2a553c CDC Volume 3 Ure

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which principle is not an EW tenet?

    • Exploit
    • Control
    • Enhance
    • Command
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About This Quiz


2a553c cdc volume #3 URE questions. For 5 level upgrading on EOC

2a553c CDC Volume 3 Ure - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Traditional  noise jamming techniques designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations are applications of?

    • Denial

    • Deception

    • Disruption

    • Destruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial
    Explanation
    Traditional noise jamming techniques are designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations, which ultimately denies or prevents the intended recipient from receiving or interpreting the information correctly. This denial of the communication or radar signal is the primary purpose of noise jamming, making it the correct answer.

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  • 3. 

    Deliberate radiation , alteration, suppression, absorption, denial, enhancement, or reflection of electromagnetic energy to misslead the enemy is called?

    • Detection

    • Deception

    • Disruption

    • Destruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Deception
    Explanation
    Deception refers to the deliberate use of various techniques such as radiation, alteration, suppression, absorption, denial, enhancement, or reflection of electromagnetic energy to mislead the enemy. This can involve creating false signals, disguising true signals, or manipulating the enemy's perception of the electromagnetic environment. The goal of deception is to confuse and misdirect the enemy, making it difficult for them to accurately detect and interpret the true intentions and capabilities of the opposing forces.

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  • 4. 

    What is the most effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?

    • Denial

    • Deception

    • Disruption

    • Destruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Destruction
    Explanation
    The most effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum is through destruction. By destroying the enemy's electronic communication systems, radar systems, and other electronic devices, their ability to utilize the electromagnetic spectrum for their advantage is effectively neutralized. This can be achieved through various methods such as cyber attacks, physical destruction of equipment, or jamming signals. By destroying their ability to use the electromagnetic spectrum, the enemy's communication, surveillance, and coordination capabilities are severely hindered, giving the friendly forces a significant advantage.

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  • 5. 

    What component of EW involves the use of the electromagnetic, directed energy, or antiradiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equiptment?

    • EA

    • ES

    • EP

    • ECCM

    Correct Answer
    A. EA
    Explanation
    EA stands for Electronic Attack, which involves the use of electromagnetic, directed energy, or antiradiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment. This component of EW focuses on disrupting, deceiving, or denying enemy use of the electromagnetic spectrum, causing interference or damage to their systems.

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  • 6. 

    What EW component is used to locate intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for the threat recognition?

    • Electronic attack

    • Electronic support

    • Electronic protection

    • Electronic management

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic support
    Explanation
    Electronic support is the correct answer because it refers to the component used to locate intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition. Electronic support involves the use of electronic systems to gather, analyze, and interpret electromagnetic signals in order to identify and locate potential threats. This component plays a crucial role in detecting and monitoring enemy electronic emissions, providing valuable information for electronic warfare operations.

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  • 7. 

    Electronic support data is not used to produce?

    • Signal intellegence

    • Ballistic intellegence

    • Electronic intellegence

    • Communications intellegence

    Correct Answer
    A. Ballistic intellegence
    Explanation
    Ballistic intelligence refers to the analysis and interpretation of information related to the flight path and trajectory of projectiles such as missiles or artillery shells. Electronic support data, on the other hand, involves the collection and processing of electronic signals and communications. These two types of intelligence are distinct and serve different purposes. Therefore, electronic support data is not used to produce ballistic intelligence.

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  • 8. 

    Degrading or interfering with the enemys C2 capabilities is best described by?

    • Denial

    • Disruption

    • Physical attack

    • Support system

    Correct Answer
    A. Disruption
    Explanation
    Disruption is the best way to describe degrading or interfering with the enemy's C2 (Command and Control) capabilities. Disruption refers to the act of causing disturbance or interruption in the enemy's C2 systems, making it difficult for them to effectively communicate, coordinate, and control their forces. This can be achieved through various means such as jamming communication signals, hacking into their systems, or conducting cyber attacks. By disrupting the enemy's C2 capabilities, their ability to effectively plan and execute military operations is significantly hindered, giving an advantage to the opposing force.

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  • 9. 

    Using precition guided munitions, cruise missiles, or gunships is an example of?

    • Denial

    • Disruption

    • Physical attack

    • Support systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical attack
    Explanation
    Using precision guided munitions, cruise missiles, or gunships involves directly targeting and attacking the physical assets or infrastructure of the enemy. This type of action aims to cause damage, destruction, or casualties to the enemy's physical resources, such as military installations, vehicles, or personnel. It is a direct offensive measure that seeks to weaken the enemy's capabilities and hinder their ability to continue operations effectively.

