Bioscience I - Quiz 1

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  • 1/119 Questions

    Which of the following is one of the single cartilage formations of the larynx?

    • Arytenoid
    • Corniculate
    • Cuneiform
    • Cricoid
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About This Quiz

A quiz to review the respiratory material for test 1 in bioscience.

Bioscience I - Quiz 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When you swallow food, what cartilage of the larynx guards the laryngeal entrance and protects you from aspiration?

    • Epiglottis

    • Vocal Cords

    • Cricoid

    • Arytenoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Epiglottis
    Explanation
    The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage located at the base of the tongue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea (windpipe) when swallowing. It acts as a protective barrier by covering the laryngeal entrance, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and into the stomach instead of the lungs. This helps to prevent aspiration, which can lead to choking or respiratory issues. The other options listed, such as vocal cords, cricoid, and arytenoid, are also parts of the larynx but do not specifically guard the laryngeal entrance like the epiglottis does.

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  • 3. 

    The cardiac notch is contained within which lung?

    • Right

    • Left

    • Both

    Correct Answer
    A. Left
    Explanation
    The cardiac notch is a concave space on the left lung that accommodates the heart. It is not present in the right lung. Therefore, the correct answer is left.

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  • 4. 

    You are doing a pre-op on a patient with a PMH of asthma. What important questions should you ask?               

    • Do you take medication to control your asthma and how often?

    • Have you been hospitalized within the last 2 yrs for asthma related problems?

    • When was your last attack? About how often do you have attacks?

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All the above" because all three questions are important to ask in order to assess the severity and control of the patient's asthma. Asking about medication use and frequency helps determine if the patient's asthma is well-controlled or if they may need additional treatment. Inquiring about recent hospitalizations provides insight into any recent exacerbations or complications. Asking about the frequency and timing of attacks helps gauge the frequency and severity of symptoms.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the pharynx?

    • Nasopharynx

    • Tracheopharynx

    • Laryngopharynx

    • Oropharynx

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracheopharynx
    Explanation
    The tracheopharynx is not part of the pharynx. The pharynx is a muscular tube that connects the nasal cavity and mouth to the esophagus and larynx. It is divided into three parts: the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx. The nasopharynx is located behind the nasal cavity, the oropharynx is located behind the mouth, and the laryngopharynx is located behind the larynx. The tracheopharynx, however, does not exist anatomically and is not a recognized part of the pharynx.

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  • 6. 

    The enlargement of the airways distal to the terminal bronchioles associated with emphysema is usually reversible. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The enlargement of the airways distal to the terminal bronchioles associated with emphysema is usually irreversible. Emphysema is a chronic lung disease characterized by the destruction of the alveoli and the enlargement of the air sacs. This leads to a loss of elasticity in the lungs and permanent damage to the airways. Once the airways are enlarged, they cannot return to their normal size or function, making the condition irreversible.

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  • 7. 

    Why is it that adults need cuffed tubes and children do not?

    • Children are less prone to tissue necrosis from large ETT tubes, adults need softer cuffs to prevent tissue necrosis.

    • Pediatric cases are generally of a short duration, otherwise a cuffed tube would be used

    • Cricoid cartilage can form a seal against an ETT tube in children, making cuffed tubes uneccessary.

    • The much wider vocal cords of adults make extubation more likely so the cuff is used to prevent extubation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cricoid cartilage can form a seal against an ETT tube in children, making cuffed tubes uneccessary.
    Explanation
    The cricoid cartilage in children can create a tight seal around an endotracheal tube (ETT), eliminating the need for a cuff. This seal helps to prevent air leaks and ensures proper ventilation. In contrast, adults have wider vocal cords, making it more difficult to maintain a secure seal without a cuff. The cuff in adult ETTs helps to prevent air leaks and accidental extubation. Therefore, children do not require cuffed tubes due to the natural seal created by the cricoid cartilage.

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  • 8. 

    Which lung contains the greater proportion of lung capacity?

