allows for greater control and convenience in using multiple electrical devices simultaneously or individually.

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  • 23. 

    A fuse _____.

    • A.

      Is a device that contains a fine metal wire that llows a current to flow through it

    • B.

      Is a device that, if it becomes overloaded, can be reused once it cools down

    • C.

      Should be replaced with a fuse of larger rating if it becomes overloaded

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a device that contains a fine metal wire that llows a current to flow through it
    Explanation
    A fuse is a device that contains a fine metal wire that allows a current to flow through it. When the current exceeds a certain limit, the wire melts and breaks the circuit, preventing further damage to the electrical system. This is a safety measure to protect against overloading or short circuits.

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  • 24. 

    A shock occurs when a human comes into contact with an electric current. You can ____.

    • A.

      Grab the person's hand and remove then from the circuit

    • B.

      Quickly open the circuit to shut off the electrical current

    • C.

      Knock the person out of the circuit using an insulator

    • D.

      Both b & c

    Correct Answer
    D. Both b & c
    Explanation
    When a human comes into contact with an electric current, grabbing the person's hand and removing them from the circuit is a possible action to take in order to prevent further harm. Additionally, quickly opening the circuit to shut off the electrical current is another effective way to stop the flow of electricity and minimize the risk of injury. Knocking the person out of the circuit using an insulator is also a valid approach as it can help create a barrier between the person and the electric current. Therefore, both options b and c are correct and can be used to address the situation.

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  • 25. 

    Galvanic current ____.

    • A.

      Is alternating current of low voltage and high amperage

    • B.

      Is direct current of low voltage and high amperage

    • C.

      Is alternating current of high voltage and low amperage

    • D.

      Is direct current of high voltage and high amperage

    Correct Answer
    B. Is direct current of low voltage and high amperage
  • 26. 

    Catephoresis _____.

    • A.

      Produces an alkaline reaction

    • B.

      Increases blood flow

    • C.

      Hardens tissues, closing pores after a facial treatment

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Hardens tissues, closing pores after a facial treatment
    Explanation
    Catephoresis is a process that involves the use of an electric current to introduce substances into the skin. It is commonly used in facial treatments to enhance the penetration of skincare products. During the process, the electric current causes the tissues to harden, which helps in closing the pores after the facial treatment. This helps to prevent dirt and impurities from entering the skin and also gives a smoother appearance to the skin. Therefore, the correct answer is "hardens tissues, closing pores after a facial treatment."

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  • 27. 

    Sinusoidal current _____.

    • A.

      Can be used on unhealthy and broken skin

    • B.

      Is used with AC current causing the muscles to contract

    • C.

      Is legal in all states

    • D.

      Is performed by touching both electrodes together

    Correct Answer
    B. Is used with AC current causing the muscles to contract
  • 28. 

    ___ of sunlight is composed of visible light.

    • A.

      2%

    • B.

      12%

    • C.

      50%

    • D.

      100%

    Correct Answer
    B. 12%
  • 29. 

    Which of the following carries the most energy?

    • A.

      Ultraviolet

    • B.

      Violet

    • C.

      Infrared light

    • D.

      Red light

    Correct Answer
    A. Ultraviolet
    Explanation
    Ultraviolet light carries the most energy among the given options. This is because ultraviolet light has a shorter wavelength and higher frequency compared to violet, infrared, and red light. The energy of a wave is directly proportional to its frequency, so higher frequency waves like ultraviolet light have more energy.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following would be an example of closing a circuit?

    • A.

      Turning on a light switch

    • B.

      Turning off a circuit breaker

    • C.

      Blowing a fuse

    • D.

      Unplugging a lamp

    Correct Answer
    A. Turning on a light switch
    Explanation
    Turning on a light switch would be an example of closing a circuit because it completes the electrical pathway and allows the flow of current from the power source to the light bulb, causing it to illuminate.

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  • 31. 

    Galvanic current is the only form of electrotherapy that uses direct current and has an electrochemical effect.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Galvanic current is indeed the only form of electrotherapy that utilizes direct current and has an electrochemical effect. This means that it can cause chemical reactions within the body, such as the breakdown of scar tissue or the delivery of medication through the skin. Other forms of electrotherapy, such as TENS or ultrasound, use alternating current and do not have the same electrochemical effects. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 32. 

    Electrochemical effects are created when an electric current travels through a liquid conductor.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Electrochemical effects are indeed created when an electric current travels through a liquid conductor. This is because the movement of electric charges in the liquid conductor leads to chemical reactions at the electrodes, resulting in the conversion of electrical energy into chemical energy or vice versa. These electrochemical effects are the basis for various important processes, such as electrolysis, batteries, and corrosion. Therefore, the statement "Electrochemical effects are created when an electric current travels through a liquid conductor" is true.

