1w051: Air Force Weather Technician Trivia Quiz

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1w051: Air Force Weather Technician Trivia Quiz - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How many degrees centigrade does the temperature decrease per 1,000 meters of altitude in the troposphere?

    • A.

      3.5

    • B.

      4.5

    • C.

      5.5

    • D.

      6.5

    Correct Answer
    D. 6.5
    Explanation
    As altitude increases in the troposphere, the temperature decreases at a rate of 6.5 degrees centigrade per 1,000 meters. This is known as the lapse rate, and it is due to the decreasing air pressure and the expansion of air as it rises. The decrease in temperature with altitude is an important factor in understanding weather patterns and atmospheric conditions.

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  • 2. 

    The stratosphere is characterized by

    • A.

      Noctilucent clouds, a “D” layer, and excellent flying conditions.

    • B.

      A constantly warming temperature, mother-of-pearl clouds, and generally poor flying weather.

    • C.

      A maximum temperature of 7°C, the strongest concentration of ozone, dense cirrus clouds, and occasionally poor flying conditions.

    • D.

      A temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions.

    Correct Answer
    D. A temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions. This answer accurately describes the characteristics of the stratosphere. The stratosphere is known for having a temperature that remains relatively constant, or isothermal, up to about 100,000 feet. It also contains the highest concentration of ozone, which is important for protecting the Earth from harmful UV radiation. Additionally, the stratosphere is known for providing excellent flying conditions due to its stable and clear atmosphere.

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  • 3. 

    Above 13 miles, the radiation from the sun breaks down the oxygen in the atmosphere into

    • A.

      Ozone gas.

    • B.

      Argon gas.

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide.

    • D.

      Gaseous nitrogen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ozone gas.
    Explanation
    When radiation from the sun reaches the Earth's atmosphere, it interacts with the oxygen molecules. This interaction causes the oxygen molecules to break down and recombine into ozone gas. Ozone is a molecule made up of three oxygen atoms and is found in the Earth's ozone layer, which is located between 13 and 30 miles above the Earth's surface. Therefore, above 13 miles, the radiation from the sun breaks down the oxygen in the atmosphere into ozone gas.

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  • 4. 

    Which statement best describes water vapor in the atmosphere?

    • A.

      It absorbs ultraviolet radiation.

    • B.

      The most the air can hold is 6 percent.

    • C.

      The more water vapor, the lighter the air will be.

    • D.

      It keeps the earth from becoming too hot by absorbing solar radiation.

    Correct Answer
    C. The more water vapor, the lighter the air will be.
  • 5. 

    The two atmospheric gases most responsible for the absorption of incoming solar radiation are

    • A.

      Oxygen and ozone.

    • B.

      Ozone and water vapor.

    • C.

      Oxygen and water vapor.

    • D.

      Ozone and carbon dioxide.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen and ozone.
    Explanation
    Oxygen and ozone are the two atmospheric gases most responsible for the absorption of incoming solar radiation. Oxygen absorbs the shorter wavelengths of ultraviolet (UV) radiation, while ozone absorbs the longer wavelengths of UV radiation. This absorption helps to protect the Earth's surface from harmful UV radiation. Water vapor and carbon dioxide also play a role in absorbing solar radiation, but they are not as significant as oxygen and ozone in this process.

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  • 6. 

    The driving mechanism that is mainly responsible for the earth’s large-scale atmospheric circulations is the

    • A.

      Unequal heating of the earth.

    • B.

      Rotation of the earth.

    • C.

      Hadley cell.

    • D.

      Polar cell.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unequal heating of the earth.
    Explanation
    The driving mechanism mainly responsible for the Earth's large-scale atmospheric circulations is the unequal heating of the Earth. This is because different regions of the Earth receive different amounts of solar radiation, causing variations in temperature. As a result, warm air rises in the equatorial regions and cold air sinks at the poles, creating a circulation pattern known as the Hadley cell and the polar cell. These circulation patterns play a crucial role in redistributing heat and moisture across the Earth, influencing weather patterns and climate.

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  • 7. 

    Which force is described as any center-seeking force?

    • A.

      Inertia.

    • B.

