1````1s051 Volume III Pretest (For Reference Use Only)

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USAF Safety Journeyman Volume III Pretest (FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY)

• 1.

(401) The flow of electricity may be compared to

• A.

A streak of lightning.

• B.

Water running through a pipe.

• C.

Water passing through the ground.

• D.

Lightning passing through the ground.

B. Water running through a pipe.
Explanation
The flow of electricity can be compared to water running through a pipe because both involve the movement of a substance through a pathway. In the case of electricity, it flows through conductive materials like wires, similar to how water flows through a pipe. This analogy helps to understand concepts such as current, resistance, and voltage in electricity by relating them to the flow of water in a pipe.

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• 2.

(401) What unit of measurement is used to measure electrical current?

• A.

Volts.

• B.

Ohms.

• C.

Amperes.

• D.

Coulombs.

C. Amperes.
Explanation
Amperes is the correct answer because it is the unit of measurement used to measure electrical current. It is named after the French physicist AndrÃ©-Marie AmpÃ¨re, who made significant contributions to the field of electromagnetism. Amperes represent the rate of flow of electric charge in a circuit, and it is a fundamental unit in the International System of Units (SI). Volts, ohms, and coulombs are also important units in electricity, but they measure voltage, resistance, and electric charge respectively, not current.

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• 3.

(401) How is electrical current measured when you want to describe its effect on the human body?

• A.

Ohms.

• B.

Amperes.

• C.

Resistance.

• D.

Milliamperes.

D. Milliamperes.
Explanation
Milliamperes is the correct answer because when measuring the effect of electrical current on the human body, it is typically done in milliamperes (mA). This unit is used because it allows for more accurate measurement of the small currents that can affect the body. Ohms, amperes, and resistance are not directly used to measure the effect of electrical current on the human body, making them incorrect options.

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• 4.

(401) Resistance is any condition that

• A.

Opposes or restricts the flow of electricity.

• B.

Increases the voltage of electrical flow.

• C.

Aids the conduction of electricity.

• D.

Keeps a circuit closed.

A. Opposes or restricts the flow of electricity.
Explanation
Resistance is a property of a material or component that hinders the flow of electric current. It is a measure of how much a material or component opposes the flow of electricity. When resistance is present in a circuit, it restricts the flow of electrical current, making it more difficult for the current to pass through. This can be caused by factors such as the material's conductivity, its length, and its cross-sectional area. Therefore, the correct answer is "opposes or restricts the flow of electricity."

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• 5.

(402) An electrical outlet must be protected by a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) when it is located within how many feet of a sink?

• A.

6.

• B.

8.

• C.

10.

• D.

12.

A. 6.
Explanation
An electrical outlet must be protected by a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) when it is located within six feet of a sink. This is because water and electricity can be a dangerous combination, and having a GFCI in close proximity to a sink helps to prevent electrical shocks and potential accidents.

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• 6.

(402) Which safety rule should be observed where extension cords are used?

• A.

Extension cords should be taped to a wall instead of lying on the floor.

• B.

A long extension cord should be coiled.

• C.

Extension cords must not be run through ceiling holes.

• D.

Extension cords should not be used for small appliances.

C. Extension cords must not be run through ceiling holes.
Explanation
Running extension cords through ceiling holes can cause them to become damaged or worn, leading to potential electrical hazards such as short circuits or fires. It is important to avoid running extension cords through any holes or openings in the ceiling to ensure the safety of the electrical system and prevent accidents.

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• 7.

(402) Who is responsible for helping supervisors mark all circuit breaker boxes with the correct voltage?

• A.

Shop personnel.

• B.

Ground safety personnel.

• C.

Civil engineering personnel.

• D.

Circuit breaker box manufacturer.

C. Civil engineering personnel.
Explanation
Civil engineering personnel are responsible for helping supervisors mark all circuit breaker boxes with the correct voltage. They have the knowledge and expertise in electrical systems and regulations to ensure that the circuit breaker boxes are labeled accurately. Shop personnel may not have the necessary training in electrical systems, while ground safety personnel may focus on other safety aspects. The circuit breaker box manufacturer is responsible for manufacturing the boxes, but not for marking them with the correct voltage.

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• 8.

(403) What type of electrical cell can be restored to a charged condition by passing an electrical current through the cell in the opposite direction of the discharging current?

• A.

Primary cell.

• B.

Storage cell.

• C.

Electrode cell.

• D.

