3P071 Volume 2 (Airport)

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| By Kk07x

Kk07x

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 264

Questions: 90 | Attempts: 49 | Updated: May 3, 2023

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VOLUME 2

Questions and Answers

1.

The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
- A.
  
  Base defense operations center (BDOC).
- B.
  
  Point of insertion.
- C.
  
  Base perimeter.
- D.
  
  Resource.
Correct Answer
D. Resource.

Explanation
The correct answer is "resource" because the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) refers to the specific area or sector that a military unit or organization is responsible for in terms of resources and operations. It is not limited to a specific physical location like the base defense operations center (BDOC), point of insertion, or base perimeter. Instead, it encompasses the allocation and management of resources within a designated area.

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2.

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
- A.
  
  Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
- B.
  
  Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- C.
  
  Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- D.
  
  Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
Correct Answer
A. Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.

Explanation
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is to defeat level I threats, which are the most immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are slightly less immediate but still pose a significant risk. This ensures the protection of the air base and its assets by neutralizing immediate threats and impeding the progress of potential threats in the surrounding tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).

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3.

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?
- A.
  
  S1 and S3.
- B.
  
  S2 and S4.
- C.
  
  S2 and S3.
- D.
  
  S3 and S4.
Correct Answer
C. S2 and S3.

Explanation
The base defense operations center (BDOC) is responsible for coordinating and managing defense operations. S2 is typically the intelligence section, which provides intelligence analysis and support to the BDOC. S3 is typically the operations section, which plans and coordinates the execution of defense operations. These two functions are essential for the BDOC to effectively carry out its duties.

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4.

What is the staff make-up for the S3?
- A.
  
  The operations officer and staff.
- B.
  
  Supply noncommissioned officer.
- C.
  
  First sergeant or section commander.
- D.
  
  Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
Correct Answer
A. The operations officer and staff.

Explanation
The correct answer is the operations officer and staff. This suggests that the staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and their team. The S3 is typically responsible for planning and coordinating operations within a military unit, so it makes sense that their staff would consist of individuals who support these functions.

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5.

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
- A.
  
  By rank and function.
- B.
  
  By function and location.
- C.
  
  By service component or function.
- D.
  
  By service component and location.
Correct Answer
C. By service component or function.

Explanation
Subordinate joint force commands can organize by service component or function. This means that they can be structured based on the different branches of the military (such as Army, Navy, Air Force) or based on specific functions or capabilities (such as logistics, intelligence, or special operations). This allows for efficient coordination and utilization of resources within the joint force command, ensuring that each service component or function is effectively contributing to the overall mission.

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6.

The primary mission of a joint operation is
- A.
  
  Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
- B.
  
  Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
- C.
  
  Disaster relief operations.
- D.
  
  Humanitarian operations.
Correct Answer
B. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.

Explanation
A joint operation refers to a military operation that involves multiple branches or services of the armed forces working together towards a common objective. The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the operation aims to provide ongoing support, resources, and logistics required to maintain and continue the overall military campaign and major operations. This includes ensuring the availability of supplies, equipment, personnel, and other essential resources needed for the success of the joint force's mission.

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7.

When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
- A.
  
  Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
- B.
  
  Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
- C.
  
  Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
- D.
  
  Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
Correct Answer
D. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies." When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, their mission is to use violence and intimidation to force governments to change their policies. This can include demanding the withdrawal of troops from certain regions, advocating for the release of prisoners, or pushing for the adoption of certain ideologies. The aim is to create fear and pressure governments into making concessions or altering their actions in line with the terrorists' beliefs.

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8.

A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
  
  Non-state-supported.
- B.
  
  State-supported.
- C.
  
  Stated-directed.
- D.
  
  State-organized.
Correct Answer
B. State-supported.

Explanation
The correct answer is state-supported. A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is considered state-supported. This means that while the group may not be directly controlled or directed by the government, it is receiving assistance, whether it be financial, logistical, or otherwise, from the government(s) in question. This support can range from providing funding and weapons to offering safe havens and training facilities.

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9.

A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
- A.
  
  Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
- B.
  
  Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
- C.
  
  Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.
- D.
  
  Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.
Correct Answer
B. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.

Explanation
The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the top leaders who make strategic decisions and provide guidance to the group. The "active cadre" represents the core members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group, such as logistics or financial support. Lastly, the "passive support" represents individuals who may sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively participate in its activities.

