Book Review And Study Questions For Chapter 1 & 2
- 1.A 71-year-old man complains to his family physician that his face “feels funny. “The examination reveals numbness on his face and on the same side of his tongue. RI shows a lesion in the cerebral cortex. This man’s lesion is most likely located in which of the following cortical regions?
- A.
Anterior Para central
- B.
Lateral one-third of the post central
- C.
Lateral one-third of the precentral
- D.
Middle one-third of the postcentral
- E.
Posterior paracentral
- 2.The labyrinthine artery is an important source of blood supply to the inner ear. Which of the following arteries represents the major vessel from which this branch usually arises?
- A.
Anterior inferior cerebellar
- B.
Basilar
- C.
Posterior inferior cerebellar
- D.
Superior cerebellar
- E.
Vertebral
- 3.The quadrigeminal artery in a 20-year-old man is occluded by a fat embolus originating from a compound fracture of the humerus. Which of the following structures does this occluded vessel most directly affect?
- A.
Superior cerebellar peduncle
- B.
Mammillary bodies
- C.
Medial and lateral geniculate bodies
- D.
Pineal and habenula
- E.
Superior and inferior colliculi
- 4.67-year-old man complains to his family physician of severe headaches. The examination reveals visual deficits in both eyes, and MRI shows a lesion in the cerebral cortex. Which of the following cortical structures represents the most likely location of this lesion?
- A.
Angular gyrus
- B.
Cingulate gyrus
- C.
Lingual gyrus
- D.
Para hippocampal gyrus
- E.
Precuneus
- 5.A sagittal MRI of a 23-year-old woman is located at, or immediately adjacent to, the midline. Which of the following spaces or structures would be in the image and would indicate this particular plane in this woman’s MRI?
- A.
Cerebral aqueduct
- B.
Corpus callosum
- C.
Interpeduncular fossa
- D.
Interventricular foramen
- E.
Superior colliculus
- 6.A 73-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being found in his garage in a state of confusion. CT shows an infarct involving much of the superior frontal gyrus. Which of the following vessels is most likely occluded in this patient?
- A.
Angular artery
- B.
Callosomarginal artery
- C.
Lenticulostriate arteries
- D.
Middle cerebral artery,M4 segments
- E.
Posterior cerebral artery,P4 segments
- 7.The MRI of a 49-year-old woman shows a tumor in the cerebral cortex located immediately superior to the corpus callosum. This lesion is most likely located in which of the following lobes?
- A.
Frontal
- B.
Limbic
- C.
Occipital
- D.
Parietal
- E.
Temporal
- 8.A 69-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department. The daughter reports that her mother suddenly seemed to be unable to speak. The examination reveals that the woman has a nonfluent (Broca) aphasia. A sagittal MRI shows a lesion in which of the following gyri?
- A.
Angular
- B.
Inferior frontal
- C.
Lateral one-third of the precentral
- D.
Middle frontal
- E.
Supramarginal
- 9.Which of the following Brodmann areas represents the primary somatosensory cortex?
- A.
Areas 3,1,2
- B.
Area 4
- C.
Area 17
- D.
Area 22
- E.
Area 40
- 10.A 64-year-old man awakens with a profound weakness of his right hand. The man is transported by ambulance to a major medical center, a distance of 240 miles and taking several hours. About 2.5 hours after his arrival, an MRI shows a small lesion in the cerebral cortex. Which of the following gyri represents the most likely location of this lesion?
- A.
Anterior paracentral
- B.
Medial one-third of precentral
- C.
Middle frontal
- D.
Middle one-third of precentral
- E.
Lateral one-third of precentral
- 11.A 71-year-old man presents with a Broca (nonfluent) aphasia. RI reveals a lesion in Brodmann area 44.As this lesion expands, due to edema, and impinges on the immediately adjacent cortical areas, which of the following deficits would most likely be seen?
- A.
Loss of hearing in one ear
- B.
Numbness and prickly sensation on the hand
- C.
Visual field deficits in both eyes
- D.
Weakness of facial muscles
- E.
Weakness of the upper extremity
- 12.A 47-year-old woman presents with seizures and ill-defined neurological complaints. The examination reveals a bruit on the lateral aspect of the head immediately rostral and superior to the ear. A CT shows a large arteriovenous malformation in the area of the lateral sulcus. The feeding artery(ies) is M4 branches. Which of the following most likely represents the major draining vein?
- A.
Inferior sagittal sinus
- B.
Deep cerebral vein
- C.
Internal cerebral vein
- D.
Ophthalmic vein
- E.
Superficial middle cerebral vein
- F.
