Human Body- Neurology System Test

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Human Body- Neurology System Test - Quiz

Neurology is an area of medical science concerned with studying, analyzing, and treating nervous system disorders. It is quite a complex structure that regulates the activities of the human body. This test is made to see how much do you know about neurology in detail. So, without further ado, let's get started.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A temporary acute paralysis or weakness of one side of the face refers to: 

    • A.

      Cerebral palsy

    • B.

      Hemiparesis

    • C.

      Stroke

    • D.

      Bell's palsy 

    Correct Answer
    D. Bell's palsy 
    Explanation
    Bell's palsy refers to a temporary acute paralysis or weakness of one side of the face. It is caused by damage or inflammation of the facial nerve, leading to facial drooping and difficulty in controlling facial muscles. Unlike other conditions listed, such as cerebral palsy, hemiparesis, or stroke, Bell's palsy is typically temporary and resolves on its own within a few weeks to months.

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  • 2. 

    A patient come sin with a rapid succession of alternately contracting and relaxing muscles this is an example of a:

    • A.

      Clonic phase

    • B.

      Tonic phase

    • C.

      Seizure

    • D.

      Stroke

    Correct Answer
    A. Clonic phase
    Explanation
    The given scenario of a patient experiencing rapid succession of alternately contracting and relaxing muscles is indicative of the clonic phase. In this phase, the muscles undergo rhythmic contractions and relaxations, which is a characteristic feature of certain types of seizures. This phase is often preceded by the tonic phase, where the muscles become stiff and rigid. A stroke, on the other hand, is a sudden disruption of blood flow to the brain, causing neurological symptoms but not specifically characterized by alternating muscle contractions.

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  • 3. 

    An acute inflammation of the brain and spinal cord involving the meninges, often due to a virus:

    • A.

      Meningitis

    • B.

      Encephalitis

    • C.

      Paresthesia

    • D.

      Vertigo

    Correct Answer
    B. Encephalitis
    Explanation
    Encephalitis is the correct answer because it refers to the acute inflammation of the brain and spinal cord involving the meninges. This condition is often caused by a virus. Meningitis, on the other hand, refers to the inflammation of the meninges specifically, without necessarily involving the brain. Paresthesia and vertigo are not related to inflammation of the brain and spinal cord.

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  • 4. 

    A post infectious disorder following a nonspecific gastrointestinal or respiratory infection that causes an acute neuromuscular paralysis: 

    • A.

      Hemiplegia

    • B.

      Hemiparesis

    • C.

      Guillain- Barre syndrome

    • D.

      Stroke

    Correct Answer
    C. Guillain- Barre syndrome
    Explanation
    Guillain-Barre syndrome is a post-infectious disorder that can occur after a gastrointestinal or respiratory infection. It is characterized by acute neuromuscular paralysis, which is consistent with the symptoms described in the question. Hemiplegia and hemiparesis both refer to paralysis or weakness on one side of the body, which is not indicative of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Stroke is a separate condition involving the interruption of blood flow to the brain, and does not match the symptoms described in the question.

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  • 5. 

    An acquired brain injury caused by external force:

    • A.

      Transient Ischemic Attack

    • B.

      Concussion 

    • C.

      Traumatic Brain Injury

    • D.

      Syncope

    Correct Answer
    C. Traumatic Brain Injury
    Explanation
    A traumatic brain injury is an acquired brain injury caused by an external force. This can occur as a result of a blow or jolt to the head, such as in a car accident or a fall. It can also happen when an object penetrates the skull and damages the brain. Symptoms of a traumatic brain injury can range from mild, such as a headache or confusion, to severe, such as loss of consciousness or memory loss. Treatment for a traumatic brain injury may include medication, surgery, rehabilitation, and therapy to help manage symptoms and improve functioning.

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  • 6. 

    Functions in the conservation of body resources as well as maintenance of functions such as digestion and elimination:

    • A.

      Autonomic nervous system

    • B.

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • C.

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • D.

      Digestive system

    Correct Answer
    C. Parasympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for regulating the body's rest and digest response. It helps conserve and restore energy by slowing down heart rate, increasing digestion and nutrient absorption, and promoting elimination of waste. This system works in opposition to the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the fight or flight response. Together, these two systems maintain a balance in the body's functions and ensure the efficient use of resources for optimal health and well-being.