      Coriolis.

    • C.

      Centrifugal.

    • D.

      Centripetal.

    Correct Answer
    D. Centripetal.
    Explanation
    Centripetal force is described as any center-seeking force. It is the force that keeps an object moving in a curved path and directed towards the center of the curve. It is responsible for maintaining circular motion and preventing the object from moving in a straight line. In contrast, inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion, Coriolis force is the apparent force experienced by a moving object in a rotating frame of reference, and centrifugal force is the apparent outward force experienced by an object moving in a curved path.

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  • 8. 

    Which force is the “equal and opposite reaction” to the center-seeking force?

    • A.

      Inertia.

    • B.

      Coriolis.

    • C.

      Centrifugal.

    • D.

      Centripetal.

    Correct Answer
    C. Centrifugal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is centrifugal. Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion, and it is not directly related to the equal and opposite reaction to the center-seeking force. Coriolis force is a fictitious force that acts on objects in a rotating frame of reference, but it is not the equal and opposite reaction to the center-seeking force. Centripetal force is the force that acts towards the center of a circular path, while centrifugal force is the equal and opposite reaction to the center-seeking force, pushing objects away from the center.

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  • 9. 

    Centrifugal force (CeF) will increase when there is a decrease in

    • A.

      Mass.

    • B.

      Centripetal force.

    • C.

      The speed of rotation.

    • D.

      The radius of rotation.

    Correct Answer
    D. The radius of rotation.
    Explanation
    Centrifugal force is the apparent outward force experienced by an object moving in a circular path. It is directly proportional to the mass, centripetal force, and the speed of rotation, but inversely proportional to the radius of rotation. Therefore, when there is a decrease in the radius of rotation, the centrifugal force will increase. This can be explained by the fact that as the radius decreases, the object has to travel a smaller distance in the same amount of time, resulting in a higher velocity and thus a greater centrifugal force.

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  • 10. 

    Coriolis force (CoF) is created by

    • A.

      The cyclonic rotation of the earth.

    • B.

      The anticyclonic rotation of the earth.

    • C.

      An opposing force to pressure gradient.

    • D.

      An apparent force, and therefore, it does not exist.

    Correct Answer
    A. The cyclonic rotation of the earth.
    Explanation
    The Coriolis force is created by the cyclonic rotation of the earth. This force is a result of the earth's rotation and causes moving objects, such as air or water, to be deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. It is an important factor in the formation of weather patterns and ocean currents.

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  • 11. 

    If you throw a ball towards a stationary target from the window of a speeding vehicle, coriolis force (CoF) will cause the ball to miss the target

    • A.

      To the right.

    • B.

      To the left.

    • C.

      Downward.

    • D.

      Upward.

    Correct Answer
    A. To the right.
    Explanation
    The Coriolis force is a result of the rotation of the Earth and its effect on moving objects. When a ball is thrown from a window of a speeding vehicle, it has a certain velocity in the direction of the throw. However, due to the vehicle's speed and the rotation of the Earth, the ball experiences a Coriolis force that acts perpendicular to its velocity. This force causes the ball to deviate to the right of its intended target. Therefore, the ball will miss the stationary target to the right.

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  • 12. 

    The force that is responsible for starting the horizontal movement of air over earth’s surface is

    • A.

      Gravity.

    • B.

      Coriolis.

    • C.

      Centrifugal.

    • D.

      Pressure gradient.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pressure gradient.
    Explanation
    The force responsible for starting the horizontal movement of air over the Earth's surface is the pressure gradient. Pressure gradient refers to the difference in air pressure between two points. Air naturally moves from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, creating wind and initiating the horizontal movement of air. Gravity, Coriolis, and centrifugal forces also play a role in atmospheric circulation, but they are not directly responsible for starting the horizontal movement of air.

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  • 13. 

    The balance of forces needed for gradient cyclonic circulation is pressure gradient

    • A.

      Balanced against friction and coriolis forces (CoF).

    • B.

      And friction balanced against centrifugal force (CeF).

    • C.

      Balanced against coriolis and centrifugal forces.

    • D.

      And centrifugal balanced against CoF.