Superior petrosal sinus
- 13.The collection of posterior and anterior roots that occupy the lumbar cistern are collectively known as which of the following?
- A.
Cauda equine
- B.
Conus medullaris
- C.
Denticulate ligament
- D.
Filum terminale externum
- E.
Filum terminale internum
- 14.Which of the following Brodmann areas represents the primary somatomotor cortex?
- A.
Areas 3,1,2
- B.
Area 4
- C.
Area 5
- D.
Area 6
- E.
Area 7
- 15.A 39-year-old woman complains of weakness in her right lower extremity. The history suggests that this deficit has developed slowly,perhaps over several years. MRI shows a mening iomaimposing on the cerebral cortex. Which of the following gyri is most likely involved in this patient?
- A.
Anterior paracentral
- B.
Lateral part of precentral
- C.
Medial part of precentral
- D.
Medial part of postcentral
- E.
Posterior paracentral
- 16.A 71-year-old woman presents with motor and sensory deficits affecting her face and upper extremity. CT shows a hemorrhage that is confined largely to the cortex and adjacent subcorticalareas. Which of the following vessels/segments are most likely involved?
- A.
A1
- B.
M2
- C.
M3
- D.
M4
- E.
P4
- 17.A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a gunshot wound to the head. He is decorticate but soon becomes decerebrate. This change in status is due to uncal herniation. Which of the following most specifically describes the position of the uncus prior to this patient’s change in status?
- A.
At the temporal lobe
- B.
Caudal aspect of the cingulate gyrus
- C.
Caudal aspect of the gyrus rectus
- D.
Medial edge of occipitotemporal gyri
- E.
Rostromedial aspect of the parahippocampal gyrus
- 18.A 73-year-old woman presents with visual deficits in both eyes. No other cranial nerve deficits or motor or sensory deficits are seen. CT shows a hemorrhage in the cerebral cortex. Which of the following vessels/segments is most likely involved in this hemorrhage?
- A.
A4 * 5
- B.
M3
- C.
M4
- D.
P2
- E.
P4
- 19.An 81-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her son with a complaint of weakness on the same side of her body and face. CT shows a hemorrhage in the territory of the lenticulostriate arteries. Which of the following represents the most likely origin of these vessels?
- A.
A1
- B.
M1
- C.
M2
- D.
P1
- E.
P2
- 20.The MRI of a 27-year-old woman shows a meningioma impinging on the gyrus rectus in axial and coronal MRI. This lesion is located on which of the following lobes of the cerebral hemi-sphere?
- A.
Frontal
- B.
Insular
- C.
Occipital
- D.
Parietal
- E.
Temporal
- 21.A 51-year-old man presents with visual field deficits in both eyes and a right-sided weakness of the upper and lower extremities. MRI shows a lesion in the optic tract that has spread into a structure located immediately adjacent to this tract. Based on its anatomical relationship, which of the following structures is most likely involved in this lesion in this patient?
- A.
Left basilar pons
- B.
Left crus cerebri
- C.
Left pyramid
- D.
Right crus cerebri
- E.
Right optic nerve
- 22.A 19-year-old man presents with significant paralysis of movement in his left eye and a dilated pupil. No other deficits are seen. Suspecting some type of lesion on the root or along the intracranial course of the oculomotor (III) nerve, the neurologist orders T2-weighted MRI. Which of the following describes the appearance of the subarachnoid and ventricular spaces in this image?
- A.
Black (hypointense)
- B.
Dark grey
- C.
Light grey
- D.
Medium grey
- E.
White (hyperintense)
- 23.A 49-year-old woman presents with ill-defined neurological deficits that have persisted over several months. As part of the evaluation, the neurologist orders a T1-weighted MRI. Which of the following describes the appearance of CSF in the ventricular spaces, and consequently the outline and shape of the ventricles, in this patient?
- A.
Black (hypointense)
- B.
Dark grey
- C.
Light grey
- D.
Medium grey
- E.
White (hyperintense)
- 24.. A 71-year-old morbidly obese man is brought to the emergency department by his son. The son reports that the man complained of a sudden excruciating headache and then became stuporous. Suspecting a ruptured aneurysm the physician orders a CT. Which of the following describes the appearance of acute blood in the subarachnoid space in this patient?
- A.
Black (hypodense)
- B.
Black to grey
- C.
Light grey
- D.
Medium grey
- E.
White (hyperdense)
- 25.Which of the following cranial nerves exits the brainstem via the preolivary sulcus?
- A.
Abducens (VI)
- B.
Facial (VII)
- C.
Hypoglossal (XII)
- D.
Vagus (X)
- E.
Trigeminal (V)
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