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  • 10. 

    What support system provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond coverage of the ground-based radars? 

    • AWACS

    • JWCCS

    • JSTARS

    • ABCCC

    Correct Answer
    A. AWACS
    Explanation
    AWACS stands for Airborne Warning and Control System. It is an advanced radar system that is mounted on an aircraft and provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond the coverage of ground-based radars. AWACS is capable of detecting and tracking aircraft at long ranges and can provide early warning of potential threats. It also has the ability to direct and coordinate air defense operations, making it an essential support system for surveillance and control of airspace.

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  • 11. 

    Normal suppresion of enemy air defence targets include radars for?

    • Acquisition, and antiaircraft artillery only.

    • Acquisition, and antiaircraft artillery, and sam only

    • Acquisition, and early warning/ground controlled intercept and sam only

    • Acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept and sam only

    Correct Answer
    A. Acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept and sam only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM only. Normal suppression of enemy air defense targets involves targeting and neutralizing various components of the enemy's air defense system. This includes targeting and disabling their radars for acquisition purposes, as well as their antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept systems, and surface-to-air missiles (SAMs). By neutralizing these components, the attacking force can gain air superiority and reduce the effectiveness of the enemy's air defense capabilities.

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  • 12. 

    What SAM system in north vietnam was devestating to our strike forces?

    • SA-1

    • SA-2

    • SA-4

    • SA-6

    Correct Answer
    A. SA-2
    Explanation
    The SA-2 SAM system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces. This surface-to-air missile system, also known as the "Guideline," was highly effective in shooting down American aircraft during the Vietnam War. Its long-range capability and advanced radar-guided technology made it a significant threat to US strike missions, forcing them to adapt their tactics and employ electronic countermeasures to try and evade its deadly reach. The SA-2 played a crucial role in the air defense network of North Vietnam and caused significant losses to American forces throughout the conflict.

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  • 13. 

    What division of EW involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism?

    • Electronic attack

    • Electronic support

    • Electronic detection

    • Electronic protection

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic attack
    Explanation
    Electronic attack is the division of EW that involves weapons using electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism. This division focuses on disrupting, denying, or degrading enemy electronic systems, such as communication, radar, or navigation systems. By using electromagnetic or directed energy weapons, electronic attack aims to neutralize or destroy the enemy's electronic capabilities, providing a significant advantage in warfare.

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  • 14. 

    What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA?

    • AGM–65

    • AGM–88.

    • BDU–65.

    • BDU–88

    Correct Answer
    A. AGM–65
    Explanation
    The AGM-65 missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA.

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  • 15. 

    What type of electromagnetic jamming focuses all of the jamming energy in one particular area?

    • Support

    • Standoff

    • Directional

    • Communications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Directional
    Explanation
    Directional electromagnetic jamming refers to the type of jamming that concentrates all of the jamming energy in a specific area. Unlike other types of jamming, which may spread the jamming energy over a wider range, directional jamming is targeted and focused, allowing for more precise disruption of communication signals in a specific location. This type of jamming is often used in military operations to interfere with enemy communication systems without affecting friendly forces.

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  • 16. 

    What type of jamming masks the presence and/or location of the strike force?

    • Standoff

    • Directional

    • Destruction

    • Communications

    Correct Answer
    A. Standoff
    Explanation
    Standoff jamming is a type of jamming that masks the presence and/or location of the strike force. It involves creating a distance between the jamming platform and the target, thereby reducing the risk of detection and allowing the strike force to remain hidden. This type of jamming is effective in disrupting enemy communication systems and confusing their defenses, making it difficult for them to locate and engage the strike force.

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  • 17. 

    What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy’s C2 network?

    • E–6B.

    • EF–111.

    • F–16CJ.

    • EC–130H.

    Correct Answer
    A. EC–130H.
    Explanation
    The EC-130H is an aircraft specifically designed for electronic warfare and is used to jam communications of the enemy's C2 network. It is equipped with advanced electronic jamming systems that can disrupt and disable enemy communication systems, making it an effective tool for disrupting enemy command and control operations. The other options, E-6B, EF-111, and F-16CJ, are not specifically designed for jamming communications and do not have the same capabilities as the EC-130H in this regard.

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  • 18. 

     The steps taken to limit the incidental or accidental emissions from electronic equipment is best described as

    • Electronic attack.

    • Emissions control.

    • Electromagnetic hardening.

