Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! Trivia Questions Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 85

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What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?
- Remedy.
- Remedy new.
- Remedy user.
- Remedy ticket.

About This Quiz

Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! This trivia Questions Quiz is designed to help you see just how attentive you have been throughout the training and if it is enough to earn you the pass certificate. How about you give it a shot and get to see if you need to have another study session before the exams are due. All the best!

Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

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2.

The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?
- Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB).
- Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
- Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
- Oracle database at Randolph AFB.
Correct Answer

A. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

Explanation

The correct answer is Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB. This means that the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system uses an Oracle database, and this database is located at Wright-Patterson Air Force Base.

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3.

What are the two different types of current used for power?
- 100 v (volts) and 210 v.
- 105 v and 215 v.
- 110 v and 220 v.
- 115 v and 225 v.
Correct Answer

A. 110 v and 220 v.

Explanation

The correct answer is 110 v and 220 v. These values represent the standard voltages used for power in most residential and commercial settings. The lower voltage of 110 v is typically used for smaller appliances and lighting, while the higher voltage of 220 v is used for larger appliances and machinery.

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4.

In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or
- Turbine batteries.
- A turbine engine.
- An engine.
- Batteries.
Correct Answer

A. A turbine engine.

Explanation

The question is asking about the types of generators in electrical power equipment. The correct answer is "a turbine engine" because turbines are commonly used as generators in power plants. Turbine engines are efficient and powerful, making them suitable for generating large amounts of electricity. Reciprocating engines, on the other hand, are typically used in smaller applications such as backup generators. Batteries, while they can store and release electrical energy, are not considered generators as they do not produce electricity themselves.

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5.

Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?
- Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.
- Record and report change processing and implementation status.
- Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.
- All of the above.
Correct Answer

A. All of the above.

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the statements listed pertain to configuration management. The first statement involves identifying and documenting the characteristics of a Configuration Item (CI). The second statement involves recording and reporting the status of change processing and implementation. The third statement involves controlling changes to the characteristics of a CI. Therefore, all three statements are related to configuration management.

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6.

What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?
- Speed.
- Storage.
- Security.
- Standards.
Correct Answer

A. Speed.

Explanation

Symmetric cryptography offers the advantage of speed. In this encryption technique, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, making the process faster compared to asymmetric cryptography. With symmetric cryptology, data can be encrypted and decrypted quickly, making it ideal for applications that require efficient and rapid encryption, such as real-time communication and large-scale data transfers.

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7.

Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?
- Symmetric.
- Asymmetric.
- Diametric.
- None of the above, they are all the same
Correct Answer

A. Asymmetric.

Explanation

Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because in asymmetric cryptology, two different keys are used for encryption and decryption, which requires more computational resources and time compared to symmetric cryptology where a single key is used for both encryption and decryption.

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8.

Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?
- Narrowband.
- Network.
- Bulk.
- Open.
Correct Answer

A. Open.

Explanation

The given question asks for an encryption type that is not related to telecommunications. Narrowband, network, and bulk are all encryption types commonly used in telecommunications. However, "open" does not refer to a specific encryption type and is not directly associated with telecommunications encryption. Therefore, "open" is the correct answer as it does not fit the category of telecommunications encryption.

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9.

Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?
- AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log.
- AF Form 1119, Monthly Monetary Records.
- AF Form 1019, Armament Recording Program Mission Data.
- AF Form 1122, Personal Property and Personal Effects Inventory.
Correct Answer

A. AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log.

Explanation

AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log, is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to record visitors into restricted areas. This form serves as a register log to keep track of individuals who enter restricted areas, providing a record of their visit for security and accountability purposes. The other forms listed are not related to recording visitors into restricted areas, making them incorrect choices.

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10.

Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
- Secure telephone unit (STU).
- Cryptographic telephone (CT).
- Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).
- Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone).
Correct Answer

A. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).

Explanation

The correct answer is Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). STE is a secure voice telephone that can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN). It provides encryption and authentication features to ensure secure communication over the network. STU, CT, and PGPfone are not specifically designed for ISDN and may not have the necessary security features required for secure communication on ISDN.

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11.

