3DX7X Volume 2. Expeditionary Communications, Plans And Project Management

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| By Edwarj1795
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Edwarj1795
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1. The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are?

Explanation

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications ensure that information is transmitted and received without unauthorized access or interference, allowing for effective coordination and decision-making. Intelligence refers to the collection, analysis, and dissemination of information about the operational environment, enabling commanders to understand the situation and make informed decisions. These capabilities are crucial for establishing control and ensuring effective command and control of military operations.

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About This Quiz
Project Management Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge in expeditionary communications and project management within the Air Force, focusing on deployment planning, mobilization policies, and readiness reporting. It is designed to evaluate the strategic preparedness and operational capabilities critical to military roles.

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2. What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

Explanation

The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This indicates that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military. The O-6 pay grade is typically associated with senior officers who have significant experience and responsibilities.

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3. The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at?

Explanation

The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

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4. Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. They are in charge of maintaining and managing the infrastructure and facilities on the base, including conducting regular inspections to ensure compliance with safety, quality, and regulatory standards. This includes inspecting buildings, utilities, roads, and other physical assets to ensure they are in proper working condition and meet the necessary standards.

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5. Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

Explanation

The career field 3D0X3, Cyber Surety, is not assigned to engineering installation units. The other three career fields, 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems, 3D1X3, RF Transmissions Systems, and 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems, are all associated with engineering installation units.

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6. Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

Explanation

The question is asking for the capability that is not initially available in the open the airbase force module. The open the airbase force module is likely a system or a group of personnel responsible for managing and securing an airbase. Force Protection, Airfield Operations, and Force Accountability are all essential initial capabilities of the module, as they involve ensuring the safety and security of the airbase and its personnel. On the other hand, Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD) is not typically an initial capability of the module, as it specifically deals with the detection and disposal of explosive devices, which may require specialized training and equipment.

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7. Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

Explanation

The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that has a flight assigned to support a 72-hour rapid response force during a crisis. They provide specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis.

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8. If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in?

Explanation

In this scenario, if the instructions do not provide enough detail to warrant a separate annex, the information on base functional area support would be placed in the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational concept, tasks, and responsibilities for a specific operation. Since the information on base functional area support is related to the overall operation, it would be appropriate to include it in the OPLAN major paragraph.

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9. Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

Explanation

The cost management plan is a component of the project plan. It outlines how project costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout the project's lifecycle. This plan includes details on cost estimation techniques, cost baseline, cost control measures, and reporting procedures. It ensures that the project stays within budget and helps in managing financial resources effectively.

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10. The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as?

Explanation

A deliverable is the desired outcome, product, or service that is expected to be produced or provided as a result of a project. It is something tangible or measurable that can be delivered to the stakeholders. It represents the end result or goal that the project aims to achieve.

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11. Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?

Explanation

A sole source contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services. This means that there is no other supplier or provider available to fulfill the requirement, making the sole source contract the only option. In this case, the contract is awarded directly to the sole source without competition from other potential suppliers or providers.

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12. All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the Armed Forces Network (AFN) in?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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13. What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regarding of the phase?

Explanation

Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. It involves monitoring the project's progress, identifying any issues or deviations from the plan, and taking appropriate actions to address them. By regularly following up on the project's status, milestones, and deliverables, project managers can ensure that the project stays on track and make necessary adjustments to meet the objectives. This helps in maintaining control over the project and ensuring its successful completion.

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14. Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

Explanation

The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and portable drone that is commonly used for surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be launched by hand and can provide real-time video and imagery to the operator. The other options mentioned, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems that are typically used for long-range missions and have greater capabilities than the RQ-11B Raven.

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15. Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolition of facilities, and relocation of organizations?

Explanation

The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because it is a type of planning meeting that focuses on identifying civil engineering projects such as new construction, renovations, demolition of facilities, and relocation of organizations. This board is responsible for assessing the utilization of existing facilities and making decisions regarding their future use and development.

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16. In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

Explanation

The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.

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17. Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?

Explanation

The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of using internal resources and capabilities to address funding needs and support projects without relying on external sources. This option allows the squadron to utilize their own resources and expertise to fund and carry out necessary communication initiatives within the base.

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18. Who develops Logistics Details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for Unit Type Codes (UTC)?

Explanation

Pilot Units develop Logistics Details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for Unit Type Codes (UTC). This means that the responsibility of creating and maintaining LOGDETS lies with the pilot units, who are tasked with ensuring that the necessary logistics support is in place for a specified period of time. It is their role to plan and coordinate the logistical requirements to sustain the UTCs effectively.

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19. In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

Explanation

A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach to achieving the mission, rather than the specific logistical details and requirements.