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10.

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
  
  16–24.
- B.
  
  21–28.
- C.
  
  23–30.
- D.
  
  25–32.
Correct Answer
C. 23–30.

Explanation
Specially trained terrorists are typically of above average intelligence and fall within a certain age range. The answer 23–30 is the most suitable because it falls within the range of 16–24 and also takes into account the higher end of the age range, which is 30. This age range is considered optimal for individuals to undergo specialized training and carry out terrorist activities effectively.

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11.

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A.
  
  Before execution of attack.
- B.
  
  Just before departing for the target sight.
- C.
  
  One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
- D.
  
  Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
Correct Answer
B. Just before departing for the target sight.

Explanation
Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This suggests that the team members gather to practice and coordinate their plans shortly before carrying out the attack. The timing of the rehearsal indicates that it is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the mission, as it allows the team members to synchronize their actions and address any last-minute issues or concerns.

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12.

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
  
  Arson.
- B.
  
  Bombing.
- C.
  
  Hijacking.
- D.
  
  Assassination.
Correct Answer
B. Bombing.

Explanation
The correct answer is bombing because terrorist groups often resort to using explosives to cause destruction, fear, and casualties. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as through suicide attacks, car bombings, or the use of improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic allows terrorists to target crowded areas, public transportation, or specific individuals or buildings, aiming to maximize the impact and generate widespread panic and chaos.

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13.

The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
- A.
  
  State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).
- B.
  
  Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
- C.
  
  Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.
- D.
  
  Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.
Correct Answer
B. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.

Explanation
The correct answer is Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. This answer accurately reflects the three principles that the USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around. FPCON refers to the level of security measures implemented to protect military personnel and assets. Assessment factors are used to evaluate potential threats and vulnerabilities. Threat levels indicate the level of risk or danger posed by a specific threat. These three principles work together to form the basis of the program's approach to combating terrorism.

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14.

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
  
  Activity.
- B.
  
  Intentions.
- C.
  
  Operational capability.
- D.
  
  Operating environment.
Correct Answer
B. Intentions.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Intentions." The question is asking about the factor that relates to the desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. Intentions refer to the motives or goals behind these attacks, indicating the underlying purpose or objective that drives terrorists to target US interests. This factor focuses on the ideological, political, or religious motivations that terrorists may have in carrying out their attacks. It does not directly address the specific actions, resources, or conditions involved in executing the attacks, which are covered by other factors such as operational capability and operating environment.

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15.

Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
- A.
  
  Communication security (COMSEC).
- B.
  
  Computer security (COMPUSEC).
- C.
  
  Information security (INFOSEC).
- D.
  
  Operations security (OPSEC).
Correct Answer
D. Operations security (OPSEC).

Explanation
Operations security (OPSEC) is the correct answer because it refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information that could be exploited by adversaries. OPSEC involves identifying critical information, analyzing potential threats, and implementing countermeasures to prevent unauthorized access. It focuses on safeguarding operational activities, plans, and tactics to ensure the protection of sensitive information from intelligence collection efforts. Communication security (COMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and information security (INFOSEC) are also important components of overall security, but they do not specifically address the protection of operational activities like OPSEC does.

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16.

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
- A.
  
  Support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- B.
  
  Support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.
- C.
  
  Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- D.
  
  Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.
Correct Answer
C. Support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.

Explanation
The correct answer is "support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC." This answer best aligns with the primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program. By actively practicing OPSEC, the program supports the commander in protecting sensitive information, preventing unauthorized access, and minimizing vulnerabilities that could be exploited by adversaries. The program ensures that the command or organization is aware of and implements OPSEC measures to maintain operational security and safeguard critical information.

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17.

When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
- A.
  
  At the earliest possible moment.
- B.
  
  Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.
- C.
  
  Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.
- D.
  
  Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.
Correct Answer
A. At the earliest possible moment.

Explanation
Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is because early identification allows them to make informed decisions and develop effective strategies based on the available information. By identifying critical information early on, commanders can allocate resources, assign tasks, and develop contingency plans accordingly. This proactive approach ensures that commanders and planners are well-prepared and can mitigate potential risks or challenges that may arise during the mission.

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18.

Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
- A.
  
