1s051 Volume I Pretest (For Reference Use Only)

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USAF Safety Journeyman Volume I Pretest (FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) In 1867, which state began to use factory safety inspectors?

    • A.

      Massachusetts

    • B.

      New Jersey

    • C.

      Wisconsin

    • D.

      Alabama

    Correct Answer
    A. Massachusetts
    Explanation
    In 1867, Massachusetts began to use factory safety inspectors. This suggests that Massachusetts was proactive in ensuring the safety of workers in factories during that time. The implementation of factory safety inspectors indicates that the state recognized the need for regulations and oversight to prevent accidents and promote worker well-being.

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  • 2. 

    (001) The safety law passed by the state of Massachusetts in 1867 required that

    • A.

      Fire extinguishers be installed in all clothing factories.

    • B.

      All factories be inspected by state factory inspectors.

    • C.

      Fire escapes be installed in all multistory buildings.

    • D.

      All hazardous machinery be safeguarded.

    Correct Answer
    D. All hazardous machinery be safeguarded.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all hazardous machinery be safeguarded." This is because the safety law passed by the state of Massachusetts in 1867 required that measures be taken to protect workers from dangerous machinery. By safeguarding hazardous machinery, the law aimed to prevent accidents and injuries in factories. This requirement was an important step towards improving workplace safety and protecting the well-being of workers.

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  • 3. 

    (002) The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) of 1970 was passed to ensure that

    • A.

      Work-related injuries would be reported.

    • B.

      Work places would be safe and healthful.

    • C.

      Safety and health standards would be uniform.

    • D.

      Statistics on injuries and deaths would be kept.

    Correct Answer
    B. Work places would be safe and healthful.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "work places would be safe and healthful." The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) of 1970 was passed to establish and enforce standards that would ensure safe and healthful working conditions for employees. OSHA sets regulations and guidelines for employers to follow in order to prevent workplace injuries, illnesses, and fatalities. Its main goal is to protect the health and safety of workers by promoting safe practices and providing education and training on workplace hazards.

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  • 4. 

    (002) The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 applied mainly to which industries/agencies?

    • A.

      Private industry.

    • B.

      Federal agencies.

    • C.

      Private construction industry only.

    • D.

      Private and federal industries/agencies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Private industry.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Private industry. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 primarily applies to private industry, ensuring that employers provide a safe and healthy working environment for their employees. This act establishes standards and regulations for workplace safety, including training, inspections, and record-keeping requirements. While federal agencies and the private construction industry are also subject to certain safety regulations, the main focus of the act is on private industry as a whole.

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  • 5. 

    (001) In 1924, the first respirator appeared in what industry?

    • A.

      Grain mills.

    • B.

      Steel mills.

    • C.

      Clothing plants.

    • D.

      Chemical plants.

    Correct Answer
    D. Chemical plants.
    Explanation
    In 1924, the first respirator appeared in chemical plants. This suggests that the respirator was initially developed and used in the chemical industry to protect workers from harmful chemicals and fumes. It is likely that the need for respiratory protection arose due to the hazardous nature of the chemicals used in these plants.

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  • 6. 

    (002) Who is the approval authority for state safety plans?

    • A.

      The Secretary of Labor.

    • B.

      The Secretary of Commerce.

    • C.

      The state’s legislative bodies.

    • D.

      The US Congress.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Secretary of Labor.
    Explanation
    The approval authority for state safety plans is the Secretary of Labor. This means that the Secretary of Labor has the power to review and authorize safety plans created by individual states. The Secretary of Labor plays a crucial role in ensuring that state safety plans meet the necessary standards and regulations to protect workers and promote workplace safety.

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  • 7. 

    (002) Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, who is accountable for employee violations of safety and health standards?

    • A.

      The employee.

    • B.

      The employer.

    • C.

      The state government.

    • D.

      The federal government.

    Correct Answer
    B. The employer.
    Explanation
    Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, the employer is accountable for employee violations of safety and health standards. This means that it is the responsibility of the employer to ensure that employees are following the necessary safety protocols and regulations. The employer is expected to provide a safe and healthy work environment for their employees and take necessary actions to prevent any violations or accidents.

