# Ccna2 Final Exam V3

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• 1.

### 1. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?

• A.

It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.

• B.

It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.

• C.

It is the metric, which is cost.

• D.

C. It is the metric, which is cost.
Explanation
The highlighted value 192 represents the metric or cost in the routing table. The metric is used to determine the best path or route to a destination. In this case, a lower metric indicates a better route. So, the value 192 indicates the cost associated with reaching a particular network or destination.

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• 2.

### 2. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?

• A.

Clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires

• B.

Prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad

• C.

Removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires

• D.

Limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

• E.

Used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

D. Limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
Explanation
The purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header is to limit the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded. This ensures that packets do not circulate indefinitely in the network and helps prevent congestion. Once the TTL value reaches zero, the packet is discarded by the router. This mechanism also helps in preventing packets from getting stuck in loops and ensures efficient delivery of packets.

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• 3.

### 3. When would the network administrator use the ip bandwidth-percent eigrpas-number percent command?

• A.

When there is a low bandwidth connection

• B.

When the connection is on a shared medium

• C.

When the connection is serial instead of Ethernet

• D.

When the link is always busy

A. When there is a low bandwidth connection
Explanation
The network administrator would use the "ip bandwidth-percent eigrpas-number percent" command when there is a low bandwidth connection. This command is used to configure the percentage of bandwidth that EIGRP can use on a specific interface. By setting a lower percentage, EIGRP will use less bandwidth on the low bandwidth connection, ensuring that other critical traffic is not affected.

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• 4.

### 4. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?

• A.

Used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets

• B.

Used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers

• C.

• D.

Used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

D. Used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests
Explanation
The OSPF LSU (Link State Update) packet is used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests. It is responsible for distributing information about network topology changes, such as new routes, to other OSPF routers in the network. Additionally, the LSU packet can also reply to requests for information from other routers, providing them with the necessary updates. Overall, the LSU packet plays a crucial role in ensuring that OSPF routers have the most up-to-date information about the network.

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• 5.

### 5. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)

• A.

The same process ID

• B.

The same area ID

• C.

• D.

The same router ID

• E.

B. The same area ID
Explanation
To configure two routers within a single OSPF area, two components need to be configured on both routers: the same area ID and network addresses with wildcard masks. The area ID is used to identify the OSPF area, and both routers need to have the same area ID to be part of the same area. Additionally, network addresses and wildcard masks need to be configured to define the networks that will participate in OSPF within the area. This ensures that the routers can exchange OSPF information and form neighbor relationships within the same area. The other options, such as the same process ID, router ID, and loopback address, are not necessary for configuring routers within the same OSPF area.

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• 6.

### 6. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routingtable?

• A.

IGRP

• B.

RIPv1

• C.

RIPv2

• D.

EIGRP

D. EIGRP
Explanation
EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) maintains a separate topology table from the routing table. This topology table contains information about the network topology and is used to calculate the best path for routing. By keeping the topology table separate, EIGRP can quickly adapt to changes in the network and make efficient routing decisions. This allows for faster convergence and better scalability compared to other routing protocols like IGRP, RIPv1, and RIPv2.

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• 7.

### 7. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?

• A.

The path learned via EIGRP

• B.

The path learned via RIP

• C.

The path with the highest metric value

• D.

A. The path learned via EIGRP
Explanation
When a router learns multiple paths to a remote network with equal cost via different routing protocols, it will prioritize the path learned via EIGRP over the path learned via RIP. This is because EIGRP has a higher administrative distance (AD) than RIP. Administrative distance is a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing protocol, where a lower AD indicates higher trust. Since EIGRP has a lower AD than RIP, the path learned via EIGRP will be installed in the routing table.

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• 8.

### 8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?

• A.

The IP address of host A is incorrect.

• B.

The default gateway of host A is incorrect.

• C.

The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.

• D.

The subnet mask for the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect.

C. The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.
Explanation
The reason why Host A is unable to access the Internet is because the Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets. This means that the routers are not able to properly route the traffic from Host A to the Internet.

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• 9.

### 9. Which two locations can be the source of the Cisco IOS that is used by a router during the bootup process? (Choose two.)

