3P071 Volume 2 (Airport)

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1. A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

Explanation

The correct answer is state-supported. A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is considered state-supported. This means that while the group may not be directly controlled or directed by the government, it is receiving assistance, whether it be financial, logistical, or otherwise, from the government(s) in question. This support can range from providing funding and weapons to offering safe havens and training facilities.

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About This Quiz
3P071 Volume 2 (Airport) - Quiz

This quiz, titled '3P071 Volume 2 (Airport)', assesses knowledge on tactical areas of responsibility, air base defense, and operations within base defense. It is designed for learners aiming to understand military operational tactics and defense readiness at air bases.

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2. The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

Explanation

The correct answer is bombing because terrorist groups often resort to using explosives to cause destruction, fear, and casualties. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as through suicide attacks, car bombings, or the use of improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic allows terrorists to target crowded areas, public transportation, or specific individuals or buildings, aiming to maximize the impact and generate widespread panic and chaos.

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3. What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?

Explanation

A main operating base (MOB) refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure in place. This means that it is fully equipped and ready to carry out its intended operations without any major additional setup or construction required. The term "main" suggests that it is a primary or central base, indicating its significance and importance in a military or organizational context.

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4. When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

Explanation

Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is because early identification allows them to make informed decisions and develop effective strategies based on the available information. By identifying critical information early on, commanders can allocate resources, assign tasks, and develop contingency plans accordingly. This proactive approach ensures that commanders and planners are well-prepared and can mitigate potential risks or challenges that may arise during the mission.

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5. Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

Explanation

The correct answer is US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE). This is because the rules of engagement outline when and how military personnel can use force, including self-defense, during operations. It provides guidance to ensure that force is applied appropriately and in accordance with international laws and regulations. The United Nations and the Geneva Convention may provide broader guidelines, but the US military's ROE specifically addresses the application of force and self-defense for its personnel. Joint force commander's directives may also provide guidance, but they are not as specific or universally applicable as the ROE.

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6. Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

Explanation

The peak of a roof is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area because it provides a high vantage point and a clear view of the surroundings. Being elevated on a roof allows the marksman to have a wider field of vision, making it easier to spot and target potential threats. Additionally, the peak of a roof offers some protection and cover, as it is harder for others to see and reach the marksman in this position.

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7. In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?

Explanation

In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within 800 meters of the element.

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8. Where is the best position for you to locate an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP)?

Explanation

The best position for an observation post or listening post is one that doesn't draw attention. This is because the purpose of such posts is to observe and gather information without being detected by the enemy or any other potential threat. By choosing a position that doesn't draw attention, the post can remain covert and effectively carry out its surveillance activities. This could include blending in with the surroundings, such as in a natural or inconspicuous location, or adopting camouflage techniques to remain undetected.

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9. When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This suggests that the team members gather to practice and coordinate their plans shortly before carrying out the attack. The timing of the rehearsal indicates that it is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the mission, as it allows the team members to synchronize their actions and address any last-minute issues or concerns.

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10. Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations

Explanation

The question is asking which option is not a purpose of commanders using rules of engagement (ROE). Rules of engagement are guidelines that dictate how military personnel should act in various situations. They are used to ensure that operations are conducted in accordance with the rule of law, follow national policy goals, and meet mission requirements. However, they do not specifically address the issue of meeting manning standards, which refers to having an adequate number of personnel for a given operation. Therefore, the correct answer is "meet manning standards."

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11. What provides key information to the defense force commander (DFC) and support staffs (S staff) on specific air base defense (ABD) activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?

Explanation

Reports provide key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air base defense activities. These reports contain detailed and relevant information about the current situation, such as enemy movements, vulnerabilities, and potential threats. By analyzing these reports, the DFC and S staffs can make informed decisions, develop tactical plans, and issue orders accordingly. Maps provide visual representation, signals are used for communication, and telegrams are a form of communication, but reports are specifically designed to provide comprehensive information for decision-making and planning.

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12. When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as

Explanation

During ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as the "kill zone" because it accurately describes the purpose of that specific area. The kill zone is the area where the ambush force intends to concentrate their fire and inflict maximum damage on the enemy. It is strategically chosen and carefully planned to ensure that the enemy is trapped and unable to escape, resulting in a high likelihood of casualties. The term "kill zone" emphasizes the aggressive and lethal intent of the ambush, highlighting the objective of eliminating or incapacitating the enemy.