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  • 33. 

    Only 12% of sunlight is composed of invisible rays beyond red and are called infrared.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement claims that only 12% of sunlight is composed of infrared rays. However, this is incorrect. In reality, infrared rays make up a significant portion of sunlight, much more than just 12%. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 34. 

    ___ percent of sunlight is composed of rays not visible to the human eye.

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      50

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    B. 80
  • 35. 

    Anaphoresis therapy uses negative pole or electrode to force negatively charged (alkaline) solutions into the skin without breaking the skin.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Anaphoresis therapy is a treatment technique that involves the use of a negative pole or electrode to deliver negatively charged (alkaline) solutions into the skin. This therapy is designed to penetrate the skin without causing any damage or breaking the skin. Therefore, the statement that anaphoresis therapy uses negative pole or electrode to force negatively charged solutions into the skin without breaking the skin is true.

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  • 36. 

    Some believe ___ electrotherapy is superior to faradic current therapy because it penetratesmore deeply.

    • A.

      Galvanic

    • B.

      Sinusoidal

    • C.

      Faradic

    • D.

      Cataophoresis

    Correct Answer
    B. Sinusoidal
    Explanation
    Sinusoidal electrotherapy is believed to be superior to faradic current therapy because it can penetrate more deeply. This means that it can reach deeper layers of tissue and provide more effective treatment. Faradic current therapy, on the other hand, may not penetrate as deeply and may not be as effective in treating certain conditions. Therefore, sinusoidal electrotherapy is preferred by some due to its ability to penetrate deeply and provide better outcomes.

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  • 37. 

    MSDS labels provide key information on specific products regarding ingredients, associated hazards, combustion levels, storage requirements, etc.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    MSDS labels, also known as Material Safety Data Sheets, are designed to provide essential information about specific products. They include details about the ingredients, associated hazards, levels of combustion, and storage requirements. These labels are crucial for ensuring the safety of individuals who handle or come into contact with the product. Therefore, the given statement that MSDS labels provide key information on specific products is true.

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  • 38. 

    Staphylococci are pus-forming bacterial cells that form grapelike clusters and are presentin abscesses.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Staphylococci are indeed pus-forming bacterial cells that form grapelike clusters and are commonly found in abscesses. This statement is true because Staphylococci are known to cause infections in humans and can lead to the formation of pus-filled abscesses.

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  • 39. 

    Passive immunity is also known as ___.

    • A.

      Acquired

    • B.

      Natural

    • C.

      Inherited

    • D.

      Resistant

    Correct Answer
    A. Acquired
    Explanation
    Passive immunity refers to the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate protection against a specific pathogen. This transfer can occur naturally, such as from a mother to her baby through breast milk, or it can be acquired through medical interventions like receiving an injection of antibodies. Therefore, the term "acquired" accurately describes passive immunity as it highlights the process of obtaining immunity from an external source rather than developing it naturally or inheriting it.

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  • 40. 

    The Greek word "pathos" means ____.

    • A.

      Suffer

    • B.

      Kill

    • C.

      Heal

    • D.

      Old

    Correct Answer
    A. Suffer
    Explanation
    The Greek word "pathos" means to suffer. This term is often used to describe intense emotions or feelings of deep suffering and sorrow. It refers to the experience of pain, hardship, or distress. In Greek literature and philosophy, pathos is often associated with tragic events and the portrayal of human suffering.

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  • 41. 

    Septisemia is sometimes called blood poisoning.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Septisemia is a condition where bacteria or other harmful microorganisms enter the bloodstream, leading to a severe infection. It is often referred to as blood poisoning because the infection can spread rapidly throughout the body via the bloodstream, causing systemic symptoms and potentially life-threatening complications. Therefore, the statement that Septisemia is sometimes called blood poisoning is true.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following does not produce disease?

    • A.

      Saprophytes

    • B.

      Straphylococci

    • C.

      Streptococci

    • D.

      Diplococci

    Correct Answer
    A. Saprophytes
    Explanation
    Saprophytes do not produce disease because they are organisms that obtain nutrients from dead and decaying organic matter. They play an important role in the ecosystem by decomposing dead plants and animals. While straphylococci, streptococci, and diplococci are all types of bacteria that can cause various diseases in humans and animals, saprophytes do not have the ability to cause disease as their mode of nutrition is different.

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  • 43. 

    Hairlike projections used by some bacteria to propel themselves about are called ____.

    • A.

      Flagella

    • B.

      Cilia

    • C.

      Pediculosis

    • D.