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  • 8. 

    (002) Before the creation or revision of an Occupational Safety and Health Act safety standard, the standard must be

    • A.

      Approved by the US Senate.

    • B.

      Brought before formal public hearings.

    • C.

      Approved by the US House of Representatives.

    • D.

      Brought before and approved by ⅔ of the legislative bodies.

    Correct Answer
    B. Brought before formal public hearings.
    Explanation
    Before the creation or revision of an Occupational Safety and Health Act safety standard, the standard must be brought before formal public hearings. This is because formal public hearings provide an opportunity for stakeholders, experts, and the general public to provide input, feedback, and suggestions on the proposed standard. This helps ensure that the standard is well-informed, comprehensive, and takes into account various perspectives and concerns. It also promotes transparency and accountability in the standard-setting process. The approval of the US Senate or the US House of Representatives is not required for the standard to be created or revised, but the input and feedback obtained through formal public hearings are crucial in shaping the final standard.

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  • 9. 

    (002) How were federal agencies required to follow the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

    • A.

      Act of Congress.

    • B.

      Executive Orders.

    • C.

      Supreme Court ruling.

    • D.

      Congressional referendum.

    Correct Answer
    B. Executive Orders.
    Explanation
    Federal agencies were required to follow the Occupational Safety and Health Act through executive orders. These orders, issued by the President, provide specific instructions and guidelines for federal agencies to implement and enforce the provisions of the Act. The executive orders ensure that federal agencies comply with the requirements of the Occupational Safety and Health Act and take necessary measures to protect the health and safety of workers.

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  • 10. 

    (002) What factor has forced a reduction in the number of general workplace safety inspections?

    • A.

      Inspection emphasis shifted towards building and trades industry.

    • B.

      Lack of congressional action to ensure compliance with the law.

    • C.

      Lack of qualified inspectors.

    • D.

      Budgetary constraints.

    Correct Answer
    D. Budgetary constraints.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is budgetary constraints. This means that the reason for the reduction in the number of general workplace safety inspections is due to limitations in the budget. This suggests that there is not enough funding available to carry out the inspections, resulting in a decrease in their frequency.

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  • 11. 

    (003) Who has the primary responsibility for the mishap prevention program?

    • A.

      Supervisors.

    • B.

      Commanders.

    • C.

      Safety staffs.

    • D.

      Functional managers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Commanders.
    Explanation
    Commanders have the primary responsibility for the mishap prevention program. As leaders within an organization, commanders are accountable for the safety and well-being of their personnel. They are responsible for establishing and enforcing safety policies, conducting risk assessments, and implementing preventive measures to mitigate potential mishaps. Commanders play a crucial role in creating a culture of safety within their units and ensuring that all personnel are trained and aware of safety protocols. By taking ownership of the mishap prevention program, commanders demonstrate their commitment to maintaining a safe and secure working environment.

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  • 12. 

    (003) Which incident would be an Air Force mishap? An unplanned event

    • A.

      That does not interfere with a work activity.

    • B.

      Which results in no damage to AF or private property.

    • C.

      That result in injury or illness to non-DOD personnel caused by Air Force operations.

    • D.

      In which the action or reaction of an object, substance, or person, or radiation results in the potential injury or damage to Air Force personnel.

    Correct Answer
    C. That result in injury or illness to non-DOD personnel caused by Air Force operations.
    Explanation
    An Air Force mishap refers to an unplanned event that results in injury or illness to non-DOD personnel caused by Air Force operations. This option aligns with the definition provided and is the correct answer.

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  • 13. 

    (004) Who has ultimate responsibility for AF safety programs?

    • A.

      Chief of safety (COS).

    • B.

      Ground safety manager (GSM).

    • C.

      Unit safety representative (USR).

    • D.

      Air Force Chief of Safety (AF/SE).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Chief of Safety (AF/SE).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Chief of Safety (AF/SE) has the ultimate responsibility for AF safety programs. This individual is in charge of overseeing and managing safety initiatives throughout the Air Force. They are responsible for developing policies, procedures, and guidelines to ensure the safety of personnel and assets. The AF/SE works closely with other safety professionals, such as the Chief of Safety (COS), Ground Safety Manager (GSM), and Unit Safety Representative (USR), to implement and enforce safety measures across the organization.