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13. Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to

Explanation

OP/LP teams are not equipped to indicate enemy location using flares. This means that they do not have the necessary equipment or tools to use flares as a means of revealing the location of the enemy. Flares are often used for signaling or illuminating an area, but they are not effective in specifically indicating the location of the enemy. The primary tasks of OP/LP teams are to protect themselves, report information, and observe the area for any enemy activity.

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14. What is the staff make-up for the S3?

Explanation

The correct answer is the operations officer and staff. This suggests that the staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and their team. The S3 is typically responsible for planning and coordinating operations within a military unit, so it makes sense that their staff would consist of individuals who support these functions.

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15. When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies." When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, their mission is to use violence and intimidation to force governments to change their policies. This can include demanding the withdrawal of troops from certain regions, advocating for the release of prisoners, or pushing for the adoption of certain ideologies. The aim is to create fear and pressure governments into making concessions or altering their actions in line with the terrorists' beliefs.

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16. What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Intentions." The question is asking about the factor that relates to the desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. Intentions refer to the motives or goals behind these attacks, indicating the underlying purpose or objective that drives terrorists to target US interests. This factor focuses on the ideological, political, or religious motivations that terrorists may have in carrying out their attacks. It does not directly address the specific actions, resources, or conditions involved in executing the attacks, which are covered by other factors such as operational capability and operating environment.

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17. Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

Explanation

Operations security (OPSEC) is the correct answer because it refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information that could be exploited by adversaries. OPSEC involves identifying critical information, analyzing potential threats, and implementing countermeasures to prevent unauthorized access. It focuses on safeguarding operational activities, plans, and tactics to ensure the protection of sensitive information from intelligence collection efforts. Communication security (COMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and information security (INFOSEC) are also important components of overall security, but they do not specifically address the protection of operational activities like OPSEC does.

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18. The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is

Explanation

The correct answer is "camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD)." This term refers to the capability of reducing the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through various techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying. It involves the use of materials and equipment that alter or obscure the multispectral signatures of friendly assets and aim points.

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19. To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to

Explanation

The correct answer is "disguise." Disguise refers to the act of altering or concealing the true identity or character of something or someone. It involves modifying or changing the appearance or behavior to prevent recognition. This can be done to deceive others or to protect the true nature of an asset or activity.

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20. What should always be your first priority of work?

Explanation

Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate surroundings. By establishing local security, individuals can identify and prevent potential threats or attacks, allowing them to focus on other tasks without compromising their safety. This step creates a secure environment, enabling effective execution of subsequent tasks such as emplacing obstacles and mines, preparing primary fighting positions, and marking or improving marking for target reference points (TRP).

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21. What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?

Explanation

When you have made contact with the enemy, it becomes necessary to dig hasty firing positions in the field. This is because the enemy poses a threat and having firing positions allows the soldiers to take cover, protect themselves, and engage in combat effectively. It provides them with a strategic advantage by offering a safe vantage point to engage the enemy while minimizing their own exposure. Digging hasty firing positions ensures the soldiers are prepared for immediate action and can respond swiftly to any threats posed by the enemy.

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22. What does not need to be shown on a sketch?

Explanation

The location of the home station flight does not need to be shown on a sketch. A sketch is typically used to depict important information such as observation post locations, patrol routes, maximum engagement lines for weapons, mines, sensors, and obstacles. The location of the home station flight is not relevant to the sketch as it does not directly impact the tactical situation or operations being depicted.

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23. You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the

Explanation

Making restricted areas as small as possible helps in eliminating the need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain. By reducing the size of the restricted area, fewer resources and troops are required to guard it. This minimizes the amount of time it would take to patrol the area and reduces the necessity of care and maintenance for a larger area. Therefore, by making restricted areas smaller, the need to secure and maintain unnecessary terrain is eliminated.

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24. Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

Explanation

Specially trained terrorists are typically of above average intelligence and fall within a certain age range. The answer 23–30 is the most suitable because it falls within the range of 16–24 and also takes into account the higher end of the age range, which is 30. This age range is considered optimal for individuals to undergo specialized training and carry out terrorist activities effectively.

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25. The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?

Explanation

The correct answer is Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. This answer accurately reflects the three principles that the USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around. FPCON refers to the level of security measures implemented to protect military personnel and assets. Assessment factors are used to evaluate potential threats and vulnerabilities. Threat levels indicate the level of risk or danger posed by a specific threat. These three principles work together to form the basis of the program's approach to combating terrorism.

