Immunology Exam 2 Questions

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Immunology Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 1. 
    The center for Biologics Evaluation and Research CBER regulates
    • A. 

      Laboratory safety

    • B. 

      Vaccine products

    • C. 

      Personnel qualifications

    • D. 

      Research grants

  • 2. 
    Pathogens adapted for biological warfare include: 1) Smallpox 2) Bacillus anthracis 3) Chickenpox 4) Q fever
    • A. 

      1, 2, 3

    • B. 

      1, 2, 4

    • C. 

      2, 3, 4

    • D. 

      1, 3, 4

  • 3. 
    Vaccines can be divided into                            vaccines
    • A. 

      Live, attenuated

    • B. 

      Nonreplicating

    • C. 

      Naked DNA

    • D. 

      Both a and b

  • 4. 
    To meet FDA requirements, a vaccine must:
    • A. 

      Produce protective immunity with only minimal side effects

    • B. 

      Be immunogenic enough to produce a strong and measurable immune response

    • C. 

      Be stable during its shelf life

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 5. 
    The earliest host response to vaccination is a(n):
    • A. 

      Innate immune response

    • B. 

      Memory response

    • C. 

      Anamnestic response

    • D. 

      Both a and b

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Autoagglutinins

    • B. 

      Reagin antibodies

    • C. 

      Alloantibodies

    • D. 

      Nonsyphilis antibodies

  • 7. 
    In the RPR procedure, a false-positive reaction can result from all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Infectious mononucleosis

    • B. 

      Leprosy

    • C. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • D. 

      Streptococcal pharyngitis

  • 8. 
    The first diagnostic blood test for syphilis was the:
    • A. 

      VDRL

    • B. 

      Wasserman

    • C. 

      RPR

    • D. 

      Colloidal gold

  • 9. 
    Syphilis was initially treated with:
    • A. 

      Fuller's earth

    • B. 

      Heavy metals (arsenic)

    • C. 

      Sulfonamides (triple sulfa)

    • D. 

      Antibiotics (penicillin)

  • 10. 
    Direct examination of the treponemes is most often performed by:
    • A. 

      Light microscopy

    • B. 

      Darkfield microscopy

    • C. 

      VDRL testing

    • D. 

      RPR testing

  • 11. 
    Pathogenic treponemes                                         cultivatable with consistency in artificial laboratory media.
    • A. 

      Are

    • B. 

      Are not

    • C. 

      Answer option 3

    • D. 

      Answer option 4

  • 12. 
    In infected blood,T. Pallidum does not appear to survive at 4 degrees C (39 F) for longer than:
    • A. 

      1 day

    • B. 

      2 days

    • C. 

      3 days

    • D. 

      5 days

  • 13. 
    The primary incubation period for syphilis is usually about:
    • A. 

      1 week

    • B. 

      2 weeks

    • C. 

      3 weeks

    • D. 

      4 weeks

  • 14. 
    The stage of syphilis that can be diagnosed only by serologic (laboratory) methods is the:
    • A. 

      Incubation phase

    • B. 

      Primary phase

    • C. 

      Secondary phase

    • D. 

      Latent phase

  • 15. 
    Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce:
    • A. 

      Specific antibodies against T. pallidum

    • B. 

      Nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes

    • C. 

      Reagin antibodies

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 16. 
    Common vectors of Lyme disease include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      I. pacificus

    • B. 

      I. scapularis

    • C. 

      I. ricinus

    • D. 

      D. variabilis

  • 17. 
    The only continent without Lyme disease is:
    • A. 

      Asia

    • B. 

      Europe

    • C. 

      Africa

    • D. 

      Antarctica

  • 18. 
    The primary reservoir in nature for B. burgdorfei is the:
    • A. 

      White-tailed deer

    • B. 

      White-footed mouse

    • C. 

      Lizard

    • D. 

      Meadowlark

  • 19. 
    On average, the incidence of infection following an I. scapularis tick bite in an endemic area is:
    • A. 

      1%

    • B. 

      3%

    • C. 

      5%

    • D. 

      10%

  • 20. 
    Erythema migrans
    • A. 

      Occurs in all patients

    • B. 

      Harbors B. burgdoferi in the advancing edge

    • C. 