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  • 14. 

    (004) Which staff is responsible for developing Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standards supplements for unique operations for which safety and health guidance does not exist?

    • A.

      Wing safety.

    • B.

      Air Force Safety Center (AFSC).

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM) safety.

    • D.

      Non-appropriated funds (NAF) safety.

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command (MAJCOM) safety.
    Explanation
    The Major command (MAJCOM) safety is responsible for developing Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standards supplements for unique operations for which safety and health guidance does not exist. This means that they are in charge of creating specific safety and health guidelines for situations that are not covered by existing standards.

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  • 15. 

    (004) Who has the responsibility of making sure that off duty safety briefings are provided to all personnel?

    • A.

      Commander.

    • B.

      Chief of safety.

    • C.

      Ground safety staff.

    • D.

      Ground safety manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander.
    Explanation
    The commander is responsible for ensuring that off duty safety briefings are provided to all personnel. This means that it is the commander's duty to make sure that all individuals receive the necessary information and instructions to maintain safety even when they are not on duty. The commander has the overall authority and accountability for the safety of the personnel under their command, and this includes ensuring that safety briefings are conducted regularly and effectively. The chief of safety, ground safety staff, and ground safety manager may assist in this process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the commander.

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  • 16. 

    (004) Who manages the mishap prevention program for the wing commander?

    • A.

      Ground safety manager.

    • B.

      Safety superintendent.

    • C.

      Chief of safety.

    • D.

      Safety staff.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground safety manager.
    Explanation
    The ground safety manager is responsible for managing the mishap prevention program for the wing commander. They are in charge of ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed to prevent accidents and mishaps within the wing. The safety superintendent, chief of safety, and safety staff may also play a role in the overall safety program, but the ground safety manager specifically manages the mishap prevention program.

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  • 17. 

    (005) What percentage of mishap causal factors is contributed to human error?

    • A.

      15 to 20 percent.

    • B.

      50 to 60 percent.

    • C.

      80 to 90 percent.

    • D.

      100 percent.

    Correct Answer
    C. 80 to 90 percent.
    Explanation
    Human error is responsible for a significant percentage of mishap causal factors, specifically 80 to 90 percent. This means that the majority of accidents and incidents can be attributed to mistakes or failures made by individuals. It emphasizes the importance of addressing human factors in order to prevent mishaps and improve safety.

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  • 18. 

    (005) Which example describes an attitudinal factor in relation to human factors in the mishap prevention program?

    • A.

      Using equipment when not properly trained or qualified.

    • B.

      Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

    • C.

      Not following established procedures or taking unauthorized shortcuts to save time.

    • D.

      Reacting psychologically to situations according to previously habitual learned responses..

    Correct Answer
    D. Reacting psychologically to situations according to previously habitual learned responses..
    Explanation
    The example of "reacting psychologically to situations according to previously habitual learned responses" describes an attitudinal factor in relation to human factors in the mishap prevention program. This means that an individual's attitude and mindset, based on their past experiences and learned responses, can influence how they react and make decisions in different situations. It highlights the importance of understanding and addressing these attitudes and behaviors to prevent mishaps.

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  • 19. 

    (005) In relation to human factors in the mishap prevention program, people’s attitudes may be expected to remain unchanged

    • A.

      Until self-evaluation dictates a change.

    • B.

      As long as their personalities remain unchanged.

    • C.

      Until their aptitudes have been more highly developed.

    • D.

      As long as the attitudes serve and satisfy their needs.

    Correct Answer
    D. As long as the attitudes serve and satisfy their needs.
    Explanation
    People's attitudes may be expected to remain unchanged as long as the attitudes serve and satisfy their needs. This means that individuals are likely to maintain their attitudes as long as they believe that these attitudes are beneficial to them and fulfill their personal needs. Once they perceive that their attitudes no longer serve their needs, they may be more inclined to change their attitudes. Therefore, the satisfaction of personal needs is a key factor in determining whether people's attitudes will remain unchanged or not.