    • Electronic counter countermeasures.

    Correct Answer
    A. Emissions control.
    Explanation
    The term "emissions control" refers to the measures or actions taken to limit or reduce the incidental or accidental emissions from electronic equipment. This can include implementing shielding techniques, using filters, or employing other strategies to minimize electromagnetic interference. The other options, such as "electronic attack," "electromagnetic hardening," and "electronic counter countermeasures," do not accurately describe the steps taken to limit emissions, making "emissions control" the most appropriate answer.

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  • 19. 

     The processes and actions necessary to protect your equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse produced by an atomic blast is best described as

    • Emissions control.

    • Electromagnetic hardening.

    • Electromagnetic compatibility.

    • Early warning frequency deconfliction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electromagnetic hardening.
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic hardening refers to the processes and actions taken to protect equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) produced by an atomic blast. This involves designing and implementing measures to shield and safeguard equipment against the intense electromagnetic radiation and energy released during an EMP event. It includes techniques such as using shielding materials, grounding, and surge protection to minimize the impact of the EMP on the equipment.

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  • 20. 

    Any disturbance that interrupts, obstructs, degrades, or limits the effective performance of electronics or equipment is best described as

    • Electromagnetic pulse.

    • Electromagnetic hardening.

    • Electronic counter-countermeasures.

    • Electromagnetic interference.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electromagnetic interference.
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic interference refers to any disturbance that hinders or disrupts the proper functioning of electronics or equipment. This interference can be caused by various sources such as electromagnetic radiation from nearby devices, power lines, or radio waves. It can result in signal degradation, data loss, or even complete failure of the affected equipment. Electromagnetic hardening, on the other hand, refers to the process of making electronics resistant to electromagnetic interference. Electronic counter-countermeasures and electromagnetic pulse are not the most suitable descriptions for this type of disturbance.

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  • 21. 

    The steps taken to locate the intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment is best described as

    • Electronic attack.

    • Electronic support.

    • Electronic protection.

    • Electronic management.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic management.
    Explanation
    The term "electronic management" refers to the process of controlling and overseeing electronic systems and equipment. In the context of the question, the steps taken to locate intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment involve managing and coordinating various electronic systems and tools to identify and analyze these emissions. This includes using specialized equipment, techniques, and procedures to detect, track, and analyze radar signals. Therefore, "electronic management" is the most appropriate description for these steps.

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  • 22. 

    What are EW reconnaissance crews called?

    • Crows.

    • Ferrets.

    • Sparks.

    • Ravens.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ravens.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Ravens. EW reconnaissance crews are commonly referred to as Ravens.

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  • 23. 

     The piece of equipment considered the heart of the electronic support system is

    • Pulse analyzer.

    • Cathode-ray tube.

    • Spectrum analyzer.

    • Panoramic receiver.

    Correct Answer
    A. Panoramic receiver.
    Explanation
    The panoramic receiver is considered the heart of the electronic support system because it is responsible for detecting and analyzing a wide range of frequencies simultaneously. It allows for the monitoring and interception of various signals, making it an essential component in electronic warfare and intelligence gathering operations. The pulse analyzer, cathode-ray tube, and spectrum analyzer are all important tools in electronic support systems, but they do not have the same level of capability and versatility as the panoramic receiver.

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  • 24. 

    What ES equipment provides antenna scan-type, scan rate, pulse recurrence frequency, pulse width, and pulse shape?

    • Oscilloscope.

    • Pulse analyzer.

    • Spectrum analyzer.

    • Panoramic receiver.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulse analyzer.
    Explanation
    A pulse analyzer is the correct answer because it is a specialized piece of equipment used to analyze and measure the characteristics of pulses, such as antenna scan-type, scan rate, pulse recurrence frequency, pulse width, and pulse shape. Oscilloscopes are used to measure and display voltage waveforms, spectrum analyzers are used to analyze the frequency components of a signal, and panoramic receivers are used for wideband signal reception. Therefore, pulse analyzers are specifically designed for the task described in the question.

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  • 25. 

    What Air Force aircraft is used extensively to collect ELINT and COMINT data?

    • E–6B.

    • EC–130H

    • KC–135R.

    • RC–135V/W.

    Correct Answer
    A. RC–135V/W.
    Explanation
    The RC-135V/W is extensively used by the Air Force to collect ELINT (Electronic Intelligence) and COMINT (Communications Intelligence) data. This aircraft is specifically designed for reconnaissance missions and is equipped with advanced sensors and communication systems to intercept and analyze electronic and communication signals. It is capable of gathering information from various sources, including radar systems, radio transmissions, and other electronic emissions, making it an essential asset for intelligence gathering and surveillance operations.

