1w051: Air Force Weather Technician Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/239 Questions

    Above 13 miles, the radiation from the sun breaks down the oxygen in the atmosphere into

    • Ozone gas.
    • Argon gas.
    • Carbon dioxide.
    • Gaseous nitrogen.
Please wait...
About This Quiz

The 1W051: Air Force Weather Technician Trivia Quiz assesses knowledge on atmospheric conditions, focusing on temperature variations, stratosphere characteristics, and atmospheric gases. It's designed for learners aiming to understand weather impacts on Air Force operations.

1w051: Air Force Weather Technician Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    If you throw a ball towards a stationary target from the window of a speeding vehicle, coriolis force (CoF) will cause the ball to miss the target

    • To the right.

    • To the left.

    • Downward.

    • Upward.

    Correct Answer
    A. To the right.
    Explanation
    The Coriolis force is a result of the rotation of the Earth and its effect on moving objects. When a ball is thrown from a window of a speeding vehicle, it has a certain velocity in the direction of the throw. However, due to the vehicle's speed and the rotation of the Earth, the ball experiences a Coriolis force that acts perpendicular to its velocity. This force causes the ball to deviate to the right of its intended target. Therefore, the ball will miss the stationary target to the right.

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  • 3. 

    An unstable wave cyclone is one where the amplitude

    • Decreases with time and the wave fills.

    • Increases with time and the wave fills.

    • Decreases with time and the wave deepens.

    • Increases with time and the wave deepens.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases with time and the wave deepens.
    Explanation
    In an unstable wave cyclone, the amplitude of the wave increases with time and the wave deepens. This means that as time progresses, the wave becomes stronger and the depth of the wave increases. This can lead to more intense weather conditions and potentially severe storms.

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  • 4. 

    Unstable waves are classified as

    • Barotropic highs.

    • Barotropic lows.

    • Baroclinic high.

    • Baroclinic lows.

    Correct Answer
    A. Baroclinic lows.
    Explanation
    Unstable waves are classified as baroclinic lows. Baroclinic refers to a condition where temperature and density gradients exist in the atmosphere, which leads to the formation of unstable weather systems. These systems are characterized by the vertical motion of air masses, resulting in the development of storms and other turbulent weather phenomena. Baroclinic lows are associated with the formation of cyclones and are often responsible for producing severe weather conditions.

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  • 5. 

    What causes the surface low to deepen during the self-development process?

    • Divergence aloft.

    • Convergence aloft.

    • Cold-air advection.

    • Warm-air advection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Divergence aloft.
    Explanation
    During the self-development process, the surface low deepens due to divergence aloft. Divergence aloft refers to the horizontal movement of air away from a central point in the upper levels of the atmosphere. This divergence creates a "vacuum" effect, causing air to rise from the surface and leading to a decrease in surface pressure. As the surface low deepens, it intensifies the cyclonic circulation and can lead to the formation of storms and severe weather conditions.

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  • 6. 

    How do you report prevailing visibility at US stations and overseas stations?

    • Meters for both.

    • Statute miles for both.

    • Statute miles for US stations and meters for overseas stations.

    • Meters for US stations and statute miles for overseas stations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Statute miles for US stations and meters for overseas stations.
    Explanation
    Visibility is reported using different units of measurement in the United States and overseas. In the United States, visibility is reported in statute miles, while overseas stations report visibility in meters. This is important for ensuring consistency and accuracy in reporting visibility conditions across different regions.

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  • 7. 

    For a runway visual range (RVR) report of R22/1000V1600FT, what is the visual range that a pilot can expect to see down the runway?

    • 1,000 feet.

    • 1,600 feet.

    • 1,300 feet.

    • 1,000 to 1,600 feet varying.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,000 to 1,600 feet varying.
    Explanation
    The given RVR report of R22/1000V1600FT indicates that the visual range down the runway can vary between 1,000 feet and 1,600 feet. The "R22" indicates the minimum visual range of 1,000 feet, while the "V1600FT" indicates that the visual range can vary up to 1,600 feet. Therefore, the pilot can expect to see a visual range anywhere between 1,000 feet and 1,600 feet down the runway.

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  • 8. 