Negative electrode cell.

B. Storage cell.
Explanation
A storage cell is a type of electrical cell that can be restored to a charged condition by passing an electrical current through the cell in the opposite direction of the discharging current. Unlike primary cells, which are disposable and cannot be recharged, storage cells are designed to be recharged and used multiple times. Therefore, a storage cell is the correct answer to the question.

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• 9.

(403) When electrical pressure is generated by chemical action, the device in which this occurs is called

• A.

A neutronic cell.

• B.

An electrical cell.

• C.

A chemical cell.

• D.

B. An electrical cell.
Explanation
The correct answer is an electrical cell. An electrical cell is a device in which electrical pressure is generated by chemical action. It is commonly used to produce electric current by converting chemical energy into electrical energy.

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• 10.

(403) An electrical cell consists of

• A.

A negative electrode, electrolyte, and a circuit.

• B.

Positive and negative poles, and a potential circuit.

• C.

A positive electrode, negative electrode, and an electrolyte.

• D.

An electrolyte compound, a circuit continuity, and an electrical charge.

C. A positive electrode, negative electrode, and an electrolyte.
Explanation
An electrical cell consists of a positive electrode, negative electrode, and an electrolyte. The positive electrode is where the oxidation reaction occurs, while the negative electrode is where the reduction reaction occurs. The electrolyte is a substance that allows the flow of ions between the electrodes, completing the circuit and allowing the cell to generate electrical energy. The other options mentioned in the question either do not include all the necessary components or include incorrect components.

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• 11.

(403) In battery shop operations, how should sulfuric acid and water be mixed together?

• A.

Pour water slowly into acid.

• B.

Pour acid slowly into water.

• C.

Combine in a metal container.

• D.

Combine with a diluting agent.

B. Pour acid slowly into water.
Explanation
When mixing sulfuric acid and water in battery shop operations, it is important to pour the acid slowly into the water. This is because pouring water into acid can cause a violent reaction, resulting in the acid splashing or boiling over. By pouring the acid slowly into the water, the reaction is more controlled and the risk of accidents is minimized.

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• 12.

(403) Where can you find the standard for Air Force electrical systems and operations?

• A.

Major command (MAJCOM) USAF directives.

• B.

National Electric Code (NEC).

• C.

Department of Defense (DOD) Electrical Systems Instruction.

• D.

USAF Fire Prevention Code.

B. National Electric Code (NEC).
Explanation
The National Electric Code (NEC) is the standard for electrical systems and operations in the Air Force. It provides guidelines and regulations for the safe installation and use of electrical equipment. The NEC is widely recognized and adopted by various organizations, including the military. It ensures that electrical systems in the Air Force meet the necessary safety standards and comply with electrical codes. Therefore, the NEC is the correct answer for where to find the standard for Air Force electrical systems and operations.

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• 13.

(404) One complete cycle of alternating current (AC) is composed of

• A.

One alternation of current.

• B.

One negative pulse of current.

• C.

Two alternations of current (both in the same direction).

• D.

Two alternations of current (one in one direction and one in the other).

D. Two alternations of current (one in one direction and one in the other).
Explanation
One complete cycle of alternating current (AC) consists of two alternations of current. In the first alternation, the current flows in one direction, and in the second alternation, the current flows in the opposite direction. This pattern repeats continuously in AC circuits, resulting in a sinusoidal waveform.

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• 14.

(404) Which device is used to change power from one voltage to another?

• A.

Transformers.

• B.

Capacitors

• C.

Rectifiers.

• D.

Filters.

A. Transformers.
Explanation
Transformers are used to change power from one voltage level to another. They work on the principle of electromagnetic induction, where a changing current in one coil induces a voltage in another coil. The ratio of the number of turns in the primary and secondary coils determines the voltage transformation. Transformers are commonly used in power transmission and distribution systems to step up or step down voltage levels for efficient transmission and utilization of electrical energy. Capacitors store electrical energy, rectifiers convert AC to DC, and filters remove unwanted noise or harmonics from a signal.

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• 15.

(405) The primary factor influencing the severity of electrical shock to the human body is the

• A.

Length of the exposure.

• B.

Amount of the current flow.

• C.

Level of the voltage applied.

• D.

Frequency of the electrical charge.