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26. Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

Explanation

The correct answer is "continual process." Threat analysts compile and examine all available information concerning potential threats on an ongoing and continuous basis. This means that they constantly monitor and assess the information to stay updated and informed about any potential threats. It is not a one-time or periodic process but rather a continuous and ongoing effort to ensure the timely identification and mitigation of potential threats.

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27. Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include

Explanation

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) focus on non-combat activities that support peace and stability. Quarantine is a measure implemented during times of public health emergencies, which falls under the realm of MOOTW. Peacekeeping involves maintaining peace in conflict zones, while humanitarian assistance provides aid and support to affected populations. However, clandestine infiltration refers to covert operations and is not typically associated with MOOTW missions, which prioritize non-aggressive actions.

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28. Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

Explanation

Delay is the correct answer because it refers to the element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept that aims to slow down the enemy without requiring a large-scale response at the beginning of an engagement. By implementing delaying tactics, such as obstacles or defensive positions, the defender can buy time and create opportunities for a more effective response. This approach allows for a more strategic and controlled defense, minimizing the need for an immediate and overwhelming response.

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29. Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?

Explanation

The principle of war that is related to avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is Simplicity. This principle emphasizes the importance of keeping military operations straightforward and uncomplicated, reducing the chances of confusion, miscommunication, and errors. By focusing on simplicity, military forces can streamline their operations, enhance efficiency, and increase the likelihood of success in achieving their objectives.

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30. What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?

Explanation

The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) serves to prevent unnecessary suffering during armed conflicts. It establishes rules and regulations that aim to minimize the harm and suffering inflicted on individuals involved in warfare. By prohibiting certain actions and methods of warfare, such as targeting civilians or using excessive force, the LOAC seeks to protect human rights and ensure that conflicts are conducted in a more humane manner. This helps to uphold basic principles of humanity and promote the preservation of life and dignity in times of war.

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31. Against what threat levels can close precision engagement (CPE) add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?

Explanation

Close precision engagement (CPE) can significantly enhance the standoff capabilities of defense forces against threat levels II and III. This means that CPE can effectively contribute to delaying actions when facing moderate to high-level threats. It allows defense forces to engage targets accurately and from a safe distance, minimizing the risk to their own personnel and assets. By leveraging advanced targeting systems and precision-guided munitions, CPE enables defense forces to effectively engage and neutralize threats without having to expose themselves to direct confrontation.

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32. The immediate impression the entry control facility (ECF) must impart through its design is one of       

Explanation

The entry control facility (ECF) is responsible for ensuring the security and safety of a location. It needs to convey a sense of professionalism and commitment in order to instill confidence in its ability to carry out its duties effectively. This includes maintaining strict protocols and rules, as well as demonstrating a high level of professionalism in interactions with individuals entering the facility. By doing so, the ECF can create an environment that is both secure and welcoming.

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33. The primary mission of a joint operation is

Explanation

A joint operation refers to a military operation that involves multiple branches or services of the armed forces working together towards a common objective. The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the operation aims to provide ongoing support, resources, and logistics required to maintain and continue the overall military campaign and major operations. This includes ensuring the availability of supplies, equipment, personnel, and other essential resources needed for the success of the joint force's mission.

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34. A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of

Explanation

The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the top leaders who make strategic decisions and provide guidance to the group. The "active cadre" represents the core members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group, such as logistics or financial support. Lastly, the "passive support" represents individuals who may sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively participate in its activities.

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35. Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Explanation

Sympathizers are individuals who support and show empathy towards a particular cause or group. In the context of the given question, sympathizers engage in random acts against targets of opportunity. This suggests that they may not have a specific plan or strategy, but rather act impulsively based on their emotional connection to the cause or group they support. This behavior is different from partisans, who are more organized and have a clear agenda, and terrorists, who use violence and intimidation for political or ideological purposes. Agent activity refers to the actions of individuals working undercover or on behalf of an organization, which is not relevant to the question.

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36. The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities

Explanation

The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) necessitates coordination with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD). This is because MOOTW involves activities such as humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, and peacekeeping, which require collaboration with various organizations and agencies that specialize in these areas. By working with these external entities, the military can leverage their expertise, resources, and networks to effectively carry out MOOTW missions and achieve the desired outcomes.