    Correct Answer
    C. Balanced against coriolis and centrifugal forces.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "balanced against coriolis and centrifugal forces." In gradient cyclonic circulation, the balance of forces is crucial. The pressure gradient force drives the circulation, while friction and coriolis forces act as opposing forces. Additionally, the centrifugal force also plays a role in balancing the system. Therefore, the balance of forces needed for gradient cyclonic circulation involves the coriolis and centrifugal forces.

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  • 14. 

    The areas of low pressure that correspond to the belt of low pressure at 60°N created by the 3-cell circulation are the

    • A.

      Icelandic and Asiatic lows.

    • B.

      Icelandic and Aleutian lows.

    • C.

      Aleutian and Asiatic lows.

    • D.

      The Aleutian lows.

    Correct Answer
    B. Icelandic and Aleutian lows.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Icelandic and Aleutian lows. The 3-cell circulation model describes the atmospheric circulation patterns on Earth. At around 60°N, there is a belt of low pressure due to the convergence of warm air from the Ferrel cell and cold air from the Polar cell. This creates two main low-pressure systems, one near Iceland and another near the Aleutian Islands in Alaska. These lows are known as the Icelandic and Aleutian lows, respectively. They are characterized by cyclonic activity and are important for shaping weather patterns in their respective regions.

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  • 15. 

    In relation to the jet core, the greatest vertical wind shear is usually located

    • A.

      Above the strongest horizontal shear.

    • B.

      Below the strongest horizontal shear.

    • C.

      Above the jet core.

    • D.

      Below the jet core.

    Correct Answer
    C. Above the jet core.
    Explanation
    In relation to the jet core, the greatest vertical wind shear is usually located above the jet core. This means that the strongest change in vertical wind speed occurs above the region where the jet stream is strongest. This is because the jet core represents the area of maximum horizontal wind speed, and the vertical wind shear tends to be stronger in the upper levels of the atmosphere where the jet stream is located. Therefore, the greatest vertical wind shear is typically found above the jet core.

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  • 16. 

    In relation to the jet core, the greatest horizontal wind shear is usually located

    • A.

      Above the jet core.

    • B.

      North of the jet core.

    • C.

      South of the jet core.

    • D.

      At the jet core’s narrowest horizontal point.

    Correct Answer
    B. North of the jet core.
    Explanation
    The greatest horizontal wind shear is usually located north of the jet core. This is because the jet core is associated with strong winds and a sharp change in wind direction. North of the jet core, the wind speed decreases, leading to a greater difference in wind speed between the jet core and its surroundings. This difference in wind speed creates wind shear, which is the change in wind speed or direction over a given distance. Therefore, the greatest wind shear is typically found north of the jet core.

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  • 17. 

    The simplest method for locating the 500 millibar frontal zone is to

    • A.

      Locate the 500 millibar maximum wind band.

    • B.

      Locate the position of the –11° Centigrade isotherm.

    • C.

      Locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm.

    • D.

      Find where the thermal concentration is more than 5° Centigrade in 200 miles.

    Correct Answer
    C. Locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm. This is because the 500 millibar frontal zone is typically associated with the boundary between warm and cold air masses. The –17° Centigrade isotherm represents the approximate temperature at which this boundary occurs, making it a good indicator for locating the frontal zone.

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  • 18. 

    The width of the jet stream core is approximately equal to the

    • A.

      Width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon.

    • B.

      Width of the 500 millibar maximum wind band.

    • C.

      Distance between the –17° Centigrade and the –20° Centigrade isotherms at 500 millibar.

    • D.

      Distance between the –20° Centigrade and the –26° Centigrade isotherms at 500 millibar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon.
    Explanation
    The width of the jet stream core is approximately equal to the width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon. This means that the jet stream core is defined by the region where the temperature remains relatively constant at the 500 millibar pressure level. The width of this ribbon indicates the extent of the jet stream, with a wider ribbon indicating a broader and stronger jet stream. Therefore, the width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon is a good measure of the width of the jet stream core.

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  • 19. 

    Where are the greatest velocities located in relation to the subtropical jet (SJT)?

    • A.

      In the region of difluence of the STJ and polar front jet (PFJ).

    • B.