    The distinguishing feature of any tornadic activity is

    • Intense thunderstorm activity.

    • Wind gusts over 35 knots in speed.

    • Cumulonimbus mammatus clouds.

    • The funnel-shaped appendage that hangs from the base of the cloud.

    Correct Answer
    A. The funnel-shaped appendage that hangs from the base of the cloud.
    Explanation
    The distinguishing feature of tornadic activity is the funnel-shaped appendage that hangs from the base of the cloud. This funnel-shaped appendage, also known as a tornado, is formed when a rotating column of air extends from the cloud to the ground. It is this characteristic funnel shape that sets tornadic activity apart from other types of severe weather phenomena such as intense thunderstorm activity, wind gusts, or cumulonimbus mammatus clouds.

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  • 9. 

    A thunderstorm officially ends

    • Ten minutes after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning.

    • Immediately after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning.

    • Fifteen minutes after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning.

    • Twenty minutes after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fifteen minutes after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning.
    Explanation
    A thunderstorm officially ends fifteen minutes after the last occurrence of thunder, hail, or lightning. This means that even if there is no more thunder, hail, or lightning, the storm is still considered to be ongoing for an additional fifteen minutes. This is likely to account for any lingering effects or potential dangers associated with the storm, such as residual lightning strikes or strong winds.

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  • 10. 

    The amount of time it takes the radar to transmit one pulse is called the

    • Wavelength.

    • Propagation.

    • Pulse length.

    • Listening time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulse length.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is pulse length. The question is asking for the term used to describe the amount of time it takes for the radar to transmit one pulse. Wavelength refers to the distance between two consecutive peaks or troughs of a wave, propagation refers to the movement or transmission of the wave, and listening time is not a term commonly associated with radar. Therefore, the best fit for the given question is pulse length, which describes the duration of a single pulse transmitted by the radar.

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  • 11. 

    While performing a radar metwatch, the operator notices a storm that has increased from 40 to 43 dBZs at one elevation slice. The operator must assume the intensity of this storm has

    • Doubled.

    • Tripled.

    • Not changed.

    • Not changed significantly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Doubled.
    Explanation
    The increase in dBZs from 40 to 43 indicates a 3 dB increase, which corresponds to a doubling of intensity. This means that the storm has become twice as intense as before.

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  • 12. 

    The Doppler dilemma is a tradeoff between

    • Range and height.

    • Height and speed.

    • Range and velocity.

    • Speed and direction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Range and velocity.
    Explanation
    The Doppler dilemma refers to the tradeoff between range and velocity. When using Doppler radar, it is difficult to accurately measure both the distance (range) and the speed (velocity) of an object simultaneously. This is because Doppler radar relies on the frequency shift of the radar signal caused by the motion of the object. The frequency shift can be used to determine the speed of the object, but it can also affect the accuracy of the range measurement. Therefore, there is a tradeoff between accurately measuring the range and the velocity of an object using Doppler radar.

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  • 13. 

    Who owns the Master System Control Function (MSCF) at a majority of the continental United States (CONUS) locations?

    • Operational Weather Squadron.

    • National Weather Service.

    • Digital one-hour Weather Station.

    • Warning and Forecast Office.

    Correct Answer
    A. National Weather Service.
    Explanation
    The National Weather Service owns the Master System Control Function (MSCF) at a majority of the continental United States (CONUS) locations. The MSCF is responsible for controlling and monitoring the weather systems and operations in these locations. As a government agency, the National Weather Service is tasked with providing accurate weather forecasts and warnings to the public, making them the rightful owner of the MSCF.

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  • 14. 

    Where is the ideal location to look for a hook echo signature?

    • Near the mid-levels of a severe thunderstorm.

    • Near the upper-levels of a severe thunderstorm.

    • In the right rear quadrant of the trailing half of the storm.

    • In the right front quadrant of the leading half of the storm.

    Correct Answer
    A. In the right rear quadrant of the trailing half of the storm.
    Explanation
    The ideal location to look for a hook echo signature is in the right rear quadrant of the trailing half of the storm. This is because the right rear quadrant is where the most intense and dangerous part of the storm is typically located. The hook echo signature is often associated with tornadoes, and it forms in the area where the rear flank downdraft wraps around the mesocyclone. Therefore, by focusing on the right rear quadrant, meteorologists can identify the potential presence of a tornado and issue appropriate warnings.

