3DX7X Volume 2. Expeditionary Communications, Plans And Project Management

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| By Edwarj1795
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Edwarj1795
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  • 1/70 Questions

    The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are?

    • Force Protection and Logistics
    • Intelligence and Force Protection
    • Secure Communications and Intelligence
    • Secure Communications and Force Accountability
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in expeditionary communications and project management within the Air Force, focusing on deployment planning, mobilization policies, and readiness reporting. It is designed to evaluate the strategic preparedness and operational capabilities critical to military roles.

Project Management Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at?

    • Scott AFB, IL

    • Travis AFB, CA

    • Peterson AFB, CO

    • Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ
    Explanation
    The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

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  • 3. 

    What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

    • O-4

    • O-5

    • O-6

    • O-7

    Correct Answer
    A. O-6
    Explanation
    The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This indicates that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military. The O-6 pay grade is typically associated with senior officers who have significant experience and responsibilities.

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  • 4. 

    Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

    • Force Protection

    • Airfield Operations

    • Force Accountability

    • Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the capability that is not initially available in the open the airbase force module. The open the airbase force module is likely a system or a group of personnel responsible for managing and securing an airbase. Force Protection, Airfield Operations, and Force Accountability are all essential initial capabilities of the module, as they involve ensuring the safety and security of the airbase and its personnel. On the other hand, Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD) is not typically an initial capability of the module, as it specifically deals with the detection and disposal of explosive devices, which may require specialized training and equipment.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

    • 3D0X3, Cyber Surety

    • 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems

    • 3D1X3, RF Transmissions Systems

    • 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems

    Correct Answer
    A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety
    Explanation
    The career field 3D0X3, Cyber Surety, is not assigned to engineering installation units. The other three career fields, 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems, 3D1X3, RF Transmissions Systems, and 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems, are all associated with engineering installation units.

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  • 6. 

    Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

    • Base Civil Engineering

    • Gaining Work Center

    • Contracting Office

    • Quality Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Civil Engineering
    Explanation
    Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. They are in charge of maintaining and managing the infrastructure and facilities on the base, including conducting regular inspections to ensure compliance with safety, quality, and regulatory standards. This includes inspecting buildings, utilities, roads, and other physical assets to ensure they are in proper working condition and meet the necessary standards.

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  • 7. 

    Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

    • 38 Engineering Squadron (ES)

    • 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS)

    • 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS)

    • 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)

    Correct Answer
    A. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that has a flight assigned to support a 72-hour rapid response force during a crisis. They provide specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis.

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  • 8. 

    Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

    • Cost management plan

    • Allied support plan

    • Technical plan

    • Material plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost management plan
    Explanation
    The cost management plan is a component of the project plan. It outlines how project costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout the project's lifecycle. This plan includes details on cost estimation techniques, cost baseline, cost control measures, and reporting procedures. It ensures that the project stays within budget and helps in managing financial resources effectively.

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  • 9. 

    The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as?

    • The status

    • A milestone

    • A deliverable

    • The final result

    Correct Answer
    A. A deliverable
    Explanation
    A deliverable is the desired outcome, product, or service that is expected to be produced or provided as a result of a project. It is something tangible or measurable that can be delivered to the stakeholders. It represents the end result or goal that the project aims to achieve.

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  • 10. 

    If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in?

    • Program Plan (PPLAN)

    • Program Action Directive (PAD)

    • Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph

    • Timed Phase Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph
    Explanation
    In this scenario, if the instructions do not provide enough detail to warrant a separate annex, the information on base functional area support would be placed in the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational concept, tasks, and responsibilities for a specific operation. Since the information on base functional area support is related to the overall operation, it would be appropriate to include it in the OPLAN major paragraph.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?

    • Sole Source

    • Firm Fixed Price

    • Time and Material

    • Performance Based

    Correct Answer
    A. Sole Source
    Explanation
    A sole source contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services. This means that there is no other supplier or provider available to fulfill the requirement, making the sole source contract the only option. In this case, the contract is awarded directly to the sole source without competition from other potential suppliers or providers.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

    • MQ-9 Reaper

    • RQ-11B Raven

    • MQ-1B Predator

    • RQ-4B Global Hawk

    Correct Answer
    A. RQ-11B Raven
    Explanation
    The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and portable drone that is commonly used for surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be launched by hand and can provide real-time video and imagery to the operator. The other options mentioned, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems that are typically used for long-range missions and have greater capabilities than the RQ-11B Raven.

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  • 13. 

    All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the Armed Forces Network (AFN) in?

    • 1942

    • 1954

    • 1988

    • 1998

    Correct Answer
    A. 1998
  • 14. 

    What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regarding of the phase?