      In the region of confluence of the STJ and PFJ.

    • C.

      The STJ’s eastern most extension.

    • D.

      The STJ’S western most extension.

    Correct Answer
    B. In the region of confluence of the STJ and PFJ.
    Explanation
    The greatest velocities are located in the region of confluence of the subtropical jet (STJ) and polar front jet (PFJ). This means that the highest speeds are found where these two jet streams come together. This is likely due to the combination of strong atmospheric dynamics and the merging of air masses with different temperature and moisture characteristics.

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  • 20. 

    “Jet fingers”

    • A.

      Often develop more than 400 miles apart.

    • B.

      Suggest that the jet stream is beginning to dissipate.

    • C.

      Are somewhat rare and usually occur either singly or in pairs.

    • D.

      Are formed during periods when the jet stream is well organized and the core exceeds 100kts.

    Correct Answer
    B. Suggest that the jet stream is beginning to dissipate.
    Explanation
    The phrase "Jet fingers" often developing more than 400 miles apart suggests that the jet stream is beginning to dissipate. This is because when the jet stream is strong and well-organized, it tends to have a more continuous and concentrated flow. However, when it starts to dissipate, it can break up into smaller and more scattered sections, referred to as "Jet fingers," which are often found more than 400 miles apart. Therefore, this observation indicates a weakening or dissipation of the jet stream.

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  • 21. 

    Converging contours downstream of the jet stream will cause the jet to

    • A.

      Decrease in amplitude.

    • B.

      Increase in amplitude.

    • C.

      Deflect toward lower heights.

    • D.

      Deflect toward greater heights.

    Correct Answer
    C. Deflect toward lower heights.
    Explanation
    When contours converge downstream of the jet stream, it means that the lines of constant pressure are getting closer together. This indicates a decrease in the pressure gradient, which in turn causes the wind to slow down. As a result, the jet stream will deflect toward lower heights, as it is being pushed downward by the converging contours.

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  • 22. 

    Using average surface frontal slopes, how far ahead of the surface warm front is the jet stream located?

    • A.

      300 miles.

    • B.

      400 miles.

    • C.

      500 miles.

    • D.

      600 miles.

    Correct Answer
    D. 600 miles.
    Explanation
    The jet stream is located approximately 600 miles ahead of the surface warm front when using average surface frontal slopes. This means that the jet stream is typically found further ahead of the warm front compared to the other options provided (300, 400, and 500 miles).

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  • 23. 

    Which heat transfer process involves the transfer of energy by molecular motion from hot to cold objects?

    • A.

      Radiation.

    • B.

      Advection.

    • C.

      Convection.

    • D.

      Conduction.

    Correct Answer
    D. Conduction.
    Explanation
    Conduction is the correct answer because it involves the transfer of energy by molecular motion from hot to cold objects. In conduction, the heat is transferred through direct contact between the molecules of the hot object and the molecules of the cold object. This transfer occurs due to the collision and interaction of the molecules, causing the energy to be transferred from the higher temperature region to the lower temperature region.

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  • 24. 

    Advection transfers temperature

    • A.

      By electromagnetic waves.

    • B.

      Horizontally by the wind.

    • C.

      Vertically by the wind.

    • D.

      By molecular motion.

    Correct Answer
    B. Horizontally by the wind.
    Explanation
    Advection is the process by which heat is transferred horizontally by the movement of air or water. In this case, the correct answer suggests that temperature is transferred by the wind, indicating that the wind carries warm or cold air horizontally, thus affecting the temperature of a particular area. This explanation aligns with the concept of advection and the role of wind in transferring heat.

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  • 25. 

    What factors must a region possess in order to facilitate air mass formation?

    • A.

      Uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • B.

      Must be over water, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • C.

      Any nonuniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • D.

      Must be over smooth land, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.
    Explanation
    A region must possess a uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow in order to facilitate air mass formation. A uniform surface allows for consistent heating or cooling of the air above it, which helps in the development of stable air masses. Stagnant air means that there is little to no vertical movement of the air, allowing for the air mass to remain intact and develop its characteristic properties. Large-scale difluent flow refers to the divergence of air at high altitudes, which helps in the maintenance and expansion of the air mass.

