Air Force Technical Order (Afto) Volume 2 Quiz

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  • 1/38 Questions

    During operation of the EPU-6/E frequency converter it is determined that E and F pin voltage is not needed for the aircraft.  The operator places the loop/bypass/28V to aircraft switch to what position. 

    • 28V to aircraft
    • Neutral
    • Bypass
    • Loop
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About This Quiz

The purpose of the Air Force TO system is to provide concise but clear instructions for safe and effective operation and maintenance of centrally-acquired and managed Air Force military systems and commodities. Have you finished studying the volume two? Use the quiz below as a revision text. All the best!

Air Force Technical Order (Afto) Volume 2 Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What  components receive potential directly from the input auto transformer?

    • Analog board and alarm display.

    • Control transformer and voltage control.

    • Input circuit breaker and display power supply.

    • SCR voltage regulator and phase sequence transformer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Analog board and alarm display.
    Explanation
    The components that receive potential directly from the input auto transformer are the analog board and alarm display. This means that these two components are directly powered by the input auto transformer without any intermediate components or circuits.

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  • 3. 

    What components on the EPU-6/E frequency converter must be inspected prior to use?

    • Air inlets for blockage.

    • Wiring for secure mounting.

    • Maintenance panels for corrosion.

    • Interior air vents for secure mounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Air inlets for blockage.
    Explanation
    The air inlets on the EPU-6/E frequency converter must be inspected prior to use to ensure there are no blockages. This is important because proper air flow is necessary for the converter to function efficiently and prevent overheating. If the air inlets are blocked, it can lead to reduced performance and potential damage to the converter. Therefore, inspecting the air inlets for blockage is crucial before using the EPU-6/E frequency converter.

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  • 4. 

    What is the minimum interval at which the input and output terminals of the EPU-6/E are inspected?

    • Daily.

    • Annually.

    • Prior to use.

    • Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Semiannually." This means that the input and output terminals of the EPU-6/E are inspected every six months. This regular inspection ensures that the terminals are functioning properly and prevents any potential issues or malfunctions from occurring. By inspecting the terminals semiannually, any problems can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the EPU-6/E.

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  • 5. 

    During operation of the EPU-6/E frequency converter the operator determines that there is an under voltage (UV) fault problem with the unit. What component could be malfunctioning?

    • The analog board has failed.

    • The output trim potentiometer is centered.

    • The voltage control board potentiometer is shortened.

    • The audible alarm switch is in the silence position.

    Correct Answer
    A. The analog board has failed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the analog board has failed. This is because the under voltage fault problem indicates a malfunction in the unit, and the analog board is responsible for regulating and controlling the voltage levels. If the analog board fails, it can result in under voltage issues.

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  • 6. 

    During operation of the EPU-6/E frequency converter the operator determines that one phase voltage is lower than the other two phases.  What could cause this malfunction?

    • Malfunctioning transistor.

    • Improper SCR firing adjustment.

    • Burnt control transformer fuse.

    • Loose push-on connector on the output filter capacitor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loose push-on connector on the output filter capacitor.
    Explanation
    A loose push-on connector on the output filter capacitor could cause one phase voltage to be lower than the other two phases in the EPU-6/E frequency converter. When the connector is loose, it may not provide a secure connection, leading to a poor electrical connection and reduced voltage output. This can result in an imbalance in the voltages across the phases.

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  • 7. 

    What is the function of the deswirl ring on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor?

    • Accelerate Air.

    • Decrease air velocity.

    • Increase air pressure.

    • Smooth turbulent air flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Smooth turbulent air flow.
    Explanation
    The deswirl ring on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor is designed to smooth turbulent airflow. Turbulent airflow can cause inefficiencies and disruptions in the compressor's operation, leading to reduced performance. The deswirl ring helps to eliminate or reduce turbulence by redirecting and controlling the airflow, resulting in a smoother and more efficient operation of the compressor.

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  • 8. 

    What component on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor isolates the second stage air from the operation of the first stage compressor?

    • Interstage ducts.

    • Interstage seal.

    • Impellers.