      Both a and b

    Correct Answer
    D. Both a and b
    Explanation
    Both flagella and cilia are hairlike projections used by some bacteria to propel themselves about. Flagella are long, whip-like structures that rotate in a propeller-like motion, allowing bacteria to move in a straight line. Cilia, on the other hand, are shorter and more numerous, covering the entire surface of the bacterium and beating in a coordinated manner, allowing the bacteria to move in a wavelike motion. Therefore, the correct answer is both a and b, as both flagella and cilia serve as means of bacterial locomotion.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is not caused by a virus?

    • A.

      Measles

    • B.

      Small pox

    • C.

      Mumps

    • D.

      Strep throat

    Correct Answer
    D. Strep throat
    Explanation
    Strep throat is not caused by a virus but by a bacteria called Streptococcus pyogenes. It is a common bacterial infection that affects the throat and tonsils. The other options mentioned in the question, such as measles, smallpox, and mumps, are all viral infections caused by specific viruses.

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  • 45. 

    ____ are plants or animals that live on or obtain nutrients from another organism.

    • A.

      External parasites

    • B.

      Internal parasites

    • C.

      Viruses

    • D.

      Bacteria

    Correct Answer
    A. External parasites
    Explanation
    External parasites are organisms that live on or obtain nutrients from another organism. They rely on their host for survival and can cause harm or discomfort to the host. Examples of external parasites include fleas, ticks, and lice. These parasites typically attach themselves to the host's skin or fur and feed on their blood or tissues. They can transmit diseases and cause irritation, itching, and other health issues for the host.

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  • 46. 

    A person who carries a disease-producing bacteria with no recognizable symptoms of the disease is a(n) ____ carrier.

    • A.

      Asymptomatic

    • B.

      Nonpathogenic

    • C.

      Pathogenic

    • D.

      Parasitic

    Correct Answer
    A. Asymptomatic
    Explanation
    An asymptomatic carrier is a person who carries a disease-producing bacteria but does not show any recognizable symptoms of the disease. This means that even though they are infected with the bacteria, they do not exhibit any signs or symptoms of being sick.

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  • 47. 

    ____ standards require that all tools and implements that come in contact with blood or body fluids must be free from certain types of microbes.

    • A.

      Sanitation

    • B.

      Bloodborne pathogen disinfection

    • C.

      Sterilization

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Bloodborne pathogen disinfection
    Explanation
    Bloodborne pathogen disinfection is the correct answer because it specifically refers to the process of eliminating or inactivating bloodborne pathogens, which are microorganisms that can cause diseases when present in blood or other body fluids. This process is necessary to ensure that tools and implements that come in contact with blood or body fluids are free from these potentially harmful microbes. Sanitation and sterilization are also important practices in healthcare settings, but they may not specifically target bloodborne pathogens. Therefore, the correct answer is bloodborne pathogen disinfection.

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  • 48. 

    ____ approves the efficacy of disinfectants.

    • A.

      The EPA

    • B.

      The DNR

    • C.

      OSHA

    • D.

      The MSDS

    Correct Answer
    A. The EPA
    Explanation
    The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) approves the efficacy of disinfectants. The EPA is responsible for regulating and ensuring the safety of various products, including disinfectants. They evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants in killing or reducing the growth of microorganisms, and only approve those that meet their standards. This ensures that consumers can trust the disinfectants they purchase to effectively clean and disinfect surfaces, protecting against the spread of harmful bacteria and viruses.

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  • 49. 

    ____ disinfectants are a group of disinfectants that kill bacteria, viruses, fungi, and pseudomonas.

    • A.

      Bacterial

    • B.

      Viral

    • C.

      Broad spectrum

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Broad spectrum
    Explanation
    Broad spectrum disinfectants are a group of disinfectants that have the ability to kill a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and pseudomonas. Unlike specific disinfectants that target only certain types of microorganisms, broad spectrum disinfectants are effective against a diverse range of pathogens. This makes them highly versatile and suitable for various applications where a thorough disinfection is required.

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  • 50. 

    OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires the use of an EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant or an EPA-registered disinfectant labeled as effective against ____.

    • A.

      Measles

    • B.

      HIV

    • C.

      HBV

    • D.

      Both b & c

    Correct Answer
    D. Both b & c
    Explanation
    The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard mandates the use of an EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant or an EPA-registered disinfectant that is labeled as effective against both measles and HIV. This is because both measles and HIV are bloodborne pathogens that can be transmitted through contact with contaminated blood or bodily fluids. The use of an effective disinfectant helps to prevent the spread of these infectious diseases in healthcare settings.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 18, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 15, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Lea_ollie
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