• A.

Flash memory

• B.

RAM

• C.

NVRAM

• D.

TFTP server

• E.

Configuration register

A. Flash memory
D. TFTP server
Explanation
During the bootup process, a router can obtain the Cisco IOS from two different locations. The first location is the flash memory, which is a non-volatile storage device on the router that stores the IOS image. The router can load the IOS from the flash memory into its RAM for execution. The second location is a TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) server, which is a remote server that stores the IOS image. The router can download the IOS image from the TFTP server and load it into RAM for execution.

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• 10.

### 10. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?

• A.

R2(config)# router ospf 1 R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

• B.

R2(config)# router ospf 1 R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

• C.

R2(config)# router ospf 2 R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

• D.

R2(config)# router ospf 1 R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

• E.

R2(config)# router ospf 1 R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R2(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

A. R2(config)# router ospf 1 R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
Explanation
The correct set of commands to configure a single area OSPF for the networks connected to R2 is:
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

This configuration specifies that R2 is running OSPF with process ID 1. The "network" command is used to advertise the connected networks to OSPF. In this case, the 192.168.2.0/24 network and the 10.1.1.0/30 network are being advertised. The "area" parameter specifies that these networks belong to area 0.

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• 11.

### 11. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. What action should be taken to solve this problem?

• A.

Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.

• B.

Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates

• C.

Configure the same hello interval between the routers.

• D.

Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

D. Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.
Explanation
The correct answer is to configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID. The EIGRP process ID is used to identify and differentiate between different instances of EIGRP running on a network. In order for routers to form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency, they must be running the same EIGRP process ID. By configuring both routers with the same process ID, they will be able to recognize each other as neighbors and form a neighbor adjacency, allowing for the exchange of routing information.

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• 12.

### 12. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?

• A.

Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.

• B.

Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.

• C.

Check the process ID of both routers.

• D.

Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.

B. Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
Explanation
To troubleshoot the issue where R3 and R1 are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency, the network administrator should check the hello and dead intervals between the routers. The hello and dead intervals determine how often OSPF routers send hello packets to discover and maintain neighbor relationships. If the intervals are misconfigured or mismatched between R3 and R1, the routers will not be able to establish a neighbor adjacency. Therefore, checking and ensuring the correct configuration of hello and dead intervals can help resolve the problem.

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• 13.

### 13. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?

• A.

Configure the router ID on both routers.

• B.

Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.

• C.

Configure a loopback interface on both routers.

• D.

Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.

B. Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.
Explanation
By configuring the R2 router interfaces for area 0, the hosts connected to R2 will be able to communicate with the hosts connected to R1. This is because both routers need to be in the same OSPF area in order for them to exchange routing information and establish connectivity. By configuring the R2 router interfaces for area 0, it ensures that both routers are in the same area, resolving the connectivity issue.

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• 14.

### 14. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)

• A.

A static route will be updated in the routing table.

• B.

The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.

• C.

The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.

• D.

The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.

• E.

All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

A. A static route will be updated in the routing table.
D. The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
Explanation
The command "ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0" on router R2 will have two results. First, a static route will be updated in the routing table, which means that the router will have a specific entry for the destination network 0.0.0.0/0. Second, the route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table. This means that any traffic that does not have a specific route in the routing table will be sent to the next-hop interface specified in the command, which is S0/0/0.

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• 15.

### 15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data?

• A.

The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.

• B.

The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.

• C.

The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths â€” one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.

• D.

The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.

B. The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2. This is because OSPF uses a metric called cost to determine the best path to a destination network. The cost is calculated based on the bandwidth of the link. In this scenario, the link between R3 and R1 has a higher bandwidth than the link between R3 and R2, so the path through R3-R1-R2 will have a lower cost and be chosen as the preferred path for transmitting data.

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• 16.

### 16. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?

• A.

D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

• B.

O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Serial0/0/0

• C.

R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0

• D.

I 172.16.1.0/24 [100/1192] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

A. D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0
Explanation
The correct answer is D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0. This route will be used to reach the network 172.16.1.0 because it has the lowest administrative distance of 90. Administrative distance is a measure of the trustworthiness of the routing information source, with lower values indicating higher trust. In this case, the other routes have higher administrative distances (110, 120, and 100), so the route with the lowest administrative distance is chosen.