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20. Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

Explanation

The AFPC Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process. This center is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources. They ensure that the necessary requirements for a deployment are identified and sourced, including personnel, equipment, and supplies. By initiating the process, the AFPC AEF Center ensures that all necessary steps are taken to prepare for a deployment and that the appropriate resources are allocated.

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21. Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?

Explanation

The functional area of Work Orders in the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level in less than 30 days. These enhancements are in the form of a maintenance task order, allowing for efficient and timely improvements to be made to the cyberspace infrastructure. This functional area focuses on the execution and coordination of work tasks, ensuring that necessary upgrades and changes are implemented promptly.

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22. Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed?

Explanation

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "Major." This suggests that there are certain significant issues or problems that can arise in a system, causing it to deviate from the expected operational requirements. These exceptions are of higher importance and may have a significant impact on the system's overall functionality and performance.

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23. Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

Explanation

All military construction projects require authorization and appropriation from the Secretary of Defense and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees. This means that any construction project related to the military, regardless of its scale or scope, must receive approval and funding from these entities before it can proceed.

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24. What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?

Explanation

In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education to the project team. This is crucial as it helps to clarify any doubts or questions that team members may have regarding the project. The project manager also provides guidance on the overall direction and goals of the project, ensuring that everyone is on the same page. Additionally, the project manager educates the team on the project's objectives, scope, and any specific requirements that need to be met. This helps to ensure that the project starts off on the right track and that everyone is well-informed and prepared.

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25. Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment?

Explanation

The correct answer is Command and Control. Command and Control force module is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment. This force module is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making among different units and personnel. It plays a crucial role in managing and controlling the overall operations of the theater in a timely and efficient manner.

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26. Who implements a technical solution for a base?

Explanation

The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means that they are the ones who are in charge of actually putting the solution into action and making it work. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to carry out the implementation process effectively. The project monitor, project manager, and communications squadron may have their own roles and responsibilities within the project, but it is the implementing organization that takes on the task of implementing the technical solution.

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27. Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply?

Explanation

A Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply. This means that instead of going through the procurement process each time a purchase is needed, a BPA allows the buyer to make purchases directly from pre-approved vendors. This streamlines the purchasing process and saves time and effort.

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28. Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

Explanation

The airbase force module is expected to arrive within 2 days after opening the airbase. The estimated completion of the delivery is 14 days.

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29. Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures the readiness categories of Training, Personnel, and Equipment Condition. The readiness category of Home Station Mission is not measured by ART.

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30. Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

Explanation

The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports on various areas related to military operations. These areas include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not measured and reported by SORTS. SORTS primarily focuses on assessing the readiness and availability of personnel and equipment for military operations.

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31. Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open completion" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?

Explanation

The "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act requires that government contracts be awarded through a competitive process. This means that all interested parties have the opportunity to submit bids or proposals for the contract. However, the unit commander's interest is not an exception to this stipulation. This means that even if the unit commander has a specific interest or preference for a particular contractor, the contract still needs to go through the competitive process to ensure fairness and transparency.

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32. What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tool, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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33. Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because MAJCOMs (Major Commands) require engineering support for their cyberspace systems integration. This support is provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier 2, which specializes in integrating and managing cyberspace systems for specific commands or organizations. Tiers 1, 3, and 4 may also provide support, but Tier 2 is specifically designated for MAJCOMs.

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34. What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

Explanation

AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is the document that marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system. This form is used by the United States Air Force to certify that the system has been installed correctly and is fully operational. It serves as a record of completion and provides confirmation that all necessary steps have been taken to ensure the success of the project.

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35. Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?

Explanation

The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders. This role ensures that the QA team and other relevant personnel are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively carry out their duties. They oversee the training program and ensure that it meets the requirements and standards set by the organization.

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36. Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support?

Explanation

The Unit plans, planning, and agreements section acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support. This section is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the planning and execution of unit plans, as well as ensuring that any necessary agreements are in place. They work closely with the Facility Manager, Quality Assurance Evaluator, and Functional Director/Commander to ensure that the unit's design needs are met and that they have the necessary support from the base's Civil Engineering department.

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37. As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

Explanation

A support agreement must be reviewed at least 3 years after its effective date. This ensures that the terms and conditions of the agreement are still relevant and meet the needs of both parties involved. Regular reviews help identify any potential issues or changes that may need to be addressed, ensuring a smooth and effective support relationship between the parties.

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38. Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office? 

Explanation

A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date. This ensures that there is enough time to gather all the necessary information and complete the requirements before the deadline. It allows for proper planning and evaluation of the contract, ensuring that all parties involved have sufficient time to review and make informed decisions.

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39. What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

Explanation

Source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the specific functionalities, features, and criteria that the cyberspace infrastructure capability needs to meet in order to fulfill its intended purpose. These documents serve as a guide for designing, developing, and implementing the necessary components and processes required to achieve the desired capability.