    • Inducers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Interstage seal.
    Explanation
    The interstage seal on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor isolates the second stage air from the operation of the first stage compressor. This means that it prevents any air from the second stage from leaking into the first stage, ensuring that the two stages operate independently. This is important for maintaining the efficiency and performance of the compressor.

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  • 9. 

    What A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor engine component accelerates hot expanding gases and directs them into the nozzle ring?

    • Torus assembly.

    • Combustor can.

    • Combustor cap.

    • Plenum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Torus assembly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Torus assembly. The torus assembly is a component of the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor engine that is responsible for accelerating hot expanding gases and directing them into the nozzle ring.

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  • 10. 

    What prevents engine operation of an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor if oil pressure is low?

    • Fuel safety switch.

    • Oil pressure switch.

    • Oil filter bypass valve.

    • Oil pressure relief valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oil pressure switch.
    Explanation
    The oil pressure switch prevents engine operation of an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor if the oil pressure is low. This switch is designed to monitor the oil pressure and if it falls below a certain threshold, it sends a signal to the engine control system to prevent the engine from starting or running. This is crucial because low oil pressure can lead to inadequate lubrication, which can cause excessive wear and damage to the engine components. By shutting off the engine when oil pressure is low, the oil pressure switch helps to protect the engine from potential damage.

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  • 11. 

    What prevents over-pressurization of the bearing cavity on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor?

    • Oil jet.

    • Oil cooler.

    • Scavenge pump.

    • Oil tank vent line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oil tank vent line.
    Explanation
    The oil tank vent line prevents over-pressurization of the bearing cavity on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor. This is because the vent line allows excess pressure to escape from the bearing cavity, ensuring that the pressure remains at a safe level. Without the vent line, the bearing cavity could become over-pressurized, leading to potential damage or failure of the compressor.

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  • 12. 

    The acceleration limiter valve on the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor operates a poppet valve to control fuel flow to the atomizer using control air pressure combined with 

    • Oil pressure.

    • Fuel pressure.

    • Spring tension

    • Plenum air pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spring tension
    Explanation
    The acceleration limiter valve on the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor operates a poppet valve to control fuel flow to the atomizer using spring tension. This means that the valve is controlled by the tension of a spring, which determines the amount of fuel flow. The control air pressure, oil pressure, and plenum air pressure are not used to control the fuel flow in this system.

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  • 13. 

    On an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor what chambers are pressurized when the butterly valve is closed.

    • 1 & 3

    • 2 & 4

    • 1, 2, and 3.

    • 1, 3, and 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 3, and 4.
    Explanation
    When the butterfly valve is closed on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor, chambers 1, 3, and 4 are pressurized.

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  • 14. 

    What component on the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor closes to complete the electrical circuit to the fuel solenoid and ignition unit?  

    • Load switch.

    • Oil pressure switch.

    • Turbine start switch.

    • 35 percent centrifugal speed switch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oil pressure switch.
    Explanation
    The oil pressure switch on the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor closes to complete the electrical circuit to the fuel solenoid and ignition unit. This means that the switch is responsible for allowing the flow of electricity to these components, which are crucial for the operation of the turbine. The switch is likely designed to close only when there is sufficient oil pressure, ensuring that the turbine is properly lubricated before the fuel and ignition systems are activated.

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  • 15. 

    Refer to foldout 2. The A/M32A-95 gas turbine runs up to 60 percent but the battery is not charging. What is the probable cause of this trouble? 

    • K4 energized and its contacts closed.

    • K3 de-energized and its contacts opened.

    • K4 de-energized and its contacts closed.

    • K3 de-energized and the contacts did not remain closed.

    Correct Answer
    A. K3 de-energized and the contacts did not remain closed.
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the trouble is that K3 is de-energized and its contacts did not remain closed. This means that the circuit controlled by K3, which is responsible for charging the battery, is not functioning properly. As a result, the battery is not being charged even though the gas turbine is running at 60 percent.

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  • 16. 

    Refer to foldout 2. During an operational check of an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor you place the air load switch S2 in the ON position.  The butterfly valve starts to open at 95 percent. What do you check?