    • Follow-up

    • Controlling

    • Organization

    • Documenting

    Correct Answer
    A. Follow-up
    Explanation
    Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. It involves monitoring the project's progress, identifying any issues or deviations from the plan, and taking appropriate actions to address them. By regularly following up on the project's status, milestones, and deliverables, project managers can ensure that the project stays on track and make necessary adjustments to meet the objectives. This helps in maintaining control over the project and ensuring its successful completion.

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  • 15. 

    Who develops Logistics Details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for Unit Type Codes (UTC)?

    • Pilot Units

    • Joint Planners

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron

    • Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDETS

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilot Units
    Explanation
    Pilot Units develop Logistics Details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for Unit Type Codes (UTC). This means that the responsibility of creating and maintaining LOGDETS lies with the pilot units, who are tasked with ensuring that the necessary logistics support is in place for a specified period of time. It is their role to plan and coordinate the logistical requirements to sustain the UTCs effectively.

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  • 16. 

    In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

    • 2 kilometers (km)

    • 4 km

    • 8 km

    • 16 km

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 km
    Explanation
    The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?

    • Organic

    • Contract

    • Inorganic

    • Self-Help

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-Help
    Explanation
    The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of using internal resources and capabilities to address funding needs and support projects without relying on external sources. This option allows the squadron to utilize their own resources and expertise to fund and carry out necessary communication initiatives within the base.

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  • 18. 

    Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolition of facilities, and relocation of organizations?

    • Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum

    • Facilities Utilization Board

    • Mission Briefing

    • Informal Meeting

    Correct Answer
    A. Facilities Utilization Board
    Explanation
    The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because it is a type of planning meeting that focuses on identifying civil engineering projects such as new construction, renovations, demolition of facilities, and relocation of organizations. This board is responsible for assessing the utilization of existing facilities and making decisions regarding their future use and development.

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  • 19. 

    Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

    • Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center

    • Installation Deployment Officer (IDO)

    • Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM)

    • Joint Staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
    Explanation
    The AFPC Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process. This center is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources. They ensure that the necessary requirements for a deployment are identified and sourced, including personnel, equipment, and supplies. By initiating the process, the AFPC AEF Center ensures that all necessary steps are taken to prepare for a deployment and that the appropriate resources are allocated.

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  • 20. 

    Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed?

    • Major

    • Minor

    • Major and Minor

    • Major and Critical

    Correct Answer
    A. Major
    Explanation
    Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "Major." This suggests that there are certain significant issues or problems that can arise in a system, causing it to deviate from the expected operational requirements. These exceptions are of higher importance and may have a significant impact on the system's overall functionality and performance.

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  • 21. 

    Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?

    • Work orders

    • Trouble tickets

    • Infrastructure requirements

    • Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CIPS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Work orders
    Explanation
    The functional area of Work Orders in the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level in less than 30 days. These enhancements are in the form of a maintenance task order, allowing for efficient and timely improvements to be made to the cyberspace infrastructure. This functional area focuses on the execution and coordination of work tasks, ensuring that necessary upgrades and changes are implemented promptly.

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  • 22. 

    In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

    • Concept Plan

    • Functional Plan

    • Supporting Plan

    • Operational Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Concept Plan
    Explanation
    A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach to achieving the mission, rather than the specific logistical details and requirements.

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  • 23. 

    Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment?

    • Command and Control

    • Operate the Airbase

    • Robust the Airbase

    • Open the Airbase

    Correct Answer
    A. Command and Control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Command and Control. Command and Control force module is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment. This force module is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making among different units and personnel. It plays a crucial role in managing and controlling the overall operations of the theater in a timely and efficient manner.

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  • 24. 

    What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?

    • Funding

    • Technical Solution

    • Requirements management plan

    • Answers, guidance, and education

    Correct Answer
    A. Answers, guidance, and education
    Explanation
    In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education to the project team. This is crucial as it helps to clarify any doubts or questions that team members may have regarding the project. The project manager also provides guidance on the overall direction and goals of the project, ensuring that everyone is on the same page. Additionally, the project manager educates the team on the project's objectives, scope, and any specific requirements that need to be met. This helps to ensure that the project starts off on the right track and that everyone is well-informed and prepared.

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  • 25. 

    Who implements a technical solution for a base?

    • Project monitor

    • Project manager

    • Communications squadron

    • Implementing organization

    Correct Answer
    A. Implementing organization
    Explanation
    The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means that they are the ones who are in charge of actually putting the solution into action and making it work. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to carry out the implementation process effectively. The project monitor, project manager, and communications squadron may have their own roles and responsibilities within the project, but it is the implementing organization that takes on the task of implementing the technical solution.

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  • 26. 

    Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

    • Major Construction

    • Minor Construction

    • All military construction

    • None, construction projects do not require authorization and appropriation

    Correct Answer
    A. All military construction
    Explanation
    All military construction projects require authorization and appropriation from the Secretary of Defense and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees. This means that any construction project related to the military, regardless of its scale or scope, must receive approval and funding from these entities before it can proceed.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)

    • Training

    • Personnel

    • Home Station Mission

    • Equipment Condition

    Correct Answer
    A. Home Station Mission
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures the readiness categories of Training, Personnel, and Equipment Condition. The readiness category of Home Station Mission is not measured by ART.

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  • 28. 

    Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

    • 2 days, 7 days

    • 2 days, 14 days

    • 7 days, 14 days

    • 14 days, 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 days, 14 days
    Explanation
    The airbase force module is expected to arrive within 2 days after opening the airbase. The estimated completion of the delivery is 14 days.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply?

    • Sole Source

    • Time and Material

    • Indefinite Delivery

    • Blanket Purchase Agreement

    Correct Answer
    A. Blanket Purchase Agreement
    Explanation
    A Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply. This means that instead of going through the procurement process each time a purchase is needed, a BPA allows the buyer to make purchases directly from pre-approved vendors. This streamlines the purchasing process and saves time and effort.

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  • 30. 

    Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

    • Training

    • Personnel

    • Facility Condition

    • Equipment Condition

    Correct Answer
    A. Facility Condition
    Explanation
    The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports on various areas related to military operations. These areas include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not measured and reported by SORTS. SORTS primarily focuses on assessing the readiness and availability of personnel and equipment for military operations.

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  • 31. 

    What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tool, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

    • MPTO 00-33A-1001

    • MPTO 00-33A-1002

    • MPTO 00-33A-2001

    • MPTO 00-33A-2002

    Correct Answer
    A. MPTO 00-33A-1001
  • 32. 

    What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

    • AFTO Form 745

    • AFTO Form 747

    • AFTO Form 749

    • AF Form 1747

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 747
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is the document that marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system. This form is used by the United States Air Force to certify that the system has been installed correctly and is fully operational. It serves as a record of completion and provides confirmation that all necessary steps have been taken to ensure the success of the project.

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  • 33. 

    Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 because MAJCOMs (Major Commands) require engineering support for their cyberspace systems integration. This support is provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier 2, which specializes in integrating and managing cyberspace systems for specific commands or organizations. Tiers 1, 3, and 4 may also provide support, but Tier 2 is specifically designated for MAJCOMs.

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  • 34. 

    As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

    • 6 Months

    • 1 Year

    • 2 Years

    • 3 Years

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 Years
    Explanation
    A support agreement must be reviewed at least 3 years after its effective date. This ensures that the terms and conditions of the agreement are still relevant and meet the needs of both parties involved. Regular reviews help identify any potential issues or changes that may need to be addressed, ensuring a smooth and effective support relationship between the parties.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open completion" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?

    • Unusual of compelling urgency

    • Unit commander's interest

    • National security interests

    • Sole source

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit commander's interest
    Explanation
    The "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act requires that government contracts be awarded through a competitive process. This means that all interested parties have the opportunity to submit bids or proposals for the contract. However, the unit commander's interest is not an exception to this stipulation. This means that even if the unit commander has a specific interest or preference for a particular contractor, the contract still needs to go through the competitive process to ensure fairness and transparency.

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  • 36. 

    Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?

    • Quality Assurance Program Coordinator

    • Contracting Officer Representative

    • Quality Assurance Evaluator

    • Unit Contract Monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance Program Coordinator
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders. This role ensures that the QA team and other relevant personnel are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively carry out their duties. They oversee the training program and ensure that it meets the requirements and standards set by the organization.

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  • 37. 

    Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support?

    • Facility Manager

    • Quality Assurance Evaluator

    • Functional Director/Commander

    • Unit plans, planning, and agreements section

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit plans, planning, and agreements section
    Explanation
    The Unit plans, planning, and agreements section acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support. This section is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the planning and execution of unit plans, as well as ensuring that any necessary agreements are in place. They work closely with the Facility Manager, Quality Assurance Evaluator, and Functional Director/Commander to ensure that the unit's design needs are met and that they have the necessary support from the base's Civil Engineering department.

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  • 38. 

    What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

    • Processes

    • Priorities

    • Requirements

    • Technical Solutions

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirements
    Explanation
    Source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the specific functionalities, features, and criteria that the cyberspace infrastructure capability needs to meet in order to fulfill its intended purpose. These documents serve as a guide for designing, developing, and implementing the necessary components and processes required to achieve the desired capability.

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  • 39. 

    The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for?

