Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! Trivia Questions Quiz

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Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! This trivia Questions Quiz is designed to help you see just how attentive you have been throughout the training and if it is enough to earn you the pass certificate. How about you give it a shot and get to see if you need to have another study session before the exams are due. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?

    • A.

      Remedy.

    • B.

      Remedy new.

    • C.

      Remedy user.

    • D.

      Remedy ticket.

    Correct Answer
    C. Remedy user.
    Explanation
    To create a new ticket, the tool that must be used is Remedy user. Remedy user is the specific tool within the Remedy software that allows users to generate new tickets. It is designed for ticket creation and management, providing a user-friendly interface for this purpose. By using Remedy user, users can easily create new tickets and input all the necessary details and information related to the issue or request they are submitting.

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  • 2. 

    Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?

    • A.

      Software or hardware.

    • B.

      Software and equipment

    • C.

      Application or hardware

    • D.

      Application and equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Software or hardware.
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Software or hardware," is correct because Remedy is a software tool used for IT service management. It can be used to manage and track software-related issues as well as hardware-related problems. Therefore, depending on the nature of the problem, Remedy can be used to address both software and hardware issues, making "Software or hardware" the correct answer.

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  • 3. 

    In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?

    • A.

      A resolution group only

    • B.

      A specific technician only.

    • C.

      Remedy automatically assigns tickets.

    • D.

      A resolution group or specific technician.

    Correct Answer
    D. A resolution group or specific technician.
    Explanation
    In Remedy, tickets are assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician in order to fix problems. This means that the responsibility for resolving the issues can be assigned to a group of individuals with the necessary expertise or to a particular technician who is best suited to handle the problem. This flexible assignment system allows for efficient problem-solving and ensures that the tickets are directed to the appropriate individuals or teams for resolution.

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  • 4. 

    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?

    • A.

       Reliability and Maintainability System (REMIS).

    • B.

      Telephone Management System

    • C.

      Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).

    • D.

      Remedy.

    Correct Answer
    C. Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). The question is asking which system is replaced by the interface between the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S). The answer choice "Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)" indicates that the SBSS system is the one being replaced.

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  • 5. 

    Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A.

      Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes.

    • B.

      Function as a common interactive interface for other systems.

    • C.

      Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.

    • D.

      Provide status and inventory data.

    Correct Answer
    C. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is a system that is designed to automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes. It also functions as a common interactive interface for other systems, allowing for seamless integration and data exchange. Additionally, it provides status and inventory data, allowing users to have real-time information about the equipment. However, it does not have the capability to roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that it does not have the functionality to aggregate and transmit logistics data from lower-level units to the Air Force level for analysis and decision-making.

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  • 6. 

    The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the

    • A.

      Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

    • B.

      Telecommunications Management System (TMS).

    • C.

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

    • D.

      Automated Information System (AIS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This is because the question asks for the online database program that is a part of a certain system, and AFEMS is the only option that fits this description. The other options, TMS, IMDS, and AIS, are not mentioned in relation to an online database program. Therefore, AFEMS is the most logical choice.

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  • 7. 

    Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?

    • A.

      Weapons.

    • B.

      Support.

    • C.

      Telephone.

    • D.

      Communications.

    Correct Answer
    D. Communications.
    Explanation
    AIMS is an Asset Inventory Management System used by the Air Force to track and manage various assets. Among the options provided, Communications is the most suitable answer as AIMS is primarily used to track and manage communication assets such as radios, satellite equipment, and other communication devices. It helps the Air Force to effectively manage and maintain their communication infrastructure, ensuring smooth and efficient communication within the organization.

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  • 8. 

    The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?

    • A.

      Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB).

    • B.

      Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

    • C.

      Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

    • D.

      Oracle database at Randolph AFB.

    Correct Answer
    C. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB. This means that the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system uses an Oracle database, and this database is located at Wright-Patterson Air Force Base.

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  • 9. 

    Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

    • A.

      Defense Courier Service.