    • Right

    • Left

    • Both are equal

    Correct Answer
    A. Right
    Explanation
    The right lung contains the greater proportion of lung capacity. This is because the right lung has three lobes, while the left lung only has two lobes. The additional lobe in the right lung allows it to have a larger volume and therefore a greater proportion of the total lung capacity.

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  • 9. 

    What is the function of the alveolar capillary membrane?

    • Diffusion of gases

    • Protects alveoli from collapsing

    • Production of surfactant

    • Segmentalization of alveoli

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffusion of gases
    Explanation
    The alveolar capillary membrane is responsible for the diffusion of gases. This membrane is very thin and allows for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the capillaries. Oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses across this membrane into the bloodstream, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, diffuses from the bloodstream into the alveoli to be exhaled. This diffusion process is essential for the exchange of gases and is crucial for respiration.

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  • 10. 

    In the supine position, abdominal breathing predominates.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In the supine position, which is lying flat on the back, abdominal breathing is the natural and preferred breathing pattern. This is because when lying on the back, the diaphragm can move more freely, allowing for deeper breaths that primarily engage the abdominal muscles. This type of breathing promotes relaxation and is commonly used in practices such as yoga and meditation. Therefore, the statement that abdominal breathing predominates in the supine position is true.

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  • 11. 

    COMIC RELIEF:http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Usm9SpnHYJQ&feature=related

    • Dear god, did that giraffe cuss?

    • Laura, we are seriously beginning to questions your mental stability.

    • HA HA HA HA

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The given video link is a source of comic relief, which is a form of humor that is used to provide amusement and lighten the mood. In the conversation, Laura's question about the giraffe cussing is seen as a humorous and unexpected statement, causing laughter. The response from the other person, questioning Laura's mental stability, adds to the comedic effect. Therefore, all the statements in the conversation contribute to comic relief.

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  • 12. 

    The Tracheobronchial Tree is composed of how many different dichotomous divisions?

    • 17

    • 19

    • 6

    • 23

    Correct Answer
    A. 23
    Explanation
    The Tracheobronchial Tree is composed of 23 different dichotomous divisions. This means that the tree branches off into two smaller branches at each division, resulting in a total of 23 divisions. Each division represents a branching point in the respiratory system, allowing for the passage of air into smaller and smaller airways.

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  • 13. 

    Which form of cellular metabolism produces the greatest amount of ATP?

    • Internal Respiration

    • Aerobic Metabolism

    • Glycolysis

    • Anaerobic Metabolism

    Correct Answer
    A. Aerobic Metabolism
    Explanation
    Aerobic metabolism produces the greatest amount of ATP. During aerobic metabolism, glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen to produce ATP through a series of reactions called cellular respiration. This process occurs in the mitochondria and is highly efficient, producing a total of 36-38 ATP molecules per glucose molecule. In contrast, glycolysis, which occurs in the cytoplasm, only produces a net gain of 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule. Anaerobic metabolism, such as fermentation, also occurs in the cytoplasm and produces a small amount of ATP. Therefore, aerobic metabolism is the most efficient in terms of ATP production.

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  • 14. 

    What is the proper technique for a nasal intubation?

    • While the patient is sedated insert the tube into the left nose applying a firm pressure to rapidly insert the tube past the nares at a downward angle.

    • Insert the tube at an upward angle in order to decrease the risk of bleeding, the nare should be pushed inferiorly

    • With the nose pushed superiorly insert the tube with steady gentle pressure parallel to the roof of the mouth.

    • Insert the tube gently and with a twisting motion to ease past the turbinates. If the tube gets caught temporarily direct upward and apply firm pressure until you are past.

    Correct Answer
    A. With the nose pushed superiorly insert the tube with steady gentle pressure parallel to the roof of the mouth.
    Explanation
    The correct technique for a nasal intubation is to insert the tube with the nose pushed superiorly, applying steady gentle pressure, and keeping it parallel to the roof of the mouth. This technique helps to ensure proper placement of the tube and minimize the risk of complications.

