3P071 Volume 2 (Airport)
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A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
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Non-state-supported.
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State-supported.
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Stated-directed.
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State-organized.
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This quiz, titled '3P071 Volume 2 (Airport)', assesses knowledge on tactical areas of responsibility, air base defense, and operations within base defense. It is designed for learners aiming to understand military operational tactics and defense readiness at air bases.
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- 2.
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
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Arson.
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Bombing.
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Hijacking.
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Assassination.
Correct Answer
A. Bombing.Explanation
The correct answer is bombing because terrorist groups often resort to using explosives to cause destruction, fear, and casualties. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as through suicide attacks, car bombings, or the use of improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic allows terrorists to target crowded areas, public transportation, or specific individuals or buildings, aiming to maximize the impact and generate widespread panic and chaos.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?
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Bare base (BB).
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Standby base (SB).
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Main operating base (MOB).
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Collocated operating base (COB).
Correct Answer
A. Main operating base (MOB).Explanation
A main operating base (MOB) refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure in place. This means that it is fully equipped and ready to carry out its intended operations without any major additional setup or construction required. The term "main" suggests that it is a primary or central base, indicating its significance and importance in a military or organizational context.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
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At the earliest possible moment.
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Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.
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Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.
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Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.
Correct Answer
A. At the earliest possible moment.Explanation
Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is because early identification allows them to make informed decisions and develop effective strategies based on the available information. By identifying critical information early on, commanders can allocate resources, assign tasks, and develop contingency plans accordingly. This proactive approach ensures that commanders and planners are well-prepared and can mitigate potential risks or challenges that may arise during the mission.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the
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United Nations.
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Geneva Convention.
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Joint force commander’s directives.
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US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).
Correct Answer
A. US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).Explanation
The correct answer is US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE). This is because the rules of engagement outline when and how military personnel can use force, including self-defense, during operations. It provides guidance to ensure that force is applied appropriately and in accordance with international laws and regulations. The United Nations and the Geneva Convention may provide broader guidelines, but the US military's ROE specifically addresses the application of force and self-defense for its personnel. Joint force commander's directives may also provide guidance, but they are not as specific or universally applicable as the ROE.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?
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A scrape out.
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A shell crate.
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Peak of a roof.
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Under a parked vehicle.
Correct Answer
A. Peak of a roof.Explanation
The peak of a roof is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area because it provides a high vantage point and a clear view of the surroundings. Being elevated on a roof allows the marksman to have a wider field of vision, making it easier to spot and target potential threats. Additionally, the peak of a roof offers some protection and cover, as it is harder for others to see and reach the marksman in this position.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?
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400.
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600.
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800.
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1,000.
Correct Answer
A. 800.Explanation
In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within 800 meters of the element.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Where is the best position for you to locate an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP)?
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In a water tower.
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In a stand-alone position.
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In a single small gathering of trees.
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In a position that doesn’t draw attention.
Correct Answer
A. In a position that doesn’t draw attention.Explanation
The best position for an observation post or listening post is one that doesn't draw attention. This is because the purpose of such posts is to observe and gather information without being detected by the enemy or any other potential threat. By choosing a position that doesn't draw attention, the post can remain covert and effectively carry out its surveillance activities. This could include blending in with the surroundings, such as in a natural or inconspicuous location, or adopting camouflage techniques to remain undetected.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
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Before execution of attack.
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Just before departing for the target sight.
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One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
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Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
Correct Answer
A. Just before departing for the target sight.Explanation
Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This suggests that the team members gather to practice and coordinate their plans shortly before carrying out the attack. The timing of the rehearsal indicates that it is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the mission, as it allows the team members to synchronize their actions and address any last-minute issues or concerns.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations
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Follow the rule of law.
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Meet manning standards.
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Follow national policy goals.
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Follow mission requirements.
Correct Answer
A. Meet manning standards.Explanation
The question is asking which option is not a purpose of commanders using rules of engagement (ROE). Rules of engagement are guidelines that dictate how military personnel should act in various situations. They are used to ensure that operations are conducted in accordance with the rule of law, follow national policy goals, and meet mission requirements. However, they do not specifically address the issue of meeting manning standards, which refers to having an adequate number of personnel for a given operation. Therefore, the correct answer is "meet manning standards."Rate this question:
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- 11.
What provides key information to the defense force commander (DFC) and support staffs (S staff) on specific air base defense (ABD) activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?
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Maps.
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Signals.
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Reports.
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Telegrams.