  I.
- B.
  
  II.
- C.
  
  III.
- D.
  
  IV.
Correct Answer
B. II.

Explanation
The threat spectrum level that consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas is II. This level typically involves non-state actors or irregular forces that operate outside of traditional military structures. These groups often employ asymmetrical tactics and strategies to achieve their objectives, making them a significant challenge for conventional military forces.

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19.

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
  
  Partisans.
- B.
  
  Terrorists.
- C.
  
  Sympathizers.
- D.
  
  Agent activity.
Correct Answer
C. Sympathizers.

Explanation
Sympathizers are individuals who support and show empathy towards a particular cause or group. In the context of the given question, sympathizers engage in random acts against targets of opportunity. This suggests that they may not have a specific plan or strategy, but rather act impulsively based on their emotional connection to the cause or group they support. This behavior is different from partisans, who are more organized and have a clear agenda, and terrorists, who use violence and intimidation for political or ideological purposes. Agent activity refers to the actions of individuals working undercover or on behalf of an organization, which is not relevant to the question.

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20.

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
- A.
  
  IV.
- B.
  
  III.
- C.
  
  II.
- D.
  
  I.
Correct Answer
C. II.

Explanation
Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are classified under threat spectrum level II. This suggests that these missions are focused on addressing the threat posed by nuclear weapons and their associated facilities. Threat spectrum levels are a way of categorizing the severity and complexity of threats, with level II indicating a significant threat that requires specialized attention and resources.

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21.

Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
- A.
  
  I.
- B.
  
  II.
- C.
  
  III.
- D.
  
  IV.
Correct Answer
C. III.

Explanation
Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km).

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22.

What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
- A.
  
  Force protection (FP) working.
- B.
  
  Anti-terrorism working.
- C.
  
  Physical security.
- D.
  
  Threat working.
Correct Answer
A. Force protection (FP) working.

Explanation
Force protection (FP) working is the correct answer because they are responsible for managing the risk assessment process for commanders. Force protection working groups are typically comprised of individuals from various disciplines such as intelligence, operations, and security, who collaborate to identify and mitigate potential risks to personnel, equipment, and facilities. They assess threats, vulnerabilities, and potential consequences to develop and implement risk management strategies. By routinely managing the risk assessment process, the FP working group ensures that commanders are informed and can make informed decisions to protect their forces.

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23.

Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
- A.
  
  Annual process.
- B.
  
  Bi-annual process.
- C.
  
  Monthly process.
- D.
  
  Continual process.
Correct Answer
D. Continual process.

Explanation
The correct answer is "continual process." Threat analysts compile and examine all available information concerning potential threats on an ongoing and continuous basis. This means that they constantly monitor and assess the information to stay updated and informed about any potential threats. It is not a one-time or periodic process but rather a continuous and ongoing effort to ensure the timely identification and mitigation of potential threats.

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24.

What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
- A.
  
  Risk.
- B.
  
  Threat.
- C.
  
  Vulnerability.
- D.
  
  Anti-terrorism.
Correct Answer
C. Vulnerability.

Explanation
Vulnerability assessments are conducted periodically to address the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets. These assessments help identify weaknesses in security measures and determine potential vulnerabilities that can be exploited by threats. By regularly assessing vulnerabilities, organizations can take necessary measures to strengthen security and protect personnel and assets from potential harm or damage.

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25.

The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
- A.
  
  The classified protection plan.
- B.
  
  Protecting sensitive information.
- C.
  
  The offensive force protection plan.
- D.
  
  The defensive force protection plan.
Correct Answer
B. Protecting sensitive information.

Explanation
The correct answer is protecting sensitive information. Force protection countermeasure planning involves strategies and measures to safeguard military personnel and assets. One crucial aspect of this planning is ensuring the protection of sensitive information. By safeguarding classified information, such as operational plans, troop movements, and intelligence, the military can prevent adversaries from gaining an advantage and potentially compromising the safety and security of their forces.

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26.

The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
- A.
  
  Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).
- B.
  
  Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).
- C.
  
  Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC).
- D.
  
  Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).
Correct Answer
D. Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).

Explanation
The correct answer is "camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD)." This term refers to the capability of reducing the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through various techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying. It involves the use of materials and equipment that alter or obscure the multispectral signatures of friendly assets and aim points.

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27.

To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
- A.
  
  Hide.
- B.
  
  Blend.
- C.
  
  Decoy.
- D.
  
  Disguise.
Correct Answer
D. Disguise.