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40. The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for?

Explanation

The AF Form 1067 is a document used to define, validate, and approve requirements for both temporary and permanent modifications. This means that it is used to establish and authorize changes or alterations to equipment, systems, or processes that can be either temporary or permanent in nature. The form ensures that these modifications are properly evaluated, assessed for safety, and approved before implementation.

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41. When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?

Explanation

A supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans when tasked by the supported combatant commander. This plan is designed to provide assistance and resources to the main contingency plans, ensuring their successful execution. It outlines the specific actions, resources, and support needed to achieve the objectives of the contingency plans. The supporting plan works in conjunction with the main plans, helping to address any gaps or challenges that may arise during the execution of the contingency plans.

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42. Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Joint force/capability." This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to fulfill the core mission of another service. It allows for the seamless integration and cooperation between different services within a joint force, ensuring that the mission is effectively carried out even if one service is unable to provide their own capabilities.

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43. Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

Explanation

The given options are all potential causes for requirements to be considered special, except for the one that states "Requires additional funding". While the other options suggest factors that could make requirements unique or different from standard ones, the need for additional funding does not necessarily make a requirement special. Many requirements may require additional funding without being considered special.

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44. Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test material (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?

Explanation

T-2 temporary modification evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test material (hardware, firmware, and software) capabilities. This type of modification is specifically designed for temporary use and is meant to assess the performance and effectiveness of the material being tested. It allows for modifications to be made and tested without permanently altering the original material.

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45. Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specific fixed hourly rates?

Explanation

A Time and Material contract is used when the acquisition of supplies or services is based on direct labor hours at specific fixed hourly rates. This type of contract is commonly used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is not possible to determine a firm fixed price. It allows for flexibility in adjusting the quantity of labor and materials required based on the actual needs of the project.

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46. Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

Explanation

The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the Airbase." This suggests that the process of robusting the airbase involves bringing in additional support forces after the initial establishment of the deployed location. These support forces are not immediately available but are expected to arrive within 30 days to further strengthen and enhance the operations of the airbase.

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47. Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?

Explanation

The Time and Material contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy. This type of contract allows for flexibility in terms of the scope of work and the costs involved, as it is based on the actual time spent on the project and the materials used. It is commonly used in situations where the requirements may change or evolve over time, making it difficult to determine a fixed price or timeline for the project.

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48. Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?

Explanation

The responsible party for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR) is the Functional Director/Commander. This individual is in charge of overseeing the specific functional area and has the authority to designate the CORs who will be responsible for managing and overseeing the contract on behalf of the contracting office.

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49. Which deployment planning process develops predetermined response to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepare deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

Explanation

Deliberate Planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is typically used for long-term planning and is characterized by thorough analysis and consideration of various factors before making decisions.

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50. Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

Explanation

The division that is not a part of the Air and Space Operations Center is Combat Support. The Air and Space Operations Center is responsible for coordinating and executing combat operations, combat plans, and strategy. Combat Support, on the other hand, focuses on providing logistical and administrative support to the combat forces.

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51. The five phases of Project Management are initiate,

Explanation

The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This sequence represents the typical flow of project management activities. First, the project is planned, including setting goals, defining tasks, and allocating resources. Then, the project is executed, with the team carrying out the planned activities. After completion, the project is closed, ensuring that all deliverables are met and any outstanding issues are resolved. Finally, the project is controlled, which involves monitoring progress, making adjustments as needed, and ensuring that the project meets its objectives.

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52. What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?

Explanation

The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics.

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53. Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?

Explanation

Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet the requirement specifications. This refers to fixing any flaws or issues in the project that deviate from the desired outcome. It involves identifying and rectifying defects or errors in order to align the project with the specified requirements.

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54. In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?

Explanation

In the ITIL framework, the stage where the framework is created to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment is the Service Transition stage. This stage focuses on planning, building, and testing the service before it is deployed into the live environment. It involves activities such as change management, release and deployment management, and knowledge management to ensure a smooth transition from design to operation.

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55. What title is anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?

Explanation

A program action officer is someone who is assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. They are responsible for coordinating and implementing actions related to the program, ensuring that tasks are completed on time and within budget. They work closely with the program manager to ensure the smooth execution of the program and help in achieving its objectives. The title "program action officer" accurately describes the role and responsibilities of the individual assisting the program manager.

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56. As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?

Explanation

The Base Civil Engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because their role primarily involves overseeing the planning, design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure projects on a military base, rather than reviewing and validating technical solutions for other areas. The other options, such as the Base Communications System Officer, Affected Work Center, and Project Managers, may be involved in reviewing and validating technical solutions as part of their responsibilities.

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57. Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?