    • SV2

    • S10

    • TD2

    • K6

    Correct Answer
    A. TD2
    Explanation
    In this scenario, when the air load switch S2 is placed in the ON position, the butterfly valve starts to open at 95 percent. The correct answer, TD2, suggests that you should check TD2. However, without further context or information, it is not possible to determine what TD2 specifically refers to.

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  • 17. 

    Refer to foldout 2. What component on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor energizes SV4?

    • Master Switch

    • Air Load Valve

    • Air Load Switch

    • Oil Pressure Switch

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Load Switch
    Explanation
    The Air Load Switch is the component on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor that energizes SV4.

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  • 18. 

    What preliminary set-up step, if skipped, would prevent the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor from starting. 

    • Set-up Controls.

    • Set Parking Brake.

    • Open and secure the exhaust door.

    • Ensure the turbine air inlet and exhaust outlets are free of obstructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Open and secure the exhaust door.
    Explanation
    If the exhaust door is not opened and secured, the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor will not be able to start. This is because the exhaust door allows the turbine to release exhaust gases, which is necessary for the turbine to function properly. If the exhaust door is closed or not properly secured, the turbine will not be able to expel the exhaust gases, leading to a failure in starting the compressor.

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  • 19. 

    Which switch on the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor starts the automatic starting cycle?

    • Turbine start switch

    • Air load switch

    • Inhabit switch

    • Master switch

    Correct Answer
    A. Turbine start switch
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Turbine start switch. This switch is responsible for initiating the automatic starting cycle of the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor. It is specifically designed to start the turbine and begin the compressor's operation.

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  • 20. 

    Refer to foldout 2.  The A/M32A-95 engine cranks but doesn't start.  What is the probable cause of this trouble? 

    • CB3 is open.

    • S9 is shortened.

    • SV1 coil is open.

    • K7 is not energizing.

    Correct Answer
    A. SV1 coil is open.
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the engine cranking but not starting is that the SV1 coil is open.

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  • 21. 

    While you are operating an MA-3D conditioner, the output  air temperature is too high, so you set the temperature control to maximum  cooling.  The temperature controller sends a signal to   

    • B7 which steps closed to meter refrigerant into the evaporator.

    • B7 which steps open to meter refrigerant into the evaporator.

    • The quench valve which opens to aid in cooling.

    • S1 and S2 which open to aid in cooling

    Correct Answer
    A. B7 which steps open to meter refrigerant into the evaporator.
    Explanation
    When the output air temperature of the MA-3D conditioner is too high, setting the temperature control to maximum cooling is done to lower the temperature. In this scenario, B7 stepping open to meter refrigerant into the evaporator is the correct answer. By opening B7, more refrigerant is allowed to flow into the evaporator, which helps in cooling down the air.

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  • 22. 

    The temperature controller on an MA-3D air conditioner opens the hot gas bypass valve if the

    • Suction air pressure is too high so the boiling point of refrigerant can be decreased.

    • Air pressure is to low so the boiling point of R134a must be increased.

    • Suction pressure is to high so the boiling point of the refrigerant must be decreased to decrease the output air temperature.

    • Suction pressure is too low so the boiling point of the refrigerant must be increased to increase the output air temperature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Suction pressure is too low so the boiling point of the refrigerant must be increased to increase the output air temperature.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Suction pressure is too low so the boiling point of the refrigerant must be increased to increase the output air temperature." This is because when the suction pressure is low, it means that there is not enough refrigerant entering the compressor. By increasing the boiling point of the refrigerant, the temperature at which it changes from a liquid to a gas will also increase. This allows the refrigerant to absorb more heat from the surrounding air, resulting in a higher output air temperature.

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  • 23. 

    What component on an MA-3D air conditioner increases the ambient air temperature approximately 60 degrees Fahrenheit

    • Blower.

    • Compressor.

    • Evaporator.