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  • 20. 

    (005) In relation to human factors in the mishap prevention program, people who can be expected to generally dislike safety rules and regulations are those who

    • A.

      Dislike rules and regulations.

    • B.

      Have been written up before by safety.

    • C.

      Feel as though their needs are not getting met.

    • D.

      Feel that abiding by safety rules and regulations hinders their job performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dislike rules and regulations.
    Explanation
    People who generally dislike rules and regulations can be expected to also dislike safety rules and regulations. This is because safety rules and regulations are a subset of rules and regulations in general. Therefore, it can be inferred that those who dislike rules and regulations will also dislike safety rules and regulations.

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  • 21. 

    (006) An effective mishap prevention program begins with

    • A.

      Inter-service liaison.

    • B.

      Professional contacts.

    • C.

      Good intra-office discipline.

    • D.

      Participation in safety councils.

    Correct Answer
    C. Good intra-office discipline.
    Explanation
    An effective mishap prevention program begins with good intra-office discipline because it ensures that all employees follow safety protocols and procedures, reducing the risk of accidents or mishaps. Intra-office discipline involves maintaining a safe and organized work environment, enforcing safety rules, and promoting a culture of safety awareness among employees. This discipline helps to create a proactive approach to preventing mishaps and encourages employees to take personal responsibility for their own safety and the safety of others.

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  • 22. 

    (006) Which service can other military services provide to your safety program?

    • A.

      Courtesy reports.

    • B.

      On-the-job training for interns.

    • C.

      Crossover funding for safety training.

    • D.

      Input for contingency training development.

    Correct Answer
    A. Courtesy reports.
    Explanation
    Courtesy reports can be provided by other military services to contribute to the safety program. These reports can provide valuable information about safety incidents, hazards, and best practices, allowing for a more comprehensive understanding of safety issues and potential improvements. By sharing these reports, other military services can help enhance the overall safety program and promote a safer environment for all personnel.

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  • 23. 

    (006) Which organization can provide consultant services on a safety problem?

    • A.

      Safety Training Institute.

    • B.

      National Safety Council.

    • C.

      Federal Advisory Council.

    • D.

      Department of Health and Human Services.

    Correct Answer
    B. National Safety Council.
    Explanation
    The National Safety Council is an organization that can provide consultant services on a safety problem. They are known for their expertise in safety issues and offer consulting services to businesses and organizations. They have a team of professionals who can assess safety risks, develop safety plans, and provide recommendations for improvement. Their consulting services can help organizations identify and address safety issues, ensuring a safe and secure environment for employees and customers.

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  • 24. 

    (006) The Occupation Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) are organizations within which agency?

    • A.

      Department of Labor.

    • B.

      National Safety Council.

    • C.

      Safety Training Institute.

    • D.

      Federal Advisory Council.

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Labor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Department of Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) are both organizations that fall under the Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for setting and enforcing workplace safety regulations, while BLS collects and analyzes data on labor market activity, including workplace injuries and illnesses. Therefore, both OSHA and BLS operate within the Department of Labor to ensure the safety and well-being of workers.

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  • 25. 

    (006) Which organization’s mission is to assure the safety and health of America’s workers by setting and enforcing standards and providing training?

    • A.

      National Safety Council.

    • B.

      Field Federal Safety and Health Council.

    • C.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

    • D.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration Training Institute.

    Correct Answer
    C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Occupational Safety and Health Administration. The organization's mission is to assure the safety and health of America's workers by setting and enforcing standards and providing training.

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  • 26. 

    (006) Your office has received a large number of complaints about the traffic flow at an intersection close to the base. Which non-Air Force agency or agencies do you contact as you try to solve the problem?

    • A.

      Local safety organizations.

    • B.

      Local law enforcement.

    • C.

      Labor unions.

    • D.

      State police.

