Competency In Biochemistry And Immunochemistry

40 Questions | By Johnson_1234 | Last updated: Jan 11, 2013

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Competency In Biochemistry And Immunochemistry

You are given 30 mins to complete the questions. The passing score is 50%.

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Questions and Answers

1.

HAMA antibodies occur as a result of:
- A.
  
  Contamination of the sample with mouse proteins
- B.
  
  Patient exposure to mice or mouse proteins
- C.
  
  Immunization
- D.
  
  Food allergies
- E.
  
  None of the above
2.

The ability of an assay to reproducibly hit a target concentration is referred to as:
- A.
  
  Sensitivity
- B.
  
  Specificity
- C.
  
  Precision
- D.
  
  Accuracy
- E.
  
  None of the above
3.

Calibrators are samples from individuals known to be in the normal range that are used to check instrumentation set-up.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
4.

Which of the following Westgard Rules primarily detect systematic error?
- A.
  
  1-2s
- B.
  
  2-2s
- C.
  
  1-3s
- D.
  
  All of the above
- E.
  
  None of the above
5.

When comparing an instrument to its peer group, which statistic provides the most useful information regarding its accuracy?

Discuss
- A.
  
  Mean
- B.
  
  Standard deviation
- C.
  
  CVR
- D.
  
  SDI
6.

When comparing an instrument to its peer group, which statistic provides the most useful description of overall imprecision.

Discuss
- A.
  
  Mean
- B.
  
  Standard Deviation
- C.
  
  CVR
- D.
  
  SDI
- E.
  
  None of the above
7.

Which of the following Westgard Rules primarily detect random error?
- A.
  
  R-4s
- B.
  
  2-2s
- C.
  
  1-3s
- D.
  
  A & c
- E.
  
  Non of the above
8.

When a clot is detected in Beckman LX 20 pro, the system will do one retry to aspirate the sample. If the retry is successful, testing will continue and the missed test will be rescheduled. If the retry is unsuccessful, no sampling will occur from the sample.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
9.

All the following Beckman reagent require a reagent transfer of Compartment "C" reagent into Compartment "A" EXCEPT
- A.
  
  ALT
- B.
  
  AST
- C.
  
  CK
- D.
  
  ALP
- E.
  
  TG
10.

Serum pH is a measure of the relative acidity or alkalinity of blood and is a reflection of the concentration of Hydrogen ions in blood. A high concentration gives a low pH (acid), while a low concentration gives a high pH (alkaline). What is the normal range for arterial pH?
- A.
  
  7.00 to 7.50
- B.
  
  7.40 to 7.50
- C.
  
  7.35 to 7.45
- D.
  
  7.30 to 7.50
- E.
  
  None of the above
11.

Small changes in the body pH can be life threatening and these changes are regulated by buffers. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) and base bicarbonate (NaHCO3) are paired buffers that work to maintain homeostasis of body pH. What body systems control these buffers?
- A.
  
  H2CO3 Metabolic | NaHCO3 Respiratory
- B.
  
  H2CO3 Cardiac | NaHCO3 Respiratory
- C.
  
  H2CO3 Respiratory | NaHCO3 Renal
- D.
  
  H2CO3 Renal | NaHCO3 Respiratory
- E.
  
  None of the above
12.

A 42-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with dehydration and hypotension. Electrolytes show: Na⁺ 165 mEq/L K⁺ 4.0 mEq/L CO₂ 32 mEq/L Cl^- 112 mEq/L No arterial blood gas is obtained. Which statement best applies about this patient's acid-base status?

Discuss
- A.
  
  Electrolytes indicate the presence of metabolic acidosis.
- B.
  
  Electrolytes indicate the presence of metabolic alkalosis.
- C.
  
  Need serum albumin to make any clinically useful assessment of his metabolic acid-base disorders.
- D.
  
  Electrolytes indicate the presence of both metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis.
- E.
  
  Need serum lactate to make any clinically useful assessment of his metabolic acid-base disorders.
13.

Given the following arterial blood gas values: pH: 7.56 PCO2: 31 mm Hg HCO3: 27 mEq/l PO2: 56 mm Hg What is(are) the most likely acid-base state(s) in the patient?
- A.
  
  Acute respiratory alkalosis
- B.
  
  Chronic respiratory alkalosis
- C.
  
  Respiratory alkalosis and metabolic alkalosis
- D.
  
  Respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis
- E.
  
  Respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis
14.

One or more of the following statements (A, B, C) about PO2 may be correct. Choose the single letter answer (a - e) that reflects which statement(s) is(are) correct. A) If the lungs and heart are normal, then PO2 is affected only by factors that affect alveolar PO2. B) In a person with normal heart and lungs, anemia should not affect PO2. C) The reason PO2 falls with increasing altitude is because barometric pressure falls.
- A.
  
  Only A) is correct.
- B.
  
  A) and B) are correct.
- C.
  
  A) and C) are correct.
- D.
  
  B) and C) are correct
- E.
  
  A), B) and C) are correct.
15.

Serum bilirubin measurement using Leica bilirubinometer should ideally be performed on neonates less than 4 weeks old or have not consumed any solid food.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
16.

What is the read time for this QuickVue urine HCG kit?
- A.
  
  3 mins
- B.
  
  5 mins
- C.
  
  10 mins
- D.
  
  20 mins
- E.
  
  None of the above
17.

What is the detection level of the QuickVue urine HCG test?
- A.
  