What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–E100?
- 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex.
- 165 for full-duplex and 44.736 for half-duplex.
- 44.736 for asynchronous transfer mode and 100 for half-duplex.
- 100 for full-duplex and 44.736 for asynchronous transfer mode.
Correct Answer

A. 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex.

Explanation

The maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-E100 is 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex. This means that when the TACLANE-E100 is operating in full-duplex mode, it can achieve a maximum throughput of 165 Mbps, while in half-duplex mode, the maximum throughput is 100 Mbps.

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12.

Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?
- Briefs users on the proper use of PWCS equipment.
- Implements unit-level customer education program.
- Turns in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager
- All of the above.
Correct Answer

A. All of the above.

Explanation

The unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager is responsible for completing all of the tasks mentioned. They brief users on the proper use of PWCS equipment, implement a unit-level customer education program, and turn in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager. This means that the correct answer is "All of the above."

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13.

Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?
- Eastern.
- Western.
- Central.
- Northern.
Correct Answer

A. Central.

Explanation

The correct answer is Central. In a service area, each cell has a central tower and transceiver assembly that is responsible for transmitting and receiving signals from cell phones in that area. The central tower acts as a hub for communication, ensuring that the signals are properly transmitted and received within the cell's coverage area.

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14.

What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?
- Addresses.
- Codes.
- Labels.
- Packets.
Correct Answer

A. Packets.

Explanation

When making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), voice messages are encoded into packets. VoIP breaks down the voice data into small packets, which are then transmitted over the internet. These packets contain the encoded voice information along with necessary addressing and routing information. By dividing the voice data into packets, it becomes easier to transmit and manage the data efficiently over the internet.

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15.

What percent packet loss should a network expect in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?
- Less than 1.
- Greater than 1.
- Less than .5.
- Greater than .5.
Correct Answer

A. Less than 1.

Explanation

In order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), a network should expect a packet loss of less than 1 percent. This is because VoIP requires real-time transmission of voice data, and any significant packet loss can result in poor call quality and dropped calls. Therefore, maintaining a low packet loss percentage is crucial for ensuring a smooth and reliable VoIP communication experience.

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16.

How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?
- Less than 50.
- Less than 150.
- Greater than 50.
- Greater than 150.
Correct Answer

A. Less than 150.

Explanation

In order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), the one-way delay from endpoint to endpoint should be less than 150 milliseconds. This is because any delay greater than this can result in poor call quality, including noticeable delays and interruptions in the audio. Therefore, a delay of less than 150 milliseconds is necessary to ensure a smooth and seamless VoIP experience.

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17.

Which does not fit the “Peaceful Purposes” clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system?
- Military use, involving armed conflict.
- Armed forces use, relating to the protection of the wounded.
- United Nations (UN) peacekeeping use, acting under the auspices of the UN Security Council.
- Armed forces use, protecting itself against armed attack within the limitations of UN charter.
Correct Answer

A. Military use, involving armed conflict.

Explanation

The International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system is primarily intended for peaceful purposes, such as providing communication and connectivity services for humanitarian, commercial, and safety applications. Military use involving armed conflict does not align with the peaceful purposes clause, as it implies the use of the system for aggressive actions and warfare. The other options mentioned, such as armed forces use for the protection of the wounded, UN peacekeeping use, and armed forces use for self-defense within the limitations of the UN charter, are more in line with the peaceful purposes clause as they focus on humanitarian and defensive actions.

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18.

What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?
- Percentage of modulation.
- Signal-to-noise.
- Selectivity.
- Distortion.
Correct Answer

A. Signal-to-noise.

Explanation

Signal-to-noise ratio is the ratio used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise. It indicates the level of the desired signal compared to the level of the unwanted noise. A higher signal-to-noise ratio indicates a stronger desired signal and less interference from noise, resulting in better signal quality. Percentage of modulation, selectivity, and distortion are not directly related to measuring the desired signal strength relative to background noise.

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19.

Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?
- Software or hardware.
- Software and equipment
- Application or hardware
- Application and equipment
Correct Answer

A. Software or hardware.

Explanation

The given answer, "Software or hardware," is correct because Remedy is a software tool used for IT service management. It can be used to manage and track software-related issues as well as hardware-related problems. Therefore, depending on the nature of the problem, Remedy can be used to address both software and hardware issues, making "Software or hardware" the correct answer.

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20.