    Correct Answer
    B. Local law enforcement.
    Explanation
    To solve the problem of traffic flow at the intersection close to the base, contacting local law enforcement would be the most appropriate choice. Local law enforcement agencies are responsible for enforcing traffic laws and regulations, maintaining public safety, and managing traffic flow. They have the authority and expertise to address the complaints and take necessary actions such as increasing patrols, implementing traffic control measures, or conducting traffic studies. Local safety organizations and state police may also have some role in addressing traffic issues, but local law enforcement would be the primary agency to contact in this situation. Labor unions are not directly involved in traffic management.

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  • 27. 

    (006) Which union official is responsible for enforcing the safety parts of the union contract?

    • A.

      President.

    • B.

      Vice President.

    • C.

      Organizer.

    • D.

      Steward.

    Correct Answer
    D. Steward.
    Explanation
    The steward is responsible for enforcing the safety parts of the union contract. They act as a representative for the workers and ensure that the employer complies with the safety regulations outlined in the contract. The steward plays a crucial role in advocating for the workers' safety and addressing any violations or concerns related to safety in the workplace.

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  • 28. 

    (007) Which way the safety office uses to educate personnel should be kept short, concise and to the point?

    • A.

      Bulletins.

    • B.

      Briefings.

    • C.

      Campaigns.

    • D.

      Newsletters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulletins.
    Explanation
    The safety office uses bulletins to educate personnel because they are short, concise, and to the point. Bulletins are typically brief and focused on delivering important information quickly and efficiently. This format is ideal for conveying safety instructions and guidelines in a clear and easily understandable manner. Briefings, campaigns, and newsletters may contain more detailed information or cover a broader range of topics, but bulletins are specifically designed to provide concise and straightforward education on safety matters.

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  • 29. 

    (007) Which Air Force-wide campaign has run annually since the early 1980s?

    • A.

      Holiday Safety.

    • B.

      Click It or Ticket.

    • C.

      Buckle up America.

    • D.

      101 Critical Days of Summer.

    Correct Answer
    D. 101 Critical Days of Summer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 101 Critical Days of Summer. This Air Force-wide campaign has been running annually since the early 1980s. It is aimed at promoting safety and reducing accidents during the summer months when there is often an increase in outdoor activities and travel. The campaign focuses on educating service members and their families about potential risks and providing tips for staying safe during this time of the year.

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  • 30. 

    (008) What Air Force publication serves as a formal contract between Air Education Training Command and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses?

    • A.

      Job Qualification Standard.

    • B.

      Specialty Training Standard.

    • C.

      Qualification Training Package.

    • D.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan.

    Correct Answer
    B. Specialty Training Standard.
    Explanation
    The Specialty Training Standard is the correct answer because it serves as a formal contract between Air Education Training Command and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses. It outlines the specific training objectives, tasks, and knowledge required for a particular specialty, ensuring that all necessary training is provided to individuals in that field. It serves as a reference document for both trainers and trainees, ensuring consistency and standardization in training programs.

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  • 31. 

    (009) Who determines training requirements and ensures implementation of training programs for Air Force Safety training?

    • A.

      MAJCOM Functional Manager (MFM).

    • B.

      Air Force Chief of Safety (HQ USAF/SE).

    • C.

      Air Force Safety Center Commander (AFSC/CC).

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) for Safety.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) for Safety.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) for Safety is responsible for determining training requirements and ensuring the implementation of training programs for Air Force Safety training. This individual has the authority and expertise to assess the needs of the Air Force Safety career field and develop appropriate training programs to address those needs. They work closely with other Air Force safety personnel and leadership to ensure that training is effective and meets the requirements of the job.

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  • 32. 

    (009) Who develops and coordinates training policy and program changes with work centers?

    • A.

      Unit training manager.

    • B.

      Ground safety manager.

    • C.

      AF career field manager.

    • D.

      MAJCOM functional manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager.
    Explanation
    The unit training manager is responsible for developing and coordinating training policy and program changes with work centers. They oversee the training program within the unit and ensure that all personnel receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively. This includes identifying training needs, developing training plans, and coordinating with work centers to implement changes and updates to the training program. The unit training manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that all personnel are properly trained and prepared for their roles within the unit.