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  • 15. 

    Why are Cervical injuries above the level of C5 incompatible with spontaneous ventilation?

    • Due to interruption of bronchial circulation to the lungs.

    • Due to interruption of sympathetic activity while stimulating vagal activity

    • Due to both phrenic and intercostals nerves being disrupted.

    • Due to increased likelihood of tension pneumothorax

    Correct Answer
    A. Due to both phrenic and intercostals nerves being disrupted.
    Explanation
    Cervical injuries above the level of C5 are incompatible with spontaneous ventilation because both the phrenic and intercostal nerves, which are responsible for controlling the muscles involved in breathing, are disrupted. The phrenic nerve controls the diaphragm, the main muscle involved in breathing, while the intercostal nerves control the muscles between the ribs that assist in breathing. Without the proper functioning of these nerves, the individual would be unable to breathe on their own.

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  • 16. 

    After inducing a patient for general anesthesia you can expect that their FRC will be…

    • Increased

    • Decreased

    • Unchanged

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased
    Explanation
    After inducing a patient for general anesthesia, their FRC (Functional Residual Capacity) will decrease. General anesthesia causes relaxation of the muscles, including the diaphragm, which leads to a decrease in lung volume. This reduction in lung volume results in a decrease in the FRC, which is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration.

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  • 17. 

    Which protective pulmonary mechanism diverts blood flow away from poorly ventilated or atelectic areas to minimize pulmonary shunting?

    • Systemic Capacitance

    • Perfusion Reflex

    • Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction

    • Baroreceptor reflex

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction
    Explanation
    Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction is the correct answer because it is a protective pulmonary mechanism that diverts blood flow away from poorly ventilated or atelectic areas in order to minimize pulmonary shunting. This mechanism helps to optimize gas exchange by redirecting blood flow to well-ventilated areas of the lungs, where oxygen can be efficiently delivered to the alveoli for exchange with carbon dioxide.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is NOT an effect of anesthesia on Gas Exchange?

    • Increased Dead Space

    • Increased FRC

    • Hypoventilation

    • Increased Pulm Shunting

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased FRC
    Explanation
    Anesthesia typically causes a decrease in FRC (functional residual capacity), which is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation. This is due to the relaxation of the respiratory muscles and the reduced ability to maintain lung inflation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Increased FRC" because anesthesia does not lead to an increase in FRC.

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  • 19. 

    You need to be cautious when administering which of the following to a COPD patient due to the possibility of knocking out their respiratory drive?

    • Beta Adrenergic Agonists

    • Broad spectrum antibiotics

    • Anticholinergics

    • Oxygen

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen
    Explanation
    Administering oxygen to a COPD patient needs to be done cautiously due to the possibility of knocking out their respiratory drive. This is because COPD patients rely on low oxygen levels to stimulate their breathing. Administering high levels of oxygen can suppress their respiratory drive, leading to respiratory depression and potentially worsening their condition. Therefore, it is important to monitor oxygen levels closely and titrate the amount of oxygen given to avoid this risk.

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  • 20. 

    What is the primary function of the Tracheobronchial tree?

    • To serve as a conduit for air and food and to provide a resonating chamber for speech sounds

    • To conduct gas flow to and from the alveoli

    • Humidification and filtering of inspired air

    • Provides the chief support for the larynx.

    Correct Answer
    A. To conduct gas flow to and from the alveoli
    Explanation
    The primary function of the Tracheobronchial tree is to conduct gas flow to and from the alveoli. This means that it serves as a pathway for air to enter and exit the lungs, allowing for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli. The tracheobronchial tree consists of the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles, which progressively branch out and become smaller as they reach the alveoli. This arrangement ensures that air reaches the deepest parts of the lungs where gas exchange occurs.

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  • 21. 

    What substance within the alveoli serves to decrease surface tension?