Explanation
The correct answer is "disguise." Disguise refers to the act of altering or concealing the true identity or character of something or someone. It involves modifying or changing the appearance or behavior to prevent recognition. This can be done to deceive others or to protect the true nature of an asset or activity.

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28.

The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities
- A.
  
  Through the Department of State, Drug Enforcement Agency, and Immigration and Naturalization Service.
- B.
  
  With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).
- C.
  
  Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere.
- D.
  
  Through the joint rear area commander (JRAC).
Correct Answer
B. With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).

Explanation
The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) necessitates coordination with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD). This is because MOOTW involves activities such as humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, and peacekeeping, which require collaboration with various organizations and agencies that specialize in these areas. By working with these external entities, the military can leverage their expertise, resources, and networks to effectively carry out MOOTW missions and achieve the desired outcomes.

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29.

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
- A.
  
  Quarantine.
- B.
  
  Peacekeeping.
- C.
  
  Clandestine infiltration.
- D.
  
  Humanitarian assistance.
Correct Answer
C. Clandestine infiltration.

Explanation
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) focus on non-combat activities that support peace and stability. Quarantine is a measure implemented during times of public health emergencies, which falls under the realm of MOOTW. Peacekeeping involves maintaining peace in conflict zones, while humanitarian assistance provides aid and support to affected populations. However, clandestine infiltration refers to covert operations and is not typically associated with MOOTW missions, which prioritize non-aggressive actions.

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30.

Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?
- A.
  
  Unity of Effort.
- B.
  
  Objective.
- C.
  
  Restraint.
- D.
  
  Security.
Correct Answer
D. Security.

Explanation
The principle of Security in military operations other than war (MOOTW) ensures that hostile factions are not allowed to gain any military, political, or informational advantage. This principle focuses on protecting and safeguarding the interests, resources, and information of the mission and the parties involved. It aims to prevent any unauthorized access, breaches, or compromises that could potentially give an advantage to the enemy or disrupt the mission's objectives. By prioritizing security, MOOTW operations can maintain control, confidentiality, and integrity, ultimately minimizing the risks and vulnerabilities associated with hostile factions.

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31.

As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of
- A.
  
  Full spectrum of air and space domination.
- B.
  
  Deploying to multiple geographic locations simultaneously.
- C.
  
  Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time.
- D.
  
  Supporting multi-national forces under the control of host nation commanders.
Correct Answer
C. Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time.

Explanation
The correct answer is "deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time." This answer is supported by the statement that a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is "responsive and capable" of conducting a full spectrum of air and space domination. This implies that they have the ability to quickly deploy and engage in a wide range of operations, indicating a minimum warning time. The other options do not directly address the concept of minimum warning time.

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32.

What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?
- A.
  
  12 hours.
- B.
  
  24 hours.
- C.
  
  48 hours.
- D.
  
  72 hours.
Correct Answer
D. 72 hours.

Explanation
The time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency is 72 hours. This means that the AEF package must be able to mobilize and be ready for deployment within 72 hours of receiving the order. This allows for a quick and efficient response to any unexpected events or emergencies that may arise.

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33.

Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?
- A.
  
  Detectors.
- B.
  
  Monitors.
- C.
  
  Fighters.
- D.
  
  Sensors.
Correct Answer
D. Sensors.

Explanation
Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), all Airmen are considered sensors. This means that they are responsible for observing and reporting any potential threats or suspicious activities in order to maintain the security of the base. Airmen play a critical role in detecting and monitoring any potential risks, thus acting as sensors in the overall defense system.

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34.

What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?
- A.
  
  Support.
- B.
  
  Foundation.
- C.
  
  Tactical operation.
- D.
  
  Retrograde operations.
Correct Answer
B. Foundation.

Explanation
The security forces (SF) provide the foundation for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept. This means that they establish the basic structure and framework upon which the IBD concept is built. The SF play a crucial role in ensuring the security and protection of the base by implementing measures such as access control, perimeter security, and surveillance. They provide the necessary groundwork and infrastructure to support the overall defense strategy of the base.

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35.

Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
- A.
  
  Anticipate.
- B.
  
  Detect.
- C.
  
  Delay.
- D.
  
  Deny.
Correct Answer
C. Delay.