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  • 26. 

    Which process is most responsible for the slow formation of air masses in the polar region?

    • A.

      Loss of heat by radiation.

    • B.

      Loss of heat by conduction.

    • C.

      Transport of heat by turbulence.

    • D.

      Transport of heat by evaporation and condensation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of heat by radiation.
    Explanation
    The slow formation of air masses in the polar region is primarily due to the loss of heat by radiation. In the polar region, the sun's rays are at a low angle and spread out over a larger area, resulting in less direct heating compared to other regions. As a result, the polar region experiences colder temperatures, which leads to the slow formation of air masses. Radiation is the main process through which heat is lost in this region, making it the most responsible factor for the slow formation of air masses.

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  • 27. 

    Air mass stability characteristics often depend on the temperature difference between the

    • A.

      Air mass and the source region surface.

    • B.

      Upper- and lower-level air, and source region.

    • C.

      Air mass and the surface over which it is traveling.

    • D.

      Air-mass source region surface and the surface over which the air mass is traveling.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air mass and the surface over which it is traveling.
    Explanation
    The stability characteristics of an air mass are determined by the temperature difference between the air mass and the surface over which it is traveling. The temperature difference affects the vertical movement and mixing of the air mass, which in turn influences its stability. If the air mass is colder than the surface, it will be more stable and resist vertical movement. Conversely, if the air mass is warmer than the surface, it will be more unstable and prone to vertical movement and turbulence. Therefore, the temperature difference between the air mass and the surface is a key factor in determining air mass stability.

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  • 28. 

    How would you classify a stable air mass that formed over land in the Arctic has now moved over the ocean’s warmer surface?

    • A.

      MAws.

    • B.

      MAks.

    • C.

      CAwu.

    • D.

      CAks.

    Correct Answer
    D. CAks.
    Explanation
    When a stable air mass that formed over land in the Arctic moves over the ocean's warmer surface, it undergoes a change in temperature and moisture content. As the air mass moves over the warmer ocean, it becomes unstable, causing the air to rise and potentially form clouds and precipitation. This change in stability is indicated by the "c" in "cAks," which stands for "conditional instability."

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  • 29. 

    What air mass classification signifies an unstable, maritime tropical air mass that is colder than the surface it is moving over?

    • A.

      MTwu.

    • B.

      MTws.

    • C.

      MTku.

    • D.

      MTks.

    Correct Answer
    C. MTku.
    Explanation
    The air mass classification mTku signifies an unstable, maritime tropical air mass that is colder than the surface it is moving over. This means that the air mass is characterized by warm and moist air, typically originating from tropical regions, but it is colder than the surface it is moving over. This combination of warm and moist air over colder surfaces can lead to atmospheric instability, potentially causing the formation of clouds, precipitation, and thunderstorms.

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  • 30. 

    What air mass classification signifies a stable, continental polar air mass that is warmer than the surface it is moving over?

    • A.

      CPks.

    • B.

      CPws.

    • C.

      CTws.

    • D.

      CTku.

    Correct Answer
    B. CPws.
    Explanation
    The air mass classification cPws signifies a stable, continental polar air mass that is warmer than the surface it is moving over. The "c" stands for continental, indicating that the air mass originates over a landmass. The "P" represents polar, indicating that the air mass forms in high latitudes. The "w" signifies that the air mass is warmer than the surface it is moving over, which creates stability. The "s" indicates that the air mass is dry. Therefore, cPws represents a stable, continental polar air mass that is warmer than the surface it is moving over.

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  • 31. 

    What air mass forms over land only during the summer?

    • A.

      MTk.

    • B.

      MPw.

    • C.

      CPk.

    • D.

      CT.

    Correct Answer
    D. CT.
  • 32. 

    As an air mass is heated from below, there will be increased

    • A.

      Option 1

    • B.

      Stability and an increased lapse rate.

    • C.

      Instability and a decreased lapse rate.

    • D.

      Instability and an increased lapse rate.

