3P071 Volume 2 (Airport)

90 Questions | Total Attempts: 40

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3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

VOLUME 2 


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
    • A. 

      Base defense operations center (BDOC).

    • B. 

      Point of insertion.

    • C. 

      Base perimeter.

    • D. 

      Resource.

  • 2. 
    The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
    • A. 

      Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.

    • B. 

      Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    • C. 

      Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    • D. 

      Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

  • 3. 
    At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?
    • A. 

      S1 and S3.

    • B. 

      S2 and S4.

    • C. 

      S2 and S3.

    • D. 

      S3 and S4.

  • 4. 
    What is the staff make-up for the S3?
    • A. 

      The operations officer and staff.

    • B. 

      Supply noncommissioned officer.

    • C. 

      First sergeant or section commander.

    • D. 

      Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.

  • 5. 
    In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
    • A. 

      By rank and function.

    • B. 

      By function and location.

    • C. 

      By service component or function.

    • D. 

      By service component and location.

  • 6. 
    The primary mission of a joint operation is
    • A. 

      Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.

    • B. 

      Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.

    • C. 

      Disaster relief operations.

    • D. 

      Humanitarian operations.

  • 7. 
    When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
    • A. 

      Determine which other countries support their beliefs.

    • B. 

      Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.

    • C. 

      Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.

    • D. 

      Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

  • 8. 
    A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
    • A. 

      Non-state-supported.

    • B. 

      State-supported.

    • C. 

      Stated-directed.

    • D. 

      State-organized.

  • 9. 
    A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
    • A. 

      Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.

    • B. 

      Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.

    • C. 

      Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.

    • D. 

      Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.

  • 10. 
    Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
    • A. 

      16–24.

    • B. 

      21–28.

    • C. 

      23–30.

    • D. 

      25–32.

  • 11. 
    When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
    • A. 

      Before execution of attack.

    • B. 

      Just before departing for the target sight.

    • C. 

      One week prior to scheduled attack execution.

    • D. 

      Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.

  • 12. 
    The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
    • A. 

      Arson.

    • B. 

      Bombing.

    • C. 

      Hijacking.

    • D. 

      Assassination.

  • 13. 
    The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
    • A. 

      State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).

    • B. 

      Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.

    • C. 

      Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.

    • D. 

      Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.

  • 14. 
    What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
    • A. 

      Activity.

    • B. 

      Intentions.

    • C. 

      Operational capability.

    • D. 

      Operating environment.

  • 15. 
    Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
    • A. 

      Communication security (COMSEC).

    • B. 

      Computer security (COMPUSEC).

    • C. 

      Information security (INFOSEC).

    • D. 

      Operations security (OPSEC).

  • 16. 
    The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
    • A. 

      Support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.

    • B. 

      Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.

    • C. 

      Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.

    • D. 

      Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.

  • 17. 
    When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
    • A. 

      At the earliest possible moment.

    • B. 

      Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.

    • C. 

      Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.

    • D. 

      Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.

  • 18. 
    Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      III.

    • D. 

      IV.

  • 19. 
    Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
    • A. 

      Partisans.

    • B. 

      Terrorists.

    • C. 

      Sympathizers.

    • D. 

      Agent activity.

  • 20. 
    Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
    • A. 

      IV.

    • B. 

      III.

    • C. 

      II.

    • D. 

      I.

  • 21. 
    Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      III.

    • D. 

      IV.

  • 22. 
    What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
    • A. 

      Force protection (FP) working.

    • B. 

      Anti-terrorism working.

    • C. 

      Physical security.

    • D. 

      Threat working.

  • 23. 
    Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
    • A. 

      Annual process.

    • B. 

      Bi-annual process.

    • C. 

      Monthly process.

    • D. 

      Continual process.

  • 24. 
    What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
    • A. 

      Risk.

    • B. 

      Threat.

    • C. 

      Vulnerability.

    • D. 

      Anti-terrorism.

  • 25. 
    The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
    • A. 

      The classified protection plan.

    • B. 

      Protecting sensitive information.

    • C. 

      The offensive force protection plan.

    • D. 

      The defensive force protection plan.