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  • 26. 

    What major subdivision of SIGINT collects and processes data on radar?

    • PHOTINT

    • ELINT.

    • HUMINT.

    • COMINT.

    Correct Answer
    A. ELINT.
    Explanation
    ELINT, or Electronic Intelligence, is the major subdivision of SIGINT (Signals Intelligence) that specializes in collecting and processing data on radar. ELINT focuses on intercepting and analyzing electronic signals emitted by radar systems, such as their frequency, waveform, and other characteristics. This information is crucial for understanding enemy radar capabilities, locating radar installations, and developing countermeasures to radar systems. Therefore, ELINT is the correct answer for the question.

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  • 27. 

    ) What ELINT equipment is used to determine location of emitters?

    • Pulse analyzer.

    • Direction finder.

    • Spectrum analyzer.

    • Panoramic receiver.

    Correct Answer
    A. Direction finder.
    Explanation
    A direction finder is used in ELINT (Electronic Intelligence) to determine the location of emitters. This equipment helps to identify the direction from which the signals are coming, allowing the user to locate the source of the signals accurately. The other options, such as pulse analyzer, spectrum analyzer, and panoramic receiver, are not specifically designed to determine the location of emitters but serve different purposes in analyzing and monitoring electronic signals.

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  • 28. 

    What is the correct order in which the four radars in an air defense network are used?

    • Early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense.

    • Height finder, early warning, acquisition, and terminal defense.

    • Acquisition, early warning, height finder, and terminal defense.

    • Acquisition, height finder, early warning, and terminal defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense.
    Explanation
    The correct order in which the four radars in an air defense network are used is as follows: early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense. This order makes sense as the early warning radar is responsible for detecting incoming threats at long ranges, the height finder radar determines the altitude of the detected targets, the acquisition radar tracks and identifies the targets, and finally, the terminal defense radar engages and neutralizes the threats.

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  • 29. 

     What type of information necessary for ground-controlled intercept is provided by HF radar?

    • Range.

    • Azimuth.

    • Altitude.

    • Velocity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Altitude.
    Explanation
    HF radar provides information about the altitude of the target for ground-controlled intercept. This means that it can determine the height or elevation of the target, which is crucial for intercepting and engaging the target effectively. The other options mentioned, such as range, azimuth, and velocity, are also important for intercept, but in this case, the correct answer specifically focuses on altitude.

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  • 30. 

    What type of radar in an air defense network obtains accurate data on the number of attacking aircraft and their track?

    • Acquisition.

    • Height finder.

    • Early warning.

    • Terminal defense.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acquisition.
    Explanation
    Acquisition radar in an air defense network is responsible for obtaining accurate data on the number of attacking aircraft and their track. It is designed to detect and track incoming targets, providing crucial information for the defense system to effectively respond and neutralize the threat. This radar plays a vital role in identifying and acquiring the necessary data to assess the situation and make informed decisions in order to protect the airspace.

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  • 31. 

    What type of radar in an air defense network is a lethal threat attacking aircraft?

    • Acquisition.

    • Height finder.

    • Early warning.

    • Terminal defense.

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminal defense.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Terminal defense. In an air defense network, terminal defense radar is specifically designed to detect and track incoming hostile aircraft in the final phase of their attack. It plays a crucial role in identifying and engaging these threats, making it a lethal component of the network. Acquisition radar is responsible for detecting and tracking targets, height finder radar is used to determine the altitude of targets, and early warning radar detects potential threats at longer ranges.

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  • 32. 

    What three phases do SAM systems function to target attacking aircraft?

    • Early warning acquisition, and target tracking.

    • Early warning, acquisition, and command guidance.

    • Acquisition, target tracking, and command guidance.

    • Early warning, target tracking, and command guidance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acquisition, target tracking, and command guidance.
    Explanation
    SAM systems function in three phases to target attacking aircraft: acquisition, target tracking, and command guidance. In the acquisition phase, the system detects and identifies the presence of an incoming aircraft. Then, in the target tracking phase, the system tracks the movement of the aircraft to maintain a continuous lock-on. Finally, in the command guidance phase, the system guides the missile or weapon system to intercept and engage the target accurately.

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  • 33. 

    What type of fuse is vulnerable to EW?

    • MT.

    • VT.

    • AAA.

    • PRX.