    • Surfactant

    • Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

    • Carbon Dioxide

    • Pleural WD40

    Correct Answer
    A. Surfactant
    Explanation
    Surfactant is the substance within the alveoli that serves to decrease surface tension. Surface tension is the force that causes the liquid molecules at the surface of a liquid to be pulled together, creating a cohesive force. In the alveoli, surfactant reduces surface tension, allowing the alveoli to expand and preventing them from collapsing. This is important for efficient gas exchange in the lungs. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme is not related to surface tension in the alveoli. Carbon dioxide is a waste product that is exchanged in the alveoli, but it does not decrease surface tension. Pleural WD40 is not a substance found in the alveoli and does not serve to decrease surface tension.

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  • 22. 

    Interpret the following ABG:  pH 7.37  CO2 44  HCO3  25

    • Respiratory Acidosis

    • Respiratory Alkalosis

    • Metabolic Acidosis

    • Metabolic Alkalosis

    • Normal ABG

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal ABG
    Explanation
    The given ABG values indicate a pH of 7.37, CO2 of 44, and HCO3 of 25. These values fall within the normal range for arterial blood gas interpretation. A pH of 7.37 is within the normal range of 7.35-7.45, CO2 of 44 falls within the normal range of 35-45 mmHg, and HCO3 of 25 is within the normal range of 22-28 mEq/L. Therefore, the ABG is considered normal.

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  • 23. 

    Due to pulmonary anatomy, a risk associated with inserting subclavian lines is…

    • Mediastinitis

    • Chylothorax

    • Paralysis of nerves which innervate diaphragm

    • Pneumothorax

    Correct Answer
    A. Pneumothorax
    Explanation
    Pneumothorax is a risk associated with inserting subclavian lines due to the pulmonary anatomy. The subclavian vein is located close to the lung, and during the insertion of the line, there is a possibility of unintentional puncture or damage to the lung tissue, leading to the accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing a pneumothorax. This can result in lung collapse and difficulty in breathing. Therefore, pneumothorax is a potential complication that healthcare professionals should be cautious about when performing subclavian line insertions.

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  • 24. 

    The work of breathing is performed primarily by what?

    • Diaphragm

    • Intercostal muscles

    • Abdominal muscles

    • Accessory muscles

    Correct Answer
    A. Diaphragm
    Explanation
    The diaphragm is the main muscle responsible for the work of breathing. It is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs, separating the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. When we inhale, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. When we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, pushing the air out of the lungs. The intercostal muscles, abdominal muscles, and accessory muscles also play a role in breathing, but the diaphragm is the primary muscle involved.

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  • 25. 

    What is the minute volume for a patient breathing  12 breaths per minutes at 450 ml tidal volume?               

    • 4.5 L

    • 6 L

    • 5.4 L

    • 3.8 L

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.4 L
    Explanation
    The minute volume is calculated by multiplying the respiratory rate (breaths per minute) by the tidal volume (volume of air per breath). In this case, the patient is breathing 12 breaths per minute at a tidal volume of 450 ml. Therefore, the minute volume would be 12 breaths/minute x 450 ml/breath = 5400 ml/minute. Since 1 liter is equal to 1000 ml, the minute volume can be converted to liters by dividing by 1000. Therefore, the minute volume is 5.4 L.

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  • 26. 

    A VQ ratio of 0.8 would indicate what?

    • Normal function of lungs

    • Decreased Perfusion

    • Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction

    • Decreased Ventilation

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal function of lungs
    Explanation
    A VQ ratio of 0.8 indicates normal function of the lungs. VQ ratio refers to the ventilation-perfusion ratio, which measures the efficiency of gas exchange in the lungs. A ratio of 0.8 means that there is a slightly higher amount of ventilation (airflow) compared to perfusion (blood flow), which is considered to be within the normal range. This indicates that the lungs are functioning properly and gas exchange is occurring effectively.

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  • 27. 