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  • 15. 

    The line echo wave pattern (LEWP) signature should signal the radar operator that

    • A favorable environment exists for severe weather development.

    • High pressure is forming and the threat of severe weather has ended.

    • Continued thunderstorm development is certain but severe weather is unlikely.

    • The current state of the atmosphere is much too stable for severe weather development.

    Correct Answer
    A. A favorable environment exists for severe weather development.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that a favorable environment exists for severe weather development. The line echo wave pattern (LEWP) signature is a radar indication of a specific type of thunderstorm known as a mesoscale convective system (MCS). MCSs are often associated with severe weather events such as heavy rain, strong winds, and hail. Therefore, when the LEWP signature is observed, it suggests that the conditions are conducive for the formation and intensification of severe weather.

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  • 16. 

    Data collected for generation of the composite reflectivity product is derived from

    • One elevation angle.

    • All elevation angles.

    • Selected elevation angle.

    • Slices identified at the unit control position (UCP).

    Correct Answer
    A. All elevation angles.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is all elevation angles. The composite reflectivity product is generated by combining data from multiple elevation angles. This is done to provide a more comprehensive and accurate representation of the reflectivity values throughout the atmosphere. By using data from all elevation angles, the composite reflectivity product can capture precipitation and other weather phenomena at different heights and distances from the radar. This helps meteorologists analyze and track weather patterns more effectively.

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  • 17. 

    An intense, temporary release of energy that occurs in the vicinity of sunspots and/or plages is called a

    • Sunspot.

    • Solar flare.

    • Stratospheric storm.

    • Geomagnetic storm.

    Correct Answer
    A. Solar flare.
    Explanation
    A solar flare is an intense, temporary release of energy that occurs in the vicinity of sunspots and/or plages. It is a sudden and violent eruption on the Sun's surface that releases a large amount of energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation, particles, and plasma. Solar flares can cause disturbances in Earth's atmosphere and affect communication systems, satellites, and power grids. Therefore, the correct answer is solar flare.

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  • 18. 

    What is the interface called that separates interplanetary space from the magnetosphere?

    • Magnetopause.

    • Magnetic field.

    • Geomagnetic storm.

    • Interplanetary magnetic field.

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnetopause.
    Explanation
    The interface that separates interplanetary space from the magnetosphere is called the magnetopause. This boundary is formed by the interaction between the solar wind (a stream of charged particles from the Sun) and the Earth's magnetic field. The magnetopause acts as a protective barrier, preventing most of the solar wind from entering the magnetosphere and shielding the Earth from its harmful effects.

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  • 19. 

    Identify the impact of electron density gradients within the ionosphere on single frequency or dual frequency Global Positioning System (GPS) navigation.

    • Positional accuracy is improved.

    • Positional accuracy is degraded.

    • Positions are not able to be calculated.

    • Positional readouts are delayed by 30 minutes or more.

    Correct Answer
    A. Positional accuracy is degraded.
    Explanation
    Electron density gradients within the ionosphere have a negative impact on single frequency or dual frequency GPS navigation. These gradients cause the GPS signals to experience delays and distortions as they pass through the ionosphere. This leads to errors in calculating the position, resulting in degraded positional accuracy.

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  • 20. 

    Which organization serves as the DOD’s sole space weather provider?

    • 30th Weather Squadron.

    • 45th Weather Squadron.

    • 614th Air and Space Operations Center (614 AOC).

    • 2d Weather Squadron Space Weather Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2d Weather Squadron Space Weather Operations Center.
    Explanation
    The 2d Weather Squadron Space Weather Operations Center serves as the DOD's sole space weather provider.

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  • 21. 

    Which organization operates the worldwide Solar Electro-optical Network (SEON)?

    • 30th Weather Squadron.

    • 45th Weather Squadron

    • 90th OSS Weather Flight.

    • 2d Weather Squadron Space Weather Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2d Weather Squadron Space Weather Operations Center.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 2d Weather Squadron Space Weather Operations Center. The Solar Electro-optical Network (SEON) is operated by this organization.