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  • 7. 

    Which one do you like?

    • A.

      Option 1

    • B.

      Option 2

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 8. 

    What part of the nervous system assist in the production and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid?

    • A.

      Cerebrum

    • B.

      Cerebellum

    • C.

      Meninges

    • D.

      Dura Mater

    Correct Answer
    C. Meninges
    Explanation
    The meninges are the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. They assist in the production and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). CSF is produced in the ventricles of the brain and is responsible for cushioning and nourishing the brain and spinal cord. The meninges help in the circulation and absorption of CSF, ensuring a constant supply and removal of this fluid.

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  • 9. 

    What percentage of total cardiac output does the brain receive?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      25

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      30

    Correct Answer
    C. 20
    Explanation
    The brain receives approximately 20% of the total cardiac output. This means that 20% of the blood pumped by the heart is directed towards the brain. This is because the brain requires a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients to function properly. The high percentage of cardiac output directed towards the brain ensures that it receives an adequate blood supply for its metabolic needs.

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  • 10. 

    All of the following are lobes of the brain except:

    • A.

      Parietal Lobe

    • B.

      Temporal Lobe

    • C.

      Sphenoid Lobe

    • D.

      Frontal Lobe

    Correct Answer
    C. Sphenoid Lobe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Sphenoid Lobe" because the sphenoid lobe is not a recognized lobe of the brain. The brain is divided into four main lobes: the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, and occipital lobe. The sphenoid lobe does not exist in the brain's anatomical structure.

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  • 11. 

    This structure provides a interconnection between each of the two hemispheres of the brain allowing coordination of activities between them:

    • A.

      Perkinje Fibers

    • B.

      Neurons

    • C.

      Myelin Sheath

    • D.

      Corpus callosum

    Correct Answer
    D. Corpus callosum
    Explanation
    The corpus callosum is a structure in the brain that connects the two hemispheres, allowing communication and coordination between them. It is composed of a large bundle of nerve fibers that transmit signals between the left and right sides of the brain. This interconnection is crucial for various functions such as language processing, motor coordination, and sensory integration. Without the corpus callosum, the two hemispheres would not be able to work together effectively, leading to impaired cognitive and motor abilities.

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  • 12. 

    This lobe of the brain is responsible for processing sensory data:

    • A.

      Frontal 

    • B.

      Parietal

    • C.

      Occipital 

    • D.

      Temporal

    Correct Answer
    B. Parietal
    Explanation
    The parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory data. It receives and interprets information from the senses, such as touch, temperature, and pain. This lobe helps us perceive and understand the world around us by integrating sensory information and creating a coherent perception of our environment. It plays a crucial role in spatial awareness, perception of movement, and coordination of body movements. Additionally, the parietal lobe is involved in higher cognitive functions, such as attention, memory, and language processing.

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  • 13. 

    This lobe of the brain contains the primary vision center and provides data interpretation of visual data:

    • A.

      Frontal

    • B.

      Parietal

    • C.

      Occipital

    • D.

      Temporal

    Correct Answer
    C. Occipital
    Explanation
    The occipital lobe is responsible for processing visual information and is located at the back of the brain. It contains the primary visual cortex, which receives and interprets visual data from the eyes. This lobe plays a crucial role in visual perception, object recognition, and spatial awareness. It helps us make sense of the visual world around us by processing and interpreting the information received from the eyes.

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  • 14. 

    This lobe of the brain is responsible for perception and interpretation of sounds and determination of their source: 

    • A.

      Frontal

    • B.

      Parietal

    • C.

      Occipital

    • D.

      Temporal

    Correct Answer
    D. Temporal
    Explanation
    The temporal lobe of the brain is responsible for the perception and interpretation of sounds and the determination of their source. This lobe plays a crucial role in processing auditory information, including language comprehension, speech perception, and sound recognition. It also contributes to memory formation and emotional responses to sounds.

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  • 15. 

    The Cerebellum aids the motor cortex of the Cerebrum in the integration involuntary movement: 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the cerebellum aids the motor cortex of the cerebrum in the integration of voluntary movement, not involuntary movement. The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating and fine-tuning voluntary movements, while the motor cortex of the cerebrum initiates and controls voluntary movements. Involuntary movements, on the other hand, are controlled by other regions of the brain, such as the basal ganglia and the brainstem.