    Correct Answer
    D. Instability and an increased lapse rate.
    Explanation
    When an air mass is heated from below, it becomes less stable as the warm air rises and mixes with the cooler air above. This creates vertical motion and turbulence, leading to instability. Additionally, as the air mass becomes warmer, the lapse rate increases. The lapse rate refers to the rate at which temperature decreases with increasing altitude. In this case, the increased heating causes a more rapid decrease in temperature with height, resulting in an increased lapse rate. Therefore, the correct answer is instability and an increased lapse rate.

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  • 33. 

    It is winter. A cPk air mass is moving over the Great Lakes. In this situation, the southern shores of the Great Lakes will experience

    • A.

      Hail.

    • B.

      Heavy snow.

    • C.

      Thunderstorms.

    • D.

      Freezing precipitation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Heavy snow.
    Explanation
    In winter, when a cPk air mass moves over the Great Lakes, it brings cold air and moisture from the lakes. As the air mass passes over the relatively warmer waters of the lakes, it becomes unstable and picks up moisture. This moisture then condenses and forms clouds, leading to heavy snowfall along the southern shores of the Great Lakes. Therefore, heavy snow is the expected weather condition in this situation.

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  • 34. 

    Which air mass involves most of the wintertime storms for the North American Pacific coast?

    • A.

      MP.

    • B.

      CP.

    • C.

      MT.

    • D.

      CT.

    Correct Answer
    C. MT.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mT. The mT air mass, which stands for maritime tropical, is warm and moist. This air mass originates from the tropical waters of the Pacific Ocean and brings warm and humid conditions to the North American Pacific coast. During the winter, this air mass interacts with colder air masses, leading to the formation of storms along the coast. These storms are responsible for the majority of wintertime storms in this region.

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  • 35. 

    Continental tropical air masses are usually associated with

    • A.

      Thermal lows.

    • B.

      Thermal highs.

    • C.

      Migratory lows.

    • D.

      Migratory highs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal lows.
    Explanation
    Continental tropical air masses are typically associated with thermal lows. This is because these air masses form over warm land areas, such as deserts, and are characterized by high temperatures and low humidity. As the air heats up, it becomes less dense and rises, creating a low-pressure system. This low-pressure system is known as a thermal low. In contrast, migratory lows and highs refer to weather systems that move across the Earth's surface, whereas continental tropical air masses are stationary and form due to local heating.

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  • 36. 

    The rate that an air mass modifies depends on the

    • A.

      Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and the initial characteristics of the air mass.

    • B.

      Initial characteristics of the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and amount of moisture in the air mass.

    • C.

      Initial characteristics of the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and the temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass.

    • D.

      Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the nature of the surface over which it moves, and the speed with which the air mass travels.

    Correct Answer
    D. Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the nature of the surface over which it moves, and the speed with which the air mass travels.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the nature of the surface over which it moves, and the speed with which the air mass travels. This is because the rate at which an air mass modifies, or changes, depends on these factors. Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass determine how quickly the air mass will adjust to the new conditions. The nature of the surface, such as whether it is land or water, can also affect how the air mass modifies. Additionally, the speed at which the air mass travels can impact the rate of modification.

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  • 37. 

    The weather characteristics of a particular month in a given locality are governed by

    • A.

      Wind speed and moisture content.

    • B.

      Effects of local topography and moisture content.

    • C.

      Wind speed and proximity to a zone of divergence.

    • D.

      Effects of local topography and proximity to a zone of convergence.

    Correct Answer
    D. Effects of local topograpHy and proximity to a zone of convergence.
    Explanation
    The weather characteristics of a particular month in a given locality are influenced by the effects of local topography and proximity to a zone of convergence. Local topography, such as mountains or bodies of water, can affect the movement of air masses and the formation of weather systems. Proximity to a zone of convergence, where air masses with different properties meet and interact, can also impact weather patterns. Wind speed and moisture content are important factors, but they are not the only factors that determine the weather characteristics of a specific month in a given locality.

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  • 38. 

    Surface pressure changes are largely controlled by

    • A.

      Mass changes in the upper troposphere.

    • B.

      The jetstream pattern in the upper troposphere.

    • C.

      Temperature advection in the middle troposphere.

    • D.