B. Amount of the current flow.
Explanation
The severity of electrical shock to the human body is primarily influenced by the amount of the current flow. The higher the current flow, the more severe the shock will be. This is because the current flowing through the body can disrupt the normal functioning of the nervous system and vital organs, leading to various injuries or even death. The length of exposure, level of voltage applied, and frequency of the electrical charge can also affect the severity of the shock, but the amount of current flow is the most significant factor.

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• 16.

(405) How much current causes a normally harmless shock to be felt?

• A.

1 milliampere.

• B.

25 milliamperes.

• C.

1 ampere.

• D.

25 ampere.

A. 1 milliampere.
Explanation
A normally harmless shock is felt when the current passing through the body reaches a certain threshold. This threshold is typically around 1 milliampere. Currents lower than this are usually not felt, while currents higher than this can cause more severe shocks and potential injury. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 milliampere.

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• 17.

(406) What is the purpose of placing bonding wire between two metal objects?

• A.

Continuity of system grounds.

• B.

Equalization of static charges that may be generated.

• C.

Dissipation of static electrical charges to a ground.

• D.

Prevention of accumulations of dynamic electricity.

B. Equalization of static charges that may be generated.
Explanation
The purpose of placing bonding wire between two metal objects is to equalize static charges that may be generated. This helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity and ensures that the charges are evenly distributed between the objects. By equalizing the static charges, the bonding wire helps to minimize the risk of electrostatic discharge and potential damage to sensitive electronic equipment.

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• 18.

(406) Grounding is used to control

• A.

Static electrical charges only.

• B.

Dynamic electrical charges only.

• C.

Both dynamic and static electrical charges.

• D.

Bonded equipment.

C. Both dynamic and static electrical charges.
Explanation
Grounding is a safety measure used to control electrical charges by providing a path for the charges to flow safely into the ground. It helps prevent the buildup of static electricity, which can cause sparks and potentially ignite flammable materials. Additionally, grounding also helps to dissipate dynamic electrical charges, such as those created by lightning strikes or power surges, to protect equipment and prevent damage. Therefore, the correct answer is that grounding is used to control both dynamic and static electrical charges.

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• 19.

(406) An example of a system ground is a

• A.

• B.

Double-insulated tool.

• C.

Return wire attached to a ground in the earth.

• D.

Wire attached to the frame of a tool and a metal bar.

C. Return wire attached to a ground in the earth.
Explanation
A system ground is a connection between an electrical system and the earth. This is done to provide a safe path for electrical current to flow in the event of a fault or short circuit. A return wire attached to a ground in the earth serves as an example of a system ground as it allows excess electrical current to be safely directed away from the system and into the ground. This helps to protect both the electrical system and the individuals using it from potential electrical hazards.

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• 20.

(406) Grounding is effective when

• A.

There are no breaks in the grounding path.

• B.

The grounding path is broken before it reaches the ground.

• C.

Dynamic charges are converted into static charges.

• D.

Static charges are converted into to dynamic charges.

A. There are no breaks in the grounding path.
Explanation
Grounding is effective when there are no breaks in the grounding path because grounding is a safety measure that provides a direct path for electrical current to flow into the ground, preventing the buildup of excess electrical charge. If there are breaks in the grounding path, the electrical current may not be able to flow properly, leading to the potential for electrical shocks, equipment damage, or even electrical fires. Therefore, a continuous and unbroken grounding path is essential for ensuring the effectiveness of grounding.

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• 21.

(406) It is hard to maintain an effective ground for portable electric equipment because

• A.

The equipment is relatively small in size.

• B.

The equipment is moved about so much.

• C.

The equipment uses a three-wire cord.

• D.

The grounding prong on the plug has probably been removed.

B. The equipment is moved about so much.
Explanation
Portable electric equipment is difficult to maintain an effective ground because it is constantly being moved around. This constant movement increases the risk of the equipment becoming disconnected or the grounding prong on the plug being damaged or removed. Without a proper ground, there is an increased risk of electrical shock or other electrical hazards.

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• 22.

(406) Which of the following is not a specific characteristic of effective grounds?

• A.

All paths must be continuous.

• B.

Equipment grounds should never exceed two ohms.

• C.

All grounding points must be provided adequate protection against physical damage.

• D.

The natural ground circuit resistance should be kept as far as possible below the maximum permissible limits.

B. Equipment grounds should never exceed two ohms.
Explanation
This question is asking for a characteristic that is not specific to effective grounds. The first three options all describe specific characteristics of effective grounds, such as the need for continuous paths, protection against physical damage, and keeping the natural ground circuit resistance below maximum limits. However, the statement that "equipment grounds should never exceed two ohms" is not a specific characteristic of effective grounds. It may be a general guideline or recommendation, but it is not a defining characteristic.