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  • 22. 

    The stratosphere is characterized by

    • Noctilucent clouds, a “D” layer, and excellent flying conditions.

    • A constantly warming temperature, mother-of-pearl clouds, and generally poor flying weather.

    • A maximum temperature of 7°C, the strongest concentration of ozone, dense cirrus clouds, and occasionally poor flying conditions.

    • A temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. A temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions. This answer accurately describes the characteristics of the stratosphere. The stratosphere is known for having a temperature that remains relatively constant, or isothermal, up to about 100,000 feet. It also contains the highest concentration of ozone, which is important for protecting the Earth from harmful UV radiation. Additionally, the stratosphere is known for providing excellent flying conditions due to its stable and clear atmosphere.

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  • 23. 

    Which force is described as any center-seeking force?

    • Inertia.

    • Coriolis.

    • Centrifugal.

    • Centripetal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Centripetal.
    Explanation
    Centripetal force is described as any center-seeking force. It is the force that keeps an object moving in a curved path and directed towards the center of the curve. It is responsible for maintaining circular motion and preventing the object from moving in a straight line. In contrast, inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion, Coriolis force is the apparent force experienced by a moving object in a rotating frame of reference, and centrifugal force is the apparent outward force experienced by an object moving in a curved path.

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  • 24. 

    The areas of low pressure that correspond to the belt of low pressure at 60°N created by the 3-cell circulation are the

    • Icelandic and Asiatic lows.

    • Icelandic and Aleutian lows.

    • Aleutian and Asiatic lows.

    • The Aleutian lows.

    Correct Answer
    A. Icelandic and Aleutian lows.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Icelandic and Aleutian lows. The 3-cell circulation model describes the atmospheric circulation patterns on Earth. At around 60°N, there is a belt of low pressure due to the convergence of warm air from the Ferrel cell and cold air from the Polar cell. This creates two main low-pressure systems, one near Iceland and another near the Aleutian Islands in Alaska. These lows are known as the Icelandic and Aleutian lows, respectively. They are characterized by cyclonic activity and are important for shaping weather patterns in their respective regions.

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  • 25. 

    In relation to the jet core, the greatest vertical wind shear is usually located

    • Above the strongest horizontal shear.

    • Below the strongest horizontal shear.

    • Above the jet core.

    • Below the jet core.

    Correct Answer
    A. Above the jet core.
    Explanation
    In relation to the jet core, the greatest vertical wind shear is usually located above the jet core. This means that the strongest change in vertical wind speed occurs above the region where the jet stream is strongest. This is because the jet core represents the area of maximum horizontal wind speed, and the vertical wind shear tends to be stronger in the upper levels of the atmosphere where the jet stream is located. Therefore, the greatest vertical wind shear is typically found above the jet core.

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  • 26. 

    What factors must a region possess in order to facilitate air mass formation?

    • Uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • Must be over water, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • Any nonuniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • Must be over smooth land, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.
    Explanation
    A region must possess a uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow in order to facilitate air mass formation. A uniform surface allows for consistent heating or cooling of the air above it, which helps in the development of stable air masses. Stagnant air means that there is little to no vertical movement of the air, allowing for the air mass to remain intact and develop its characteristic properties. Large-scale difluent flow refers to the divergence of air at high altitudes, which helps in the maintenance and expansion of the air mass.

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  • 27. 

    An increase of mass in a column of air will cause the surface pressure to

    • Increase.

    • Decrease.

    • Remain steady.

    • Do nothing, pressure is not affected by mass.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase.
    Explanation
    When the mass of a column of air increases, it means that there is more air molecules present in that column. This increase in mass leads to a greater gravitational force acting on the air molecules, causing them to be compressed closer together. As a result, the density of the air increases, leading to an increase in surface pressure. Therefore, an increase in mass in a column of air will cause the surface pressure to increase.

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  • 28. 

    The primary cause of surface pressure changes for a dynamic low is net

    • Divergence aloft.

    • Adiabatic cooling aloft.

    • Adiabatic warming aloft.

    • Divergence at the surface.