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• 17.

### 17. Which two technologies can be used in distance vector routing protocols to prevent routing loops? (Choose two.)

• A.

Authentication

• B.

• C.

Hold-down timers

• D.

Spanning Tree Protocol

• E.

Split horizon

C. Hold-down timers
E. Split horizon
Explanation
Hold-down timers and split horizon are two technologies that can be used in distance vector routing protocols to prevent routing loops. Hold-down timers prevent the router from accepting any route updates for a certain period of time after a route has been invalidated. This helps to stabilize the routing table and avoid rapid changes that can lead to loops. Split horizon is a technique where a router does not advertise routes back out the interface from which it learned them. This prevents the router from advertising a route back to the same interface it was received on, thus preventing loops.

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• 18.

### 18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?

• A.

10.0.0.0/16 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205891] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

• B.

10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205198] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

• C.

10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

• D.

10.0.0.0/8 is subnetted, 4 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205001] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

C. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
Explanation
The correct answer is "10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets". This entry represents the route summary for R2 without including any additional subnets because it has the longest prefix length (/22) among all the entries for the 10.0.0.0 network. This means that it covers a larger range of IP addresses and can be used to summarize the routes for the subnets within that range. Additionally, the administrative distance (90) and metric (205901) are consistent with the other entries for the same network.

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• 19.

### 19. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?

• A.

3

• B.

4

• C.

5

• D.

7

C. 5
Explanation
Based on the given exhibit, it is not clear what is being referred to as "ultimate routes." Without further context or information, it is not possible to determine the number of ultimate routes. Therefore, an explanation for the given correct answer is not available.

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• 20.

### 20. Which statement correctly describes a feature of RIP?

• A.

RIP is a link-state routing protocol.

• B.

RIP uses only one metricâ€”hop countâ€” for path selection.

• C.

Advertised routes with hop counts greater than 10 are unreachable.

• D.

Messages are broadcast every 10 seconds.

B. RIP uses only one metricâ€”hop countâ€” for path selection.
Explanation
RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its only metric for path selection. This means that RIP determines the best path to a destination based on the number of routers (hops) it has to traverse. The route with the fewest hops is considered the best path. Therefore, the statement "RIP uses only one metricâ€”hop countâ€”for path selection" accurately describes a feature of RIP.

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• 21.

### 21. Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of IP address and subnet mask can be used on the serial interface of Router2 in order to put the interface in the same network as the serial interface of Router1?

• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.

D. IP 172.16.32.18, subnet mask 255.255.255.252
Explanation
The IP address and subnet mask combination of 172.16.32.18 and 255.255.255.252 can be used on the serial interface of Router2 in order to put the interface in the same network as the serial interface of Router1. This is because both IP addresses are in the same network range of 172.16.32.0/30, which has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.252. This subnet mask allows for only 2 usable host addresses, which is sufficient for the two serial interfaces to be in the same network.

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• 22.

### 22. The command ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 was entered into the router. After network changes were made, the new next hop for the 192.168.2.0/24 network is 172.16.5.1. What should an administrator do so that the router will use the new next hop to reach the 192.168.2.0 network?

• A.

Enter the command clear ip route *.

• B.

Lower the administrative distance for the new path to ensure that it is used first.

• C.

Negate the original command and enter a new static route with the new next hop.

• D.

Nothing. The router will learn of the new next hop and automatically update the route table.

C. Negate the original command and enter a new static route with the new next hop.
Explanation
The administrator should negate the original command and enter a new static route with the new next hop. This is because the original command specifies a static route with a specific next hop IP address. To update the next hop for the 192.168.2.0 network, the administrator needs to remove the original static route and create a new one with the updated next hop IP address.

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• 23.

### 23. A network administrator is in charge of two separate networks that share a single building. What device will be required to connect the two networks and add a common connection to the Internet that can be shared?

• A.

Hub

• B.

Router

• C.

Access point

• D.

Ethernet switch

B. Router
Explanation
A router is required to connect the two separate networks and add a common connection to the Internet that can be shared. A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between different networks. It determines the best path for data to travel and can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and Wi-Fi. In this scenario, the router will connect the two separate networks in the building and provide a shared connection to the Internet for both networks.