    • B.

      Protected distribution system

    • C.

      Communications security equipment.

    • D.

      Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Courier Service.
    Explanation
    The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it is a physical transportation service that is used to deliver classified or sensitive materials, rather than providing a secure communication channel. The other options, such as the Protected Distribution System, Communications Security Equipment, and Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System, are all methods or technologies that are specifically designed to ensure secure telecommunications.

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  • 10. 

    In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?

    • A.

      Encrypted classified.

    • B.

      Encrypted unclassified.

    • C.

      Unencrypted classified.

    • D.

      Unencrypted unclassified.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unencrypted classified.
    Explanation
    The RED/BLACK concept refers to a security measure used to separate and protect different levels of classified information within a network. In this context, RED lines are used to carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that sensitive information is transmitted without encryption, but only at the classified level, ensuring that it remains secure and separate from other types of traffic.

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  • 11. 

    Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?

    • A.

      Physical separation and electromagnetic separation

    • B.

       Electromagnetic separation and electrical separation

    • C.

      Physical separation and electrical separation.

    • D.

      Physical separation and emission separation

    Correct Answer
    C. Physical separation and electrical separation.
    Explanation
    The RED/BLACK concept refers to the practice of physically separating networks or systems to prevent unauthorized access and ensure security. Physical separation involves physically isolating networks or systems from each other, such as using separate physical cables or air gaps. Electrical separation refers to using techniques like firewalls or network segmentation to create logical boundaries between networks. This combination of physical and electrical separation helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized access and data breaches.

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  • 12. 

    What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?

    • A.

      Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses.

    • B.

      Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.

    • C.

      Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses

    • D.

      Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses.

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This program aims to prevent unintentional electromagnetic radiation from compromising the security of classified information. By implementing specific measures and standards, TEMPEST reduces the risk of information leakage through electromagnetic emanations.

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  • 13. 

    What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?

    • A.

      Communications security.

    • B.

      Transmission security.

    • C.

      Emission security

    • D.

      Computer security.

    Correct Answer
    C. Emission security
    Explanation
    The Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is called Emission security. This refers to the measures taken to protect against the unintentional release of compromising emanations from electronic equipment. These emanations can potentially be intercepted and exploited by adversaries to gather sensitive information. Emission security focuses on preventing these unintentional emissions and ensuring that electronic equipment meets specific standards to minimize the risk of information leakage.

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  • 14. 

    What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

    • A.

      Controlled access area (CAA).

    • B.

      Restricted access area (RAA).

    • C.

      Limited control area (LCA).

    • D.

      Uncontrolled access area (UAA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled access area (CAA).
    Explanation
    A controlled access area (CAA) is a complete building or facility area that is under direct physical control. Unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized entry. Restricted access area (RAA), limited control area (LCA), and uncontrolled access area (UAA) do not accurately describe the level of control and restriction mentioned in the question.

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  • 15. 

    In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?

    • A.

      Encrypted classified or unclassified.

    • B.

      Encrypted classified only.

    • C.

      Unencrypted classified.

    • D.

      Unclassified only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Encrypted classified or unclassified.
    Explanation
    The BLACK lines in the RED/BLACK concept carry encrypted traffic that can be classified or unclassified. This means that the information being transmitted through these lines is protected and can contain sensitive or non-sensitive data.

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  • 16. 

    Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

    • A.

      Communications security

    • B.

      Line route or visual.

    • C.

      Separation.

    • D.

      Electrical.

    Correct Answer
    B. Line route or visual.
    Explanation
    Protected distribution systems (PDS) require scheduled inspections to ensure the integrity and security of the system. These inspections involve checking the line route or visually inspecting the distribution system to identify any potential vulnerabilities or breaches. By regularly inspecting the line route or visually assessing the system, any unauthorized access points, tampering, or damage can be detected and addressed promptly. This helps to maintain the confidentiality, availability, and reliability of the PDS, ensuring that sensitive information remains protected.