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  • 16. 

    The structure in the brainstem that relays auditory pathways and center of eye/ head movement is the: 

    • A.

      Pons

    • B.

      Midbrain

    • C.

      Epithalamus

    • D.

      Hypothalamus

    Correct Answer
    B. Midbrain
    Explanation
    The midbrain is the structure in the brainstem that relays auditory pathways and is also responsible for controlling eye and head movements. It acts as a bridge between the higher and lower brain regions, transmitting sensory information from the ears to the auditory cortex and coordinating visual and motor functions. The pons, on the other hand, is involved in regulating breathing and sleep, while the epithalamus and hypothalamus have different functions related to hormone production and regulation.

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  • 17. 

    Which one do you like?

    • A.

      Option 1

    • B.

      Option 2

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 18. 

    The structure in the brainstem responsible for respiratory, circulatory, and vasomotor activities is the: 

    • A.

      Diencephalon

    • B.

      Medulla Oblongata

    • C.

      Pons

    • D.

      Pituitary Gland

    Correct Answer
    B. Medulla Oblongata
    Explanation
    The medulla oblongata is a structure in the brainstem that is responsible for controlling various vital functions such as respiration, circulation, and vasomotor activities. It regulates the rate and depth of breathing, controls heart rate and blood pressure, and helps to maintain the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body. The medulla oblongata acts as a control center for these essential physiological processes, making it the correct answer in this case.

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  • 19. 

    The structure in the brainstem responsible for the control of states of consciousness, conscious perceptions of sensations, and abstract feelings is the: 

    • A.

      Epithalamus

    • B.

      Hypothalamus

    • C.

      Diencephalon

    • D.

      Medulla Oblongata

    Correct Answer
    C. Diencephalon
    Explanation
    The diencephalon is a structure in the brainstem that is responsible for controlling states of consciousness, conscious perceptions of sensations, and abstract feelings. It acts as a relay center, receiving sensory information and relaying it to other parts of the brain for processing. The diencephalon includes important structures such as the thalamus and hypothalamus, which play crucial roles in regulating sleep, wakefulness, emotions, and sensory processing. Therefore, the diencephalon is the correct answer for the structure in the brainstem responsible for these functions.

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  • 20. 

    The Hypothalamus is the major processing center of internal stimuli for the autonomic nervous system.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is a small region of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including the autonomic nervous system. It receives and processes internal stimuli, such as changes in body temperature, blood pressure, and hormone levels. It then sends signals to other parts of the brain and body to initiate appropriate responses. Therefore, it can be said that the hypothalamus is indeed the major processing center of internal stimuli for the autonomic nervous system.

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  • 21. 

    The cranial nerves contain how many pairs of nerves?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      11

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      13

    Correct Answer
    C. 12
    Explanation
    The cranial nerves are a set of 12 pairs of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each pair of cranial nerves is numbered and has a specific function, such as controlling eye movement, facial expressions, or sensation in the head and neck region. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.

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  • 22. 

    The main network of coordination and control of the body made up of the brain and spinal cord:

    • A.

      Peripheral nervous system 

    • B.

      Central nervous system

    • C.

      Autonomic nervous system 

    • D.

      Sympathetic nervous system 

    Correct Answer
    B. Central nervous system
    Explanation
    The central nervous system is responsible for coordinating and controlling the body. It consists of the brain and spinal cord, which work together to receive and interpret sensory information, send signals to the muscles and organs, and regulate bodily functions. The central nervous system plays a crucial role in processing information, making decisions, and initiating appropriate responses to stimuli.

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  • 23. 

    The Optic Nerve is characterized by which cranial nerve position:

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      IV

    • C.

      II

    • D.

      III

    Correct Answer
    C. II
    Explanation
    The optic nerve is characterized by the cranial nerve position II. The optic nerve is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eye to the brain. It is the second cranial nerve and is essential for vision.

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  • 24. 

    The Trochlear nerve is characterized by which cranial nerve position: 

    • A.

      V

    • B.

      IV

    • C.

      VI

    • D.

      VIII

    Correct Answer
    B. IV
    Explanation
    The Trochlear nerve is characterized by the cranial nerve position IV.

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  • 25. 

    The Olfactory nerve is characterized by which cranial nerve position:

    • A.

      III

    • B.

      V

    • C.