    How will anemia effect oxygen delivery to tissues?

    • Decrease delivery

    • Increase delivery

    • Unaffected due to compensatory mechanisms

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease delivery
    Explanation
    Anemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in their ability to carry oxygen. Since red blood cells are responsible for transporting oxygen to tissues, a decrease in their number or function will result in a decreased delivery of oxygen to tissues. This can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, the correct answer is "Decrease delivery".

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  • 28. 

    Interpret the following ABG:  pH  7. 53   CO2   26     HCO3   23

    • Respiratory Acidosis

    • Respiratory Alkalosis

    • Metabolic Acidosis

    • Metabolic Alkalosis

    • Normal ABG

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory Alkalosis
    Explanation
    The given ABG values show a pH of 7.53, which is higher than the normal range (7.35-7.45). This indicates alkalosis. Additionally, the CO2 level is 26, which is lower than the normal range (35-45 mmHg). This suggests a respiratory cause since CO2 is a respiratory parameter. The HCO3 level is within the normal range (22-28 mEq/L), indicating that it is not the primary cause of the alkalosis. Therefore, the ABG interpretation is respiratory alkalosis, which is characterized by a high pH and low CO2 levels.

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  • 29. 

    What is Internal Respiration?

    • The inspiration and expiration of air from the atmosphere into the lungs.

    • The exchange of gases between the blood and the cells

    • The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood

    • The production of ATP within the cells

    Correct Answer
    A. The exchange of gases between the blood and the cells
    Explanation
    Internal respiration refers to the exchange of gases between the blood and the cells. During this process, oxygen is transported from the bloodstream into the cells, while carbon dioxide, a waste product of cellular metabolism, is transported from the cells into the bloodstream to be eliminated from the body. This exchange of gases occurs in the capillaries, where oxygen diffuses from the blood into the cells, and carbon dioxide diffuses from the cells into the blood. This process is essential for cellular respiration and maintaining proper oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the body.

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  • 30. 

    The ______ the degree of pre-op pulmonary impairment the ________ the risk of pulmonary complications intra-op and post-op.

    • Greater, lower

    • Greater, Greater

    • Lower, Greater

    • None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater, Greater
    Explanation
    The higher the degree of pre-op pulmonary impairment, the higher the risk of pulmonary complications during and after surgery.

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  • 31. 

    Gas flow in the lungs is…

    • Laminar

    • Turbulent

    • Transitional

    • A mix of laminar and turbulent

    Correct Answer
    A. A mix of laminar and turbulent
    Explanation
    Gas flow in the lungs is a mix of laminar and turbulent. Laminar flow occurs in the smaller airways, where the flow is smooth and streamlined. Turbulent flow occurs in the larger airways, where the flow is chaotic and irregular. This mix of flow patterns allows for efficient gas exchange in the lungs, as the laminar flow promotes diffusion while the turbulent flow helps to mix the gases and maintain a constant concentration gradient.

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  • 32. 

    You are taking care of Ms. Weezy, who came into the ER today. When she first came in she stated she had asthma and was displaying expiratory wheezing. A short while later she had both inspiratory and expiratory wheezing. She was given some aspirin for a headache prior to a respiratory treatment, after which she stopped wheezing. She is still using accessory muscle and appears to have trouble speaking, but the wheezes are now gone. What do you think about this?

    • Great! She is improving, this is a good sign.

    • Crap, the obstruction has become severe, she is getting worse.

    • Not enough information to determine her status.

    Correct Answer
    A. Crap, the obstruction has become severe, she is getting worse.
    Explanation
    The change in Ms. Weezy's symptoms from expiratory wheezing to both inspiratory and expiratory wheezing indicates a worsening of her condition. The fact that she stopped wheezing after receiving aspirin suggests that the obstruction in her airways was temporarily relieved. However, the continued use of accessory muscles and difficulty speaking indicate that she is still experiencing respiratory distress. Therefore, it can be concluded that her obstruction has become severe and she is getting worse.