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  • 33. 

    (009) Who is responsible for maintaining AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record, or other approved training records of assigned airmen?

    • A.

      Trainer.

    • B.

      Safety supervisor.

    • C.

      Unit training manager.

    • D.

      Ground safety manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Safety supervisor.
    Explanation
    The safety supervisor is responsible for maintaining AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record, or other approved training records of assigned airmen. This includes ensuring that all necessary training documentation is accurately recorded and up to date. The safety supervisor plays a crucial role in tracking the training progress and ensuring compliance with safety regulations and procedures.

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  • 34. 

    (009) Who is responsible for identifying a trainee’s strengths and areas needing improvements?

    • A.

      Trainer.

    • B.

      Task certifier.

    • C.

      Safety supervisor.

    • D.

      Unit training manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Task certifier.
    Explanation
    The task certifier is responsible for identifying a trainee's strengths and areas needing improvements. They are the ones who assess the trainee's performance during specific tasks and determine their level of proficiency. The task certifier's role is crucial in providing feedback and guidance to help the trainee improve their skills and knowledge. The trainer, safety supervisor, and unit training manager may also play a role in the trainee's development, but the task certifier specifically focuses on evaluating their performance in specific tasks.

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  • 35. 

    (010) Major command functional managers and supervisors at all levels use the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) to make sure that

    • A.

      A comprehensive and cohesive training program is available for each person in the specialty.

    • B.

      A training program is in place and available to help each person prepare for promotion testing.

    • C.

      Air Education and Training Command training personnel are developing and revising the most current formal resident training courses possible.

    • D.

      A comprehensive personnel cross-utilization training program is in place to support overseas manpower ceiling shortfalls.

    Correct Answer
    A. A comprehensive and cohesive training program is available for each person in the specialty.
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is used by major command functional managers and supervisors to ensure that a comprehensive and cohesive training program is available for each person in the specialty. This means that individuals in the specialty will have access to a well-rounded training program that covers all necessary knowledge and skills.

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  • 36. 

    (010) How often is the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) reviewed to validate currency?

    • A.

      Biannually.

    • B.

      Annually.

    • C.

      Semiannually.

    • D.

      Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    B. Annually.
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is reviewed annually to ensure that it is up-to-date and relevant. This regular review allows for any necessary updates or changes to be made to the plan, ensuring that it accurately reflects the current requirements and standards of the career field. By reviewing the CFETP annually, any changes in technology, policies, or procedures can be incorporated into the plan, keeping it current and effective for training and development purposes.

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  • 37. 

    (010) How much time are safety students normally allotted to complete a career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      6 months.

    • B.

      9 months.

    • C.

      12 months.

    • D.

      18 months.

    Correct Answer
    C. 12 months.
    Explanation
    Safety students are normally allotted 12 months to complete a career development course (CDC). This duration allows students to adequately learn and understand the course material, complete assignments, and participate in any necessary practical training or assessments. It provides a reasonable amount of time for students to balance their studies with other commitments and ensures that they have sufficient time to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in the field of safety.

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  • 38. 

    (010) What are the prerequisites for a 7-level upgrade trainee to attend the craftsman resident course?

    • A.

      Six months upgrade training only.

    • B.

      Twelve months upgrade training only.

    • C.

      Completion of minimum core training tasks and recommendation by supervisor only.

    • D.

      Six months upgrade training, completion of minimum core training tasks, and recommendation by supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Six months upgrade training, completion of minimum core training tasks, and recommendation by supervisor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Six months upgrade training, completion of minimum core training tasks, and recommendation by supervisor." This means that in order for a 7-level upgrade trainee to attend the craftsman resident course, they must have completed six months of upgrade training, completed the minimum core training tasks, and have a recommendation from their supervisor.

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  • 39. 

    (010) In reference to the supervisory roles in training, one of the best ways a supervisor can improve productivity and esprit de corps is to

    • A.

      Have an effective training program in place.

    • B.

      Conduct frequent surveys to check overall morale.

    • C.

      Ask for everyone’s input each time a decision about the operation needs to be made.