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• 23.

(407) Which device is the simplest way to control an electrical circuit?

• A.

Fuse.

• B.

Relay.

• C.

Interlock.

• D.

Circuit breaker.

A. Fuse.
Explanation
A fuse is the simplest way to control an electrical circuit because it is a small device that is designed to break the circuit when there is an excessive amount of current flowing through it. When the current exceeds a certain limit, the fuse wire inside the fuse melts, causing the circuit to open and preventing any further flow of current. This protects the circuit and the connected devices from damage due to excessive current. In comparison, a relay, interlock, and circuit breaker are more complex devices that provide additional features such as remote control, safety interlocking, and automatic circuit interruption.

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• 24.

(407) What is a relay?

• A.

A link of metal placed in series with a circuit.

• B.

A switch that, when released, allows the current to flow uninterrupted.

• C.

A device that communicates the information in a signal to another device.

• D.

A device that tells the circuit breaker to interrupt current flow when the temperature rises.

C. A device that communicates the information in a signal to another device.
Explanation
A relay is a device that communicates the information in a signal to another device. It is used to control the flow of electrical current by opening or closing circuits electromechanically or electronically. Relays are commonly used in various applications, such as in control systems, automation, telecommunications, and power distribution. They act as an interface between different devices, allowing them to communicate and coordinate their actions.

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• 25.

(407) In electrical work, what is generally used to control large, high-voltage currents with a lowvoltage, low-current signal?

• A.

Fuses.

• B.

Relays.

• C.

Interlocks.

• D.

Circuit breakers.

B. Relays.
Explanation
Relays are generally used in electrical work to control large, high-voltage currents with a low-voltage, low-current signal. Relays act as switches that are controlled by an electrical signal, allowing them to handle high-power circuits without the need for the low-power control circuit to handle the high currents. This makes relays an ideal choice for controlling high-voltage currents in electrical systems.

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• 26.

(407) Which circuit control device works in reverse order?

• A.

Fuses.

• B.

Relays.

• C.

Solenoids.

• D.

Interlocks.

D. Interlocks.
Explanation
Interlocks are circuit control devices that work in reverse order. While fuses, relays, and solenoids are typically used to control the flow of electricity or act as switches, interlocks are designed to prevent certain actions from occurring. They are used to ensure that a specific sequence of events or conditions is met before allowing a circuit to be activated. In this way, interlocks work in reverse order compared to the other options, as they prevent an action rather than enabling it.

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• 27.

(407) An interlock interrupts circuit flow

• A.

By actuating a complex switch mechanism.

• B.

By controlling the electrical circuit from a distant location.

• C.

When an electronics component tray is removed from its rack, releasing a button.

• D.

By sending an electronic signal when an electronics component tray is removed from its rack.

C. When an electronics component tray is removed from its rack, releasing a button.
Explanation
When an electronics component tray is removed from its rack, it releases a button that interrupts the circuit flow. This means that the circuit is broken and the flow of electricity is stopped. This is likely a safety feature to prevent any accidents or damage that could occur if the tray is removed while the circuit is still active.

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• 28.

(408) When electrical parts are exposed, the workspace clearance must have a radius of at least

• A.

Three feet.

• B.

Four feet.

• C.

Five feet.

• D.

Six feet.

A. Three feet.
Explanation
When electrical parts are exposed, the workspace clearance must have a radius of at least three feet. This is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals working with the electrical parts. Having a three-foot radius clearance allows for enough space to prevent accidental contact with the exposed electrical parts, reducing the risk of electrical shocks or other accidents.

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• 29.

(408) Electrical resistance gloves that are in active use must be dielectric tested every

• A.

1 month.

• B.

3 months.

• C.

6 months.

• D.

12 months.

C. 6 months.
Explanation
Electrical resistance gloves are used to protect individuals from electrical hazards. These gloves need to be regularly tested for their dielectric strength to ensure they can withstand electrical currents. Dielectric testing helps identify any weaknesses or defects in the gloves that may compromise their protective properties. Testing them every 6 months strikes a balance between ensuring the gloves are in good condition and minimizing the risk of using faulty gloves.

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• 30.

(408) Who designates the electrical hazard areas that require the use of insulating matting?

• A.

Supervisor.