    Correct Answer
    A. Divergence aloft.
    Explanation
    The primary cause of surface pressure changes for a dynamic low is divergence aloft. Divergence aloft refers to the horizontal movement of air away from a specific location at higher altitudes. This movement creates a vertical pressure gradient, causing air to rise and resulting in lower surface pressure. As the air rises, it cools adiabatically, leading to the formation of clouds and precipitation. Therefore, divergence aloft is the main factor contributing to the development and intensification of a dynamic low-pressure system.

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  • 29. 

    When the central pressure of an anticyclone is rising, you can infer the anticyclone is

    • Filling.

    • Building.

    • Deepening.

    • Weakening.

    Correct Answer
    A. Building.
    Explanation
    When the central pressure of an anticyclone is rising, it indicates that the air within the anticyclone is sinking and becoming denser. This denser air leads to an increase in pressure at the center of the anticyclone, causing it to build in strength and intensity. Therefore, the correct answer is "building."

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  • 30. 

    With the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere, the horizontal wind direction will

    • Become more variable.

    • Become more northeasterly.

    • Shift in a clockwise direction.

    • Shift in a counterclockwise direction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shift in a clockwise direction.
    Explanation
    When a cold front passes in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction undergoes a shift in a clockwise direction. This is because cold fronts are associated with the movement of cold air mass, which displaces the warmer air ahead of it. As the cold air pushes forward, it causes the wind direction to rotate in a clockwise manner, resulting in a shift in the direction of the wind.

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  • 31. 

    What color balloon would you use to determine the ceiling heights of thin clouds?

    • Red.

    • Blue.

    • Black.

    • Yellow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Red.
    Explanation
    Red is the correct answer because red light has the longest wavelength and is least scattered by particles in the atmosphere. When red light is shone onto thin clouds, it can penetrate through them and reflect back, allowing us to see the ceiling heights of the clouds. Other colors, such as blue, black, or yellow, have shorter wavelengths and are more likely to be scattered or absorbed by particles in the atmosphere, making it difficult to determine the ceiling heights of thin clouds using those colors.

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  • 32. 

    How will precipitation targets appear as they move into the cone of silence?

    • No change.

    • Strengthen and grow.

    • Weaken and disappear.

    • Weaken and slow down.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weaken and disappear.
    Explanation
    As the precipitation targets move into the cone of silence, they will weaken and eventually disappear. The cone of silence refers to an area where the radar beam is unable to accurately detect precipitation due to various factors such as distance, angle, or interference. As the targets move further into this cone, the radar's ability to detect and track them diminishes, resulting in a weakening and eventual disappearance of the precipitation targets.

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  • 33. 

    Which value is considered the approximate precipitable/non-precipitable threshold?

    • –30dBZ.

    • –18dBZ.

    • +18dBZ.

    • +30dBZ.

    Correct Answer
    A. +18dBZ.
    Explanation
    The value of +18dBZ is considered the approximate precipitable/non-precipitable threshold.

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  • 34. 

    Which statement best describes water vapor in the atmosphere?

    • It absorbs ultraviolet radiation.

    • The most the air can hold is 6 percent.

    • The more water vapor, the lighter the air will be.

    • It keeps the earth from becoming too hot by absorbing solar radiation.

    Correct Answer
    A. The more water vapor, the lighter the air will be.
  • 35. 

    The driving mechanism that is mainly responsible for the earth’s large-scale atmospheric circulations is the

    • Unequal heating of the earth.

    • Rotation of the earth.

    • Hadley cell.

    • Polar cell.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unequal heating of the earth.
    Explanation
    The driving mechanism mainly responsible for the Earth's large-scale atmospheric circulations is the unequal heating of the Earth. This is because different regions of the Earth receive different amounts of solar radiation, causing variations in temperature. As a result, warm air rises in the equatorial regions and cold air sinks at the poles, creating a circulation pattern known as the Hadley cell and the polar cell. These circulation patterns play a crucial role in redistributing heat and moisture across the Earth, influencing weather patterns and climate.

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  • 36. 

    Which force is the “equal and opposite reaction” to the center-seeking force?

    • Inertia.

    • Coriolis.

    • Centrifugal.