Correct Answer
A. Reports.Explanation
Reports provide key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air base defense activities. These reports contain detailed and relevant information about the current situation, such as enemy movements, vulnerabilities, and potential threats. By analyzing these reports, the DFC and S staffs can make informed decisions, develop tactical plans, and issue orders accordingly. Maps provide visual representation, signals are used for communication, and telegrams are a form of communication, but reports are specifically designed to provide comprehensive information for decision-making and planning.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
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ENGAGEMENT ZONE.
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AMBUSH ZONE.
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DEATH ZONE.
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KILL ZONE.
Correct Answer
A. KILL ZONE.Explanation
During ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as the "kill zone" because it accurately describes the purpose of that specific area. The kill zone is the area where the ambush force intends to concentrate their fire and inflict maximum damage on the enemy. It is strategically chosen and carefully planned to ensure that the enemy is trapped and unable to escape, resulting in a high likelihood of casualties. The term "kill zone" emphasizes the aggressive and lethal intent of the ambush, highlighting the objective of eliminating or incapacitating the enemy.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to
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Indicate enemy location using flares.
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Protect themselves.
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Report information.
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Observe the area.
Correct Answer
A. Indicate enemy location using flares.Explanation
OP/LP teams are not equipped to indicate enemy location using flares. This means that they do not have the necessary equipment or tools to use flares as a means of revealing the location of the enemy. Flares are often used for signaling or illuminating an area, but they are not effective in specifically indicating the location of the enemy. The primary tasks of OP/LP teams are to protect themselves, report information, and observe the area for any enemy activity.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the staff make-up for the S3?
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The operations officer and staff.
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Supply noncommissioned officer.
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First sergeant or section commander.
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Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
Correct Answer
A. The operations officer and staff.Explanation
The correct answer is the operations officer and staff. This suggests that the staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and their team. The S3 is typically responsible for planning and coordinating operations within a military unit, so it makes sense that their staff would consist of individuals who support these functions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
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Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
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Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
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Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
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Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
Correct Answer
A. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.Explanation
The correct answer is "Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies." When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, their mission is to use violence and intimidation to force governments to change their policies. This can include demanding the withdrawal of troops from certain regions, advocating for the release of prisoners, or pushing for the adoption of certain ideologies. The aim is to create fear and pressure governments into making concessions or altering their actions in line with the terrorists' beliefs.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
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Activity.
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Intentions.
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Operational capability.
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Operating environment.
Correct Answer
A. Intentions.Explanation
The correct answer is "Intentions." The question is asking about the factor that relates to the desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. Intentions refer to the motives or goals behind these attacks, indicating the underlying purpose or objective that drives terrorists to target US interests. This factor focuses on the ideological, political, or religious motivations that terrorists may have in carrying out their attacks. It does not directly address the specific actions, resources, or conditions involved in executing the attacks, which are covered by other factors such as operational capability and operating environment.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
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Communication security (COMSEC).
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Computer security (COMPUSEC).
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Information security (INFOSEC).
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Operations security (OPSEC).
Correct Answer
A. Operations security (OPSEC).Explanation
Operations security (OPSEC) is the correct answer because it refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information that could be exploited by adversaries. OPSEC involves identifying critical information, analyzing potential threats, and implementing countermeasures to prevent unauthorized access. It focuses on safeguarding operational activities, plans, and tactics to ensure the protection of sensitive information from intelligence collection efforts. Communication security (COMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and information security (INFOSEC) are also important components of overall security, but they do not specifically address the protection of operational activities like OPSEC does.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
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Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).
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Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).
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Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC).
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Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).
Correct Answer
A. Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).Explanation
The correct answer is "camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD)." This term refers to the capability of reducing the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through various techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying. It involves the use of materials and equipment that alter or obscure the multispectral signatures of friendly assets and aim points.Rate this question:
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- 19.
To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
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Hide.
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Blend.
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Decoy.
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Disguise.
Correct Answer
A. Disguise.Explanation
The correct answer is "disguise." Disguise refers to the act of altering or concealing the true identity or character of something or someone. It involves modifying or changing the appearance or behavior to prevent recognition. This can be done to deceive others or to protect the true nature of an asset or activity.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What should always be your first priority of work?
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Establish local security.
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Emplace obstacles and mines.
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Prepare primary fighting positions.
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Mark or improve marking for target reference points (TRP).
Correct Answer
A. Establish local security.Explanation
Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate surroundings. By establishing local security, individuals can identify and prevent potential threats or attacks, allowing them to focus on other tasks without compromising their safety. This step creates a secure environment, enabling effective execution of subsequent tasks such as emplacing obstacles and mines, preparing primary fighting positions, and marking or improving marking for target reference points (TRP).Rate this question:
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- 21.
What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?