• B.

Functional manager.

• C.

• D.

Installation commander.

A. Supervisor.
Explanation
The supervisor designates the electrical hazard areas that require the use of insulating matting. This means that the supervisor is responsible for identifying and marking areas where there is a risk of electrical hazards, and ensuring that insulating matting is used in these designated areas to protect workers from potential electrical shocks or accidents. The supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety of the work environment and implementing necessary precautions to prevent electrical accidents.

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• 31.

(409) On machinery, tagout devices used with energy isolating (lockout) devices should be attached at

• A.

The entrance to the area.

• B.

The same point as the lock.

• C.

Eye level on the machine or equipment.

• D.

Various, but conspicuous, locations throughout the affected area.

B. The same point as the lock.
Explanation
Tagout devices used with energy isolating (lockout) devices should be attached at the same point as the lock. This ensures that the tagout device is clearly visible and easily accessible to anyone who needs to perform maintenance or repairs on the machinery. By attaching the tagout device at the same point as the lock, it helps to prevent accidental energization of the machinery while work is being done.

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• 32.

(409) When a tag is used during the lockout/tagout procedure, it must have a minimum unlocking strength of at least

• A.

100 lbs.

• B.

75 lbs.

• C.

50 lbs.

• D.

25 lbs.

C. 50 lbs.
Explanation
During the lockout/tagout procedure, a tag is used to indicate that a piece of equipment is being serviced or repaired and should not be operated. The tag must have a minimum unlocking strength to ensure that it cannot be easily removed or tampered with. A minimum unlocking strength of 50 lbs. is required, meaning that the tag should require a force of at least 50 lbs. to remove it. This ensures that only authorized personnel can remove the tag and operate the equipment, preventing accidental or unauthorized use.

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• 33.

(409) When there are no changes in procedures, process, or systems associated with the lockout/tagout program, retraining must take place at least every

• A.

Two years.

• B.

18 months.

• C.

Year.

• D.

6 months.

C. Year.
Explanation
Retraining in lockout/tagout program is necessary when there are no changes in procedures, process, or systems associated with it. According to the given information, retraining must take place at least every year.

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• 34.

(409) How often must the safety staff evaluate a lockout/tagout program to ensure the requirements of the program are being followed?

• A.

Quarterly.

• B.

Semi-annually.

• C.

Annually.

• D.

Anytime a system is locked or tagged out.

C. Annually.
Explanation
The safety staff must evaluate a lockout/tagout program annually to ensure that the requirements of the program are being followed. This evaluation helps to identify any potential issues or non-compliance with the program and allows for necessary adjustments or improvements to be made. Quarterly or semi-annual evaluations may not provide enough time to thoroughly assess the program, while evaluating anytime a system is locked or tagged out may be too frequent and impractical. Therefore, an annual evaluation is the most appropriate timeframe for ensuring compliance and safety.

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• 35.

(410) What ingredient present in most solvents makes them organic?

• A.

Fat.

• B.

Dye.

• C.

Salt.

• D.

Carbon.

D. Carbon.
Explanation
Solvents are substances that can dissolve other substances, and most solvents are organic compounds. Organic compounds are compounds that contain carbon atoms. Carbon is a versatile element that can form strong covalent bonds with other elements, allowing it to create a wide variety of organic compounds. Therefore, the presence of carbon in solvents is what makes them organic.

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• 36.

(410) Which base agency should be contacted if the material safety data sheet (MSDS) is not available for a particular cleaning solvent?

• A.

Public health.

• B.

Ground safety.

• C.

Bioenvironmental engineering.

• D.

Civil engineering environmental flight.

C. Bioenvironmental engineering.
Explanation
If the material safety data sheet (MSDS) is not available for a particular cleaning solvent, the appropriate agency to contact would be bioenvironmental engineering. Bioenvironmental engineering is responsible for assessing and managing environmental health risks in military installations, including the handling and disposal of hazardous materials. They would have the expertise and resources to provide information and guidance on the safe use and handling of the cleaning solvent in question.

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• 37.

(410) Color is added to aviation and motor gasolines to indicate the presence of

• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.

A. Alkyl lead compounds.
Explanation
Color is added to aviation and motor gasolines to indicate the presence of alkyl lead compounds. Alkyl lead compounds, specifically tetraethyl lead (TEL), were once commonly used as an anti-knock additive in gasoline. The addition of alkyl lead compounds helped to prevent engine knocking or detonation, which can cause damage to the engine. The color added to the gasoline served as a visual indicator that it contained these lead compounds. However, due to environmental and health concerns, the use of alkyl lead compounds in gasoline has been phased out in many countries.