Explanation

The work center manager certification and approval is not a step required in the modification proposal process. This step involves the certification and approval from the manager of the work center, which is not necessary for the modification proposal process. The other options mentioned, such as requesting for action and organization validation, using command and lead command validation, and program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution, are all important steps in the modification proposal process.

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58. The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operational and Maintenance (O&M) funds is?

Explanation

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operational and Maintenance (O&M) funds is $1.5 million (M). This means that any construction project with a cost below $1.5 million would not require O&M funds for its completion.

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59. Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

Explanation

Volume 1 is the correct answer because it provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. The other volumes may provide information on different aspects of war and mobilization planning, but Volume 1 specifically focuses on general policies and guidance.

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60. Changes are requested during a project using an

Explanation

The AF Form 1146 is used to request changes during a project. It is a form specifically designed for this purpose within the Air Force. The other forms mentioned, AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, and AFTO Form 47, do not serve the same function as the AF Form 1146 and are not used for requesting changes during a project.

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61. Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?

Explanation

The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support is "Establish the Airbase". This force module focuses on setting up the necessary infrastructure, logistics, and support systems to establish an operational airbase. It involves tasks such as constructing runways, setting up communication networks, establishing supply chains, and coordinating with command and control elements. By successfully establishing the airbase, it becomes possible to generate air support and carry out the assigned mission effectively.

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62. Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?

Explanation

The correct answer, TO 00-33A-3003, is a reference to a document that contains a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. This document is likely a technical manual or guide that provides information and guidance on various aspects of the programs, including the responsible commands and offices. It can be used as a resource to find the relevant contacts and offices for specific programs.

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63. The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,

Explanation

The correct answer is service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. These stages represent the life cycle of ITIL services. Service design involves designing new or changed services to meet the needs of the business and customers. Service transition focuses on transitioning these services into operation, including testing and deployment. Service operation is the stage where the services are delivered and managed on a day-to-day basis. Continual service improvement involves analyzing and improving the services over time to ensure they meet changing business needs.

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64. Which Document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?

Explanation

AFI 10-201 provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements.

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65. In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?

Explanation

In the Service Strategy stage of the ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the organization's business objectives and aligning them with IT services. It involves identifying opportunities for improvement, defining service offerings, and creating a strategy to meet customer needs and expectations. This stage sets the direction for the service provider and ensures that all subsequent stages are aligned with the overall business strategy.

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66. The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10-244 because it is the Air Force Instruction (AFI) that provides the governing guidance for the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting. AFI 10-244 specifically outlines the procedures and requirements for reporting in the ART system, ensuring that accurate and timely information is provided for force management and operational planning purposes.

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67. What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major and minor construction is required?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering (CE) must prepare and forward DD Form 1391 to MAJCOM for review and approval if major and minor construction is required. DD Form 1391 is the Military Construction Project Data form which provides detailed information about the project, including cost estimates, scope of work, and justification. This form is used to request funding and obtain approval for construction projects in the military.

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68. Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program?

Explanation

The contracting office is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program. This includes ensuring that the program meets all necessary requirements and is effectively implemented throughout the duration of the contract. The contracting office plays a key role in overseeing the contract and ensuring that it is executed according to the agreed-upon terms and conditions. They are responsible for monitoring performance, conducting inspections, and addressing any issues or concerns that may arise during the contract period.

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69. Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning Systems (CIPS)?

Explanation

AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it provides the guidance for the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning Systems (CIPS). This document outlines the procedures and requirements for planning, implementing, and managing cyberspace infrastructure within the Air Force. It covers topics such as system architecture, network design, and security measures. By following the guidelines outlined in AFI 33-150, the Air Force can ensure the effective and secure use of CIPS.

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70. Support agreements are documented on?

Explanation

Support agreements are documented on DD Form 1144.

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The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and...
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response...
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at?
Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an...
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering...
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force...
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned...
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant separate annex,...
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to...
Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable...
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the Armed Forces...
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project...
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial...
Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects...
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an...
Which of the following funding options does the local communications...
Who develops Logistics Details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of...
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation,...
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area...
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified...
Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees...
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications...
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated...
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the...
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and...
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of...
Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open...
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project...
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems...
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful...
Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA)...
Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to...
As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its...
Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched,...
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace...
The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving...
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is...
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service...
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be...
Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the...
Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct...
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not...
Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to...
Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional...
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined response to...
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for...
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a...
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do...
What title is anyone assigned to assist the program manager in...
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and...
Which of the following is not a step required in the modification...
The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using...
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated...
Changes are requested during a project using an
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and...
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices...
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure...
Which Document provides detailed information and instructions on...
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do...
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting...
What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM...
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the...
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning...
Support agreements are documented on?
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