In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?
- A resolution group only
- A specific technician only.
- Remedy automatically assigns tickets.
- A resolution group or specific technician.
Correct Answer

A. A resolution group or specific technician.

Explanation

In Remedy, tickets are assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician in order to fix problems. This means that the responsibility for resolving the issues can be assigned to a group of individuals with the necessary expertise or to a particular technician who is best suited to handle the problem. This flexible assignment system allows for efficient problem-solving and ensures that the tickets are directed to the appropriate individuals or teams for resolution.

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21.

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?
- Reliability and Maintainability System (REMIS).
- Telephone Management System
- Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
- Remedy.
Correct Answer

A. Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). The question is asking which system is replaced by the interface between the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S). The answer choice "Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)" indicates that the SBSS system is the one being replaced.

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22.

The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the
- Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
- Telecommunications Management System (TMS).
- Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- Automated Information System (AIS).
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This is because the question asks for the online database program that is a part of a certain system, and AFEMS is the only option that fits this description. The other options, TMS, IMDS, and AIS, are not mentioned in relation to an online database program. Therefore, AFEMS is the most logical choice.

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23.

Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?
- Weapons.
- Support.
- Telephone.
- Communications.
Correct Answer

A. Communications.

Explanation

AIMS is an Asset Inventory Management System used by the Air Force to track and manage various assets. Among the options provided, Communications is the most suitable answer as AIMS is primarily used to track and manage communication assets such as radios, satellite equipment, and other communication devices. It helps the Air Force to effectively manage and maintain their communication infrastructure, ensuring smooth and efficient communication within the organization.

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24.

Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
- Defense Courier Service.
- Protected distribution system
- Communications security equipment.
- Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System.
Correct Answer

A. Defense Courier Service.

Explanation

The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it is a physical transportation service that is used to deliver classified or sensitive materials, rather than providing a secure communication channel. The other options, such as the Protected Distribution System, Communications Security Equipment, and Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System, are all methods or technologies that are specifically designed to ensure secure telecommunications.

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25.

In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?
- Encrypted classified.
- Encrypted unclassified.
- Unencrypted classified.
- Unencrypted unclassified.
Correct Answer

A. Unencrypted classified.

Explanation

The RED/BLACK concept refers to a security measure used to separate and protect different levels of classified information within a network. In this context, RED lines are used to carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that sensitive information is transmitted without encryption, but only at the classified level, ensuring that it remains secure and separate from other types of traffic.

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26.

What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?
- Controlled access area (CAA).
- Restricted access area (RAA).
- Limited control area (LCA).
- Uncontrolled access area (UAA).
Correct Answer

A. Controlled access area (CAA).

Explanation

A controlled access area (CAA) is a complete building or facility area that is under direct physical control. Unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized entry. Restricted access area (RAA), limited control area (LCA), and uncontrolled access area (UAA) do not accurately describe the level of control and restriction mentioned in the question.

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27.

Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?
- Storage batteries.
- Power wheel.
- Flywheel
- Batteries.
Correct Answer

A. Flywheel

Explanation

Flywheel-based uninterruptible power supply (UPS) systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. Flywheels store kinetic energy in a rotating mass, which can be quickly converted into electrical energy when needed. This makes them suitable for providing backup power to critical systems in facilities such as data centers, hospitals, and industrial plants. Unlike storage batteries, which have limited capacity and require frequent maintenance and replacement, flywheel UPS systems offer a longer lifespan, higher reliability, and faster response time. Therefore, flywheel is the correct answer for this question.

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28.

Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?
- Diesel
- Gasoline.
- Fossil fuel.
- Liquid petroleum.
Correct Answer

A. Fossil fuel.

Explanation

The correct answer is fossil fuel. Fossil fuel is a broad term that includes coal, oil, and natural gas. Reciprocating generators typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel sources, which are derived from crude oil. While fossil fuels are used for various purposes, including electricity generation, they are not specifically used for reciprocating generators.

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29.

Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?
- Production work center or communication squadron.
- Production work center or contractor.
- Communications squadron.
- Production work center.
Correct Answer

A. Production work center or contractor.

Explanation

Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or the contractor. This means that either the production work center within the organization or an external contractor hired for the job will be accountable for maintaining and ensuring the proper functioning of the cyberspace equipment throughout its life cycle.

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30.

