Block 15 Pediatric Pathology

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| By Chachelly
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Block 15 Pediatric Pathology - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The primary cause of Potter sequence?

    • A.

      Lung aplasia

    • B.

      Renal agenesis

    • C.

      Renal hypoplasia

    • D.

      Oligohydramnios

    • E.

      Anal atresia

    • F.

      Esophageal atresia

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Renal agenesis
    C. Renal hypoplasia
    Explanation
    Potter sequence is a condition characterized by a group of physical abnormalities that occur in a baby as a result of low amniotic fluid levels during pregnancy. The primary cause of Potter sequence is usually renal agenesis or renal hypoplasia, which refers to the absence or underdevelopment of one or both kidneys. These conditions lead to a decrease in the production of amniotic fluid, resulting in compression of the baby's body and causing the characteristic physical features associated with Potter sequence. Other factors such as lung aplasia, oligohydramnios, anal atresia, and esophageal atresia can also contribute to the development of Potter sequence, but renal agenesis and renal hypoplasia are considered the primary causes.

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  • 2. 

    An embryo is the most vulnerable for the influence of teratogens during weeks …

    • A.

      1 - 2

    • B.

      3 – 8

    • C.

      9 – 20

    • D.

      21 – 37

    • E.

      38 – 40

    Correct Answer
    B. 3 – 8
    Explanation
    During weeks 3-8 of pregnancy, the embryo is in the early stages of development and is particularly vulnerable to the influence of teratogens. This is because this is the period when the major organs and body systems are forming. Exposure to teratogens during this time can lead to structural abnormalities or functional defects in the developing embryo. Therefore, it is crucial for pregnant women to avoid exposure to harmful substances or environmental factors that could potentially harm the developing embryo during these critical weeks.

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  • 3. 

    Spina bifida occulta is …

    • A.

      A defect in the vertebral arch only

    • B.

      Growth of hair in the lumbar area

    • C.

      A defect in vertebral arch and displacement of spinal cord without skin outpoaching

    • D.

      A defect in vertabral arch with meningeal herniation

    • E.

      A defect in vertebral arch with meningeal and spinal cord herniation

    Correct Answer
    A. A defect in the vertebral arch only
    Explanation
    Spina bifida occulta is a condition characterized by a defect in the vertebral arch only. This means that there is an incomplete closure of the bones that make up the spinal column, specifically the vertebral arch. Unlike other forms of spina bifida, there is no skin outpouching or herniation of the spinal cord or meninges in spina bifida occulta. It is usually asymptomatic and may only be detected incidentally on imaging studies.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following congenital defects is the LEAST likely associated with maternal alcoholism?

    • A.

      Atrial septal defect

    • B.

      Cataract

    • C.

      Growth retardation

    • D.

      Mental retardation

    • E.

      Microcephaly

    • F.

      Narrow upper lip

    • G.

      Short palpebral fissures

    • H.

      Smooth filtrum

    • I.

      Ventricular septal defect

    Correct Answer
    B. Cataract
    Explanation
    Maternal alcoholism is known to cause a variety of birth defects, including fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). FAS is characterized by growth retardation, mental retardation, microcephaly, narrow upper lip, short palpebral fissures, and smooth filtrum. While alcohol exposure during pregnancy can potentially affect the development of the heart, atrial septal defect and ventricular septal defect are more commonly associated with maternal alcoholism than cataracts. Therefore, cataracts are the least likely congenital defect to be associated with maternal alcoholism.

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  • 5. 

    A combination of microcephaly, hydrocephaly, cataract, chorioretinitis, and cardiac septal defect is characteristic for…

    • A.

      Fetal alcohol syndrome

    • B.

      Maternal smoking

    • C.

      TORCH infection

    • D.

      Retinoid embryopathy

    • E.

      HOX-gene mutation

    • F.

      SHH gene mutation

    • G.

      Folate deficiency

    Correct Answer
    C. TORCH infection
    Explanation
    A combination of microcephaly, hydrocephaly, cataract, chorioretinitis, and cardiac septal defect is characteristic for TORCH infection. TORCH infections are caused by a group of pathogens including Toxoplasma, Other (such as syphilis, varicella-zoster, parvovirus B19, etc.), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus. These infections can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy and can lead to various congenital abnormalities. The presence of multiple symptoms like microcephaly, hydrocephaly, cataract, chorioretinitis, and cardiac septal defect suggests a TORCH infection as the cause.

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  • 6. 

    A baby is born at 32 wks’ gestation and weighs 2500 gm. Terms applied to this baby?

    • A.

      Prematuriry

    • B.