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  • 33. 

    Restrictive Pulmonary disease is characterized by…

    • The presence of a chronic productive cough most days of the month.

    • Increases in FRC, RV, and TLC as well as pursed lip breathing.

    • Decreased lung compliance and lung volumes but a normal FEV1/FVC ratio

    • Recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and cough.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased lung compliance and lung volumes but a normal FEV1/FVC ratio
    Explanation
    Restrictive Pulmonary disease is characterized by decreased lung compliance and lung volumes, which means that the lungs are less able to expand and hold air. This results in a decrease in the total lung capacity. However, the FEV1/FVC ratio, which measures the amount of air forcefully exhaled in one second compared to the total amount exhaled, remains normal. This indicates that the airways are not obstructed, unlike in obstructive pulmonary diseases such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

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  • 34. 

    Interpret the following ABG:   pH 7.19   CO2   58    HCO3 24

    • Respiratory Acidosis

    • Respiratory Alkalosis

    • Metabolic Acidosis

    • Metabolic Alkalosis

    • Normal ABG

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory Acidosis
    Explanation
    The given ABG values indicate respiratory acidosis. A pH of 7.19 is below the normal range of 7.35-7.45, indicating acidemia. The elevated CO2 level of 58 suggests a retention of carbon dioxide, which is a characteristic of respiratory acidosis. The HCO3 level of 24 falls within the normal range, indicating that compensation has not occurred. Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is inadequate removal of CO2 from the body, leading to an accumulation of carbonic acid and a decrease in pH.

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  • 35. 

    At what level of tracheobronchial division does flat epithelium begin to appear?

    • 17-19

    • 21-23

    • 23-26

    • 11-15

    Correct Answer
    A. 17-19
    Explanation
    Flat epithelium begins to appear at the level of tracheobronchial division 17-19.

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  • 36. 

    Interpret this ABG:   pH  7.24   CO2  31     HCO3 19

    • Partially Compensated Metabolic Acidosis

    • Compensated metabolic alkalosis

    • Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis

    • Compensated respiratory acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Partially Compensated Metabolic Acidosis
    Explanation
    The given ABG values show a low pH of 7.24, indicating acidosis. The CO2 level is elevated at 31, suggesting respiratory compensation as the body is trying to eliminate excess acid by increasing ventilation. The HCO3 level is below the normal range at 19, indicating a primary metabolic acidosis. Since the CO2 level is not within the normal range, it is partially compensated. Therefore, the correct answer is partially compensated metabolic acidosis.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is a risk associated with prolonged nasal intubations?

    • Basal Skull Fracture

    • Nasal polyps

    • Facial Nerve Palsy

    • Intracranial Infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Intracranial Infection
    Explanation
    Prolonged nasal intubations can increase the risk of intracranial infection. This is because the nasal passages are connected to the sinuses and the skull base, which are in close proximity to the brain. If the nasal intubation is not properly managed or if there is a breach in the nasal mucosa, bacteria can enter the nasal passages and potentially cause an infection in the intracranial space. This can lead to serious complications, including meningitis or brain abscess. Therefore, it is important to monitor and manage nasal intubations carefully to minimize the risk of intracranial infection.

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  • 38. 

    You are the SRNA for Mr. Becker today. During the middle of the ENT case the surgeon moves the patients head down, so that his chin is to his chest. Your preceptor asks how this will effect your ETT, what do you tell him?

    • Aren’t YOU supposed to teach me this stuff?

    • The ETT will be pulled upward and the pt is at risk for extubation.

    • The ETT will be pushed further into the trachea, pt at risk for tube to hit carina or go into Right mainstem bronchus.

    • The ETT should not move, you secured it prior to the procedure.