      Is easily distinguished from other erythemas

    • D. 

      Is more common in the winter months

  • 21. 
    The predominant symptoms of Lyme meningitis are:
    • A. 

      Severe headache and mild neck stiffness

    • B. 

      Aseptic meningitis and double vision

    • C. 

      Cranial nerve palsies and blurred vision

    • D. 

      Peripheral radiculoneuritis and peripheral neuropathy

  • 22. 
    Cardiac involvement in Lyme disease may include:
    • A. 

      Murmurs

    • B. 

      Conduction abnormalities

    • C. 

      Congestive heart failure

    • D. 

      Vasculitis

  • 23. 
    Ocular involvement in Lyme disease includes all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Cranial nerve palsies

    • B. 

      Conjunctivitis

    • C. 

      Panophthalmitis with loss of vision

    • D. 

      Choroiditis with retinal detachment

  • 24. 
    Pregnancy in Lyme disease:
    • A. 

      Does not result in high fetal mortality

    • B. 

      Has been associated with transplacental infection

    • C. 

      Should be terminated because of maternal risk

    • D. 

      Is not associated with congenital abnormalities

  • 25. 
    The most useful test for distinguishing between true-positive and false-positive serologic test results in Lyme disease is:
    • A. 

      Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

    • B. 

      Immunofluorescence assay

    • C. 

      Polymerase chain reaction

    • D. 

      T cell assay

  • 26. 
    Lyme disease, the most common tickborne disease in the US, is a major health hazard for:
    • A. 

      Dogs

    • B. 

      Horses and cattle

    • C. 

      Humans

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 27. 
    The first Native American case of what would later be called Lyme disease occurred in:
    • A. 

      Connecticut

    • B. 

      Wisconsin

    • C. 

      Florida

    • D. 

      New York

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      3 days

    • B. 

      1 week

    • C. 

      4 weeks

    • D. 

      3 months

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Neurologic

    • B. 

      Rheumatoid

    • C. 

      Cutaneous (eg erythema migrans)

    • D. 

      Cardiac

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Hours to weeks

    • B. 

      Days to weeks

    • C. 

      Weeks to months

    • D. 

      Weeks to years

  • 31. 
    In the third stage of Lyme disease, what are some common signs and symptoms that accompany late neurologic complications.
    • A. 

      Arthritis

    • B. 

      Lyme carditis

    • C. 

      Transplacental transmission

    • D. 

      Lymphocytoma

  • 32. 
    Unlike some procedures, the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay can be used to detect Lyme disease-causing organisms in:
    • A. 

      Urine

    • B. 

      Cerebrospinal fluid

    • C. 

      Synovial fluid

    • D. 

      Blood

  • 33. 
    A patient who has a specific Lyme disease-associated manifestation may be treated with:
    • A. 

      Vaccination

    • B. 

      Interferon

    • C. 

      Antibiotic

    • D. 

      Analgesic

  • 34. 
    Antigen detection systems in Lyme disease testing screen for                                  rather than for                            associated with the infection
  • 35. 
    Ehrlichia spp. belong to the same family as the organism that causes:
    • A. 

      Lyme disease

    • B. 

      Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

    • C. 

      Toxoplasmosis

    • D. 

      Infectious Mono

  • 36. 
    One of the most common physical findings in adults with ehrlichiosis is:
    • A. 

      Hives

    • B. 

      Fever

    • C. 

      Erythema migrans

    • D. 

      Nausea

  • 37. 
    Definitive diagnosis of ehrlichiosis requires:
    • A. 

      A complete blood count

    • B. 

      Detection of the presence of lymphocytopenia

    • C. 

      Acute and convalescent serum antibody titers

    • D. 

      Direct microscopic observation of inclusions in leukocytes

  • 38. 
    In human granulocytic ehrlichiosis (anaplasmosis), the diagnosis is confirmed by seroconversion or by a single serological titer of                          in patients with a supporting history and clinical symptoms. 
    • A. 

      1:2

    • B. 

      1:16

    • C. 

      1:80

    • D. 

      1:160

  • 39. 
    In the eastern US, babesiosis is caused by:
    • A. 

      B. microti

    • B. 

      B. canis

    • C. 

      B. bovis

    • D. 