    • Centripetal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Centrifugal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is centrifugal. Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion, and it is not directly related to the equal and opposite reaction to the center-seeking force. Coriolis force is a fictitious force that acts on objects in a rotating frame of reference, but it is not the equal and opposite reaction to the center-seeking force. Centripetal force is the force that acts towards the center of a circular path, while centrifugal force is the equal and opposite reaction to the center-seeking force, pushing objects away from the center.

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  • 37. 

    It is winter. A cPk air mass is moving over the Great Lakes. In this situation, the southern shores of the Great Lakes will experience

    • Hail.

    • Heavy snow.

    • Thunderstorms.

    • Freezing precipitation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Heavy snow.
    Explanation
    In winter, when a cPk air mass moves over the Great Lakes, it brings cold air and moisture from the lakes. As the air mass passes over the relatively warmer waters of the lakes, it becomes unstable and picks up moisture. This moisture then condenses and forms clouds, leading to heavy snowfall along the southern shores of the Great Lakes. Therefore, heavy snow is the expected weather condition in this situation.

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  • 38. 

    Horizontal divergence within an air mass will

    • Cause the surface pressure to rise.

    • Increase the mass in the vertical column above the surface.

    • Increase the vertical extent of the column above the surface.

    • Vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.
    Explanation
    Horizontal divergence within an air mass refers to the spreading out of air horizontally. This causes the air to vertically contract, meaning it becomes compressed in the vertical direction. As a result, the original column of air becomes narrower vertically. However, the air mass also expands horizontally, meaning it spreads out in the horizontal direction. Therefore, the correct answer is that horizontal divergence will vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.

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  • 39. 

    The damper effect is comprised of upper-level

    • Divergence and surface low pressure.

    • Divergence and surface high pressure.

    • Convergence and surface low pressure.

    • Convergence and surface high pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Convergence and surface high pressure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is convergence and surface high pressure. The damper effect refers to the phenomenon in which air converges and sinks at the surface under the influence of high pressure. This sinking motion suppresses the formation of clouds and precipitation, leading to stable and clear weather conditions. Conversely, divergence and surface low pressure are associated with rising air, which promotes cloud formation and potentially unstable weather conditions.

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  • 40. 

    In the life cycle of a low, the system will evolve into a cold barotropic low in the

    • Mature stage.

    • Dissipation stage.

    • Wave initiation stage.

    • Wave intensification stage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dissipation stage.
    Explanation
    In the life cycle of a low, the system goes through different stages. The dissipation stage is the final stage of the low's life cycle, where the system weakens and dissipates. This stage occurs after the mature stage, where the low reaches its peak intensity, and before the wave initiation stage, where a new low may form. Therefore, the correct answer is the dissipation stage.

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  • 41. 

    What causes a surface high to build during the self-development process?

    • Negative vorticity advection.

    • Positive vorticity advection.

    • Convergence aloft.

    • Divergence aloft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Convergence aloft.
    Explanation
    During the self-development process, a surface high builds due to convergence aloft. Convergence aloft refers to the horizontal movement of air towards a specific location at higher altitudes. As the air converges, it descends towards the surface, leading to the development of a high-pressure system. This descending air causes subsidence, which suppresses cloud formation and results in clear skies and calm weather conditions.

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  • 42. 

    What type of precipitation might you observe with clear skies?

    • Snow.

    • Ice crystals.

    • Ice pellets.

    • Snow grains.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ice crystals.
    Explanation
    Ice crystals can be observed with clear skies because they are formed when water vapor in the air freezes directly into ice without passing through the liquid phase. This can occur in very cold temperatures, even when the sky is clear. Snow, ice pellets, and snow grains are all forms of precipitation that require the presence of moisture and cloud formation, so they would not be observed with clear skies.

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  • 43. 

    Typical ground clutter targets have spectrum width values ranging from

    • 0.1 to 0.5m/s.

    • 1.5 to 2.5m/s.

    • 3.0 to 4.0m/s.

    • 4.0 to 5.0m/s.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.1 to 0.5m/s.
    Explanation
    Ground clutter refers to unwanted radar returns caused by stationary objects on the ground, such as buildings or trees. These returns can distort the radar's measurements and affect its accuracy. Spectrum width is a measure of the variability in the Doppler velocities of radar returns. In the case of ground clutter, the spectrum width values are typically low, ranging from 0.1 to 0.5m/s. This indicates that the Doppler velocities of the clutter targets are relatively stable and do not exhibit significant variability.