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37. How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?

Explanation

The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This means that these units have the necessary resources and capabilities to operate independently for a period of 5 days before requiring any external support or assistance.

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38. Once fully implemented, what will the Integrated Base Defense Security System (IBDSS) greatly enhance in base defensive operations?

Explanation

The Integrated Base Defense Security System (IBDSS) will greatly enhance both detection and security in base defensive operations. This means that the system will not only be able to detect potential threats and intrusions more effectively, but it will also provide enhanced security measures to prevent these threats from causing harm. By combining advanced detection technologies with robust security protocols, the IBDSS will significantly improve the overall defensive capabilities of the base.

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39. The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA) is shown with

Explanation

The correct answer is a temporary sign. This is because a temporary sign is the most common and practical way to establish a national defense area (NDA). It can be easily placed and removed as needed, providing clear indication to people that they are entering a restricted area. A red line, rope marking, or posted guards every 50 feet may also be used in certain situations, but they are not as commonly used or as effective as a temporary sign.

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40. The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is

Explanation

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is to defeat level I threats, which are the most immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are slightly less immediate but still pose a significant risk. This ensures the protection of the air base and its assets by neutralizing immediate threats and impeding the progress of potential threats in the surrounding tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).

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41. Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?

Explanation

Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), all Airmen are considered sensors. This means that they are responsible for observing and reporting any potential threats or suspicious activities in order to maintain the security of the base. Airmen play a critical role in detecting and monitoring any potential risks, thus acting as sensors in the overall defense system.

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42. Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

Explanation

All security forces UTCs will have "QF" as a designator. The question states that unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, and based on this information, it can be inferred that each functional group will have a specific designator. Therefore, since the question specifically asks about security forces UTCs, the correct answer would be "QF."

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43. Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?

Explanation

Protective barriers can be classified into two major categories: natural and structural. Natural barriers refer to naturally occurring features such as mountains, rivers, or forests that act as obstacles to protect an area. On the other hand, structural barriers are man-made constructions designed to provide protection, such as walls, fences, or dams. These two categories encompass the different types of barriers that can be utilized to safeguard an area from potential threats or dangers.

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44. What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?

Explanation

The security forces (SF) provide the foundation for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept. This means that they establish the basic structure and framework upon which the IBD concept is built. The SF play a crucial role in ensuring the security and protection of the base by implementing measures such as access control, perimeter security, and surveillance. They provide the necessary groundwork and infrastructure to support the overall defense strategy of the base.

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45. What unit type code (UTC) is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for the mortar teams?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBK. This is because the question asks for the unit type code (UTC) that is essential for directing fire and providing support for the mortar teams. Among the given options, QFEBK is the only choice that fits this description.

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46. What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?

Explanation

The pre-deployment factor that is considered a constant is treaties. Unlike weather, intelligence, and political climate, treaties are legally binding agreements between countries that are not subject to change or fluctuations. Treaties provide a stable framework for international relations and are typically long-term commitments that remain in effect unless they are renegotiated or terminated by the involved parties. Therefore, treaties can be relied upon as a constant factor when considering pre-deployment planning and decision-making.

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47. What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space

Explanation

Intelligence operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space. Ground defense refers to the protection of a specific area, while clandestine operations involve secrecy and hidden activities. Aerial operations refer to activities conducted in the air. However, it is intelligence operations that provide crucial information and analysis about the enemy, terrain, and other relevant factors, enabling military commanders to make informed decisions and effectively plan their actions on the battlefield.

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48. What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?

Explanation

The defense force commander (DFC) should consider the entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources. This means that the DFC should take into account the entire area for which they are responsible for defending, ensuring that all resources within this area are adequately protected. By considering the TAOR, the DFC can effectively allocate resources, establish defensive positions, and coordinate operations to protect the base critical resources from potential threats.

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49. What is the main mission of the machine gun?

Explanation

The main mission of the machine gun is to protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions. This means that the machine gun is not only used to fight off enemy attacks, but also to actively engage in offensive operations and protect important resources. It is a versatile weapon that can be used in various scenarios to ensure the safety and security of the defending forces.

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50. A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as

Explanation

A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles. This means that it is a designated area where thorough searches can be conducted to identify any potential threats or unauthorized individuals or vehicles. It is likely to have strict access controls and security measures in place to ensure that only authorized personnel and vehicles are allowed entry.