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• 24.

### 24. A network administrator must use the subnet 172.16.128.0/18 to create 6 additional subnets each containing up to 2000 hosts for local LANs. Which subnet mask should the administrator use to create the new subnets?

• A.

255.255.224.0

• B.

255.255.240.0

• C.

255.255.248.0

• D.

255.255.252.0

C. 255.255.248.0
Explanation
The subnet mask 255.255.248.0 allows for 11 bits of subnetting, which can create a total of 2048 subnets. Since the network administrator needs to create 6 additional subnets, this subnet mask is sufficient. Additionally, this subnet mask allows for 13 bits of host addressing, which can accommodate up to 8190 hosts in each subnet. Since the requirement is to have each subnet contain up to 2000 hosts, this subnet mask meets the requirement.

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• 25.

### 25. When connecting two devices, which situation would normally require the use of a crossover cable?

• A.

Connecting a host to a switch

• B.

Connecting a switch to a router

• C.

Connecting a switch to a switch

• D.

Connecting a host to a router console port

C. Connecting a switch to a switch
Explanation
Connecting a switch to a switch would normally require the use of a crossover cable because both switches are similar devices and have the same wiring scheme. In this situation, a crossover cable is needed to swap the transmit and receive signals between the two switches, allowing them to communicate effectively. This is necessary because switches typically use the same type of ports, known as MDI (Medium Dependent Interface), which require a crossover cable to establish a connection.

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• 26.

### 26. Which router mode is accessed by entering the enable command?

• A.

User EXEC

• B.

Privileged EXEC

• C.

Global configuration

• D.

Interface configuration

B. Privileged EXEC
Explanation
The privileged EXEC mode is accessed by entering the enable command. In this mode, users have access to all router commands and can perform tasks such as configuring the router, viewing system information, and troubleshooting network issues. This mode provides a higher level of access and control compared to the user EXEC mode, which only allows basic monitoring and limited configuration commands. The global configuration mode is accessed by entering the configure terminal command, while the interface configuration mode is accessed by entering the interface command followed by the specific interface.

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• 27.

### 27. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output in the exhibit, why can users establish a console connection to this router without entering a password?

• A.

The login command was not entered on the console line.

• B.

• C.

• D.

Console connections cannot be configured to require users to provide passwords.

A. The login command was not entered on the console line.
Explanation
Users can establish a console connection to this router without entering a password because the login command was not entered on the console line. Without the login command, the router does not prompt for a password when establishing a console connection.

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• 28.

### 28. Refer to the exhibit. Which option will provide the configuration that is needed for router R1 to dynamically learn routes to the 192.168.100.16/28, 192.168.100.32/28, and 192.168.100.48/28 subnetworks?

• A.

With static routes

• B.

With a routed protocol

• C.

With a routing protocol

• D.

With directly connected routes

C. With a routing protocol
Explanation
The correct answer is "with a routing protocol." This is because a routing protocol is designed to dynamically learn and exchange routing information between routers. By using a routing protocol, Router R1 will be able to automatically learn routes to the specified subnetworks (192.168.100.16/28, 192.168.100.32/28, and 192.168.100.48/28) from other routers in the network. This eliminates the need for manually configuring static routes or relying on directly connected routes.

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• 29.

### 29. Refer to the exhibit. The network is configured for RIPv2 routing. What path will a packet from router A take to reach the LAN that is attached to router F if the 56 kb/s link between router A and router E fails?

• A.

A, B, C, F

• B.

A, B, C, F A, B, C, E, F

• C.

A, D, G, H, F

• D.

A, D, G, E, F

• E.

A, D, G, E, H, F

C. A, D, G, H, F
Explanation
If the 56 kb/s link between router A and router E fails, the packet from router A will take the path A, D, G, H, F to reach the LAN that is attached to router F.

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• 30.

### 30. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected through a FastEthernet link but cannot form a neighbor adjacency. What could resolve the problem?

• A.

The cost on R1 should be set higher.

• B.

The priority on R1 should be set higher.

• C.

The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

• D.

A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.

• E.