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When you have made contact with the enemy.
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When time and materials are not a factor.
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When there is ample natural cover.
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When aerial strikes are imminent.
Correct Answer
A. When you have made contact with the enemy.Explanation
When you have made contact with the enemy, it becomes necessary to dig hasty firing positions in the field. This is because the enemy poses a threat and having firing positions allows the soldiers to take cover, protect themselves, and engage in combat effectively. It provides them with a strategic advantage by offering a safe vantage point to engage the enemy while minimizing their own exposure. Digging hasty firing positions ensures the soldiers are prepared for immediate action and can respond swiftly to any threats posed by the enemy.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
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Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) locations and patrol routes, if any.
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Maximum engagement lines for the light anti-tank weapons (LAW)/AT–4s.
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Mines (claymores), sensors, and obstacles.
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Location of home station flight.
Correct Answer
A. Location of home station flight.Explanation
The location of the home station flight does not need to be shown on a sketch. A sketch is typically used to depict important information such as observation post locations, patrol routes, maximum engagement lines for weapons, mines, sensors, and obstacles. The location of the home station flight is not relevant to the sketch as it does not directly impact the tactical situation or operations being depicted.Rate this question:
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- 23.
You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the
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Number of troops required guarding it.
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Amount of time it would take to patrol the area.
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Need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain.
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Necessity of care and maintenance required for a larger area.
Correct Answer
A. Need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain.Explanation
Making restricted areas as small as possible helps in eliminating the need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain. By reducing the size of the restricted area, fewer resources and troops are required to guard it. This minimizes the amount of time it would take to patrol the area and reduces the necessity of care and maintenance for a larger area. Therefore, by making restricted areas smaller, the need to secure and maintain unnecessary terrain is eliminated.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
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16–24.
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21–28.
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23–30.
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25–32.
Correct Answer
A. 23–30.Explanation
Specially trained terrorists are typically of above average intelligence and fall within a certain age range. The answer 23–30 is the most suitable because it falls within the range of 16–24 and also takes into account the higher end of the age range, which is 30. This age range is considered optimal for individuals to undergo specialized training and carry out terrorist activities effectively.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
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State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).
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Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
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Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.
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Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.
Correct Answer
A. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.Explanation
The correct answer is Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. This answer accurately reflects the three principles that the USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around. FPCON refers to the level of security measures implemented to protect military personnel and assets. Assessment factors are used to evaluate potential threats and vulnerabilities. Threat levels indicate the level of risk or danger posed by a specific threat. These three principles work together to form the basis of the program's approach to combating terrorism.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
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Annual process.
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Bi-annual process.
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Monthly process.
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Continual process.
Correct Answer
A. Continual process.Explanation
The correct answer is "continual process." Threat analysts compile and examine all available information concerning potential threats on an ongoing and continuous basis. This means that they constantly monitor and assess the information to stay updated and informed about any potential threats. It is not a one-time or periodic process but rather a continuous and ongoing effort to ensure the timely identification and mitigation of potential threats.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
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Quarantine.
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Peacekeeping.
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Clandestine infiltration.
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Humanitarian assistance.
Correct Answer
A. Clandestine infiltration.Explanation
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) focus on non-combat activities that support peace and stability. Quarantine is a measure implemented during times of public health emergencies, which falls under the realm of MOOTW. Peacekeeping involves maintaining peace in conflict zones, while humanitarian assistance provides aid and support to affected populations. However, clandestine infiltration refers to covert operations and is not typically associated with MOOTW missions, which prioritize non-aggressive actions.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
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Anticipate.
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Detect.
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Delay.
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Deny.
Correct Answer
A. Delay.Explanation
Delay is the correct answer because it refers to the element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept that aims to slow down the enemy without requiring a large-scale response at the beginning of an engagement. By implementing delaying tactics, such as obstacles or defensive positions, the defender can buy time and create opportunities for a more effective response. This approach allows for a more strategic and controlled defense, minimizing the need for an immediate and overwhelming response.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
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Unity of command.
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Simplicity.
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Objective.
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Offensive.
Correct Answer
A. Simplicity.Explanation
The principle of war that is related to avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is Simplicity. This principle emphasizes the importance of keeping military operations straightforward and uncomplicated, reducing the chances of confusion, miscommunication, and errors. By focusing on simplicity, military forces can streamline their operations, enhance efficiency, and increase the likelihood of success in achieving their objectives.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?
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Prevent unnecessary suffering.
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Prevent use of political influence.
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Maintain a well-defined military plan.
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Provide equal representation of all combatants.
