3P071 Volume 2 (Airport)

90 Questions | By Kk07x | Updated: May 3, 2023 | Attempts: 49

Questions

Settings

Feedback

During the Quiz End of Quiz

Play as

Quiz Flashcard

Create your own Quiz

VOLUME 2

Questions and Answers

1.

The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
- A.
  
  Base defense operations center (BDOC).
- B.
  
  Point of insertion.
- C.
  
  Base perimeter.
- D.
  
  Resource.
2.

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
- A.
  
  Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
- B.
  
  Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- C.
  
  Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- D.
  
  Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
3.

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?
- A.
  
  S1 and S3.
- B.
  
  S2 and S4.
- C.
  
  S2 and S3.
- D.
  
  S3 and S4.
4.

What is the staff make-up for the S3?
- A.
  
  The operations officer and staff.
- B.
  
  Supply noncommissioned officer.
- C.
  
  First sergeant or section commander.
- D.
  
  Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
5.

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
- A.
  
  By rank and function.
- B.
  
  By function and location.
- C.
  
  By service component or function.
- D.
  
  By service component and location.
6.

The primary mission of a joint operation is
- A.
  
  Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
- B.
  
  Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
- C.
  
  Disaster relief operations.
- D.
  
  Humanitarian operations.
7.

When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
- A.
  
  Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
- B.
  
  Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
- C.
  
  Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
- D.
  
  Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
8.

A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
  
  Non-state-supported.
- B.
  
  State-supported.
- C.
  
  Stated-directed.
- D.
  
  State-organized.
9.

A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
- A.
  
  Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
- B.
  
  Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
- C.
  
  Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.
- D.
  
  Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.
10.

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
  
  16–24.
- B.
  
  21–28.
- C.
  
  23–30.
- D.
  
  25–32.
11.

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A.
  
  Before execution of attack.
- B.
  
  Just before departing for the target sight.
- C.
  
  One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
- D.
  
  Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
12.

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
  
  Arson.
- B.
  
  Bombing.
- C.
  
  Hijacking.
- D.
  
  Assassination.
13.

The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
- A.
  
  State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).
- B.
  
  Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
- C.
  
  Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.
- D.
  
  Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.
14.

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
  
  Activity.
- B.
  
  Intentions.
- C.
  
  Operational capability.
- D.
  
  Operating environment.
15.

Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
- A.
  
  Communication security (COMSEC).
- B.
  
  Computer security (COMPUSEC).
- C.
  
  Information security (INFOSEC).
- D.
  
  Operations security (OPSEC).
16.

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
- A.
  
  Support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- B.
  
  Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.
- C.
  
  Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- D.
  
  Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.
17.

When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
- A.
  
  At the earliest possible moment.
- B.
  
  Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.
- C.
  
  Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.
- D.
  
  Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.
18.

Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
- A.
  
  I.
- B.
  
  II.
- C.
  
  III.
- D.
  
  IV.
19.

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
  
  Partisans.
- B.
  
  Terrorists.
- C.
  
  Sympathizers.
- D.
  
  Agent activity.
20.

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
- A.
  
  IV.
- B.
  
  III.
- C.
  
  II.
- D.
  
  I.
21.

Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
- A.
  
  I.
- B.
  
  II.
- C.
  
  III.
- D.
  
  IV.
22.

What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
- A.
  
  Force protection (FP) working.
- B.
  
  Anti-terrorism working.
- C.
  
  Physical security.
- D.
  
  Threat working.
23.

Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
- A.
  
  Annual process.
- B.
  
  Bi-annual process.
- C.
  
  Monthly process.
- D.
  
  Continual process.
24.

What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
- A.
  
  Risk.
- B.
  
  Threat.
- C.
  
  Vulnerability.
- D.
  
  Anti-terrorism.
25.

The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
- A.
  
  The classified protection plan.
- B.
  
  Protecting sensitive information.
- C.
  
  The offensive force protection plan.
- D.
  
  The defensive force protection plan.