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51. What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Existing and reinforcing." This answer suggests that there are two types of obstacles that one may encounter: existing obstacles that are already present and reinforcing obstacles that make the situation more difficult. These two types of obstacles may require different approaches or strategies to overcome them.

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52. The environment for security forces (SF) personnel working in the entry control facilities (ECF) must be

Explanation

The environment for security forces personnel working in entry control facilities must be safe and comfortable. This is because these personnel are responsible for controlling access to a facility, and their safety is of utmost importance. They need to be able to perform their duties without fear of harm or discomfort. A safe environment ensures that they are protected from any potential threats or dangers, while a comfortable environment allows them to focus on their tasks effectively.

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53. Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?

Explanation

Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km).

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54. What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

Explanation

Vulnerability assessments are conducted periodically to address the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets. These assessments help identify weaknesses in security measures and determine potential vulnerabilities that can be exploited by threats. By regularly assessing vulnerabilities, organizations can take necessary measures to strengthen security and protect personnel and assets from potential harm or damage.

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55. The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is

Explanation

The correct answer is protecting sensitive information. Force protection countermeasure planning involves strategies and measures to safeguard military personnel and assets. One crucial aspect of this planning is ensuring the protection of sensitive information. By safeguarding classified information, such as operational plans, troop movements, and intelligence, the military can prevent adversaries from gaining an advantage and potentially compromising the safety and security of their forces.

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56. What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

Explanation

The time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency is 72 hours. This means that the AEF package must be able to mobilize and be ready for deployment within 72 hours of receiving the order. This allows for a quick and efficient response to any unexpected events or emergencies that may arise.

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57. What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?

Explanation

QFEBA is the correct answer because it is the unit type code (UTC) that, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces (SF) unit. This indicates that QFEBA is the appropriate UTC to support a deployed SF unit consisting of 130-180 personnel.

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58. What unit type code (UTC) consists of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped security forces (SF) personnel, who deploy as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEPR. This unit type code (UTC) consists of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped security forces (SF) personnel. They are deployed as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations.

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59. During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security missions as required?

Explanation

During peacetime operation, the unit type code (UTC) QFEB2 would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required.

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60. Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited

Explanation

Fixed bases with well-established perimeters usually have limited depth. This means that they do not extend deep into the ground or underground. The focus of these bases is typically on the surface and immediate surroundings, rather than underground or subterranean areas. This limited depth can make the base vulnerable to attacks or infiltration from below, as there is less protection or monitoring in these areas. Therefore, depth is the correct answer as it highlights a potential weakness or limitation of fixed bases with well-established perimeters.

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61. What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?

Explanation

Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack add depth to the battle outside the perimeter by effectively countering enemy reconnaissance efforts and launching aggressive attacks against the enemy. Counter-reconnaissance involves detecting and neutralizing enemy reconnaissance activities, preventing them from gathering information about the base and its operations. This helps maintain the element of surprise and prevents the enemy from gaining a strategic advantage. Additionally, counterattack involves launching offensive actions against the enemy, disrupting their plans and forcing them to divert resources and attention away from interfering with the base's primary mission. Together, these two factors ensure that the base can continue its primary mission with minimal interference.

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62. A "call for fire" is a message

Explanation

The correct answer is "prepared by an observer" because a "call for fire" is a message that is typically prepared by an observer who is in direct contact with the target area. The observer relays important information such as the target location, description, and desired effects to the unit responsible for delivering the fire support. The observer's role is crucial in accurately communicating the necessary details to ensure effective and precise fire support.

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63. At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?

Explanation

The base defense operations center (BDOC) is responsible for coordinating and managing defense operations. S2 is typically the intelligence section, which provides intelligence analysis and support to the BDOC. S3 is typically the operations section, which plans and coordinates the execution of defense operations. These two functions are essential for the BDOC to effectively carry out its duties.

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64. Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?

Explanation

The threat spectrum level that consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas is II. This level typically involves non-state actors or irregular forces that operate outside of traditional military structures. These groups often employ asymmetrical tactics and strategies to achieve their objectives, making them a significant challenge for conventional military forces.

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65. As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of

Explanation

The correct answer is "deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time." This answer is supported by the statement that a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is "responsive and capable" of conducting a full spectrum of air and space domination. This implies that they have the ability to quickly deploy and engage in a wide range of operations, indicating a minimum warning time. The other options do not directly address the concept of minimum warning time.