Explanation
Delay is the correct answer because it refers to the element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept that aims to slow down the enemy without requiring a large-scale response at the beginning of an engagement. By implementing delaying tactics, such as obstacles or defensive positions, the defender can buy time and create opportunities for a more effective response. This approach allows for a more strategic and controlled defense, minimizing the need for an immediate and overwhelming response.

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36.

What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?
- A.
  
  Countermeasures options.
- B.
  
  If reassessments and follow ups are needed.
- C.
  
  Whether to introduce risk management process training.
- D.
  
  If there is a need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges.
Correct Answer
A. Countermeasures options.

Explanation
The risk management process allows the commander to determine countermeasures options. This means that by going through the risk management process, the commander can identify and evaluate potential risks and then decide on appropriate measures to mitigate or eliminate those risks. These countermeasures options could include implementing safety protocols, providing additional training or equipment, or adjusting operational procedures to minimize the potential for accidents or negative outcomes.

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37.

An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations
- A.
  
  Within 24 hours of notification in response to a crisis with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
- B.
  
  On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
- C.
  
  On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve unlimited and unclear objectives.
- D.
  
  Within 72 hours in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
Correct Answer
B. On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.

Explanation
An expeditionary military force is a force that is able to respond quickly and effectively to a crisis. It is specifically designed to be able to deploy within a short period of time, typically 24 hours, in order to address the crisis at hand. The force is tailored to achieve specific and clearly defined objectives, meaning that it has a specific mission and goals that it aims to accomplish. This ensures that the force is focused and efficient in its operations. The answer option "on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives" accurately describes the characteristics of an expeditionary military force.

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38.

What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?
- A.
  
  Two bomber group leads (BGL).
- B.
  
  Three BGLs.
- C.
  
  Four BGLs.
- D.
  
  Five BGLs.
Correct Answer
D. Five BGLs.

Explanation
The Air Force maintains five bomber group leads (BGLs) to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF) and on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases. These BGLs are responsible for providing leadership and guidance in carrying out missions and operations related to air and space expeditionary force deployments. Having five BGLs ensures that there is sufficient support and resources available to effectively execute these tasks.

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39.

The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is
- A.
  
  Predictability.
- B.
  
  Flexibility.
- C.
  
  Mobility.
- D.
  
  Stability.
Correct Answer
A. Predictability.

Explanation
The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is predictability. This means that having a predictable schedule and knowing when they will be called for military duties allows these individuals to effectively manage their civilian jobs and commitments. By providing predictability, employers can better accommodate the needs of guardsmen and reservists, ensuring that they can fulfill their military obligations without negatively impacting their civilian careers. This ultimately enhances their overall participation and effectiveness in both roles.

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40.

Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
- A.
  
  UT.
- B.
  
  FP.
- C.
  
  AT.
- D.
  
  QF.
Correct Answer
D. QF.

Explanation
All security forces UTCs will have "QF" as a designator. The question states that unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, and based on this information, it can be inferred that each functional group will have a specific designator. Therefore, since the question specifically asks about security forces UTCs, the correct answer would be "QF."

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41.

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?
- A.
  
  Any level.
- B.
  
  Unit level.
- C.
  
  Major command (MAJCOM) level.
- D.
  
  Air Staff level only.
Correct Answer
A. Any level.

Explanation
Any level may initiate the action for the change when there is a need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC. This means that individuals at any level within the organization have the authority to propose and initiate the necessary actions for the change, rather than it being limited to a specific level of authority or command.

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42.

What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?
- A.
  
  Air Force Unit Tasking Document (AUTD).
- B.
  
  Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Roster (AFWUR).
- C.
  
  Air Expeditionary Unit Tasking Summary Sheet (AUTSS).
- D.
  
  Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS).

Explanation
The correct answer is "Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS)". This is the correct answer because it is the only option that specifically mentions unit type codes and their availability. The other options, such as AUTD, AFWUR, and AUTSS, do not directly refer to unit type codes or their approval for use in planning. Therefore, AFWUS is the most appropriate choice for the list of approved unit type codes.

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43.

Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?
- A.
  
  Maneuver.
- B.
  
  Offensive.
- C.
  
  Objective.
- D.
  
  Mass.
Correct Answer
C. Objective.

Explanation
The principle of war being referred to in this question is the objective. This principle emphasizes the importance of having a clear and achievable goal in any military operation. By directing the operation towards a defined objective, the military forces can focus their efforts and resources effectively, ensuring that their actions contribute to the overall success of the mission. This principle helps to guide decision-making and planning, allowing commanders to prioritize tasks and allocate resources accordingly.