The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as
- Configuration.
- Configuration item.
- Configuration control.
- Configuration identification.
Correct Answer

A. Configuration control.

Explanation

Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing, approving, and managing all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any modifications made to the configuration are properly evaluated, authorized, and implemented. This helps maintain the integrity and consistency of the configuration, ensuring that all changes are documented, tracked, and controlled effectively.

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31.

What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?
- T–586 and T–586A.
- T–586A and T–586B.
- T–568 and T–568A.
- T–568A and T–568B.
Correct Answer

A. T–568A and T–568B.

Explanation

The correct answer is T–568A and T–568B. These are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. T–568A and T–568B are wiring schemes that specify the arrangement of the individual wire pairs within an Ethernet cable. T–568A is typically used for residential and commercial network installations, while T–568B is commonly used for data communication networks. These standards ensure proper connectivity and compatibility between devices when terminating CAT 5 and CAT 6 cables.

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32.

What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?
- Changed.
- Deleted.
- Updated.
- Reviewed.
Correct Answer

A. Deleted.

Explanation

When a user's domain account is deleted, their email account is also deleted. This means that all of their emails, contacts, and other data associated with the email account will be permanently removed and inaccessible. Deleting the domain account effectively terminates the user's access to their email account.

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33.

How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 1

Explanation

In directory and resource administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that users can perform actions on a single object, such as modifying its attributes or permissions, at any given time. Manipulating multiple objects simultaneously is not supported in DRA.

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34.

What components are used in both encryption and decryption?
- Algorithm and key.
- Certificate and key.
- Telephone and receiver.
- Algorithm and certificate.
Correct Answer

A. Algorithm and key.

Explanation

In both encryption and decryption processes, an algorithm is used to perform the mathematical operations that transform the original data into an unreadable format and then back into its original form. The key is also required in both processes to control the encryption and decryption operations. The key determines how the algorithm operates and is essential for the successful transformation of the data. Therefore, both algorithm and key are components used in both encryption and decryption.

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35.

What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?
- Stream algorithms and block ciphers
- Secure algorithms and block ciphers
- Block algorithms and stream ciphers
- Block algorithms and secure ciphers.
Correct Answer

A. Block algorithms and stream ciphers

Explanation

Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the data into fixed-size blocks and encrypt each block separately, while stream ciphers encrypt the data bit by bit or byte by byte. Both types of algorithms have their own advantages and are used in different encryption scenarios based on their specific characteristics and requirements.

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36.

How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?
- 64.
- 128.
- 192.
- 256.
Correct Answer

A. 64.

Explanation

The Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses a key size of 64 bits. The key size refers to the number of bits used in the encryption algorithm to encrypt and decrypt data. In the case of DES, a 64-bit key is used to perform the encryption and decryption operations. This key size provides a balance between security and efficiency, as larger key sizes can offer stronger security but may also require more computational resources.

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37.

Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 3

Explanation

Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a cryptographic algorithm that applies encryption and decryption operations three times in a row. It uses three individual keys, each applied to one of the three operations. This ensures a higher level of security compared to single DES, as it requires an attacker to break through three layers of encryption. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

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38.

Which encryption handles software encryption?
- Narrowband.
- Wideband.
- Network.
- Bulk.
Correct Answer

A. Network.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Network" because network encryption refers to the process of encrypting data that is being transmitted over a network. It ensures that the data is secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception. Software encryption, on the other hand, refers to the encryption of data stored on a computer or device using software-based encryption algorithms. While software encryption can be used in conjunction with network encryption, the question specifically asks about the encryption that handles software encryption, which is network encryption.

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39.

Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?
- Universal Serial Bus (USB).
- EIA 530.
- RS–232.
- Firewire.
Correct Answer

A. RS–232.

Explanation

RS-232 is a standard for serial communication that is commonly used for connecting computer devices, including fax machines. It is a widely adopted standard for transmitting data between devices and is capable of supporting various types of devices, including fax machines. The other options, USB, EIA 530, and Firewire, are not typically used for connecting fax machines.

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40.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)
- Version 4 and version 6.
- Version 4 and version 5.
- Version 5 only.
- Version 4 only.
Correct Answer

A. Version 4 and version 6.

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro is a packet encryption device that can encrypt Internet Protocol (IP) versions 4 and 6. This means that it is capable of encrypting both IPv4 and IPv6 packets, providing secure communication for both versions of the IP protocol.