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  • 17. 

    Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?

    • A.

      Emission security (EMSEC).

    • B.

      Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST).

    • C.

      Inspection.

    • D.

      Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Protected Distribution Systems (PDS). PDS events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in the log of the Protected Distribution Systems.

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  • 18. 

    A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the

    • A.

      Total surface.

    • B.

      Visible area.

    • C.

      Concealed area.

    • D.

      Observable area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Total surface.
    Explanation
    In a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), a close visual inspection is conducted to assess the condition of the system. This inspection must cover the entire surface of the system, including both visible and concealed areas. The term "total surface" encompasses all areas that need to be inspected, ensuring that no part of the system is overlooked. This comprehensive inspection helps identify any potential issues or damages in the PDS, allowing for timely repairs and maintenance to ensure its proper functioning.

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  • 19. 

    What are the two different types of current used for power?

    • A.

      100 v (volts) and 210 v.

    • B.

      105 v and 215 v.

    • C.

      110 v and 220 v.

    • D.

      115 v and 225 v.

    Correct Answer
    C. 110 v and 220 v.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 110 v and 220 v. These values represent the standard voltages used for power in most residential and commercial settings. The lower voltage of 110 v is typically used for smaller appliances and lighting, while the higher voltage of 220 v is used for larger appliances and machinery.

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  • 20. 

    What are the two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?

    • A.

      Storage batteries or a power wheel

    • B.

      Storage batteries or a flywheel.

    • C.

      Batteries or a power wheel.

    • D.

      Batteries or a flywheel

    Correct Answer
    D. Batteries or a flywheel
    Explanation
    The two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) are batteries or a flywheel. Batteries are commonly used in UPS systems as they can store a large amount of energy and provide power for an extended period of time. On the other hand, a flywheel is a mechanical device that stores energy in the form of rotational motion. It spins at a high speed and can provide short-term power backup in case of a power outage. Both options offer a reliable solution for storing electricity in a UPS system.

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  • 21. 

    Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?

    • A.

      Storage batteries.

    • B.

      Power wheel.

    • C.

      Flywheel

    • D.

      Batteries.

    Correct Answer
    C. Flywheel
    Explanation
    Flywheel-based uninterruptible power supply (UPS) systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. Flywheels store kinetic energy in a rotating mass, which can be quickly converted into electrical energy when needed. This makes them suitable for providing backup power to critical systems in facilities such as data centers, hospitals, and industrial plants. Unlike storage batteries, which have limited capacity and require frequent maintenance and replacement, flywheel UPS systems offer a longer lifespan, higher reliability, and faster response time. Therefore, flywheel is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 22. 

    Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?

    • A.

      The office power requirements.

    • B.

      The amount of floor space available.

    • C.

      Future subscriber growth and reserve time required.

    • D.

      The number of alternating current converters in the office.

    Correct Answer
    D. The number of alternating current converters in the office.
    Explanation
    When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. The other options mentioned in the question, such as office power requirements, amount of floor space available, future subscriber growth, and reserve time required, are all factors that need to be taken into account when selecting storage batteries. However, the number of alternating current converters does not directly affect the selection of storage batteries.

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  • 23. 

    In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or

    • A.

      Turbine batteries.

    • B.

      A turbine engine.

    • C.

      An engine.

    • D.

      Batteries.

    Correct Answer
    B. A turbine engine.
    Explanation
    The question is asking about the types of generators in electrical power equipment. The correct answer is "a turbine engine" because turbines are commonly used as generators in power plants. Turbine engines are efficient and powerful, making them suitable for generating large amounts of electricity. Reciprocating engines, on the other hand, are typically used in smaller applications such as backup generators. Batteries, while they can store and release electrical energy, are not considered generators as they do not produce electricity themselves.

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  • 24. 

    Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?

    • A.

      Diesel

    • B.

      Gasoline.

    • C.

      Fossil fuel.

    • D.

      Liquid petroleum.