      I

    • D.

      II

    Correct Answer
    C. I
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I because the olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve. It is responsible for the sense of smell and is unique among the cranial nerves as it does not pass through the brainstem. Instead, it directly connects to the olfactory bulb in the brain.

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  • 26. 

    The Trigeminal nerve is characterized by which cranial nerve position: 

    • A.

      VI

    • B.

      V

    • C.

      VIII

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. V
    Explanation
    The Trigeminal nerve is characterized by the cranial nerve position V.

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  • 27. 

    The Glossopharyngeal nerve is characterized by which cranial nerve position: 

    • A.

      X

    • B.

      XI

    • C.

      XII

    • D.

      IX

    Correct Answer
    D. IX
    Explanation
    The Glossopharyngeal nerve is characterized by the cranial nerve position IX.

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  • 28. 

    The Abducens Nerve is characterized by which cranial nerve position: 

    • A.

      V

    • B.

      VIII

    • C.

      VI

    • D.

      VII

    Correct Answer
    C. VI
    Explanation
    The Abducens Nerve is characterized by the cranial nerve position VI.

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  • 29. 

    The Facial nerve is characterized by which cranial position: 

    • A.

      VII

    • B.

      VIII

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      II

    Correct Answer
    A. VII
    Explanation
    The correct answer is VII. The Facial nerve is characterized by the cranial position VII.

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  • 30. 

    The Vagus nerve is characterized by which cranial position: 

    • A.

      XII

    • B.

      XI

    • C.

      X

    • D.

      IX

    Correct Answer
    C. X
    Explanation
    The correct answer is X because the Vagus nerve is the tenth cranial nerve, also known as cranial nerve X. It is the longest and most complex cranial nerve in the body, running from the brainstem to the abdomen and innervating various organs along the way. It plays a crucial role in regulating many bodily functions, including heart rate, digestion, and breathing.

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  • 31. 

    The Acoustic nerve is characterized by which cranial position: 

    • A.

      VI

    • B.

      VIII

    • C.

      VII

    • D.

      X

    Correct Answer
    B. VIII
    Explanation
    The acoustic nerve is characterized by the cranial position VIII. This is because the acoustic nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, is the eighth cranial nerve. It is responsible for transmitting sound and balance information from the inner ear to the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is VIII.

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  • 32. 

    The Hypoglossal nerve is characterized by which cranial position: 

    • A.

      XI

    • B.

      XII

    • C.

      X

    • D.

      VI

    Correct Answer
    B. XII
    Explanation
    The Hypoglossal nerve is characterized by the cranial position XII.

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  • 33. 

    The Spinal accessory nerve is characterized by which cranial nerve position: 

    • A.

      X

    • B.

      IX

    • C.

      XI

    • D.

      III

    Correct Answer
    C. XI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XI. The Spinal accessory nerve is also known as cranial nerve XI. It is responsible for controlling the muscles of the neck and shoulder, allowing movements such as shrugging the shoulders and turning the head. This nerve originates from the spinal cord and exits the skull through the jugular foramen.

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  • 34. 

    Supplies movement to the outer and lateral side of each eye: 

    • A.

      Abducens Nerve (CN VI)

    • B.

      Abducens Nerve (CN IV)

    • C.

      Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)

    • D.

      Trochlear Nerve (CN VI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Abducens Nerve (CN VI)
    Explanation
    The abducens nerve (CN VI) is responsible for the movement of the eye towards the outer and lateral side. This nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for moving the eye away from the midline of the body. The other options, CN IV and CN VI, are responsible for different eye movements and do not specifically control movement towards the outer and lateral side.

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  • 35. 

    Conducts visual impulses from the eye to the brain:

    • A.

      Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)

    • B.

      Oculomotor Nerve (CN II)

    • C.

      Optic Nerve (CN II)

    • D.

      Optic Nerve (CN III)

    Correct Answer
    C. Optic Nerve (CN II)
    Explanation
    The optic nerve (CN II) conducts visual impulses from the eye to the brain. It is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the visual cortex in the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) is responsible for controlling the movement of the eye, while the optic nerve (CN II) is specifically involved in visual processing. Therefore, the optic nerve (CN II) is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 36. 

    Provide motor fibers to the muscles of the face and jaw:

    • A.

      Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)

    • B.

      Glossopharyngeal (CN VII)

    • C.