      LBW

    • C.

      VLBW

    • D.

      LGA

    • E.

      AGA

    • F.

      A and D

    • G.

      A and E

    Correct Answer
    F. A and D
    Explanation
    The terms applied to this baby are Prematurity and LGA (Large for Gestational Age). Prematurity refers to the baby being born before the full 37 weeks of gestation. LGA refers to the baby being larger than expected for their gestational age.

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  • 7. 

    An Apgar score of 8 indicates…

    • A.

      High risk of death within 28 days of life

    • B.

      Persistent neurologic deficit in future

    • C.

      Excellent chances to survive

    • D.

      No chances for survival, an infant will ultimately die with 7 days after delivery

    Correct Answer
    C. Excellent chances to survive
    Explanation
    An Apgar score of 8 indicates excellent chances to survive. The Apgar score is a quick assessment tool used to evaluate the physical condition of a newborn immediately after birth. It assesses the baby's heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. A score of 8 out of 10 is considered very good and suggests that the baby is in good health and has a high likelihood of survival.

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  • 8. 

    Factors favoring RDS development…

    • A.

      Administration of corticosteroids

    • B.

      Cesarean section

    • C.

      Elevated level of thyroid hormones

    • D.

      Intrauterine growth restriction

    • E.

      Maternal diabetes

    • F.

      Vaginal delivery

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Cesarean section
    E. Maternal diabetes
    Explanation
    Cesarean section and maternal diabetes are factors that favor RDS development. Cesarean section can increase the risk of RDS because it prevents the natural squeezing of the baby's chest during vaginal delivery, which helps remove fluid from the lungs. Maternal diabetes can also increase the risk of RDS as it can lead to higher levels of insulin in the baby's bloodstream, which can inhibit the production of surfactant, a substance that helps keep the lungs inflated.

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  • 9. 

    Place of hyaline membrane location in the neonate’s lungs with RDS?

    • A.

      Alveolar sacs

    • B.

      Alveolar ducts

    • C.

      Respiratory bronchioli

    • D.

      Terminal bronchioli

    • E.

      Ordinary bronchioli

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Alveolar ducts
    C. Respiratory bronchioli
    D. Terminal bronchioli
    Explanation
    The hyaline membrane is located in the neonate's lungs with RDS in the alveolar ducts, respiratory bronchioli, and terminal bronchioli. These structures are part of the lower respiratory tract and are involved in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The presence of hyaline membrane in these areas indicates inflammation and damage to the lining of the airways, leading to respiratory distress syndrome.

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  • 10. 

    A baby prone to NEC?

    • A.

      Mature with IUGR

    • B.

      Mature with SGA

    • C.

      Premature with AGA

    • D.

      Premature with LBW

    • E.

      Premature with SGA

    • F.

      Premature with VLBW

    Correct Answer
    F. Premature with VLBW
    Explanation
    Necrotizing EnteroColitis

    The condition is typically seen in premature infants, and the timing of its onset is generally INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL TO THE GESTATIONAL AGE OF THE BABY AT BIRTH, i.e. the earlier a baby is born, the later signs of NEC are typically seen. Initial symptoms include feeding intolerance, increased gastric residuals, abdominal distension and bloody stools. Symptoms may progress rapidly to abdominal discoloration with intestinal perforation and peritonitis and systemic hypotension requiring intensive medical support.

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  • 11. 

    Pathology depicted in Images A and B?

    • A.

      A- control; B – adenocarcinoma

    • B.

      A - adenocarcinoma; B – bacterial enterocolitis

    • C.

      A – control; B – necrotizing enterocolitis

    • D.

      A – necrotizing enterocolitis; B - control

    Correct Answer
    C. A – control; B – necrotizing enterocolitis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A - control; B - necrotizing enterocolitis. This is indicated by the pathology depicted in the images. Image A shows a normal, healthy tissue (control), while Image B shows signs of necrotizing enterocolitis, which is characterized by inflammation and necrosis of the intestinal tissue.

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  • 12. 

    Caput succedaneum…

    • A.

      Does not cross the suture lines

    • B.

      Is a hemorrhage into soft tissues

    • C.

      Is a hemorrhage into skull bones

    • D.

      Is a rupture of tentorium cerebelli

    • E.

      Crosses the suture lines

    Correct Answer
    E. Crosses the suture lines
    Explanation
    CAPUT SUCCEDANEUM is an edematous swelling of the scalp above the periosteum, which is occasionally hemorrhagic (figure 1). It presents at birth after prolonged engagement of the fetal head in the birth canal or after vacuum extraction. Unlike cephalohematoma, it EXTENDS ACROSS THE SUTURE LINES. Caput succedaneum is generally a benign condition, and it usually resolves within a few days and requires no treatment.