    Correct Answer
    A. The ETT will be pushed further into the trachea, pt at risk for tube to hit carina or go into Right mainstem bronchus.
    Explanation
    When the patient's head is moved down, with the chin to the chest, it causes a flexion of the neck. This flexion can lead to the ETT (endotracheal tube) being pushed further into the trachea. As a result, there is a risk that the tube may hit the carina (the point where the trachea splits into the bronchi) or even enter the right mainstem bronchus. This can cause complications and compromise the patient's airway. Therefore, it is important to be aware of this risk and take necessary precautions to prevent any potential harm to the patient.

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  • 39. 

    You are SRNA for Mr. Teesh who is a 31 yr old male and has a PMH of Asthma. He has not been hospitalized within the last 2 years but he has been to the ER several times. He takes daily medication to control his asthma and brought his inhaler with him. You auscultate his lungs and hear slight expiratory wheezes. He is having a minor outpatient procedure today, What should you do?

    • Cancel the procedure until the patient is stabilized

    • Give the patient a respiratory treatment prior to surgery, the monitor closely during surgery

    • Induce the patient and then give treatment if symptoms occur

    • Induce with Propofol & Atracurium to reduce possibility of bronchospasm.

    Correct Answer
    A. Give the patient a respiratory treatment prior to surgery, the monitor closely during surgery
    Explanation
    Based on the patient's history of asthma and the presence of slight expiratory wheezes, it is important to provide a respiratory treatment prior to the surgery. This will help to stabilize the patient's asthma and ensure better control of symptoms during the procedure. Additionally, close monitoring during surgery is necessary to promptly address any worsening of symptoms or complications that may arise due to the patient's underlying condition.

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  • 40. 

    Use of regional anesthesia for orthopedic procedures will decrease the risk of DVT and PE.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The use of regional anesthesia for orthopedic procedures can decrease the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Regional anesthesia involves numbing a specific region of the body, such as a limb, which can help reduce the need for general anesthesia and its associated risks. General anesthesia can lead to immobility and decreased blood flow, increasing the risk of DVT and PE. By using regional anesthesia, patients can remain mobile and active during the procedure, reducing the likelihood of blood clots forming in the veins and potentially preventing the development of DVT and PE.

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  • 41. 

    The ease at which the lungs and thoracic wall can be expanded is known as what?

    • Elastic Recoil

    • Compliance

    • Diaphragmatic Excursion

    • Surfactant

    Correct Answer
    A. Compliance
    Explanation
    Compliance refers to the ease at which the lungs and thoracic wall can be expanded. It is a measure of the lung's ability to stretch and expand in response to changes in pressure. High compliance indicates that the lungs are easily expandable, while low compliance suggests stiffness or resistance to expansion. This property is important for efficient breathing and allows the lungs to fill with air during inhalation and deflate during exhalation.

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  • 42. 

    Which laryngeal cartilage corresponds to the beginning of the trachea?

    • Cricoid

    • Arytenoid

    • Thyroid

    • Epiglottis

    Correct Answer
    A. Cricoid
    Explanation
    The cricoid cartilage corresponds to the beginning of the trachea. It is a ring-shaped cartilage located at the lower part of the larynx and forms the inferior part of the laryngeal skeleton. It sits on top of the trachea and provides support and protection to the airway. The cricoid cartilage also plays a role in vocal cord movement and helps regulate airflow during breathing and phonation.

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  • 43. 

    During general anesthesia Expiration will become…

    • Passive

    • Active

    • Dependent

    • Shortened

    Correct Answer
    A. Active
    Explanation
    During general anesthesia, expiration will become active. This is because general anesthesia causes muscle relaxation, including the muscles involved in breathing. As a result, the patient is unable to maintain normal breathing patterns on their own. Therefore, the process of expiration becomes active, requiring the patient to consciously and actively push air out of their lungs.

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  • 44. 

    The Chest wall has a tendency to _____, while the lungs have a tendency to _____.