    Correct Answer
    C. Fossil fuel.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is fossil fuel. Fossil fuel is a broad term that includes coal, oil, and natural gas. Reciprocating generators typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel sources, which are derived from crude oil. While fossil fuels are used for various purposes, including electricity generation, they are not specifically used for reciprocating generators.

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  • 25. 

    Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?

    • A.

      Production work center or communication squadron.

    • B.

      Production work center or contractor.

    • C.

      Communications squadron.

    • D.

      Production work center.

    Correct Answer
    B. Production work center or contractor.
    Explanation
    Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or the contractor. This means that either the production work center within the organization or an external contractor hired for the job will be accountable for maintaining and ensuring the proper functioning of the cyberspace equipment throughout its life cycle.

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  • 26. 

    The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as

    • A.

      Configuration.

    • B.

      Configuration item.

    • C.

      Configuration control.

    • D.

      Configuration identification.

    Correct Answer
    C. Configuration control.
    Explanation
    Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing, approving, and managing all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any modifications made to the configuration are properly evaluated, authorized, and implemented. This helps maintain the integrity and consistency of the configuration, ensuring that all changes are documented, tracked, and controlled effectively.

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  • 27. 

    Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed?

    • A.

      Configuration.

    • B.

      Configuration item.

    • C.

      Configuration control.

    • D.

      Configuration identification.

    Correct Answer
    B. Configuration item.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Configuration item" because configuration items are specific elements or components of a system that require the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed. The TO information provides instructions and guidelines for the proper configuration and maintenance of these items. Therefore, staying updated with the latest TO information is crucial for managing and maintaining configuration items effectively.

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  • 28. 

    Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?

    • A.

      Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.

    • B.

      Record and report change processing and implementation status.

    • C.

      Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the statements listed pertain to configuration management. The first statement involves identifying and documenting the characteristics of a Configuration Item (CI). The second statement involves recording and reporting the status of change processing and implementation. The third statement involves controlling changes to the characteristics of a CI. Therefore, all three statements are related to configuration management.

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  • 29. 

    What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?

    • A.

      T–586 and T–586A.

    • B.

      T–586A and T–586B.

    • C.

      T–568 and T–568A.

    • D.

      T–568A and T–568B.

    Correct Answer
    D. T–568A and T–568B.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T–568A and T–568B. These are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. T–568A and T–568B are wiring schemes that specify the arrangement of the individual wire pairs within an Ethernet cable. T–568A is typically used for residential and commercial network installations, while T–568B is commonly used for data communication networks. These standards ensure proper connectivity and compatibility between devices when terminating CAT 5 and CAT 6 cables.

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  • 30. 

    Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    Permanent markings can be completed by two different methods. This implies that there are two distinct ways to create permanent markings.

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  • 31. 

    What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts?

    • A.

      Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) 8502, Organizational Computer Security.

    • B.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management

    • C.

      AFI 33–201, Communications Security (COMSEC).

    • D.

      AFSSI 7700, Emission Security

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management. This publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts in the Air Force.

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  • 32. 

    What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account?

    • A.

      Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings.

    • B.

      Mailbox rights

    • C.

      Mailbox security.

    • D.

      Custom attributes

    Correct Answer
    C. Mailbox security.
    Explanation
    Mailbox security is the correct answer because it refers to the tab used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account. This tab allows administrators to manage the security settings for a mailbox, including granting or revoking permissions for other users to access and send emails on behalf of the mailbox owner.

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  • 33. 

    What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account

    • A.

      Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings.

    • B.

      Mailbox rights.

    • C.

      Mailbox security.

    • D.

      Custom attributes.

    Correct Answer
    B. Mailbox rights.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Mailbox rights." This exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account. By managing mailbox rights, administrators can control who has access to a particular mailbox and what actions they can perform on it. This includes granting or revoking permissions such as read, write, delete, or send as rights.

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  • 34. 

    Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?

    • A.

      The user’s e-mail will be deleted from the Exchange server

    • B.