    • Aftercooler

    Correct Answer
    A. Blower.
    Explanation
    The blower component on an MA-3D air conditioner increases the ambient air temperature approximately 60 degrees Fahrenheit. The blower is responsible for circulating the air through the air conditioner and pushing it out into the room. As the air passes through the blower, it is heated up by the heating elements or the heat exchange process, resulting in an increase in temperature. The blower plays a crucial role in distributing the heated air throughout the space and maintaining a comfortable temperature.

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  • 24. 

    The heat sink on the MA-3D

    • Circulates the ethylene glycol/water solution.

    • Cools the ethylene glycol/water solution.

    • Cools discharge air from the blower.

    • Cools ambient air.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cools the ethylene glycol/water solution.
    Explanation
    The heat sink on the MA-3D cools the ethylene glycol/water solution. This means that the heat sink is responsible for reducing the temperature of the solution, possibly by dissipating heat or transferring it to a different medium. It is likely that the ethylene glycol/water solution plays a critical role in the functioning of the MA-3D, and the heat sink ensures that it remains at an optimal temperature for efficient operation.

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  • 25. 

    You place the MA-3D air conditioner SW1 in the START position, but the engine does not operate.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

    • K7 contacts are closed.

    • Overspeed switch is closed.

    • Override switch is not closed.

    • Oil pressure switch is closed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Override switch is not closed.
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the engine not operating when the MA-3D air conditioner SW1 is in the START position is that the Override switch is not closed.

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  • 26. 

    The Engine on the MA-3D  air conditioner is operating at 1250 revolutions per minute (RPM), but the blower clutch does not engage. What do you do?

    • Replace SW2.

    • Replace the engine speed control.

    • Nothing; this is normal operation. The blower clutch energizes at governed speed.

    • Check the MPU to make sure it's sending the proper signal to the engine speed control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nothing; this is normal operation. The blower clutch energizes at governed speed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Nothing; this is normal operation. The blower clutch energizes at governed speed." This means that the blower clutch is designed to engage only when the engine reaches a certain speed, which is known as the governed speed. Therefore, there is no need to replace any parts or check any signals, as this is expected behavior for the air conditioner.

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  • 27. 

    What component on the MA-3D air conditioner provides 24 volts alternating current (VAC) for operation of the temperature controller?   

    • Generator (G1)

    • Alternator (G2)

    • Power monitor relay (PMR)

    • Transformer rectifier (TR1)

    Correct Answer
    A. Transformer rectifier (TR1)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Transformer rectifier (TR1). The transformer rectifier is responsible for converting the incoming AC voltage to the required 24 volts AC for the operation of the temperature controller. It performs the dual function of stepping down the voltage and rectifying it to provide a constant and stable power supply for the controller. The generator and alternator are not relevant in this context, and the power monitor relay is responsible for monitoring the power consumption rather than supplying power.

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  • 28. 

    What does frosting of a refrigeration system line or component indicate?

    • Open

    • Blockage

    • Condensing refrigerant

    • Low refrigerant charge

    Correct Answer
    A. Blockage
    Explanation
    Frosting of a refrigeration system line or component indicates a blockage. When there is a blockage in the system, the refrigerant flow is restricted, causing the temperature to drop and leading to the formation of frost on the affected area. This can occur due to various reasons such as debris, ice buildup, or a malfunctioning valve. Identifying and resolving the blockage is crucial to ensure proper functioning of the refrigeration system.

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  • 29. 

    What type of refrigeration system leak occurs when the pressure within the system is  less than atmospheric pressure?

    • Vacuum Leaks.

    • Inward Leaks.

    • Outward Leaks.

    • Pressure Leaks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inward Leaks.
    Explanation
    Inward leaks occur in a refrigeration system when the pressure within the system is less than atmospheric pressure. This means that air or other substances are being drawn into the system, causing a decrease in pressure. Inward leaks can be problematic as they can introduce contaminants into the system and affect its overall efficiency.

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  • 30. 

    What is the function auxiliary air system on the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC)? 

    • Powers the booster compressor.

    • Provides air to the feed air compressor.

    • Provides low pressure air for pneumatic tools.

