Anatomy Final Exan 1 Review

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  • 1/33 Questions

    All of the following are functions of epithelial tissue except

    • Providing sensation
    • Controlling Permeability
    • Producing specialized secretions
    • Providing physical protection
    • Providing connectivity between organs
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Anatomy Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Anatomy Final Exam 1 Review', assesses key concepts in human anatomy. It covers functions of epithelial tissue, intercellular connections, glandular secretion types, adipocyte functions, skin response to emotional stimuli, and skin cell regeneration locations, providing essential knowledge for advanced biology studies.

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  • 2. 

    The inter cellular connection involving interlocking membrane proteins are

    • Tight junctions

    • Gap junction

    • Desmosomes

    • Synaptisomes

    • Basement proteins

    Correct Answer
    A. Gap junction
    Explanation
    Gap junctions are intercellular connections that involve interlocking membrane proteins. These junctions allow for direct communication and exchange of small molecules between adjacent cells. Gap junctions are formed by connexin proteins that create channels connecting the cytoplasm of neighboring cells. This allows for the rapid transmission of electrical signals and coordination of cellular activities. Therefore, gap junctions are the correct answer in this case.

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  • 3. 

    Mammary Glands are most closely associated with ____ secretion

    • Holocrine

    • Apocrine

    • Merocrine

    • Endocrine

    • Acini tubules

    Correct Answer
    A. Apocrine
    Explanation
    Mammary glands are most closely associated with apocrine secretion. Apocrine secretion is a type of glandular secretion where the apical portion of the cell is released along with the secretory product. In mammary glands, apocrine secretion occurs during lactation, where the milk is secreted into the mammary ducts. This type of secretion is different from holocrine secretion, where the entire cell is released along with the secretory product, and merocrine secretion, where the secretory product is released through exocytosis. Endocrine refers to the secretion of hormones directly into the bloodstream, and acini tubules are structural components of certain glands.

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  • 4. 

    Adipocytes is most closely associated with____

    • Endocrine cells

    • Exocrine cells

    • Fat cells

    • Cells of the immune system

    • Stem cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Fat cells
    Explanation
    Adipocytes are specialized cells that make up adipose tissue, commonly known as fat tissue. These cells store energy in the form of fat and play a crucial role in regulating energy balance and metabolism. Adipocytes also secrete various hormones and signaling molecules, making them an important component of the endocrine system. Therefore, adipocytes are most closely associated with fat cells.

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  • 5. 

    When a fair skinned person blushes, why does his or her skin turn red

    • The blood supply to the skin decreases

    • The blood supple to the skin increase

    • The number of red melanocytes in the skin increases

    • Melanocytes increase production of red pigments

    • Increased heat causes skin to turn red

    Correct Answer
    A. The blood supple to the skin increase
    Explanation
    When a fair-skinned person blushes, their skin turns red because the blood supply to the skin increases. Blushing occurs when the blood vessels near the surface of the skin dilate, allowing more blood to flow through them. This increased blood flow brings more oxygen and nutrients to the skin, causing it to appear red.

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  • 6. 

    The reproducing cells of the skin are located in the

    • Surface

    • Stratum corneum

    • Stratum lucidum

    • Stratum spinosum

    • Stratum germinativum (basale)

    Correct Answer
    A. Stratum germinativum (basale)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is stratum germinativum (basale). This layer of the skin is responsible for cell reproduction and regeneration. It is located at the base of the epidermis and contains stem cells that continuously divide and differentiate, producing new skin cells. These new cells then migrate upwards through the other layers of the epidermis, eventually reaching the surface and replacing old, dead skin cells.

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  • 7. 

    An epidermal layer found only in the skin of the palms of the hands and soles of the feet is the

    • Stratum spinosum

    • Stratum granulosum

    • Stratum germinativum

    • Stratum corneum

    • Stratum lucidum

    Correct Answer
    A. Stratum lucidum
    Explanation
    The stratum lucidum is an epidermal layer found only in the skin of the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. It is a translucent layer composed of dead keratinocytes that are densely packed with a clear protein called eleidin. This layer provides additional protection to these areas of the skin, which experience more friction and pressure compared to other parts of the body.