The hello and dead timers must be configured with the same values on both routers.

E. The hello and dead timers must be configured with the same values on both routers.
Explanation
The hello and dead timers must be configured with the same values on both routers. This is because OSPF uses hello packets to establish and maintain neighbor adjacencies. The hello timer specifies the interval at which hello packets are sent, and the dead timer specifies the interval at which a neighbor is considered dead if no hello packets are received. If the hello and dead timers are not configured with the same values on both routers, they will not be able to synchronize their hello packets and establish a neighbor adjacency.

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• 31.

### 31. Which feature of RIPv2 enables it to function as a classless routing protocol?

• A.

• B.

Routing updates are triggered by topology changes.

• C.

• D.

Explanation
RIPv2 includes subnet masks in its routing updates, which allows it to function as a classless routing protocol. By including subnet masks, RIPv2 can accurately determine the network boundaries and route packets accordingly, regardless of the classful addressing scheme. This enables more efficient and flexible routing, as it supports variable-length subnet masks (VLSM) and allows for the subnetting of networks into smaller, more manageable subnets.

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• 32.

### 32. Refer to the exhibit. Which solution provides the most efficient use of router resources for forwarding traffic between BR and HQ?

• A.

RIP

• B.

RIPv2

• C.

EIGRP

• D.

Static routes

D. Static routes
Explanation
Static routes provide the most efficient use of router resources for forwarding traffic between BR and HQ because they are manually configured and do not require the router to constantly exchange routing information with other routers. This reduces the overhead on the router's CPU and memory, allowing it to allocate its resources more efficiently for other tasks. Additionally, static routes are generally more stable and predictable compared to dynamic routing protocols like RIP, RIPv2, and EIGRP.

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• 33.

### 33. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a static route on router R1 to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network. Which IP address should be used as the next-hop address in the ip route command?

• A.

192.168.1.1

• B.

192.168.2.1

• C.

192.135.250.1

• D.

192.135.250.2

D. 192.135.250.2
Explanation
The IP address 192.135.250.2 should be used as the next-hop address in the ip route command because it is the IP address of the next-hop router that will be used to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.

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• 34.

### 34. Refer to the exhibit. Which two interface variables will determine the metric that is used on EIGRP routes? (Choose two.)

• A.

• B.

Delay

• C.

Reliability

• D.

Hop count

• E.

Bandwidth

B. Delay
E. Bandwidth
Explanation
The metric used on EIGRP routes is determined by two interface variables: delay and bandwidth. The delay variable represents the amount of time it takes for a packet to traverse the interface, while the bandwidth variable represents the capacity of the interface. These two variables are used in the calculation of the metric, which is a measure of the "cost" of a route. The lower the metric, the more preferred the route.

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• 35.

• A.

FTP

• B.

RTP

• C.

TCP

• D.

TFTP

• E.

UDP

B. RTP
Explanation
RTP stands for Real-Time Transport Protocol, which is a protocol used for delivering and receiving real-time data, such as audio and video, over IP networks. EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) is a routing protocol used in computer networks. It uses RTP to deliver and receive update packets, which contain information about network topology changes and routing updates. RTP is chosen for this purpose because it provides efficient and reliable delivery of real-time data, which is crucial for routing updates in dynamic network environments.

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• 36.

### 36. Which multicast address does EIGRP use to send hello and updates packets?

• A.

224.0.0.5

• B.

224.0.0.6

• C.

224.0.0.9

• D.

224.0.0.10

D. 224.0.0.10
Explanation
EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) uses the multicast address 224.0.0.10 to send hello and update packets. Multicast addresses are used for one-to-many communication, allowing a single packet to be sent to multiple recipients simultaneously. In the case of EIGRP, the hello packets are used for neighbor discovery and the update packets contain routing information. By using the multicast address 224.0.0.10, EIGRP ensures that these packets are efficiently distributed to all neighboring routers in the network.

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• 37.

### 37. What is the key responsibility of the switching function within a router?

• A.

To choose the best path based on the lowest path cost

• B.

To encapsulate packets in the correct data link frame type

• C.

To look up the correct exit interface for the destination IP address

• D.

To look up the correct exit interface for the destination MAC address

• E.