Correct Answer
A. Prevent unnecessary suffering.Explanation
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) serves to prevent unnecessary suffering during armed conflicts. It establishes rules and regulations that aim to minimize the harm and suffering inflicted on individuals involved in warfare. By prohibiting certain actions and methods of warfare, such as targeting civilians or using excessive force, the LOAC seeks to protect human rights and ensure that conflicts are conducted in a more humane manner. This helps to uphold basic principles of humanity and promote the preservation of life and dignity in times of war.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Against what threat levels can close precision engagement (CPE) add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?
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III and IV.
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II and III.
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II and IV.
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I and IV.
Correct Answer
A. II and III.Explanation
Close precision engagement (CPE) can significantly enhance the standoff capabilities of defense forces against threat levels II and III. This means that CPE can effectively contribute to delaying actions when facing moderate to high-level threats. It allows defense forces to engage targets accurately and from a safe distance, minimizing the risk to their own personnel and assets. By leveraging advanced targeting systems and precision-guided munitions, CPE enables defense forces to effectively engage and neutralize threats without having to expose themselves to direct confrontation.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The immediate impression the entry control facility (ECF) must impart through its design is one of
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Strict and rigid rules.
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Relaxation and friendliness.
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Professionalism and commitment.
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Openness, professionalism and commitment.
Correct Answer
A. Professionalism and commitment.Explanation
The entry control facility (ECF) is responsible for ensuring the security and safety of a location. It needs to convey a sense of professionalism and commitment in order to instill confidence in its ability to carry out its duties effectively. This includes maintaining strict protocols and rules, as well as demonstrating a high level of professionalism in interactions with individuals entering the facility. By doing so, the ECF can create an environment that is both secure and welcoming.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The primary mission of a joint operation is
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Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
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Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
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Disaster relief operations.
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Humanitarian operations.
Correct Answer
A. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.Explanation
A joint operation refers to a military operation that involves multiple branches or services of the armed forces working together towards a common objective. The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the operation aims to provide ongoing support, resources, and logistics required to maintain and continue the overall military campaign and major operations. This includes ensuring the availability of supplies, equipment, personnel, and other essential resources needed for the success of the joint force's mission.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
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Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
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Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
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Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.
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Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.
Correct Answer
A. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.Explanation
The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the top leaders who make strategic decisions and provide guidance to the group. The "active cadre" represents the core members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group, such as logistics or financial support. Lastly, the "passive support" represents individuals who may sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively participate in its activities.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
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Partisans.
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Terrorists.
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Sympathizers.
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Agent activity.
Correct Answer
A. Sympathizers.Explanation
Sympathizers are individuals who support and show empathy towards a particular cause or group. In the context of the given question, sympathizers engage in random acts against targets of opportunity. This suggests that they may not have a specific plan or strategy, but rather act impulsively based on their emotional connection to the cause or group they support. This behavior is different from partisans, who are more organized and have a clear agenda, and terrorists, who use violence and intimidation for political or ideological purposes. Agent activity refers to the actions of individuals working undercover or on behalf of an organization, which is not relevant to the question.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities
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Through the Department of State, Drug Enforcement Agency, and Immigration and Naturalization Service.
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With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).
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Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere.
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Through the joint rear area commander (JRAC).
Correct Answer
A. With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).Explanation
The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) necessitates coordination with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD). This is because MOOTW involves activities such as humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, and peacekeeping, which require collaboration with various organizations and agencies that specialize in these areas. By working with these external entities, the military can leverage their expertise, resources, and networks to effectively carry out MOOTW missions and achieve the desired outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 37.
How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?
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5 days.
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7 days.
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14 days.
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30 days.
Correct Answer
A. 5 days.Explanation
The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This means that these units have the necessary resources and capabilities to operate independently for a period of 5 days before requiring any external support or assistance.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Once fully implemented, what will the Integrated Base Defense Security System (IBDSS) greatly enhance in base defensive operations?
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Alarms and detection.
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Detection and security.
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Security and prevention.
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Detection and alert notifications.
Correct Answer
A. Detection and security.Explanation
The Integrated Base Defense Security System (IBDSS) will greatly enhance both detection and security in base defensive operations. This means that the system will not only be able to detect potential threats and intrusions more effectively, but it will also provide enhanced security measures to prevent these threats from causing harm. By combining advanced detection technologies with robust security protocols, the IBDSS will significantly improve the overall defensive capabilities of the base.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA) is shown with
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A red line.
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A temporary sign.
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Rope marking off the area.
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Posted guards every 50 feet.