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41.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?
- Static IP only.
- Plaintext only.
- Ciphertext only.
- Ciphertext or plaintext.
Correct Answer

A. Ciphertext or plaintext.

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro can acquire an IP address by DHCP on either the ciphertext or plaintext side. This means that it can obtain an IP address regardless of whether the data is encrypted or not.

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42.

Who coordinates the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander?
- Base communications and information systems officer (CSO).
- Iridium Secure Module (ISM).
- Base PWCS manager.
- Unit PWCS manager.
Correct Answer

A. Base communications and information systems officer (CSO).

Explanation

The correct answer is the Base communications and information systems officer (CSO). The CSO is responsible for coordinating the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander. They oversee the planning, implementation, and maintenance of the PWCS and ensure that it aligns with the commander's objectives and requirements. They also work closely with other units and managers to ensure efficient and effective use of PWCS assets throughout the installation.

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43.

What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets?
- Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).
- Tracking and Reporting System.
- Integrated Maintenance Data System.
- Core Automated Maintenance System.
Correct Answer

A. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).

Explanation

The only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets is the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS). This system is specifically designed for tracking and managing the inventory of PWCS assets within the Air Force. It provides a centralized platform for monitoring and reporting on the status, location, and condition of these assets, ensuring accurate and efficient management of the Air Force's PWCS inventory.

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44.

What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?
- AFI 17–210; AFI 11–101; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–118.
- AFI 17–210; AFI 33–118; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–219.
- AFI 17–210; AFI 33–219; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–201.
- AFI 17–210; AFI 17–220; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 17–1302–O.
Correct Answer

A. AFI 17–210; AFI 17–220; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 17–1302–O.
45.

Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device’s original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?
- Pager.
- Land mobile radio (LMR).
- Family radio service (FRS).
- Personal digital assistant (PDA).
Correct Answer

A. Family radio service (FRS).

Explanation

The Family Radio Service (FRS) device was originally intended for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area. FRS allows for short-range, two-way communication through handheld radios, making it ideal for personal use within a limited range. Pagers, Land mobile radio (LMR), and Personal digital assistant (PDA) are not specifically designed for communication among family, friends, and associates in a small area.

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46.

How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?
- 11.
- 12.
- 13.
- 14.
Correct Answer

A. 14.

Explanation

The correct answer is 14. This means that the intra-squad radios operate on 14 channels.

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47.

What mode of operation do cell phones use?
- Half-Duplex.
- Simplex.
- Duplex.
- Hybrid.
Correct Answer

A. Duplex.

Explanation

Cell phones use duplex mode of operation, which means they can transmit and receive signals simultaneously. This allows for two-way communication, where both parties can talk and listen at the same time. In duplex mode, cell phones can send and receive data simultaneously, enabling features such as voice calls, video calls, and internet browsing. Half-duplex mode only allows for one-way communication at a time, while simplex mode only allows for one-way communication in one direction. Hybrid mode refers to a combination of different modes, but it is not the mode used by cell phones.

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48.

How fast you sample the audio to get your digital signal is called
- Bit rate.
- Bite rate.
- Samp rate.
- Sample rate.
Correct Answer

A. Bit rate.
49.

What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?
- Bite rate.
- Bit rate.
- Samp rate.
- Sample rate.
Correct Answer

A. Bit rate.

Explanation

Bit rate refers to the number of bits that are processed or transmitted per unit of time. In the context of audio quality, a higher bit rate means that more data is being processed or transmitted, resulting in higher audio quality. This is because a higher bit rate allows for more detailed and accurate representation of the audio signal, capturing more nuances and preserving the original quality of the sound. Therefore, increasing the bit rate is necessary to improve the audio quality.

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Feb 14, 2019

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Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! Trivia Questions Quiz

What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?

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The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?

What are the two different types of current used for power?

In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or

Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?

What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?

Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?

Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–E100?

Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?

What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

What percent packet loss should a network expect in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Which does not fit the “Peaceful Purposes” clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system?

What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?

In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?

The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the

Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?

Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?

What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?

Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?

Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?

The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as

What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?

What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?

How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?

What components are used in both encryption and decryption?

What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?

How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?

Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

Which encryption handles software encryption?

Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

Who coordinates the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander?

What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets?

What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?

Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device’s original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?

How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?

What mode of operation do cell phones use?

How fast you sample the audio to get your digital signal is called

What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?