B. To encapsulate packets in the correct data link frame type
Explanation
The key responsibility of the switching function within a router is to encapsulate packets in the correct data link frame type. This means that the switching function is responsible for taking the packets received from the network layer and encapsulating them into the appropriate data link layer frame, such as Ethernet frames. This ensures that the packets can be properly transmitted over the network to their destination.

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• 38.

### 38. Refer to the exhibit. If the attached device is configured correctly, what action can be taken to change the state of FastEthernet0/0 to Up Up?

• A.

Attach a crossover cable to the interface.

• B.

Change the encapsulation on the interface to HDLC.

• C.

Issue the no shutdown command for the interface.

• D.

Set the clock rate for the interface to 56000.

C. Issue the no shutdown command for the interface.
Explanation
The exhibit suggests that the FastEthernet0/0 interface is currently in a shutdown state. To change the state to Up Up, the correct action would be to issue the "no shutdown" command for the interface. This command will enable the interface and bring it up, allowing it to send and receive traffic. The other options mentioned in the question, such as using a crossover cable, changing the encapsulation, or setting the clock rate, are not relevant to bringing the interface up.

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• 39.

### 39. Which two commands can be used to modify the default OSPF metric calculation of a link? (Choose two.)

• A.

R1(config-if)# bandwidth

• B.

R1(config-if)# ip ospf cost

• C.

R1(config-if)# ip ospf priority

• D.

R1(config-if)# ip ospf hello-interval

• E.

R1(config-router)# default-information originate

A. R1(config-if)# bandwidth
B. R1(config-if)# ip ospf cost
Explanation
The two commands that can be used to modify the default OSPF metric calculation of a link are "R1(config-if)# bandwidth" and "R1(config-if)# ip ospf cost". The "bandwidth" command is used to specify the bandwidth of the interface, which is one of the factors used in the OSPF metric calculation. The "ip ospf cost" command is used to manually set the cost of the interface, overriding the default cost calculation.

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• 40.

### 40. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

• A.

Automatic summarization is disabled.

• B.

The EIGRP routing protocol is being used.

• C.

There is one feasible successor in the routing table.

• D.

The serial interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.

• E.

The router created the route to 172.16.1.0/24 via the S0/0/0 interface.

A. Automatic summarization is disabled.
B. The EIGRP routing protocol is being used.
Explanation
Based on the exhibited output, we can determine that automatic summarization is disabled because the "Auto-summary" field is set to "No". Additionally, the EIGRP routing protocol is being used because the "Routing Protocol" field is set to "EIGRP". Therefore, the correct statements are that automatic summarization is disabled and the EIGRP routing protocol is being used.

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• 41.

### 41. Refer to the exhibit. Two connected routers are unable to establish adjacency. Based on the show ip ospf interface output, what could be the problem?

• A.

The dead timers do not match.

• B.

The routers have not reached full state.

• C.

The two routers are in different autonomous systems.

• D.

The physical interface between the two routers is down.

A. The dead timers do not match.
Explanation
The exhibit shows the output of the "show ip ospf interface" command, which displays information about the OSPF configuration on the interfaces of the routers. The dead timers determine how long a router will wait before declaring a neighbor as dead. If the dead timers on the two routers do not match, it can prevent the establishment of adjacency between them. Therefore, the incorrect dead timers could be the problem causing the inability to establish adjacency.

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• 42.

### 42. What is a characteristic of classful routing?

• A.

Support for VLSM

• B.

• C.

• D.

Explanation
Classful routing is an older routing protocol that does not support Variable Length Subnet Masking (VLSM). In classful routing, the subnet mask is not included in the routing updates, meaning that all networks within a classful network have the same subnet mask. This is in contrast to classless routing protocols, which do include the subnet mask in the routing updates, allowing for more flexible addressing and efficient use of IP addresses.

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• 43.

### 43. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating why data packets with destination addresses of 172.16.10.10 and 192.168.10.100 are being dropped instead of being forwarded via the static route as expected. After confirming that the ip classless command has been applied on all routers in the network, what other action should the administrator take to ensure that data packets to these addresses are forwarded via the static route?

• A.

Check that all routers are configured with the same autonomous system number.