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66. When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?

Explanation

Any level may initiate the action for the change when there is a need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC. This means that individuals at any level within the organization have the authority to propose and initiate the necessary actions for the change, rather than it being limited to a specific level of authority or command.

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67. When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?

Explanation

When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, its primary mission is to provide covering fire for the assault element. This means that the machine gun is responsible for suppressing the enemy and providing support to the advancing assault element, allowing them to move forward and engage the enemy effectively. The machine gun's role is crucial in providing fire support and maintaining the momentum of the assault.

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68. The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the

Explanation

The correct answer is "resource" because the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) refers to the specific area or sector that a military unit or organization is responsible for in terms of resources and operations. It is not limited to a specific physical location like the base defense operations center (BDOC), point of insertion, or base perimeter. Instead, it encompasses the allocation and management of resources within a designated area.

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69. Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?

Explanation

The principle of Security in military operations other than war (MOOTW) ensures that hostile factions are not allowed to gain any military, political, or informational advantage. This principle focuses on protecting and safeguarding the interests, resources, and information of the mission and the parties involved. It aims to prevent any unauthorized access, breaches, or compromises that could potentially give an advantage to the enemy or disrupt the mission's objectives. By prioritizing security, MOOTW operations can maintain control, confidentiality, and integrity, ultimately minimizing the risks and vulnerabilities associated with hostile factions.

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70. An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations

Explanation

An expeditionary military force is a force that is able to respond quickly and effectively to a crisis. It is specifically designed to be able to deploy within a short period of time, typically 24 hours, in order to address the crisis at hand. The force is tailored to achieve specific and clearly defined objectives, meaning that it has a specific mission and goals that it aims to accomplish. This ensures that the force is focused and efficient in its operations. The answer option "on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives" accurately describes the characteristics of an expeditionary military force.

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71. What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?

Explanation

Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners because it allows for adaptability and responsiveness in various situations. Flexibility enables planners to adjust their strategies and tactics based on changing circumstances, ensuring that the forces can effectively meet different operational requirements. It also allows for the efficient allocation and utilization of resources, as well as the ability to quickly respond to emerging threats or opportunities. Overall, flexibility in force design is crucial for maintaining effectiveness and achieving desired outcomes in a dynamic and unpredictable environment.

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72. When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are

Explanation

When establishing base sectors, it is important to ensure that critical resources and areas are evenly grouped. This means that these resources and areas should be distributed in a balanced manner across the different sectors. By doing so, it ensures that each sector has access to the necessary resources and areas, preventing any one sector from being disadvantaged or lacking in essential elements. This also helps in maintaining a cohesive and efficient base structure.

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73. What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?

Explanation

The engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire is crew-served automatic weapons. This means that the gunners should focus on targeting and neutralizing enemy weapons that are operated by a crew, such as heavy machine guns or automatic grenade launchers. By targeting these weapons, the gunners can disrupt the enemy's firepower and reduce the threat to their own forces. This prioritization ensures that the most dangerous enemy weapons are dealt with first, increasing the chances of mission success and minimizing casualties.

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74. What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS)". This is the correct answer because it is the only option that specifically mentions unit type codes and their availability. The other options, such as AUTD, AFWUR, and AUTSS, do not directly refer to unit type codes or their approval for use in planning. Therefore, AFWUS is the most appropriate choice for the list of approved unit type codes.

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75. Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?

Explanation

The principle of war being referred to in this question is the objective. This principle emphasizes the importance of having a clear and achievable goal in any military operation. By directing the operation towards a defined objective, the military forces can focus their efforts and resources effectively, ensuring that their actions contribute to the overall success of the mission. This principle helps to guide decision-making and planning, allowing commanders to prioritize tasks and allocate resources accordingly.

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76. Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?

Explanation

The principle of indirect fire that aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up is the "Required effect." This principle focuses on the desired outcome of the indirect fire, which is to force the enemy to take defensive measures by fighting from within their vehicles or positions. By doing so, the enemy's ability to effectively engage in combat is diminished, giving friendly forces an advantage.

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77. Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault?

Explanation

Artillery should be used to isolate the objective when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault. This means that the artillery should be directed towards enemy positions that are away from the breach site. By doing so, the objective can be effectively cut off from reinforcements and support, making it easier for the assaulting forces to breach and assault the objective. This strategy helps to minimize the danger posed by the enemy's weapons, as the focus is on isolating the objective rather than engaging in close suppression or clearing a path directly.