      Positive vorticity advection in the lower troposphere.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mass changes in the upper tropospHere.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mass changes in the upper troposphere. Surface pressure changes are largely influenced by the movement and redistribution of air masses in the atmosphere. Mass changes in the upper troposphere, such as the sinking or rising of air masses, can result in corresponding changes in surface pressure. These mass changes can be caused by various factors, including atmospheric circulation patterns, frontal systems, and the movement of weather systems. Therefore, understanding the mass changes in the upper troposphere is crucial in predicting and analyzing surface pressure patterns.

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  • 39. 

    Horizontal divergence within an air mass will

    • A.

      Cause the surface pressure to rise.

    • B.

      Increase the mass in the vertical column above the surface.

    • C.

      Increase the vertical extent of the column above the surface.

    • D.

      Vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.

    Correct Answer
    D. Vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.
    Explanation
    Horizontal divergence within an air mass refers to the spreading out of air horizontally. This causes the air to vertically contract, meaning it becomes compressed in the vertical direction. As a result, the original column of air becomes narrower vertically. However, the air mass also expands horizontally, meaning it spreads out in the horizontal direction. Therefore, the correct answer is that horizontal divergence will vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.

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  • 40. 

    As air converges at the surface and toward the center of a layer, there will be horizontal

    • A.

      And vertical expansion.

    • B.

      Contraction and vertical expansion.

    • C.

      Expansion and vertical contraction.

    • D.

      Contraction and vertical contraction.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contraction and vertical expansion.
    Explanation
    As air converges at the surface and toward the center of a layer, it will experience horizontal contraction, meaning it will become more compact in the horizontal direction. At the same time, there will be vertical expansion, causing the air to expand and rise vertically. This is because the converging air is being squeezed together horizontally, leading to contraction, while also being forced upward due to the convergence, resulting in vertical expansion.

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  • 41. 

    An increase of mass in a column of air will cause the surface pressure to

    • A.

      Increase.

    • B.

      Decrease.

    • C.

      Remain steady.

    • D.

      Do nothing, pressure is not affected by mass.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase.
    Explanation
    When the mass of a column of air increases, it means that there is more air molecules present in that column. This increase in mass leads to a greater gravitational force acting on the air molecules, causing them to be compressed closer together. As a result, the density of the air increases, leading to an increase in surface pressure. Therefore, an increase in mass in a column of air will cause the surface pressure to increase.

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  • 42. 

    In the chimney effect, the maximum upward vertical wind motion will be located

    • A.

      At the tropopause.

    • B.

      At the surface of the earth.

    • C.

      Throughout the column of air.

    • D.

      At the level of nondivergence (LND).

    Correct Answer
    D. At the level of nondivergence (LND).
    Explanation
    In the chimney effect, the maximum upward vertical wind motion will be located at the level of nondivergence (LND). This is because at the LND, the air is neither converging nor diverging, resulting in a stable environment for upward motion. As the air rises, it encounters decreasing pressure and expands, causing it to cool and condense, forming clouds and precipitation. Therefore, the LND is the level where the chimney effect is most pronounced, with the strongest upward wind motion.

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  • 43. 

    The primary cause of surface pressure changes for a dynamic low is net

    • A.

      Divergence aloft.

    • B.

      Adiabatic cooling aloft.

    • C.

      Adiabatic warming aloft.

    • D.

      Divergence at the surface.

    Correct Answer
    A. Divergence aloft.
    Explanation
    The primary cause of surface pressure changes for a dynamic low is divergence aloft. Divergence aloft refers to the horizontal movement of air away from a specific location at higher altitudes. This movement creates a vertical pressure gradient, causing air to rise and resulting in lower surface pressure. As the air rises, it cools adiabatically, leading to the formation of clouds and precipitation. Therefore, divergence aloft is the main factor contributing to the development and intensification of a dynamic low-pressure system.

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  • 44. 

    A low-pressure system undergoing cyclogenesis is said to be

    • A.

      Divergence and surface low pressure.

    • B.

      Forming or deepening.

    • C.

      Dissipating or filling.

    • D.

      Forming or filling.