• B.

Issue the no auto-summary command within the EIGRP configuration of all routers.

• C.

Issue the no passive-interface command within the EIGRP configuration of all routers.

• D.

Configure the static route to point to the next hop address instead of the outbound interface.

B. Issue the no auto-summary command within the EIGRP configuration of all routers.
Explanation
To ensure that data packets with destination addresses of 172.16.10.10 and 192.168.10.100 are forwarded via the static route, the network administrator should issue the "no auto-summary" command within the EIGRP configuration of all routers. Enabling auto-summary can cause the routers to summarize the subnets, which may result in incorrect routing decisions and cause the packets to be dropped instead of being forwarded. By disabling auto-summary, the routers will consider the specific subnets and forward the packets correctly via the static route.

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• 44.

### 44. A router in an EIGRP enterprise network has a default route configured via the interface that connects to the ISP. Which command would the network administrator apply on this router so that other routers in the EIGRP AS 100 network will use this default route?

• A.

Redistribute static

• B.

Redistribute eigrp 100

• C.

Redistribute connected

• D.

Default-information originate

A. Redistribute static
Explanation
The correct answer is "redistribute static". In EIGRP, the redistribute static command is used to advertise static routes to other routers in the EIGRP AS 100 network. By applying this command on the router with the default route configured, the router will advertise the default route to other routers in the network, allowing them to use it as well.

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• 45.

### 45. A network administrator configures a new router and saves the configuration. The router is taken to the installation site and installed. On startup, what component will the router search first by default for the saved configuration?

• A.

CompactFlash

• B.

CPU

• C.

Boot ROM

• D.

Flash

• E.

NVRAM

• F.

UART

E. NVRAM
Explanation
The router will search for the saved configuration in the NVRAM (Non-Volatile Random Access Memory) first by default on startup. NVRAM is a type of memory that retains its data even when the power is turned off, making it an ideal location for storing important configuration files.

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• 46.

### 46. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer removes a new router from the shipping container and powers on the router to ensure it passes POST. Which port would the engineer use to perform the initial configuration?

• A.

AUX

• B.

Console

• C.

FE0/0

• D.

FE0/1

B. Console
Explanation
The network engineer would use the console port to perform the initial configuration of the new router. The console port allows for direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) through a serial connection. This port is commonly used for initial setup and troubleshooting purposes.

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• 47.

### 47. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?

• A.

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.

• B.

One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

• C.

A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.

• D.

The default gateway has not been configured on host A.

B. One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.
Explanation
One of the default routes being configured incorrectly can cause the problem of successful pings between host A and host B, but failed pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet. A default route is used by a router when it does not have a specific route in its routing table for a destination network. If the default route is misconfigured, the router may not be able to forward traffic to the correct next hop, resulting in failed pings to hosts on the Internet.

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• 48.

### 48. You have been asked to explain converged networks to a trainee. How would you accurately describe a converged network?

• A.

A network is converged when all routers have formed an adjacency.

• B.

A network is converged immediately after a topology change has occurred.

• C.

A network is converged when all routers flush the unreachable networks from their routing tables.

• D.

A network is converged after all routers share the same information, calculate best paths, and update their routing tables.

D. A network is converged after all routers share the same information, calculate best paths, and update their routing tables.
Explanation
A converged network refers to a state where all routers in a network have shared the same information, calculated the best paths, and updated their routing tables. This ensures that all routers in the network are aware of the same network topology and can efficiently route traffic. It indicates that the network has reached a stable and optimal state for forwarding data.

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• 49.

### 49. A network administrator is troubleshooting a RIPv2 network that is not converging as expected. Which command can the administrator use on each router to view the RIPv2 updates as they are received?

• A.

Debug ip rip

• B.

Show ip route

• C.

Debug ip routing

• D.

Show ip protocols

• E.

Show ip interface brief

A. Debug ip rip
Explanation
The correct answer is "debug ip rip". This command allows the network administrator to view the RIPv2 updates as they are received on each router. By enabling RIP debugging, the administrator can see the routing updates and analyze any issues that may be causing the network not to converge properly. This command is useful for troubleshooting and gaining insight into the RIP routing process.

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• 50.

• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.