      Facial Nerve ( CN IX)

    • D.

      Facial Nerve (CN VII)

    Correct Answer
    D. Facial Nerve (CN VII)
    Explanation
    The facial nerve (CN VII) is responsible for providing motor fibers to the muscles of the face and jaw. It controls the movements of the facial muscles, allowing us to make facial expressions and perform actions such as smiling, frowning, and chewing. The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is responsible for providing motor fibers to the muscles of the pharynx and tongue, while the glossopharyngeal (CN VII) is not a valid cranial nerve. Therefore, the correct answer is the Facial Nerve (CN VII).

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  • 37. 

    The supply of glucose to the brain must be continuous. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The brain relies heavily on glucose as its main source of energy. Unlike other organs in the body, the brain cannot store glucose and therefore requires a continuous supply to function properly. Interruptions in the supply of glucose can lead to impaired brain function and potentially serious consequences. Therefore, it is crucial for the supply of glucose to the brain to be continuous.

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  • 38. 

    The four CSF filled cavities within the brain are referred to as:

    • A.

      Cavities

    • B.

      Reservoirs

    • C.

      Ventricles

    • D.

      Sockets

    Correct Answer
    C. Ventricles
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ventricles." Ventricles are the four CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) filled cavities within the brain. They are interconnected and play a crucial role in the production, circulation, and absorption of CSF. The ventricles are responsible for maintaining the brain's buoyancy, protecting it from injury, and providing nutrients to the brain cells.

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  • 39. 

    Utilization of a tuning fork is used in the assessment of which cranial nerve?

    • A.

      Facial Nerve (CN VII)

    • B.

      Acoustic Nerve (CN VIII)

    • C.

      Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)

    • D.

      Trigeminal Nerve ( CN V) 

    Correct Answer
    B. Acoustic Nerve (CN VIII)
    Explanation
    A tuning fork is used in the assessment of the Acoustic Nerve (CN VIII) because this nerve is responsible for hearing and balance. By striking the tuning fork and placing it against the mastoid bone behind the ear, sound vibrations are transmitted through the bones of the skull to stimulate the Acoustic Nerve. This allows healthcare professionals to assess the patient's ability to hear and detect any abnormalities in their hearing or balance.

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  • 40. 

    Dorsiflexion of the great tow with or without fanning of the other toes is referred to as: 

    • A.

      Tactile agnosia

    • B.

      Graphesthesia

    • C.

      Babinski sign

    • D.

      Extinction Phenomenon 

    Correct Answer
    C. Babinski sign
    Explanation
    The Babinski sign refers to the dorsiflexion of the great toe, along with the fanning of the other toes. This sign is commonly seen in certain neurological conditions, such as damage to the upper motor neurons. It indicates an abnormal reflex response and is often used as a diagnostic tool to assess the integrity of the central nervous system.

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  • 41. 

    A patient with an active or expected deep tendon reflex response would be graded as a: 

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      +1

    • C.

      +2

    • D.

      +4

    Correct Answer
    C. +2
    Explanation
    A patient with an active or expected deep tendon reflex response would be graded as +2. This indicates a normal reflex response, where the muscle contraction is of average intensity. A grade of 0 would indicate no response, +1 would indicate a diminished response, and +4 would indicate an exaggerated response.

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  • 42. 

    The Glasgow coma scale numerical value for a patient with an optimal level of consciousness would be:

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      13

    • C.

      14

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    D. 15
    Explanation
    The Glasgow coma scale is used to assess the level of consciousness in a patient. It evaluates three aspects: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each aspect is assigned a score, and the scores are summed up to give a total score. A score of 15 indicates that the patient has an optimal level of consciousness, with normal eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

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  • 43. 

    The Glasgow coma scale numerical value for a patient with an indication of a deep coma would be:

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    A Glasgow coma scale numerical value of 3 indicates that the patient is in a deep coma. The Glasgow coma scale is used to assess the level of consciousness in a patient, with lower scores indicating a more severe impairment. A score of 3 suggests that the patient is unable to open their eyes, make any verbal response, and exhibit any motor response, which is characteristic of a deep coma state.

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  • 44. 