Correct Answer
A. A temporary sign.Explanation
The correct answer is a temporary sign. This is because a temporary sign is the most common and practical way to establish a national defense area (NDA). It can be easily placed and removed as needed, providing clear indication to people that they are entering a restricted area. A red line, rope marking, or posted guards every 50 feet may also be used in certain situations, but they are not as commonly used or as effective as a temporary sign.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
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Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
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Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
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Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
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Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
Correct Answer
A. Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.Explanation
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is to defeat level I threats, which are the most immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are slightly less immediate but still pose a significant risk. This ensures the protection of the air base and its assets by neutralizing immediate threats and impeding the progress of potential threats in the surrounding tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).Rate this question:
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- 41.
Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?
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Detectors.
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Monitors.
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Fighters.
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Sensors.
Correct Answer
A. Sensors.Explanation
Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), all Airmen are considered sensors. This means that they are responsible for observing and reporting any potential threats or suspicious activities in order to maintain the security of the base. Airmen play a critical role in detecting and monitoring any potential risks, thus acting as sensors in the overall defense system.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
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UT.
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FP.
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AT.
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QF.
Correct Answer
A. QF.Explanation
All security forces UTCs will have "QF" as a designator. The question states that unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, and based on this information, it can be inferred that each functional group will have a specific designator. Therefore, since the question specifically asks about security forces UTCs, the correct answer would be "QF."Rate this question:
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- 43.
Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?
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Man-made and fabricated.
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Natural and structural.
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Hard and soft.
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Left and right.
Correct Answer
A. Natural and structural.Explanation
Protective barriers can be classified into two major categories: natural and structural. Natural barriers refer to naturally occurring features such as mountains, rivers, or forests that act as obstacles to protect an area. On the other hand, structural barriers are man-made constructions designed to provide protection, such as walls, fences, or dams. These two categories encompass the different types of barriers that can be utilized to safeguard an area from potential threats or dangers.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?
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Support.
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Foundation.
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Tactical operation.
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Retrograde operations.
Correct Answer
A. Foundation.Explanation
The security forces (SF) provide the foundation for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept. This means that they establish the basic structure and framework upon which the IBD concept is built. The SF play a crucial role in ensuring the security and protection of the base by implementing measures such as access control, perimeter security, and surveillance. They provide the necessary groundwork and infrastructure to support the overall defense strategy of the base.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What unit type code (UTC) is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for the mortar teams?
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QFEBK.
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QFEBR.
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QFEBJ.
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QFERT.
Correct Answer
A. QFEBK.Explanation
The correct answer is QFEBK. This is because the question asks for the unit type code (UTC) that is essential for directing fire and providing support for the mortar teams. Among the given options, QFEBK is the only choice that fits this description.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?
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Weather.
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Treaties.
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Intelligence.
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Political climate.
Correct Answer
A. Treaties.Explanation
The pre-deployment factor that is considered a constant is treaties. Unlike weather, intelligence, and political climate, treaties are legally binding agreements between countries that are not subject to change or fluctuations. Treaties provide a stable framework for international relations and are typically long-term commitments that remain in effect unless they are renegotiated or terminated by the involved parties. Therefore, treaties can be relied upon as a constant factor when considering pre-deployment planning and decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space
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Ground defense.
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Clandestine.
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Intelligence.
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Aerial.
Correct Answer
A. Intelligence.Explanation
Intelligence operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space. Ground defense refers to the protection of a specific area, while clandestine operations involve secrecy and hidden activities. Aerial operations refer to activities conducted in the air. However, it is intelligence operations that provide crucial information and analysis about the enemy, terrain, and other relevant factors, enabling military commanders to make informed decisions and effectively plan their actions on the battlefield.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?
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The entire base tactical boundary.
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The entire air base defense (ABD) plan.
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The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).
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The limiting factors to the defense of the air base.
Correct Answer
A. The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).Explanation
The defense force commander (DFC) should consider the entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources. This means that the DFC should take into account the entire area for which they are responsible for defending, ensuring that all resources within this area are adequately protected. By considering the TAOR, the DFC can effectively allocate resources, establish defensive positions, and coordinate operations to protect the base critical resources from potential threats.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the main mission of the machine gun?
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To provide a high rate of fire to fight off enemy attacks.
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To protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions.
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To protect the wounded and critical resources from further injury or destruction.
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To provide the most effective firepower again any weapon the enemy can attack with.
Correct Answer
A. To protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions.Explanation
The main mission of the machine gun is to protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions. This means that the machine gun is not only used to fight off enemy attacks, but also to actively engage in offensive operations and protect important resources. It is a versatile weapon that can be used in various scenarios to ensure the safety and security of the defending forces.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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May 03, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 13, 2016Quiz Created by
Kk07x
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