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  • 8. 

    According to your instructor, deadly melanoma is associated with _____

    • Artificial sweeteners

    • Artificial food coloring

    • Chronic stress

    • Tanning booths

    • Improper diet

    Correct Answer
    A. Tanning booths
    Explanation
    Deadly melanoma is associated with tanning booths because they emit ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which is a known risk factor for developing melanoma. UV radiation damages the DNA in skin cells, leading to mutations that can result in the development of cancer. The use of tanning booths increases the exposure to UV radiation, increasing the risk of developing deadly melanoma.

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  • 9. 

    What are the layers associated with the dermis

    • Papilary and subcutaneoius

    • Subsutaneous and reticular

    • Papillary and reticular

    • Reticular and accessory

    • Accessory and subcutaneous

    Correct Answer
    A. Papillary and reticular
    Explanation
    The correct answer is papillary and reticular. The dermis is the middle layer of the skin, and it is composed of two main layers: the papillary layer and the reticular layer. The papillary layer is the superficial layer of the dermis, located just below the epidermis. It is made up of loose connective tissue and contains blood vessels, nerve endings, and papillae that help with the exchange of nutrients and waste between the dermis and epidermis. The reticular layer is the deeper layer of the dermis, composed of dense irregular connective tissue. It provides strength, elasticity, and support to the skin.

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  • 10. 

    Which epithelial tissue (E.T) type is most closely associated with the epidermis

    • Stratified squamous

    • Simple squamous

    • Simple cubical

    • Simple columnar

    • It is connective tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Stratified squamous
    Explanation
    The correct answer is stratified squamous. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, and it is composed of multiple layers of cells. Stratified squamous epithelial tissue is characterized by multiple layers of flat, scale-like cells, which makes it well-suited for providing protection against abrasion and external damage. This type of tissue is commonly found in areas of the body that are subjected to mechanical stress, such as the skin, mouth, and esophagus.

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  • 11. 

    When stress is applied to a bone

    • Osteoblast activity increases

    • Osteoclast activity increases

    • It becomes thin and brittle

    • Trabeculae formed perpendicular to the zone of stress increase strength

    • One makes a wish before snapping it apart

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteoblast activity increases
    Explanation
    When stress is applied to a bone, osteoblast activity increases. Osteoblasts are cells responsible for bone formation and they play a crucial role in the remodeling and repair of bones. When stress is applied to a bone, the body responds by increasing the activity of osteoblasts to build new bone tissue and strengthen the bone. This helps to adapt the bone to the stress and prevent fractures or damage.

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  • 12. 

    Cells that synthesize the organic components of teh bone matrix are termed

    • Osteocytes

    • Stem cells

    • Osteoblasts

    • Osteoclasts

    • Chondrocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteoblasts
    Explanation
    Osteoblasts are cells that synthesize the organic components of the bone matrix. They are responsible for the production and secretion of collagen and other proteins that form the structural framework of bone. Osteoblasts play a crucial role in bone formation and mineralization, and they are involved in the repair and remodeling of bone tissue. They differentiate from precursor cells called osteoprogenitor cells and become embedded in the bone matrix as mature cells known as osteocytes. Osteocytes, on the other hand, are not involved in the synthesis of the organic components of the bone matrix, but rather in the maintenance and regulation of bone tissue.

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  • 13. 

    The normal loss of bone that occurs with aging is called

    • Osteoporosis

    • Osteopenia

    • Osteogenesis

    • Osteoinflammation

    • Bone cancer

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteopenia
    Explanation
    Osteopenia refers to the normal loss of bone density that occurs with aging. It is a condition where the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures. Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is a more severe form of bone loss. Osteogenesis refers to the process of bone formation, while osteoinflammation refers to inflammation in the bones. Bone cancer is a malignant tumor that affects the bones.

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  • 14. 