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• 38.

(410) If a worker spills hydrocarbon fuels on the skin, he or she may experience

• A.

A mild rash.

• B.

Slight dizziness and dulled senses.

• C.

Cracked skin, severe burns, or blood poisoning.

• D.

Lung and mucous membrane damage.

C. Cracked skin, severe burns, or blood poisoning.
Explanation
If a worker spills hydrocarbon fuels on the skin, it can cause cracked skin, severe burns, or blood poisoning. Hydrocarbon fuels are highly flammable and can be corrosive to the skin. They can cause the skin to crack, leading to severe burns. Additionally, if the fuels are absorbed into the bloodstream through the skin, they can cause blood poisoning, which can be life-threatening. It is important to handle hydrocarbon fuels with caution and take appropriate safety measures to prevent such accidents.

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• 39.

(410) Proper handling of hydrocarbon fuels eliminates any possibility of them being spilled in the same area as

• A.

Sand or dirt.

• B.

• C.

• D.

Propellant oxidizers.

D. Propellant oxidizers.
Explanation
Proper handling of hydrocarbon fuels ensures that they are not spilled in the same area as propellant oxidizers. Propellant oxidizers are substances used in rockets and missiles to provide oxygen for the combustion of the fuel. Mixing hydrocarbon fuels with propellant oxidizers can lead to a highly combustible and dangerous situation. Therefore, it is crucial to handle these substances separately to prevent any accidents or explosions.

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• 40.

(410) What is the hidden danger in the fumes of nitric acid?

• A.

They are immediately intoxicating when inhaled.

• B.

They are immediately incapacitating when inhaled.

• C.

Initial symptoms of poisoning are slight but become severe later on.

• D.

Initial symptoms of poisoning are seemingly severe but quickly taper off resulting in unwarranted stress.

C. Initial symptoms of poisoning are slight but become severe later on.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the initial symptoms of poisoning from the fumes of nitric acid are slight but become severe later on. This means that when someone is exposed to the fumes, they may not immediately experience severe symptoms, but over time, the effects of the poisoning worsen. This highlights the hidden danger of nitric acid fumes, as individuals may not realize the severity of their exposure until it is too late.

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• 41.

(410) When handling fuming nitric acids, respiratory protection is required whenever the

• A.

Vapors exceed the threshold limit value.

• B.

Vapors are below the threshold limit value.

• C.

Potential exists for the concentration of vapors to meet upper control limits.

• D.

Potential exists for the concentration of vapors to exceed upper control limits.

A. Vapors exceed the threshold limit value.
Explanation
When handling fuming nitric acids, respiratory protection is required whenever the vapors exceed the threshold limit value. This means that if the concentration of vapors in the air is higher than the recommended limit, it is necessary to use respiratory protection to prevent inhalation of harmful substances. The threshold limit value is a guideline established by occupational health and safety organizations to protect workers from exposure to hazardous substances. In the case of fuming nitric acids, which can release toxic and corrosive vapors, exceeding the threshold limit value can pose serious health risks. Therefore, it is important to take precautions and use respiratory protection when necessary.

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• 42.

(411) Which class of flammable liquid has a flash point below 73ºF and has a boiling point at or above 100ºF?

• A.

IA.

• B.

IB.

• C.

IC.

• D.

ID.

B. IB.
Explanation
Flammable liquids in Class IB have a flash point below 73Â°F and a boiling point at or above 100Â°F. This means that these liquids have a low temperature at which they can ignite and produce flammable vapors, but they do not evaporate quickly. Therefore, they have a higher boiling point compared to other flammable liquid classes.

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• 43.

(411) What is the maximum number of gallons of Class I flammable liquids that may be stored in a storage cabinet at one time?

• A.

30.

• B.

60.

• C.

90.

• D.

120.

D. 120.
Explanation
A storage cabinet can hold a maximum of 120 gallons of Class I flammable liquids at one time. This is the highest amount allowed to be stored in a cabinet according to safety regulations.

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• 44.

(411) Which kind of chemical may react vigorously at room temperature with carbon-containing substances to produce fires or explosions?

• A.

Acids.

• B.

Bases.

• C.

Caustics.

• D.

Oxidizers.