    • D.

      Motivate poor performers with a system of awards and recognition until their productivity increases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Have an effective training program in place.
    Explanation
    An effective training program in place can help improve productivity and esprit de corps among employees. By providing proper training, supervisors can ensure that employees have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their tasks efficiently. This can lead to increased productivity and a sense of camaraderie among team members. Additionally, a well-designed training program can also help in developing a positive work culture and fostering a sense of professional growth and development among employees.

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  • 40. 

    (010) What is the most appropriate means used to measure knowledge-oriented objectives?

    • A.

      Oral tests.

    • B.

      Written tests.

    • C.

      Survey tests.

    • D.

      Performance tests.

    Correct Answer
    B. Written tests.
    Explanation
    Written tests are the most appropriate means used to measure knowledge-oriented objectives because they allow individuals to demonstrate their understanding and retention of information in a systematic and structured manner. Written tests provide a standardized format for assessing knowledge, allowing for objective evaluation and comparison of results. They also allow for the inclusion of different types of questions, such as multiple-choice, true/false, and short answer, which can assess various levels of knowledge and comprehension. Additionally, written tests provide a permanent record of individuals' performance, making it easier to track progress and identify areas for improvement.

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  • 41. 

    (010) What action serves as an invaluable tool when assessing what the trainee already knows?

    • A.

      Interviewing the trainee’s supervisor.

    • B.

      Giving the trainee a pre-test.

    • C.

      Starting where the trainee’s knowledge ends.

    • D.

      Talking about what the trainee already knows about the task.

    Correct Answer
    B. Giving the trainee a pre-test.
    Explanation
    Giving the trainee a pre-test serves as an invaluable tool when assessing what the trainee already knows. A pre-test allows the trainer to gauge the trainee's current knowledge and understanding of the subject matter before any training or instruction is provided. This helps the trainer identify any knowledge gaps or areas of strength, which can then be used to tailor the training program to the specific needs of the trainee. By administering a pre-test, the trainer can gather valuable information that will guide the training process and ensure that it is effective and efficient.

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  • 42. 

    (010) When conducting an evaluation of a new trainee, what is the first thing you should determine?

    • A.

      The objective.

    • B.

      Safety factors involved.

    • C.

      What evaluation tool will be used.

    • D.

      Where and when the evaluation will take place.

    Correct Answer
    A. The objective.
    Explanation
    In order to conduct an evaluation of a new trainee, the first thing that should be determined is the objective. This is important because it sets the purpose and goals of the evaluation. By knowing the objective, the evaluator can focus on assessing whether the trainee has achieved the desired outcomes or skills. Determining the objective also helps in selecting appropriate evaluation criteria and methods. Safety factors, evaluation tools, and logistics such as the location and timing of the evaluation are important considerations but they come after establishing the objective.

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  • 43. 

    (011) What is the desired education level for a safety craftsman?

    • A.

      Graduate degree.

    • B.

      Bachelors degree.

    • C.

      Associates degree.

    • D.

      Appropriate professional military education for the grade.

    Correct Answer
    C. Associates degree.
    Explanation
    The desired education level for a safety craftsman is an associate's degree. This level of education provides the necessary knowledge and skills to perform the duties and responsibilities of a safety craftsman effectively. While a graduate degree may be beneficial, it is not specifically required for this role. Similarly, a bachelor's degree may be helpful but is not the desired education level. The option of appropriate professional military education for the grade is not applicable to this question.

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  • 44. 

    (011) What is considered one of the best investments any safety office can make?

    • A.

      Training.

    • B.

      Appraisals.

    • C.

      Supervision.

    • D.

      Assessments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Training.
    Explanation
    Investing in training is considered one of the best investments for any safety office because it helps to enhance the knowledge and skills of employees, enabling them to perform their job duties more effectively and safely. Training ensures that employees are aware of the proper safety procedures, protocols, and regulations, reducing the risk of accidents and injuries in the workplace. It also helps to create a safety-conscious culture within the organization, where employees are actively engaged in maintaining a safe work environment. Additionally, training can also improve employee morale and job satisfaction, leading to increased productivity and overall success for the safety office.