    The hormone associated with increased absorption of calcium and phosphate is

    • Thyroxin

    • Growth hormone

    • Calcitonin

    • PTH

    • Calcitriol

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcitriol
    Explanation
    Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D, which plays a crucial role in increasing the absorption of calcium and phosphate from the intestines. It acts on the cells of the small intestine to stimulate the synthesis of proteins that are involved in transporting calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream. This hormone also promotes the reabsorption of calcium and phosphate from the kidneys, preventing their loss in urine. Therefore, calcitriol is the hormone associated with increased absorption of calcium and phosphate.

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  • 15. 

    The membrane around a bone is called the

    • Epiphysis

    • Epiosteum

    • Diaphysis

    • Periphysis

    • Periosteum

    Correct Answer
    A. Periosteum
    Explanation
    The periosteum is a dense membrane that surrounds bones. It contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue, and it plays a crucial role in bone growth, repair, and nutrition. It also serves as a protective layer for the bone, helping to prevent infection and providing a surface for the attachment of tendons and ligaments. The other options listed are not correct because the epiphysis refers to the end of a long bone, the diaphysis refers to the shaft of a long bone, and the epiosteum and periphysis are not anatomical terms.

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  • 16. 

    Endochondral ossification refers to

    • Growth of the bone along its length only

    • Growth of teh bone along its diameter only

    • Growth of teh bone along its length and its diameter by adding calcium crystals to already existing bone

    • Replacement of cartilage with bone

    • Replacement of bone with minerals other than calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Replacement of cartilage with bone
    Explanation
    Endochondral ossification is a process in which cartilage is replaced with bone. During this process, the cartilage model of a bone is gradually replaced by bone tissue. It occurs primarily in long bones, such as the femur and humerus, as well as in the development of the skeleton in embryos. This process is essential for bone growth and remodeling, as well as for the formation of a strong and functional skeletal system.

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  • 17. 

    Support, protection of soft tissues, mineral storage, and blood formation are functions of which system

    • Skeletal

    • Connective tissue

    • Integumentary

    • Epithelial tissue

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Skeletal
    Explanation
    The skeletal system is responsible for providing support and protection to the soft tissues of the body. It also serves as a storage site for minerals, such as calcium and phosphorus, and plays a role in blood formation through the production of red and white blood cells in the bone marrow. Therefore, the skeletal system is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 18. 

    The increasingly forceful labor contractions that lead to childbirth exemplify

    • Receptor activation

    • Effector shutdown

    • Positive feedback

    • Negative feedback

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive feedback
    Explanation
    The increasingly forceful labor contractions that lead to childbirth exemplify positive feedback. Positive feedback occurs when a response amplifies or reinforces the initial stimulus. In this case, the contractions of the uterus during labor stimulate the release of oxytocin, which in turn leads to stronger contractions. This cycle continues until the baby is delivered.

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  • 19. 

    When body temperature falls, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to increase body temperature. this regulation mechanism is an example of

    • Positive feedback

    • Negative feedback

    • Non homeostatic regulation

    • Diagnostic regulation

    • Disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative feedback
    Explanation
    The given statement describes a regulatory mechanism in which the body initiates physiological changes to increase body temperature when it falls. This is an example of negative feedback because the response of increasing body temperature opposes the initial change (falling body temperature). Negative feedback helps maintain homeostasis by counteracting any deviations from the desired set point.

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  • 20. 

    You instructor presented the idea that all physiology is finally (ultimately, at its most basic and rock bottom level) reducible to:

    • Histology

    • Cytology

    • Microbiology

    • Biochemistry

    • Physics

    Correct Answer
    A. Physics
    Explanation
    Physics is the correct answer because it is the most fundamental science that studies the fundamental principles of matter and energy. Physiology, which is the study of how living organisms function, can be ultimately explained by the physical principles that govern the behavior of molecules, cells, tissues, and organs in the body. Physics provides the foundation for understanding the forces, energy, and interactions that occur within biological systems. It helps explain the electrical signals in nerves, the mechanics of muscles, the flow of blood, and other physiological processes. Therefore, physics is the ultimate basis for understanding the underlying mechanisms of physiology.

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  • 21. 