D. Oxidizers.
Explanation
Oxidizers are chemicals that have the ability to react vigorously with carbon-containing substances at room temperature, leading to fires or explosions. They have a strong oxidizing agent that can cause combustion by providing oxygen to the reaction. Acids, bases, and caustics do not necessarily have this oxidizing property, and therefore, are less likely to cause fires or explosions when reacting with carbon-containing substances.

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• 45.

(412) Which of the following is an objective of the AF Hazardous Materials Management Process (HMMP) program?

• A.

Increase awareness of life cycle costs.

• B.

Reduce hazardous materials storage costs.

• C.

Minimize dependency on hazardous materials.

• D.

Increase awareness of hazardous materials usage.

C. Minimize dependency on hazardous materials.
Explanation
The objective of the AF Hazardous Materials Management Process (HMMP) program is to minimize dependency on hazardous materials. This means that the program aims to reduce the reliance on hazardous materials in order to decrease the potential risks and negative impacts associated with their use. By minimizing dependency, the program can promote safer and more sustainable practices in the handling, storage, and usage of hazardous materials.

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• 46.

(412) Which base agency leads the hazardous material management process (HMMP) team?

• A.

Wing safety.

• B.

Public health.

• C.

Civil engineering.

• D.

Bioenvironmental engineering.

C. Civil engineering.
Explanation
Civil engineering leads the hazardous material management process (HMMP) team. This is because civil engineers are responsible for designing, constructing, and maintaining infrastructure, including the management of hazardous materials. They have the expertise and knowledge to handle and mitigate the risks associated with hazardous materials, ensuring the safety of the environment and the public.

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• 47.

(413) What role does HAZMART play in the installation hazardous material management program (IHMP)?

• A.

Provides secure facilities for storing hazardous material (HAZMAT).

• B.

Issues government-owned HAZMAT.

• C.

Authorizes requests for HAZMAT.

• D.

Assesses safety risks of HAZMAT.

B. Issues government-owned HAZMAT.
Explanation
HAZMART plays a role in the installation hazardous material management program (IHMP) by issuing government-owned HAZMAT. This means that HAZMART is responsible for providing the necessary hazardous materials to the installation for their operations. By issuing government-owned HAZMAT, HAZMART ensures that the installation has access to the required materials while also maintaining control and accountability over them. This helps in the efficient management and safe handling of hazardous materials within the installation.

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• 48.

(413) What is used to track hazardous material (HAZMAT) purchases?

• A.

AF Form 3952, Chemical/Hazardous Material Request/Authorization.

• B.

Government wide purchase card.

• C.

Standardized Air Force tracking system.

• D.

AF Form 9, Request for Purchase.

C. Standardized Air Force tracking system.
Explanation
The correct answer is the Standardized Air Force tracking system. This system is used to track hazardous material (HAZMAT) purchases in the Air Force. It is a centralized and standardized system that allows for efficient tracking and management of HAZMAT purchases. AF Form 3952 and AF Form 9 are not specifically designed for tracking HAZMAT purchases, and the government wide purchase card is a payment method rather than a tracking system.

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• 49.

(414) What type of fuel storage tank can be located next to buildings?

• A.

Cone roof.

• B.

Floating roof.

• C.

Vaulted (self-diking).

• D.

Horizontal cylindrical.

C. Vaulted (self-diking).
Explanation
Vaulted (self-diking) fuel storage tanks can be located next to buildings because they are designed with a secondary containment system that prevents spills or leaks from reaching the surrounding area. The vaulted design includes a built-in dike or barrier that surrounds the tank, effectively containing any potential fuel spills or leaks. This makes it a safe option for placement near buildings, as it minimizes the risk of fire or environmental damage.

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• 50.

(414) What type of fuel storage tanks are used to store gasoline at base service stations?

• A.

Vaulted.

• B.

Cone roof.

• C.

Floating roof.

• D.

Underground.

D. Underground.
Explanation
Gasoline is typically stored in underground fuel storage tanks at base service stations. This is because underground tanks provide several advantages, including protection against fire hazards, reduced risk of fuel contamination, and preservation of space above ground. Additionally, underground tanks are less prone to temperature fluctuations, which helps maintain the quality and stability of the gasoline. Therefore, underground fuel storage tanks are the most suitable option for storing gasoline at base service stations.

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• Current Version
• Jan 19, 2024
Quiz Edited by
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• Mar 05, 2012
Quiz Created by
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