      Restoring deleted e-mail requires proper justification.

    • C.

      The wrong account could be deleted.

    • D.

      Restoring deleted e-mail is difficult.

    Correct Answer
    C. The wrong account could be deleted.
    Explanation
    Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because the wrong account could be deleted. This means that there is a risk of accidentally deleting the incorrect account, which can have serious consequences. It is important to double-check and verify the account before proceeding with the deletion process to avoid any irreversible mistakes.

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  • 35. 

    What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?

    • A.

      Changed.

    • B.

      Deleted.

    • C.

      Updated.

    • D.

      Reviewed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Deleted.
    Explanation
    When a user's domain account is deleted, their email account is also deleted. This means that all of their emails, contacts, and other data associated with the email account will be permanently removed and inaccessible. Deleting the domain account effectively terminates the user's access to their email account.

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  • 36. 

    How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    In directory and resource administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that users can perform actions on a single object, such as modifying its attributes or permissions, at any given time. Manipulating multiple objects simultaneously is not supported in DRA.

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  • 37. 

    When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?

    • A.

      The analog signal

    • B.

      The digital signal.

    • C.

      The multiplexed signal.

    • D.

      The sender’s private key.

    Correct Answer
    B. The digital signal.
    Explanation
    When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. STE is a device used for secure communication, and it encrypts the digital signal to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted data. Encrypting the digital signal makes it unreadable to unauthorized individuals, protecting sensitive information from being intercepted or tampered with during transmission.

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  • 38. 

    What components are used in both encryption and decryption?

    • A.

      Algorithm and key.

    • B.

      Certificate and key.

    • C.

      Telephone and receiver.

    • D.

      Algorithm and certificate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Algorithm and key.
    Explanation
    In both encryption and decryption processes, an algorithm is used to perform the mathematical operations that transform the original data into an unreadable format and then back into its original form. The key is also required in both processes to control the encryption and decryption operations. The key determines how the algorithm operates and is essential for the successful transformation of the data. Therefore, both algorithm and key are components used in both encryption and decryption.

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  • 39. 

    What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?

    • A.

      Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-secret key system.

    • B.

      Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-secret key system.

    • C.

      Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system

    • D.

      Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-public key system.

    Correct Answer
    C. Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system." Cryptology refers to the study and practice of securing communication and information through encryption techniques. In a symmetric-secret key system, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, meaning the sender and receiver must share the same secret key. In an asymmetric-public key system, different keys are used for encryption and decryption, with the public key used for encryption and the private key used for decryption. This allows for secure communication even if the public key is known to everyone.

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  • 40. 

    What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?

    • A.

      Speed.

    • B.

      Storage.

    • C.

      Security.

    • D.

      Standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Speed.
    Explanation
    Symmetric cryptography offers the advantage of speed. In this encryption technique, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, making the process faster compared to asymmetric cryptography. With symmetric cryptology, data can be encrypted and decrypted quickly, making it ideal for applications that require efficient and rapid encryption, such as real-time communication and large-scale data transfers.

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  • 41. 

    Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

    • A.

      Symmetric.

    • B.

      Asymmetric.

    • C.

      Diametric.

    • D.

      None of the above, they are all the same

    Correct Answer
    B. Asymmetric.
    Explanation
    Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because in asymmetric cryptology, two different keys are used for encryption and decryption, which requires more computational resources and time compared to symmetric cryptology where a single key is used for both encryption and decryption.

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  • 42. 

    In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser?

    • A.

      Its public key

    • B.

      Its private key.

    • C.

      Its public certificate

    • D.

      Its private certificate

    Correct Answer
    A. Its public key
    Explanation
    In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, the web server gives its public key to the browser. The public key is used to encrypt the data sent from the browser, ensuring secure communication between the server and the client. The browser can then use the server's public key to encrypt the data before sending it, and the server can decrypt the data using its private key. This ensures that only the server can read the encrypted data, providing confidentiality and security to the transaction.