      B. equi

  • 40. 
    Babesiosis is characterized by:
    • A. 

      Fever

    • B. 

      Fatigue

    • C. 

      Hemolytic anemia

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 41. 
    Babesia organisms can be found in:
    • A. 

      Peripheral blood

    • B. 

      Sputum

    • C. 

      Synovial fluid

    • D. 

      Various exudates

  • 42. 
    West Nile virus causes:
    • A. 

      Encephalitis

    • B. 

      Polio

    • C. 

      Measles

    • D. 

      Arthritis

  • 43. 
    West Nile virus is transmitted by:
    • A. 

      Dogs

    • B. 

      Cats

    • C. 

      Rats

    • D. 

      Mosquitos

  • 44. 
    All of the following describe CMV except:
    • A. 

      Herpes family virus

    • B. 

      DNA virus

    • C. 

      Cell-associated virus

    • D. 

      Epidemic worldwide

  • 45. 
    Because CMV can persist latently, an active infection may develop as a result of all the following conditions except:
    • A. 

      Pregnancy

    • B. 

      Immunosuppressive therapy

    • C. 

      Organ or bone marrow transplantation

    • D. 

      Transfusion of leukocyte-poor blood

  • 46. 
    CMV is recognized as the cause of congenital viral infection in what percentage of all live births?
    • A. 

      0.1%-0.4%

    • B. 

      0.4%-2.5%

    • C. 

      2.5%-4.9%

    • D. 

      4.9%-9.9%

  • 47. 
    Transfusion-acquired CMV infection can cause:
    • A. 

      Mono-like syndrome

    • B. 

      Hepatitis

    • C. 

      Rejection of a transplanted organ

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 48. 
    S. pyogenes is the most common causative agent of all of the following disorders and complications except:
    • A. 

      Pharyngitis

    • B. 

      Gastroenteritis

    • C. 

      Scarlet Fever

    • D. 

      Impetigo

  • 49. 
    Antibodies to immediate-early and early antigens are associated with:
    • A. 

      Primary active infection

    • B. 

      Reactivated active infection

    • C. 

      Latent infection

    • D. 

      Either a or b

  • 50. 
    All the herpes viruses share the feature of being:
    • A. 

      RNA viruses

    • B. 

      Small viruses

    • C. 

      Cell-associated viruses

    • D. 

      Nonenveloped viruses

  • 51. 
    A most likely mode of CMV acquisition is:
    • A. 

      Irradiated blood products

    • B. 

      Non-irradiated blood transfusions containing viable leukocytes

    • C. 

      Venereal route

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      Transplant patients

    • B. 

      Seronegative patients

    • C. 

      Seropositive patients

    • D. 

      Health care workers

  • 53. 
    All of the following are methods for the prevention of CMV except:
    • A. 

      Irradiated blood products

    • B. 

      Leukocyte-depleted blood products

    • C. 

      Immune globulin with CMV antibodies

    • D. 

      Transfusion of fresh blood

  • 54. 
    Primary and recurrent maternal CMV infections can be transmitted in utero
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 55. 
    Toxoplasmosis is a                         infection
    • A. 

      Bacterial

    • B. 

      Mycotic

    • C. 

      Parasitic

    • D. 

      Viral

  • 56. 
    CMV is the most common intrauterine infection
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 57. 
    Few CMV infected newborns are asymptomatic
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 58. 
    Normal adults and children usually experience CMV infection without serious complications
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 59. 
    The definitive host of T. gondii is the
    • A. 

      Horse

    • B. 

      Pig

    • C. 

      Dog

    • D. 

      Domestic cat

  • 60. 
    All of the following are specific methods for preventing congenital toxoplasmosis except
    • A. 

      Avoid touching mucous membranes while handling raw meat

    • B. 

      Wash hands thoroughly after handling raw meat

    • C. 

      Eliminate food contamination by flies, cockroaches, and other insects

    • D. 

      Dispose of fecally contaminated cat litter into plastic garbage bags

  • 61. 
    The presence of IgM antibodies to T. gondii in an adult is indicative of a (an):
    • A. 

      Carrier state

    • B. 

      Active infection

    • C. 

      Chronic infection

    • D. 

      Latent disease

  • 62. 
    All of the following characteristics are correct regarding toxoplasmosis except:
    • A. 