    • Expand, Expand

    • Collapse, Expand

    • Expand, Collapse

    • Collapse, Collapse

    Correct Answer
    A. Expand, Collapse
    Explanation
    The chest wall has a tendency to expand, while the lungs have a tendency to collapse. During inhalation, the muscles between the ribs contract, causing the chest wall to expand and create more space in the thoracic cavity. This expansion creates negative pressure, which allows the lungs to expand and fill with air. On the other hand, during exhalation, the muscles relax and the chest wall recoils, causing the lungs to collapse and push air out. This natural tendency of the chest wall to expand and the lungs to collapse helps in the process of breathing.

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  • 45. 

    An intrapulmonary shunt is characterized by perfusion with no ventilation.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An intrapulmonary shunt refers to a condition where blood is perfused in the lungs but does not receive adequate ventilation. This means that oxygen cannot reach the blood and carbon dioxide cannot be removed effectively. This can occur due to various reasons such as collapsed alveoli, fluid-filled alveoli, or blockage in the airways. As a result, the blood that passes through this area remains poorly oxygenated. Therefore, the statement "An intrapulmonary shunt is characterized by perfusion with no ventilation" is true.

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  • 46. 

    What symptoms would you expect to see in a patient with Asthma?

    • The presence of a chronic productive cough most days of the month.

    • Increases in FRC, RV, and TLC as well as pursed lip breathing.

    • Insidious onset, chronic inflammation of alveolar walls and progressive pulmonary fibrosis.

    • Recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and cough.

    Correct Answer
    A. Recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and cough.
    Explanation
    Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and cough. These symptoms occur due to the narrowing and inflammation of the airways, which leads to difficulty in breathing. Other symptoms that may also be present include increased respiratory effort (pursed lip breathing), chronic productive cough, and increased lung volumes (FRC, RV, and TLC). However, the hallmark symptoms of asthma are the recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and cough.

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  • 47. 

    You are caring for Ms. Garo today. She came in with a hip and femur fracture following an MVA 2 days ago and has been on bedrest.  She has a PMH of childhood asthma, no attacks for 10 years. She is trying to get comfortable in the bed when she suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her respiratory rate is now 36, when it has been 16. She looks very distressed, what do you think is wrong?               

    • Pulmonary Embolism

    • Acute Asthma Attack

    • Pulmonary Edema

    • Pnuemonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary Embolism
    Explanation
    Ms. Garo's sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath, along with an increased respiratory rate, suggests a potential pulmonary embolism. This condition occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, blocking blood flow and causing symptoms such as chest pain and difficulty breathing. Given her recent immobility due to the hip and femur fracture, she may be at an increased risk for developing a blood clot. Acute asthma attack, pulmonary edema, and pneumonia are less likely explanations based on the given information.

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  • 48. 

    Interpret the following ABG:  pH  7.51    CO2 44   HCO3   32

    • Respiratory Acidosis

    • Respiratory Alkalosis

    • Metabolic Acidosis

    • Metabolic Alkalosis

    • Normal ABG

    Correct Answer
    A. Metabolic Alkalosis
    Explanation
    The given ABG values show a pH of 7.51, which is higher than the normal range of 7.35-7.45, indicating alkalosis. Additionally, the CO2 level is within the normal range of 35-45 mmHg, suggesting that the respiratory system is not the primary cause of the alkalosis. The HCO3 level is elevated at 32 mEq/L, indicating an excess of bicarbonate in the blood, which is consistent with metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis.

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  • 49. 

    What is Closing Capacity?

    • Composed of Expiratory Reserve Volume + Residual Volume

    • Volume of gas that can be exhaled following Maximal inspiration

    • The mean volume of total lung capacity

    • Volume at which small airways close in dependent parts of lungs

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume at which small airways close in dependent parts of lungs
    Explanation
    Closing capacity refers to the volume at which the small airways in the dependent parts of the lungs close. This occurs due to the decrease in lung elastic recoil and increased airway resistance in these areas. It is an important measurement in assessing lung function and can help identify abnormalities in the small airways.

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  • Feb 10, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jan 27, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy
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