    • Maintains 130F air temperature to prevent condensation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provides low pressure air for pneumatic tools.
    Explanation
    The auxiliary air system on the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) provides low pressure air for pneumatic tools. This means that it supplies the necessary air pressure for operating tools that are powered by compressed air, such as drills, impact wrenches, or paint sprayers. The other options listed, such as powering the booster compressor, providing air to the feed air compressor, or maintaining air temperature to prevent condensation, are not related to the function of the auxiliary air system.

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  • 31. 

    What components on the (SGNSC) seperate the nitrogen from the oxygen?

    • ASM1, ASM2

    • CYL1, CYL2

    • FCV1, FCV2

    • PS1, TS4, TS5

    Correct Answer
    A. ASM1, ASM2
    Explanation
    ASM1 and ASM2 are the components on the SGNSC (presumably a system or device) that separate nitrogen from oxygen.

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  • 32. 

    The nitrogen booster compressor on the (SGNSC) operates 

    • Electrically.

    • Hydraulically.

    • Pneumatically.

    • By a belt off the engine crank shaft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydraulically.
    Explanation
    The nitrogen booster compressor on the (SGNSC) operates hydraulically. This means that it uses a hydraulic system to generate the necessary power and pressure to compress nitrogen. Hydraulic systems use fluid to transmit power, and in this case, the fluid is used to drive the compressor and increase the pressure of the nitrogen. This method is commonly used in industrial applications where high pressure and power are required.

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  • 33. 

    What causes the starter solenoid on the (SGNSC) to disengage normal operation?

    • Alternator output.

    • Oil Pressure.

    • Ignition Switch released.

    • Centrifugal switch opens.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alternator output.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is alternator output. The starter solenoid on the (SGNSC) disengages normal operation when the alternator output is present. This means that when the alternator is functioning properly and providing sufficient power to the electrical system, the starter solenoid is no longer needed and can disengage.

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  • 34. 

    What component determines the speed of the nitrogen booster compressor on the (SGNSC)

    • Engine

    • End of stroke limit switch

    • Programmable logic controller (PLC) circuit

    • Directional control valve cycling control relay.

    Correct Answer
    A. Programmable logic controller (PLC) circuit
    Explanation
    The programmable logic controller (PLC) circuit determines the speed of the nitrogen booster compressor on the (SGNSC) engine. A PLC is a digital computer used to control various industrial processes, including the speed and operation of machinery. In this case, the PLC circuit would be programmed to control and regulate the speed of the nitrogen booster compressor, ensuring it operates at the desired speed for optimal performance.

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  • 35. 

    A supervisor documents a noncommissioned officer's (NCO's) safety training on Air Force Form.

    • 2426

    • 623

    • 457

    • 55

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
  • 36. 

    Who determines the length of time it is considered economically feasible to repair a piece of equipment?

    • Supervisor

    • Installation Commander

    • Uniform repair/replacement board

    • Item management and the equipment specialist

    Correct Answer
    A. Item management and the equipment specialist
    Explanation
    Item management and the equipment specialist determine the length of time it is considered economically feasible to repair a piece of equipment. They are responsible for evaluating the condition of the equipment, assessing the cost of repairs, and determining whether it is more cost-effective to repair or replace the equipment. This decision is based on factors such as the age of the equipment, availability of spare parts, and the overall cost of repairs compared to the cost of a new equipment.

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  • 37. 

    If you have an AGE unit that is overhauled, it is considered to be how old at the completion of the overhaul?

    • 1 year

    • 18 months

    • 2 years

    • 30 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 years
    Explanation
    When an AGE unit undergoes an overhaul, it is considered to be 2 years old at the completion of the overhaul. This implies that the overhaul process takes approximately 2 years to complete, and once it is finished, the AGE unit is considered to have aged by 2 years.

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  • 38. 

    To whom does the maintence organization sunbmit the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form 375?

    • MAJCOM HQ

    • Item Manager

    • Equipment Specialist

    • Uniform repair/replacement board

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM HQ
    Explanation
    The maintenance organization submits the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form 375 to the MAJCOM HQ.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 15, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Leone2110

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