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  • 44. 

    Embedded thunderstorms are detected by the WSR–88D quite well because of which reason?

    • It uses airborne radar technology to seek out these storms.

    • The storms move much faster than the surrounding precipitation.

    • The storms move much slower than the surrounding precipitation.

    • Its 10cm wavelength can see through the stratiform precipitation that tends to hide the storms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Its 10cm wavelength can see through the stratiform precipitation that tends to hide the storms.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the WSR-88D can see through the stratiform precipitation that tends to hide the storms because of its 10cm wavelength. This wavelength allows the radar to penetrate through the lighter rain and snowfall that often occurs ahead of the embedded thunderstorms. As a result, the radar is able to detect and track these storms more effectively compared to other forms of precipitation.

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  • 45. 

    The spectrum width product is useful for the early detection of thunderstorm development because

    • The spectrum width product has not been identified for this use.

    • It scans the mid-levels of the atmosphere for pockets of moisture.

    • It is more sensitive than base reflectivity and can display the first occurrence of moisture.

    • The detection of high spectrum widths may be indicative of currents present in a convective atmosphere.

    Correct Answer
    A. The detection of high spectrum widths may be indicative of currents present in a convective atmosphere.
    Explanation
    The detection of high spectrum widths may be indicative of currents present in a convective atmosphere. This is useful for the early detection of thunderstorm development because convective activity is a key factor in the formation of thunderstorms. By identifying areas with high spectrum widths, meteorologists can identify regions where strong vertical motion and moisture convergence are occurring, which are essential ingredients for thunderstorm development. Therefore, the detection of high spectrum widths can provide valuable information for early warning systems and help forecasters anticipate the formation of thunderstorms.

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  • 46. 

    Generally, solar bursts are most common during

    • Daylight.

    • Nighttime.

    • Solar minimum.

    • Solar maximum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Solar maximum.
    Explanation
    Solar bursts, also known as solar flares, are intense explosions on the Sun's surface that release a large amount of energy. These bursts are caused by the sudden release of magnetic energy in the Sun's atmosphere. Solar maximum refers to the period in the solar cycle when the Sun is most active and has the highest number of sunspots. During this phase, the Sun's magnetic field is more complex and prone to instability, leading to an increased occurrence of solar bursts. Therefore, solar bursts are most common during solar maximum.

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  • 47. 

    Which bulletin, produced by Air Force Weather Agency (AFWA) Space Weather Operation Center, provides notice that a geomagnetic storm has already started?

    • WOXX50 KGWC, Short-wave fade advisory.

    • WOXX54 KGWC, Geomagnetic event warning report.

    • WOXX53 KGWC, Energetic particle event warning report.

    • FOXX50 KGWC, Polar cap absorption event warning report.

    Correct Answer
    A. WOXX54 KGWC, Geomagnetic event warning report.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "WOXX54 KGWC, Geomagnetic event warning report." This bulletin, produced by the Air Force Weather Agency (AFWA) Space Weather Operation Center, specifically provides notice that a geomagnetic storm has already started.

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  • 48. 

    The simplest method for locating the 500 millibar frontal zone is to

    • Locate the 500 millibar maximum wind band.

    • Locate the position of the –11° Centigrade isotherm.

    • Locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm.

    • Find where the thermal concentration is more than 5° Centigrade in 200 miles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm. This is because the 500 millibar frontal zone is typically associated with the boundary between warm and cold air masses. The –17° Centigrade isotherm represents the approximate temperature at which this boundary occurs, making it a good indicator for locating the frontal zone.

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  • 49. 

    Which orographic cloud resembles an almond or a fish?

    • Rotor.

    • Lenticular.

    • Foehn wall.

    • Castellanus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lenticular.
    Explanation
    Lenticular clouds are formed when moist air is forced to flow over a mountain or hill, causing it to cool and condense into a cloud. These clouds often have a distinctive lens or almond shape, resembling the shape of a fish. They are commonly seen near mountain ranges and are known for their smooth, rounded edges.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Aug 23, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 05, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Donald C
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