      It is recognized as a tissue coccidian

    • B. 

      Domestic dogs are a source of the disease

    • C. 

      It can be transmitted by infected blood

    • D. 

      It can be transmitted transplacentally

  • 63. 
    Toxoplasmosis is a serious health threat to:
    • A. 

      AIDS patients

    • B. 

      Adults

    • C. 

      Children older than 2 years

    • D. 

      Older patients

  • 64. 
    Congenital toxoplasmosis can cause:
    • A. 

      Congenital heart disease

    • B. 

      Central nervous system malformation

    • C. 

      Urinary tract infection

    • D. 

      Muscular disorders

  • 65. 
    Antibodies to T. gondii are demonstrable                       after infection
    • A. 

      3 to 5 days

    • B. 

      Within 10 days

    • C. 

      Within 2 weeks

    • D. 

      Within 4 weeks

  • 66. 
    The method of choice for detecting IgM antibodies in toxoplasmosis is:
    • A. 

      ELISA

    • B. 

      Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA)

    • C. 

      Indirect hemagglutination (IHA)

    • D. 

      Complement fixation (CF)

  • 67. 
    All of the following characteristics are descriptive of M protein except:
    • A. 

      No known biological role

    • B. 

      Found in association with hyaluronic acid

    • C. 

      Inhibits phagocytosis

    • D. 

      Antibody against M protein provides type-specific immunity

  • 68. 
    Substances produced by S. pyogenes include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • B. 

      DNAses (A, B, C, D)

    • C. 

      Erythrogenic toxin

    • D. 

      Interferon

  • 69. 
    Laboratory diagnosis of S. pyogenes can be made by all the following except
    • A. 

      Culturing of throat or nasal specimens

    • B. 

      Febrile agglutinins

    • C. 

      ASO procedure

    • D. 

      Anti-DNase B

  • 70. 
    False ASO results my be caused by all the following except:
    • A. 

      Room temperature reagents and specimens at the time of testing

    • B. 

      The presence of beta-lipoprotein

    • C. 

      Bacterial contamination of serum specimen

    • D. 

      Oxidation of ASO reagent caused by shaking or aeration of reagent vial

  • 71. 
    Members of the S. pyogenes species are almost always                 hemolytic
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Betaa

    • C. 

      Gamma

    • D. 

      Alpha or beta

  • 72. 
    Long-term complications of S. pyogenes infection can include:
    • A. 

      Acute rheumatic fever

    • B. 

      Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

    • C. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • D. 

      Both a and b

  • 73. 
    Particularly  virulent serotypes of S. pyogenes produce proteolytic enzymes that cause                      in a wound or lesion on an extremity
    • A. 

      Necrotizing fasciitis

    • B. 

      Bone degeneration

    • C. 

      Burning and itching

    • D. 

      Severe inflammation

  • 74. 
    All of the following characteristics of S. pyogenes are correct except:
    • A. 

      It is an uncommon pathogen

    • B. 

      It occurs most frequently in school-age children

    • C. 

      It is spread by contact with large droplets produced in the upper respiratory tract

    • D. 

      It has been known to cause foodborne and milkborne epidemics

  • 75. 
    The clinical manifestations of S. pyogenes associated upper respiratory infection are:
    • A. 

      MMild and usually unnoticeable

    • B. 

      Age dependent

    • C. 

      Associated with cold sores

    • D. 

      Difficult to detect

  • 76. 
    The most reliable immunologic test for recent S. pyogenes skin infection is
    • A. 

      ASO

    • B. 

      Anti-DNAse B

    • C. 

      Anti-NADase

    • D. 

      Antibody to erythrogenic toxin

  • 77. 
    If a streptococcal infection is suspected, but the ASO titer does not exceed the reference range, a(an)                 should be performed
    • A. 

      Repeat titer

    • B. 

      Anti-DNAse B test

    • C. 

      Anti-NADase test

    • D. 

      Throat culture

  • 78. 
    The classic test to demonstrate the presence of streptococcal infection are:
    • A. 

      ASO and anti-NADase

    • B. 

      ASO and anti-DNAse B

    • C. 

      Anti-NADase and anti-DNAse B

    • D. 

      Both a and b