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44.

Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
- A.
  
  Unity of command.
- B.
  
  Simplicity.
- C.
  
  Objective.
- D.
  
  Offensive.
Correct Answer
B. Simplicity.

Explanation
The principle of war that is related to avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is Simplicity. This principle emphasizes the importance of keeping military operations straightforward and uncomplicated, reducing the chances of confusion, miscommunication, and errors. By focusing on simplicity, military forces can streamline their operations, enhance efficiency, and increase the likelihood of success in achieving their objectives.

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45.

Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations
- A.
  
  Follow the rule of law.
- B.
  
  Meet manning standards.
- C.
  
  Follow national policy goals.
- D.
  
  Follow mission requirements.
Correct Answer
B. Meet manning standards.

Explanation
The question is asking which option is not a purpose of commanders using rules of engagement (ROE). Rules of engagement are guidelines that dictate how military personnel should act in various situations. They are used to ensure that operations are conducted in accordance with the rule of law, follow national policy goals, and meet mission requirements. However, they do not specifically address the issue of meeting manning standards, which refers to having an adequate number of personnel for a given operation. Therefore, the correct answer is "meet manning standards."

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46.

Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the
- A.
  
  United Nations.
- B.
  
  Geneva Convention.
- C.
  
  Joint force commander’s directives.
- D.
  
  US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).
Correct Answer
D. US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).

Explanation
The correct answer is US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE). This is because the rules of engagement outline when and how military personnel can use force, including self-defense, during operations. It provides guidance to ensure that force is applied appropriately and in accordance with international laws and regulations. The United Nations and the Geneva Convention may provide broader guidelines, but the US military's ROE specifically addresses the application of force and self-defense for its personnel. Joint force commander's directives may also provide guidance, but they are not as specific or universally applicable as the ROE.

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47.

What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?
- A.
  
  Prevent unnecessary suffering.
- B.
  
  Prevent use of political influence.
- C.
  
  Maintain a well-defined military plan.
- D.
  
  Provide equal representation of all combatants.
Correct Answer
A. Prevent unnecessary suffering.

Explanation
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) serves to prevent unnecessary suffering during armed conflicts. It establishes rules and regulations that aim to minimize the harm and suffering inflicted on individuals involved in warfare. By prohibiting certain actions and methods of warfare, such as targeting civilians or using excessive force, the LOAC seeks to protect human rights and ensure that conflicts are conducted in a more humane manner. This helps to uphold basic principles of humanity and promote the preservation of life and dignity in times of war.

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48.

What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?
- A.
  
  Sustainability.
- B.
  
  Attainability.
- C.
  
  Flexibility.
- D.
  
  Simplicity.
Correct Answer
C. Flexibility.

Explanation
Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners because it allows for adaptability and responsiveness in various situations. Flexibility enables planners to adjust their strategies and tactics based on changing circumstances, ensuring that the forces can effectively meet different operational requirements. It also allows for the efficient allocation and utilization of resources, as well as the ability to quickly respond to emerging threats or opportunities. Overall, flexibility in force design is crucial for maintaining effectiveness and achieving desired outcomes in a dynamic and unpredictable environment.

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49.

What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?
- A.
  
  QFDB9.
- B.
  
  QFEBA.
- C.
  
  QFEBB.
- D.
  
  QFEBD.
Correct Answer
A. QFDB9.

Explanation
A 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions would be classified as QFDB9.

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50.

What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?
- A.
  
  QFEBU.
- B.
  
  QFEPR.
- C.
  
  QFFPF.
- D.
  
  QFEBA.
Correct Answer
D. QFEBA.

Explanation
QFEBA is the correct answer because it is the unit type code (UTC) that, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces (SF) unit. This indicates that QFEBA is the appropriate UTC to support a deployed SF unit consisting of 130-180 personnel.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

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Current Version
May 03, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Aug 13, 2016

Quiz Created by
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3P071 Volume 2 (Airport)

The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?

What is the staff make-up for the S3?

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

The primary mission of a joint operation is

When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to

When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?

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What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?

Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is

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To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to

The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include

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As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of

What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?

What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?

Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?

An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations

What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?

The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is

Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?

What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?

Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?

Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?

Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations

Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?

What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?

What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?

What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?