    Correct Answer
    A. PRX.
    Explanation
    The question is asking which type of fuse is vulnerable to EW (electronic warfare). However, the options provided (MT, VT, AAA) do not seem to be related to fuses or electronic warfare. Only the option "PRX" can be interpreted as a type of fuse, and it is the correct answer because it is vulnerable to electronic warfare.

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  • 34. 

    An important part of the C2 system is the

    • Computer.

    • Height finder radar.

    • Airborne interceptor.

    • AWACS aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is computer. In a C2 system (Command and Control system), the computer plays a crucial role in processing and analyzing data to provide real-time information and facilitate decision-making. It helps in coordinating and controlling military operations by integrating various sensors, communication systems, and databases. The computer enables the C2 system to gather, process, and disseminate information efficiently, ensuring effective command and control of military forces.

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  • 35. 

    The most effective C2 addition to the basic air defense system is

    • A computer.

    • Low observable stealth technology.

    • Ground-controlled interceptor aircraft.

    • AWACS aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. AWACS aircraft.
    Explanation
    AWACS (Airborne Warning and Control System) aircraft serve as a crucial addition to the basic air defense system. These aircraft provide early warning and surveillance capabilities, allowing for the detection and tracking of potential threats from a distance. With their advanced radar systems and communication capabilities, AWACS aircraft can effectively coordinate and direct air defense operations, enhancing the overall effectiveness of the system. This makes them the most effective C2 (command and control) addition to the basic air defense system.

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  • 36. 

    Additions to the C2 network extend the range of the air defense system?

    • Computers and AAA.

    • Long-range interceptors and computers.

    • AWACS and AAA.

    • Long-range interceptors and AWACS.

    Correct Answer
    A. Long-range interceptors and AWACS.
    Explanation
    Long-range interceptors and AWACS are the correct additions to the C2 network to extend the range of the air defense system. Long-range interceptors are capable of engaging targets at a greater distance, while AWACS (Airborne Warning and Control System) provides airborne surveillance and command and control capabilities, enhancing the overall effectiveness and coverage of the air defense system. The combination of these two additions allows for a wider range of detection, tracking, and interception capabilities, making it the most suitable choice for extending the range of the air defense system.

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  • 37. 

    Which military frequency band designator denotes a frequency range higher than the others?

    • Echo.

    • Golf.

    • Charlie.

    • Foxtrot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Golf.
    Explanation
    The military frequency band designator "Golf" denotes a frequency range higher than the others. This means that it represents a range of frequencies that is higher in value compared to the frequency ranges represented by the designators "Echo," "Charlie," and "Foxtrot."

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  • 38. 

    The angle of incidence required to get a reflection back to the source is

    • 30°.

    • 45°.

    • 90°.

    • 120°.

    Correct Answer
    A. 90°.
    Explanation
    When light waves strike a surface, they can be reflected, absorbed, or transmitted. The angle of incidence is the angle between the incident light ray and the normal to the surface. The angle of reflection is the angle between the reflected light ray and the normal to the surface. According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. In this case, if the angle of incidence is 90°, it means that the incident light ray is perpendicular to the surface. This angle will result in a reflection that is directed back to the source, as the reflected ray will also be perpendicular to the surface.

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  • 39. 

    What unit of a pulse radar provides very short pulse of DC voltage?

    • Duplexer.

    • Modulator.

    • Power amplifier.

    • Waveform generator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Modulator.
    Explanation
    A modulator is the unit of a pulse radar that provides a very short pulse of DC voltage. The modulator is responsible for generating the high voltage pulses that are transmitted by the radar antenna. It takes a low power continuous wave signal and converts it into a high power pulsed signal by modulating the amplitude, frequency, or phase of the signal. This allows the radar to transmit short pulses of energy that can be used to detect and locate objects. The other options listed, such as the duplexer, power amplifier, and waveform generator, are not directly involved in generating the short pulses of DC voltage.

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  • 40. 

    What unit of a pulse radar provides the PRF of the radar?

    • Modulator.

    • Master timer.

    • Power amplifier.

    • Waveform generator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Master timer.
    Explanation
    The master timer is responsible for providing the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) in a pulse radar system. The PRF determines the rate at which pulses are transmitted and is crucial for accurate target detection and measurement. The master timer controls the timing of the radar system, ensuring that pulses are transmitted at the desired frequency. The modulator is responsible for shaping the pulses, the power amplifier amplifies the pulses, and the waveform generator generates the waveform of the pulses. However, none of these components directly provide the PRF.

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  • 41. 

    What radar display indicator displays range or velocity?

    • A scope.

    • B scope.