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  • 43. 

    What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?

    • A.

      Stream algorithms and block ciphers

    • B.

      Secure algorithms and block ciphers

    • C.

      Block algorithms and stream ciphers

    • D.

      Block algorithms and secure ciphers.

    Correct Answer
    C. Block algorithms and stream ciphers
    Explanation
    Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the data into fixed-size blocks and encrypt each block separately, while stream ciphers encrypt the data bit by bit or byte by byte. Both types of algorithms have their own advantages and are used in different encryption scenarios based on their specific characteristics and requirements.

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  • 44. 

    How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?

    • A.

      64.

    • B.

      128.

    • C.

      192.

    • D.

      256.

    Correct Answer
    A. 64.
    Explanation
    The Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses a key size of 64 bits. The key size refers to the number of bits used in the encryption algorithm to encrypt and decrypt data. In the case of DES, a 64-bit key is used to perform the encryption and decryption operations. This key size provides a balance between security and efficiency, as larger key sizes can offer stronger security but may also require more computational resources.

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  • 45. 

    Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a cryptographic algorithm that applies encryption and decryption operations three times in a row. It uses three individual keys, each applied to one of the three operations. This ensures a higher level of security compared to single DES, as it requires an attacker to break through three layers of encryption. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

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  • 46. 

    Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?

    • A.

      Narrowband.

    • B.

      Network.

    • C.

      Bulk.

    • D.

      Open.

    Correct Answer
    D. Open.
    Explanation
    The given question asks for an encryption type that is not related to telecommunications. Narrowband, network, and bulk are all encryption types commonly used in telecommunications. However, "open" does not refer to a specific encryption type and is not directly associated with telecommunications encryption. Therefore, "open" is the correct answer as it does not fit the category of telecommunications encryption.

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  • 47. 

    Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as computers?

    • A.

      Wideband.

    • B.

      Narrowband.

    • C.

      Network.

    • D.

      Bulk.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wideband.
    Explanation
    Wideband encryption is the type of encryption that is capable of handling data from various sources, including equipment such as computers. It is designed to accommodate a wide range of data transmission rates and can handle large volumes of data. This makes it suitable for securing data from different types of equipment, including computers, which generate and transmit large amounts of data. Narrowband encryption, on the other hand, is designed for lower data transmission rates and may not be able to handle the high volume of data generated by computers. Network and Bulk encryption are not specifically related to handling data from equipment such as computers.

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  • 48. 

    Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one?

    • A.

      Bulk.

    • B.

      Network.

    • C.

      Wideband.

    • D.

      Narrowband.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulk.
    Explanation
    Bulk encryption is the correct answer because it refers to the encryption method used to handle multiplexed lines that combine multiple single data and voice lines into one. This type of encryption is specifically designed to handle large volumes of data and is commonly used in scenarios where multiple lines need to be combined and secured efficiently.

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  • 49. 

    Which encryption handles software encryption?

    • A.

      Narrowband.

    • B.

      Wideband.

    • C.

      Network.

    • D.

      Bulk.

    Correct Answer
    C. Network.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Network" because network encryption refers to the process of encrypting data that is being transmitted over a network. It ensures that the data is secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception. Software encryption, on the other hand, refers to the encryption of data stored on a computer or device using software-based encryption algorithms. While software encryption can be used in conjunction with network encryption, the question specifically asks about the encryption that handles software encryption, which is network encryption.

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  • 50. 

    Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure

    • A.

      Authenticity.

    • B.

      Compliance.

    • C.

      Integrity.

    • D.

      Validity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Authenticity.
    Explanation
    Communications security (COMSEC) refers to the measures and controls implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information and to guarantee the authenticity of the communication. Authenticity ensures that the information being transmitted is genuine and has not been tampered with or altered in any way. It verifies that the message originated from the expected source and has not been modified during transmission. Therefore, authenticity is the most appropriate term to describe the objective of communications security.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 14, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    H3NTA1
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