    There are reported complications in infants with caput succedaneum that include necrotic lesions resulting in long-term scarring and alopecia. Halo scalp ring is an annular alopecic ring that occurs in infants after a prolonged or difficult labor due to compression from the bony prominence of the maternal pelvis. Rarely, systemic infection may occur as a complication of an infected caput succedaneum

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  • 13. 

    The most severe pathology seen in neonates with hemolytic disease of the newborn?

    • A.

      Hydrops fetalis

    • B.

      Kernictersus

    • C.

      Jaundice

    • D.

      Erythroblastic hyperplasia

    Correct Answer
    B. Kernictersus
    Explanation
    Kernicterus — Kernicterus is the chronic and permanent sequelae of BIND. The following major post-icteric features of kernicterus in preterm infants are usually similar to that observed in term infants, because the basal ganglia remain the primary target of brain injury.
    Choreoathetoid cerebral palsy (CP, chorea, ballismus, tremor, and dystonia).
    Sensorineural hearing loss commonly manifesting as auditory neuropathy (abnormal ABR with normal otoacoustic emissions). Observational studies suggest that isolated sensorineural hearing abnormalities may be the dominant or the sole manifestations of BIND.
    Gaze abnormalities, especially limitation of upward gaze

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  • 14. 

    Cataract in newborn is associated with …

    • A.

      Phenylketonuria

    • B.

      Galactosemia

    • C.

      Cystic fibrosis

    • D.

      Rubella

    • E.

      Hemolytic disease of the newborn

    Correct Answer
    D. Rubella
    Explanation
    Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can cause various complications during pregnancy. If a pregnant woman contracts rubella, it can lead to congenital rubella syndrome in the newborn. One of the potential complications of congenital rubella syndrome is cataract formation in the newborn. Therefore, cataract in a newborn is associated with rubella.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following postmortem findings are usually found in kids died of SIDS?

    • A.

      Dislocation of cerebral vertebrae

    • B.

      Laryngeal edema with lumen obstruction

    • C.

      Overinflated lungs with thick mucous plugs within the bronchiolar lumen

    • D.

      Subserosal petechiae

    • E.

      Congenital heart disease with congestive heart failure

    • F.

      Purulent meningitis with bilateral adrenal hemorrhages

    Correct Answer
    D. Subserosal petechiae
    Explanation
    Subserosal petechiae are small red or purple spots that occur on the surface of organs, such as the heart, liver, or intestines, due to bleeding from tiny blood vessels. These findings are commonly seen in cases of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). SIDS is the sudden and unexplained death of an apparently healthy infant, usually during sleep. The presence of subserosal petechiae in SIDS cases suggests that there may have been some degree of asphyxia or suffocation, leading to increased pressure within the chest and rupturing of small blood vessels.

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  • 16. 

    Components of Sturge-Weber syndrome …

    • A.

      Cavernous hemangiomas in visceral organs

    • B.

      Leptomeningeal angiomas

    • C.

      Renal cell carcinoma

    • D.

      Port wine stain

    • E.

      Capillary hemangioma on the neck

    • F.

      Meningioma

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Leptomeningeal angiomas
    D. Port wine stain
    Explanation
    Sturge-Weber syndrome is a rare neurological disorder that is characterized by the presence of certain physical abnormalities. Leptomeningeal angiomas are one of the components of this syndrome, referring to abnormal blood vessels in the meninges, the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. Another characteristic feature of Sturge-Weber syndrome is the presence of a port wine stain, which is a birthmark that typically appears on the face. Therefore, the correct answer includes these two components that are commonly associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome.

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  • 17. 

    The center of Homer-Wright rosettes is filled with …

    • A.

      Axons and dendrites

    • B.

      Blood capillary

    • C.

      Lymphatic capillary

    • D.

      Necrosis

    • E.

      Nothing, surrounded by zonula adherence

    • F.

      Palisades

    Correct Answer
    A. Axons and dendrites
    Explanation
    Homer-Wright rosettes are characteristic structures found in certain types of tumors, such as neuroblastomas and medulloblastomas. These rosettes consist of a central core surrounded by tumor cells arranged in a circular pattern. The central core of Homer-Wright rosettes is filled with axons and dendrites, which are the extensions of nerve cells responsible for transmitting signals. This arrangement is a key feature of Homer-Wright rosettes and helps in the identification and diagnosis of these tumors.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 25, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Chachelly
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