  50mIU/L
- B.
  
  25mIU/L
- C.
  
  20mIU/L
- D.
  
  10mIU/L
- E.
  
  None of the above
18.

Which of the following statement is true?
- A.
  
  Osmolality is a measure of the amount of solvent in solution.
- B.
  
  The osmolality of serum increases with dehydration and decreases with overhydration.
- C.
  
  The osmolality of serum decreases with dehydration as well as with overhydration.
- D.
  
  The osmolality of serum decreases with dehydration but increase with overhydration.
19.

Maple syrup urine disease results from an inborn error of metabolism of certain types of amino acids. Which ones?
- A.
  
  Phenylalanine and tyrosine
- B.
  
  Leucine, isoleucine, and valine
- C.
  
  Serine and threonine
- D.
  
  Any acidic amino acids
- E.
  
  Cysteine and methionine
20.

Sedentary persons who consume rich diets sometimes suffer gout, a condition which may cause toes to swell and joints to become painful due to an accumulation of:
- A.
  
  Glucose
- B.
  
  Glycogen
- C.
  
  Fatty tissue
- D.
  
  Acetylcholine
- E.
  
  Uric acid
21.

What three changes will affect the results of the microscopic examination of urine if it is not tested within 2 hours?
- A.
  
  Decreased bacteria, decreased RBCs, decreased casts
- B.
  
  Increased bacteria, increased RBCs, increased casts
- C.
  
  Increased bacteria, decreased RBCs, decreased casts
- D.
  
  Decreased bacteria, increased RBCs, increased casts
- E.
  
  None of the above
22.

A strong odour of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate:
- A.
  
  Ketones
- B.
  
  Normal
- C.
  
  Phenylketonuria
- D.
  
  Urinary tract infection
- E.
  
  None of the above
23.

The principle of the urine reagent strip test for bilirubin is:

Discuss
- A.
  
  Diazo reaction
- B.
  
  Ehrlich reaction
- C.
  
  Greiss reaction
- D.
  
  Peroxidase reaction
- E.
  
  None of the above
24.

What is shown in the picture below?
- A.
  
  RBC
- B.
  
  WBC
- C.
  
  Starch
- D.
  
  Fat
- E.
  
  None of the above
25.

What is shown in the picture below?
- A.
  
  Calcium carbonate
- B.
  
  Ammonium biurate
- C.
  
  Leucine
- D.
  
  Tyrosine
- E.
  
  None of the above
26.

The presence of xanthochromia in CSF specimen can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
  
  Immature liver function
- B.
  
  RBC degradation
- C.
  
  A recent hemorrhage
- D.
  
  Elevated CSF protein
27.

Detection of CA 125 in peritoneal fluid is indicative of:
- A.
  
  Colon cancer
- B.
  
  Ovarian cancer
- C.
  
  Gastric malignancy
- D.
  
  Prostrate cancer
- E.
  
  None of the above
28.

Which analyte will be falsely elevated due to hemolysis?

Discuss
- A.
  
  Glucose
- B.
  
  LDL
- C.
  
  Calcium
- D.
  
  LDH
29.

What type of sample can be used to test for protein?
- A.
  
  CSF
- B.
  
  Urine
- C.
  
  Serum / Plasma
- D.
  
  All of the above
30.

In a hemolytic crisis, bilirubin levels are________________.
- A.
  
  Normal
- B.
  
  Increased
- C.
  
  Decreased
31.

The pH of the urine specimen was 8.0. What is the likely crystal seen above?

Discuss
- A.
  
  Amorphous phosphate
- B.
  
  Uric acid
- C.
  
  Triple phosphate
- D.
  
  Tyrosine
32.

ALP is elevated in the following disorder?
- A.
  
  Addison's disease
- B.
  
  Paget's disease
- C.
  
  Scleroderma
- D.
  
  Diabetes insipidus
33.

Which of the following enzymes is most specific for diagnosis of a Myocardial Infarction?
- A.
  
  CK
- B.
  
  CK-MB
- C.
  
  Troponin
- D.
  
  CRP
34.

Hyperkalemia can cause all of the following EXCEPT.
- A.
  
  Neuromuscular symptoms
- B.
  
  Muscle weakness
- C.
  
  Decreased Vitamin D absorption
- D.
  
  Heart arrhythmias
35.

Faeces gets its brown pigmentation from _________________.
- A.
  
  Stecobilirubin
- B.
  
  Stercobilin
- C.
  
  Stecobilin
- D.
  
  Stercobilinogen
36.

What is shown in picture above?
- A.
  
  Hyaline cast
- B.
  
  Waxy cast
- C.
  
  Granular cast
- D.
  
  Epithelial cell
37.

What is the crystal shown in the picture above?
- A.
  
  Calcium oxalate
- B.
  
  Uric acid
- C.
  
  Triple phosphate
- D.
  
  Tyrosine
38.

Identify the structure indicated above. Biochemical test result: pH: 6.5 RBC: 3+ Leukocyte esterase: Neg Glucose: Neg Protein: Trace Bilirubin: Neg Nitrite: Neg
- A.
  
  RBCs
- B.
  
  WBCs
- C.
  
  Yeasts
- D.
  
  Hyphae
39.

G6PD deficiency is transmitted in a X-linked recessive trait.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
40.

Bilirubin is photosensitive to
- A.
  
  Direct sunlight
- B.
  
  Artificial light
- C.
  
  Direct sunlight and artificial light
- D.
  
  None of the above

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