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  • 45. 

    (011) What is one of the more common ways to provide training and save money?

    • A.

      Tuition assistance.

    • B.

      Distance learning courses.

    • C.

      Host a training course at your base.

    • D.

      Send one person from your section to a training course, and then have that person train everyone else.

    Correct Answer
    B. Distance learning courses.
    Explanation
    Distance learning courses are one of the more common ways to provide training and save money. This method allows individuals to access educational materials and resources remotely, eliminating the need for travel expenses and reducing the cost of training materials. It also provides flexibility in terms of scheduling, allowing individuals to learn at their own pace and convenience. Additionally, distance learning courses often offer cost-effective options for obtaining certifications and qualifications, making it an efficient and affordable training solution.

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  • 46. 

    (011) Which agency or individual manages and tracks training for all safety personnel through the use of a computer database program?

    • A.

      MAJCOMs.

    • B.

      Air Force Safety Center.

    • C.

      Air Force Training Manager.

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Manager for Safety.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOMs.
    Explanation
    MAJCOMs, or Major Commands, are responsible for managing and tracking training for all safety personnel through the use of a computer database program. They oversee the training requirements and ensure that all safety personnel receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively. The other options, such as the Air Force Safety Center, Air Force Training Manager, and Air Force Career Field Manager for Safety, may play roles in training and managing safety personnel, but they do not have the overall responsibility for tracking and managing training like the MAJCOMs do.

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  • 47. 

      (012) Which section of the Air Force Manpower Standard 106A describes the duties of a wing safety office during normal peacetime operations?

    • A.

      Responsibilities.

    • B.

      Core composition.

    • C.

      Mission statement.

    • D.

      Process oriented description.

    Correct Answer
    D. Process oriented description.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Process oriented description." This section of the Air Force Manpower Standard 106A provides a detailed description of the processes and procedures that the wing safety office should follow during normal peacetime operations. It outlines the specific tasks and responsibilities that the office should undertake to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment within the wing.

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  • 48. 

    (012) The Air Force Manpower Standard 106A applies to

    • A.

      Air Force Space Command.

    • B.

      Air Force Reserve Command.

    • C.

      Air Force Material Command.

    • D.

      Air Force Special Operations Command.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Special Operations Command.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Special Operations Command. The Air Force Manpower Standard 106A is specific to the Air Force Special Operations Command, which is responsible for conducting special operations missions such as counterterrorism, unconventional warfare, and combat search and rescue. The other options, Air Force Space Command, Air Force Reserve Command, and Air Force Material Command, have their own specific manpower standards that apply to their respective missions and responsibilities.

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  • 49. 

    (012) When determining the manpower needed for the base safety office, you can submit a variance request to the Air Force Manpower Standard 106A when the safety office

    • A.

      Is over manned so you can keep the extra slots.

    • B.

      Is performing tasks above and beyond those found on the process analysis survey.

    • C.

      Has duties that change drastically and needs additional manning to accomplish the mission.

    • D.

      Has manning slots that are cut due to a change in the mission and your Chief of Safety deems those slots necessary to accomplish the mission.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is performing tasks above and beyond those found on the process analysis survey.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is performing tasks above and beyond those found on the process analysis survey." This means that if the safety office is taking on additional tasks that are not included in the process analysis survey, a variance request can be submitted to the Air Force Manpower Standard 106A. This request would be to justify the need for additional manpower to handle these extra tasks.

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  • 50. 

    (013) What is the overall goal of risk management?

    • A.

      To identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately.

    • B.

      To make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk.

    • C.

      To reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully.

    • D.

      To identify risks using the same disciplined, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors.

    Correct Answer
    C. To reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully.
    Explanation
    The overall goal of risk management is to reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while still being able to successfully carry out the required missions. This means identifying potential risks and taking appropriate measures to adjust or compensate for them. It also involves making risk decisions at a level of responsibility that aligns with the degree of risk involved. The goal is to ensure the safety of personnel while still being able to effectively accomplish mission objectives.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 13, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Kahlbanor
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