    An unstable isotope that emits subatomic particles spontaneously is called

    • A cation or an anion

    • An x ray

    • A gamma ray

    • A radioisotope

    • A death ray

    Correct Answer
    A. A radioisotope
    Explanation
    A radioisotope is an unstable isotope that emits subatomic particles spontaneously. Radioisotopes undergo radioactive decay, where they release particles such as alpha particles, beta particles, or gamma rays in order to achieve a more stable state. This process is used in various applications such as medical imaging, cancer treatment, and radiometric dating. Cations and anions refer to charged particles formed by gaining or losing electrons, while x-rays and gamma rays are types of electromagnetic radiation. "Death ray" is not a scientific term and does not accurately describe an unstable isotope.

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  • 22. 

    The most common fat found in the human body is in the form of

    • Steriods

    • Adenosine monophosphate

    • Adenosine triphosphate

    • Monoglycerides

    • Triglycerides

    Correct Answer
    A. Triglycerides
    Explanation
    Triglycerides are the most common type of fat found in the human body. They are composed of glycerol and three fatty acids. Triglycerides are a major source of energy for the body and are stored in adipose tissue. They can be broken down into fatty acids and used as fuel when needed. Triglycerides also play a role in insulation and protection of organs.

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  • 23. 

    A polysaccharide that is formed in the liver and muscle to store glucose is

    • Glycose

    • Glucagon

    • Glycogen

    • Glcocalyx

    • Startch

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycogen
    Explanation
    Glycogen is a polysaccharide that is formed in the liver and muscle to store glucose. It acts as a reserve of energy in the body and can be broken down into glucose when needed. Glycogen is an important component in maintaining blood sugar levels and providing fuel for the body during times of fasting or physical activity. It is not to be confused with glucose, glucagon, glcocalyx, or startch, as these are different substances with different functions in the body.

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  • 24. 

    Glycolsis and Glucogenolysis are prime and classical examples of

    • Anabolism

    • Buffering processes

    • Catabolism

    • Dynamic equilibria

    • Exchange reactions

    Correct Answer
    A. Catabolism
    Explanation
    Glycolysis and Gluconeogenesis are both metabolic pathways involved in the breakdown of molecules to produce energy. This process is known as catabolism, which involves the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy in the process. Therefore, Glycolysis and Gluconeogenesis can be considered prime and classical examples of catabolism.

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  • 25. 

    What pathology is caused by a failure to convert phenylalanine to tryosine

    • Albinism

    • PKU

    • Marfans syndrome

    • Galactogemia

    • Psoriasis

    Correct Answer
    A. PKU
    Explanation
    PKU, or Phenylketonuria, is a genetic disorder caused by a failure to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. Phenylalanine is an amino acid found in many foods, and normally it is converted to tyrosine by an enzyme called phenylalanine hydroxylase. However, individuals with PKU lack this enzyme, leading to a buildup of phenylalanine in the body. This buildup can cause intellectual disability, developmental delays, and other health problems if not managed properly through a restricted diet low in phenylalanine. Therefore, PKU is the correct answer for the pathology caused by a failure to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine.

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  • 26. 

    If the amount of sodium ion in blood plasma decreases

    • The blood colloidal pressure will increase

    • The blood colloidal pressure will decrease

    • The blood osmotic pressure with stay the same

    • The blood osmotic pressure will decrease

    • The blood osmotic pressure will increase

    Correct Answer
    A. The blood osmotic pressure will decrease
    Explanation
    When the amount of sodium ion in blood plasma decreases, it will result in a decrease in the blood osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the pressure exerted by the solutes in a solution to prevent the flow of water across a semipermeable membrane. Sodium ions contribute to the osmotic pressure in blood plasma. Therefore, a decrease in the amount of sodium ions will lead to a decrease in the blood osmotic pressure.

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  • 27. 

    Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that facilitated diffusion

    • Limits the rate of molecular movement by limiting the number of available carrier molecules

    • Moves molecules from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration

    • Never eliminates the concentration gradient

    • Does not limit the rate of molecular movement by the bumber of available carrier molecules

    • Expends no ATP

    Correct Answer
    A. Limits the rate of molecular movement by limiting the number of available carrier molecules
    Explanation
    Facilitated diffusion is a type of passive transport that involves the movement of molecules across a cell membrane with the help of specific carrier proteins. Unlike ordinary diffusion, which occurs freely and without any assistance, facilitated diffusion limits the rate of molecular movement by restricting the number of available carrier molecules. This means that the transport of molecules is dependent on the number of carrier proteins present, which can affect the overall speed of diffusion. Therefore, the correct answer is that facilitated diffusion limits the rate of molecular movement by limiting the number of available carrier molecules.

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  • 28. 

    Which suborganelle is most closely associated with protein synthesis in a cell?

    • Ribosomes

    • SER

    • Lysosomes

    • Lysozymes

    • Golgi aparatus

    Correct Answer
    A. Ribosomes
    Explanation
    Ribosomes are the suborganelles most closely associated with protein synthesis in a cell. They are responsible for translating the genetic information stored in the DNA into proteins. Ribosomes can be found either free in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). They play a crucial role in the process of translation, where they read the messenger RNA (mRNA) and synthesize proteins by linking amino acids together. Therefore, ribosomes are directly involved in protein synthesis and are essential for the proper functioning of a cell.

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  • 29. 

    How do lipid soluble molecules (like steroids) move through cell membranes

    • Active transport

    • Co-transport with other lipids

    • Facilitated transport

    • Diffusion

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffusion
    Explanation
    Lipid soluble molecules, such as steroids, can move through cell membranes by diffusion. Diffusion is the passive movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. Since lipid soluble molecules can dissolve in the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane, they can easily diffuse across the membrane without the need for any energy or transport proteins. Therefore, diffusion is the most appropriate explanation for how lipid soluble molecules move through cell membranes.

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  • 30. 

    Placing a cell in ___ is most likely to cause it to decrease in volume

    • A hypotonic bathing solution

    • A hypertonic bathing solution

    • Normal tap water

    • Distilled water

    • Rain water

    Correct Answer
    A. A hypertonic bathing solution
    Explanation
    When a cell is placed in a hypertonic bathing solution, it means that the solution has a higher concentration of solutes compared to the cell. This creates a concentration gradient, causing water to move out of the cell in an attempt to balance the solute concentration. As a result, the cell loses water and shrinks, leading to a decrease in volume.

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  • 31. 

    The dominant fiber type in dense connective tissue is

    • Epithelin

    • Fibrin

    • Collagen

    • Fibrillin

    • Elastin

    Correct Answer
    A. Collagen
    Explanation
    The correct answer is collagen. Collagen is the main component of dense connective tissue, providing strength and support to various structures in the body. It forms a dense network of fibers that give the tissue its characteristic toughness and resistance to stretching. Collagen is essential for maintaining the structural integrity of organs, tendons, ligaments, and skin. It is also involved in wound healing and tissue repair.

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  • 32. 

    The alveioli of the lungs are made of

    • Stratified squamous epithelia

    • Columnar epithelia

    • Transitional epithelia

    • Simple squamous epithelia

    • Transitional epithelia

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple squamous epithelia
    Explanation
    The alveoli of the lungs are made of simple squamous epithelia. This type of epithelial tissue is composed of a single layer of flat, thin cells that allow for efficient gas exchange between the lungs and the bloodstream. The thinness of the cells allows for rapid diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide, making it an ideal structure for respiratory function. Stratified squamous epithelia, columnar epithelia, and transitional epithelia are not found in the alveoli of the lungs.

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  • 33. 

    Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by

    • A basement membrane

    • Junctional complexes

    • Intercellular glue

    • A fibrous netting

    • Reticular fibers

    Correct Answer
    A. A basement membrane
    Explanation
    Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by a basement membrane. The basement membrane is a thin, specialized extracellular matrix that provides structural support and acts as a barrier between the epithelial cells and the connective tissue. It helps to anchor the epithelium to the underlying tissue and also plays a role in regulating the exchange of molecules and nutrients between the two layers. Junctional complexes, intercellular glue, fibrous netting, and reticular fibers are not specifically involved in connecting epithelium to connective tissue, making them incorrect options.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 27, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Kara.dubiel

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