    • Safety modifications

    • T-1 temporary modifications

    • T-2 temporary modifications

    • All temporary and permanent modifications

    Correct Answer
    A. All temporary and permanent modifications
    Explanation
    The AF Form 1067 is a document used to define, validate, and approve requirements for both temporary and permanent modifications. This means that it is used to establish and authorize changes or alterations to equipment, systems, or processes that can be either temporary or permanent in nature. The form ensures that these modifications are properly evaluated, assessed for safety, and approved before implementation.

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  • 40. 

    Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office? 

    • 10 calendar days

    • 30 calendar days

    • 35 calendar days

    • 50 calendar days

    Correct Answer
    A. 35 calendar days
    Explanation
    A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date. This ensures that there is enough time to gather all the necessary information and complete the requirements before the deadline. It allows for proper planning and evaluation of the contract, ensuring that all parties involved have sufficient time to review and make informed decisions.

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  • 41. 

    Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?

    • Standard Unit Type Code (UTC)

    • Joint force/capability

    • In-lieu-of (ILO)

    • Ad hoc

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint force/capability
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Joint force/capability." This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to fulfill the core mission of another service. It allows for the seamless integration and cooperation between different services within a joint force, ensuring that the mission is effectively carried out even if one service is unable to provide their own capabilities.

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  • 42. 

    When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?

    • Concept Plan

    • Functional Plan

    • Supporting Plan

    • Operational Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Supporting Plan
    Explanation
    A supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans when tasked by the supported combatant commander. This plan is designed to provide assistance and resources to the main contingency plans, ensuring their successful execution. It outlines the specific actions, resources, and support needed to achieve the objectives of the contingency plans. The supporting plan works in conjunction with the main plans, helping to address any gaps or challenges that may arise during the execution of the contingency plans.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

    • Requirements services from outside agencies

    • Mobility (deployment) equipment

    • Requires additional manpower

    • Requires additional funding

    Correct Answer
    A. Requires additional funding
    Explanation
    The given options are all potential causes for requirements to be considered special, except for the one that states "Requires additional funding". While the other options suggest factors that could make requirements unique or different from standard ones, the need for additional funding does not necessarily make a requirement special. Many requirements may require additional funding without being considered special.

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  • 44. 

    Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test material (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?

    • Safety modifications

    • T-1 temporary modification

    • T-2 temporary modification

    • All temporary and permanent modifications

    Correct Answer
    A. T-2 temporary modification
    Explanation
    T-2 temporary modification evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test material (hardware, firmware, and software) capabilities. This type of modification is specifically designed for temporary use and is meant to assess the performance and effectiveness of the material being tested. It allows for modifications to be made and tested without permanently altering the original material.

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  • 45. 

    Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

    • Generate the MIssion

    • Establish the Airbase

    • Operate the Airbase

    • Robust the Airbase

    Correct Answer
    A. Robust the Airbase
    Explanation
    The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the Airbase." This suggests that the process of robusting the airbase involves bringing in additional support forces after the initial establishment of the deployed location. These support forces are not immediately available but are expected to arrive within 30 days to further strengthen and enhance the operations of the airbase.

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  • 46. 

    Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specific fixed hourly rates?

    • Sole Source

    • Firm Fixed Price

    • Time and Material

    • Performance Based

    Correct Answer
    A. Time and Material
    Explanation
    A Time and Material contract is used when the acquisition of supplies or services is based on direct labor hours at specific fixed hourly rates. This type of contract is commonly used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is not possible to determine a firm fixed price. It allows for flexibility in adjusting the quantity of labor and materials required based on the actual needs of the project.

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  • 47. 

    Which deployment planning process develops predetermined response to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepare deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

    • Deliberate Planning

    • Crisis Action Planning

    • Mobilization Planning

    • Force Rotational Planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Deliberate Planning
    Explanation
    Deliberate Planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is typically used for long-term planning and is characterized by thorough analysis and consideration of various factors before making decisions.

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  • 48. 

    Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

    • Strategy

    • Combat Plans

    • Combat Support

    • Combat Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Combat Support
    Explanation
    The division that is not a part of the Air and Space Operations Center is Combat Support. The Air and Space Operations Center is responsible for coordinating and executing combat operations, combat plans, and strategy. Combat Support, on the other hand, focuses on providing logistical and administrative support to the combat forces.

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  • 49. 

    Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?

    • Sole Source

    • Firm Fixed Price

    • Time and Material

    • Performanced Based

    Correct Answer
    A. Time and Material
    Explanation
    The Time and Material contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy. This type of contract allows for flexibility in terms of the scope of work and the costs involved, as it is based on the actual time spent on the project and the materials used. It is commonly used in situations where the requirements may change or evolve over time, making it difficult to determine a fixed price or timeline for the project.

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  • Dec 15, 2016
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