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78. In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

Explanation

Subordinate joint force commands can organize by service component or function. This means that they can be structured based on the different branches of the military (such as Army, Navy, Air Force) or based on specific functions or capabilities (such as logistics, intelligence, or special operations). This allows for efficient coordination and utilization of resources within the joint force command, ensuring that each service component or function is effectively contributing to the overall mission.

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79. What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?

Explanation

Force protection (FP) working is the correct answer because they are responsible for managing the risk assessment process for commanders. Force protection working groups are typically comprised of individuals from various disciplines such as intelligence, operations, and security, who collaborate to identify and mitigate potential risks to personnel, equipment, and facilities. They assess threats, vulnerabilities, and potential consequences to develop and implement risk management strategies. By routinely managing the risk assessment process, the FP working group ensures that commanders are informed and can make informed decisions to protect their forces.

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80. The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is

Explanation

The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is predictability. This means that having a predictable schedule and knowing when they will be called for military duties allows these individuals to effectively manage their civilian jobs and commitments. By providing predictability, employers can better accommodate the needs of guardsmen and reservists, ensuring that they can fulfill their military obligations without negatively impacting their civilian careers. This ultimately enhances their overall participation and effectiveness in both roles.

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81. Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in

Explanation

Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in width and depth. This means that the machine gun is positioned in a way that allows it to cover a wide area (width) and penetrate deep into the target (depth). By maximizing fire in both dimensions, the machine gun can effectively engage multiple targets and inflict significant damage.

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82. What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?

Explanation

The risk management process allows the commander to determine countermeasures options. This means that by going through the risk management process, the commander can identify and evaluate potential risks and then decide on appropriate measures to mitigate or eliminate those risks. These countermeasures options could include implementing safety protocols, providing additional training or equipment, or adjusting operational procedures to minimize the potential for accidents or negative outcomes.

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83. What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?

Explanation

The given options are all examples of routines in defense measures except for "Assign sectors of fire." Personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief, and rotation are all important routines for maintaining the health and well-being of the defense personnel. Area of operation (AO) policing for cleanliness is a routine that involves keeping the operational area clean and organized. Weapons maintenance and cleaning schedules are routines that ensure the proper functioning and readiness of the weapons. However, assigning sectors of fire is not a routine; it is a tactical decision made during combat operations to allocate specific areas for firing weapons.

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84. What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?

Explanation

The Air Force maintains five bomber group leads (BGLs) to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF) and on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases. These BGLs are responsible for providing leadership and guidance in carrying out missions and operations related to air and space expeditionary force deployments. Having five BGLs ensures that there is sufficient support and resources available to effectively execute these tasks.

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85. What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBR. The unit type code (UTC) QFEBR refers to a unit composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler. This UTC is specifically designed for units that specialize in explosive detection and includes both the trained dog and its handler as a team.

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86. What placement allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage?

Explanation

The placement that allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage is "In-depth." This placement involves a comprehensive and thorough approach to observation, ensuring that every aspect and sector is covered extensively. By conducting in-depth observations, redundancy is achieved, meaning that multiple observations are made to ensure accuracy and reliability. This approach provides a more comprehensive understanding of the subject or area being observed, leading to better sector coverage.

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87. The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to

Explanation

The correct answer is "support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC." This answer best aligns with the primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program. By actively practicing OPSEC, the program supports the commander in protecting sensitive information, preventing unauthorized access, and minimizing vulnerabilities that could be exploited by adversaries. The program ensures that the command or organization is aware of and implements OPSEC measures to maintain operational security and safeguard critical information.

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88. What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?

Explanation

A 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions would be classified as QFDB9.

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89. Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?

Explanation

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are classified under threat spectrum level II. This suggests that these missions are focused on addressing the threat posed by nuclear weapons and their associated facilities. Threat spectrum levels are a way of categorizing the severity and complexity of threats, with level II indicating a significant threat that requires specialized attention and resources.

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90. What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?

Explanation

The search areas are divided into three subordinate areas: personnel, vehicle, and reaction force. This means that when conducting a search, these three areas are considered and focused on. Personnel refers to individuals who may be involved or affected, vehicle refers to any vehicles that may be involved or relevant, and reaction force refers to the response or action taken in response to the situation.

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