    Correct Answer
    B. Forming or deepening.
    Explanation
    When a low-pressure system undergoes cyclogenesis, it means that it is forming or deepening. Cyclogenesis refers to the development or intensification of a cyclone, which is a low-pressure system characterized by rotating winds. During this process, the system may form or deepen, meaning that the pressure at its center decreases further, resulting in a stronger storm. This can lead to the formation of severe weather conditions such as strong winds, heavy rainfall, and potentially even tropical storms or hurricanes.

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  • 45. 

    The damper effect is comprised of upper-level

    • A.

      Divergence and surface low pressure.

    • B.

      Divergence and surface high pressure.

    • C.

      Convergence and surface low pressure.

    • D.

      Convergence and surface high pressure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Convergence and surface high pressure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is convergence and surface high pressure. The damper effect refers to the phenomenon in which air converges and sinks at the surface under the influence of high pressure. This sinking motion suppresses the formation of clouds and precipitation, leading to stable and clear weather conditions. Conversely, divergence and surface low pressure are associated with rising air, which promotes cloud formation and potentially unstable weather conditions.

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  • 46. 

    When the central pressure of an anticyclone is rising, you can infer the anticyclone is

    • A.

      Filling.

    • B.

      Building.

    • C.

      Deepening.

    • D.

      Weakening.

    Correct Answer
    B. Building.
    Explanation
    When the central pressure of an anticyclone is rising, it indicates that the air within the anticyclone is sinking and becoming denser. This denser air leads to an increase in pressure at the center of the anticyclone, causing it to build in strength and intensity. Therefore, the correct answer is "building."

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  • 47. 

    A high-pressure system undergoes anticyclolysis when the clockwise circulation area

    • A.

      Decreases or disappears.

    • B.

      Increases or disappears.

    • C.

      Decreases or forms.

    • D.

      Increases or forms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreases or disappears.
    Explanation
    Anticyclolysis refers to the weakening or dissipation of a high-pressure system. In this process, the clockwise circulation area within the system decreases or disappears. This means that the area of high pressure, which typically has air descending and spreading out in a clockwise direction, becomes less organized or vanishes altogether. This can occur due to various factors, such as the intrusion of a low-pressure system or the weakening of atmospheric conditions that support high pressure.

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  • 48. 

    An unstable wave cyclone is one where the amplitude

    • A.

      Decreases with time and the wave fills.

    • B.

      Increases with time and the wave fills.

    • C.

      Decreases with time and the wave deepens.

    • D.

      Increases with time and the wave deepens.

    Correct Answer
    D. Increases with time and the wave deepens.
    Explanation
    In an unstable wave cyclone, the amplitude of the wave increases with time and the wave deepens. This means that as time progresses, the wave becomes stronger and the depth of the wave increases. This can lead to more intense weather conditions and potentially severe storms.

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  • 49. 

    After warm air with an unstable wave is pushed aloft and cuts off from a cyclone, the cyclone will become

    • A.

      Baroclinic and begin to deepen.

    • B.

      Barotropic and begin to deepen.

    • C.

      Baroclinic and begin to fill.

    • D.

      Barotropic and begin to fill.

    Correct Answer
    D. Barotropic and begin to fill.
    Explanation
    When warm air with an unstable wave is pushed aloft and cuts off from a cyclone, it creates a situation where the temperature gradient (baroclinicity) within the cyclone weakens. As a result, the cyclone transitions from being baroclinic (having a strong temperature gradient) to being barotropic (having a weak temperature gradient). This transition causes the cyclone to start filling, meaning it weakens and loses intensity. Therefore, the correct answer is "barotropic and begin to fill."

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  • 50. 

    Unstable waves are classified as

    • A.

      Barotropic highs.

    • B.

      Barotropic lows.

    • C.

      Baroclinic high.

    • D.

      Baroclinic lows.

    Correct Answer
    D. Baroclinic lows.
    Explanation
    Unstable waves are classified as baroclinic lows. Baroclinic refers to a condition where temperature and density gradients exist in the atmosphere, which leads to the formation of unstable weather systems. These systems are characterized by the vertical motion of air masses, resulting in the development of storms and other turbulent weather phenomena. Baroclinic lows are associated with the formation of cyclones and are often responsible for producing severe weather conditions.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 05, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Donald C
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