    Evaluation of delayed recall in order to assess the memory of a patient should include a list of how many words?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    C. 5
    Explanation
    The evaluation of delayed recall in order to assess the memory of a patient should include a list of 5 words. This is because delayed recall tests the ability to remember information after a certain period of time has passed. By providing a list of 5 words, the patient's memory can be assessed based on their ability to recall and remember those words accurately.

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  • 45. 

    A patient with a spinal injury experiencing a seizure should be placed on his/her side in order to ensure drainage from the mouth. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Placing a patient with a spinal injury on their side during a seizure is not necessary for ensuring drainage from the mouth. The main concern during a seizure is to protect the patient from further injury by providing a safe environment and preventing them from choking on any objects or fluids. Placing the patient on their side may be necessary if there is a risk of aspiration or if they are vomiting, but it is not specifically related to the spinal injury.

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  • 46. 

    The MACE2 exam should be conducted on a patient with a:

    • A.

      Stroke or TIA

    • B.

      Stroke or Concussion

    • C.

      Concussion or TBI

    • D.

      Stroke or TBI

    Correct Answer
    C. Concussion or TBI
    Explanation
    The MACE2 exam should be conducted on a patient with a concussion or TBI because the MACE2 (Military Acute Concussion Evaluation) is a standardized tool used to assess and evaluate individuals who have experienced a concussion or traumatic brain injury (TBI). It helps in diagnosing and managing these conditions by evaluating symptoms, cognitive function, balance, and other relevant factors. Conducting the MACE2 exam on patients with a concussion or TBI ensures appropriate evaluation and treatment for these specific conditions.

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  • 47. 

    A 35 year old patient presents with symptoms of a headache, emotional liability and amnesia the most likely assessment would be: 

    • A.

      Seizure

    • B.

      Concussion

    • C.

      Meningitis 

    • D.

      Stroke

    Correct Answer
    B. Concussion
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms presented by the patient, such as headache, emotional liability, and amnesia, the most likely assessment would be a concussion. A concussion is a type of traumatic brain injury that occurs due to a blow or jolt to the head, causing temporary disruption of brain function. These symptoms are commonly associated with a concussion, as the impact can cause headaches, emotional changes, and memory problems. Seizure, meningitis, and stroke may also present with similar symptoms, but a concussion is the most likely assessment in this case.

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  • 48. 

    A 40 year old patient present with symptoms of a fever, lethargy and brudzinski the most likely assessment would be: 

    • A.

      Stroke

    • B.

      Meningitis 

    • C.

      Coma

    • D.

      Concussion

    Correct Answer
    B. Meningitis 
    Explanation
    Given the symptoms of fever, lethargy, and Brudzinski sign, the most likely assessment would be meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, the membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. It is often caused by a bacterial or viral infection and can present with symptoms such as fever, headache, lethargy, and signs of meningeal irritation like neck stiffness and positive Brudzinski sign. Stroke, coma, and concussion do not typically present with these specific symptoms and signs, making meningitis the most likely assessment.

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  • 49. 

    A 55 year old patient present with symptoms of sudden numbness, confusion, and hemianopia the most likely assessment would be: 

    • A.

      Meningitis

    • B.

      Stroke

    • C.

      Coma

    • D.

      Concussion

    Correct Answer
    B. Stroke
    Explanation
    Given the symptoms of sudden numbness, confusion, and hemianopia, the most likely assessment would be a stroke. These symptoms are commonly associated with a stroke, which is a medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, leading to brain cell damage. Meningitis, coma, and concussion are all possible conditions that could cause similar symptoms, but a stroke is the most likely explanation based on the given information.

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  • 50. 

    A 65 year old patient present with symptoms of muscle weakness on one side of the face, eyelid's not closing and saliva pooling the most likely assessment would be:

    • A.

      Stroke

    • B.

      Concussion 

    • C.

      Bell's palsy

    • D.

      Peripheral Neuropathy

    Correct Answer
    C. Bell's palsy
    Explanation
    The most likely assessment for a 65-year-old patient presenting with symptoms of muscle weakness on one side of the face, eyelid's not closing, and saliva pooling would be Bell's palsy. Bell's palsy is a condition that causes sudden weakness or paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face. It is typically caused by inflammation or damage to the facial nerve, leading to symptoms such as drooping of the mouth or eyelid, difficulty closing the eye, and excessive drooling. Bell's palsy is a common condition and is usually temporary, resolving on its own within a few weeks to months.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 25, 2021
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3
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