    • Range height.

    • Plan position.

    Correct Answer
    A. A scope.
    Explanation
    A scope is a radar display indicator that displays range or velocity. It provides information about the distance or speed of a target being tracked by the radar system. The term "scope" is commonly used in radar terminology to refer to the display screen that shows the radar data. Therefore, the correct answer is A scope.

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  • 42. 

    Radar’s ability to separate targets into individual returns that are close together is called

    • Azimuth.

    • Elevation.

    • Definition.

    • Resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Resolution.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the term that describes Radar's ability to separate targets into individual returns that are close together. This ability is known as resolution.

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  • 43. 

    A nonlinear device is any electronic device where the

    • Impedance remains constant when the voltage changes.

    • Impedance remains constant when the current changes.

    • Current through the device is proportional to the applied voltage.

    • Current through the device is not proportional to the applied voltage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Current through the device is not proportional to the applied voltage.
    Explanation
    A nonlinear device is characterized by the fact that the current through the device is not directly proportional to the applied voltage. In other words, as the voltage changes, the current does not change in a linear manner. This means that the impedance of the device does not remain constant as the voltage changes. Nonlinear devices often exhibit behaviors such as saturation, where the current reaches a maximum value even if the voltage continues to increase, or hysteresis, where the current depends not only on the current voltage but also on its history.

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  • 44. 

    When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals, the output will be the

    • Sum of the two frequencies.

    • Difference of the two frequencies.

    • Sum, difference, and two original frequencies.

    • Sum and difference of the two frequencies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sum, difference, and two original frequencies.
    Explanation
    When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals, the output will consist of the sum and difference of the two frequencies, as well as the two original frequencies. Heterodyning involves mixing two signals together to produce new frequencies, which are the sum and difference of the original frequencies. Therefore, the correct answer is that the output will contain the sum, difference, and two original frequencies.

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  • 45. 

    A panoramic receiver displays detected emitters by

    • Threat symbol.

    • Frequency only.

    • Amplitude only.

    • Frequency and amplitude.

    Correct Answer
    A. Frequency and amplitude.
    Explanation
    A panoramic receiver is a device used to detect and display emitters, which are sources of electromagnetic signals. The receiver not only detects the frequency of the emitters but also measures their amplitude. This information is then displayed using threat symbols, which provide a visual representation of the detected emitters. Therefore, the correct answer is frequency and amplitude, as a panoramic receiver displays both of these characteristics of the detected emitters.

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  • 46. 

    What feature of a panoramic receiver prevents display of on-board transmitters’ output?

    • Display readout.

    • Receiver blanking.

    • Expand capability.

    • Transmitter blanking.

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver blanking.
    Explanation
    The feature of receiver blanking prevents the display of on-board transmitters' output. Receiver blanking refers to the ability of the receiver to temporarily disable or "blank" the display of certain signals, in this case, the output of on-board transmitters. This feature is useful in order to avoid interference or clutter on the display, allowing the receiver to focus on receiving and displaying other important signals.

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  • 47. 

    What mode of operation must the ALR–20 panoramic receiver be in to use the audio facility?

    • Manual.

    • Expand.

    • Self-test.

    • Automatic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manual.
    Explanation
    The ALR-20 panoramic receiver must be in manual mode to use the audio facility. This means that the user has to manually control and adjust the settings of the receiver to enable the audio feature. In manual mode, the user has full control over the receiver's functions and can choose to activate or deactivate the audio facility as required.

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  • 48. 

    What range of coverage does the RWR’s antennas provide?

    • 45°.

    • 90°.

    • 180°.

    • 360°.

    Correct Answer
    A. 360°.
    Explanation
    The RWR's antennas provide a range of coverage of 360°. This means that the antennas can detect signals from all directions around the RWR system. It provides a complete view of the electromagnetic environment, allowing the system to detect and identify any potential threats or radar signals coming from any direction.

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  • 49. 

    What component of the RWR processes the RF into a video signal?

    • Antenna.

    • Signal processor.

    • Control indicator.

    • Receiver/amplifier.

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver/amplifier.
    Explanation
    The receiver/amplifier is the component of the RWR (Radar Warning Receiver) that processes the RF (Radio Frequency) into a video signal. This component is responsible for receiving and amplifying the incoming RF signals from the antenna, and then converting them into a video signal that can be displayed on a screen or control indicator. The receiver/amplifier plays a crucial role in the RWR system by converting the RF signals into a format that can be easily interpreted and analyzed by the user.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 24, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 24, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 27, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Airmancollin

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