1s051 Volume V Pretest (For Reference Use Only)

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1s051 Volume V Pretest (For Reference Use Only) - Quiz


USAF Safety Journeyman Volume V Pretest (FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (801) Unless otherwise directed, how often will workplaces and operations be inspected?

    • A.

      Quarterly.

    • B.

      Annually.

    • C.

      Biennially.

    • D.

      Triennially.

    Correct Answer
    B. Annually.
    Explanation
    Workplaces and operations will be inspected annually unless otherwise directed. This means that unless there are specific instructions to inspect more frequently or less frequently, the standard practice is to conduct inspections once a year.

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  • 2. 

    (801) What percentage of unmanned missile launch facilities must be inspected at least once a year?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      20.

    • D.

      30.

    Correct Answer
    C. 20.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 20. This means that 20% of unmanned missile launch facilities must be inspected at least once a year. This ensures that a certain percentage of these facilities are regularly checked to maintain safety and security standards.

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  • 3. 

    (801) The ground safety manager must schedule inspections to make the most effective use of

    • A.

      Personnel and money.

    • B.

      Personnel and time.

    • C.

      Time and money.

    • D.

      Money and equipment.

    Correct Answer
    B. Personnel and time.
    Explanation
    The ground safety manager is responsible for scheduling inspections in order to ensure the most efficient use of resources. This includes both personnel and time. By scheduling inspections in a way that maximizes the use of available personnel and minimizes downtime, the manager can effectively allocate resources and ensure that inspections are conducted in a timely manner. This approach also helps to optimize the use of money, as it minimizes the need for additional personnel or overtime costs. Therefore, the correct answer is personnel and time.

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  • 4. 

    (801) What two types of checklists should be available for a safety inspection?

    • A.

      Program management and facilities.

    • B.

      Program management and health.

    • C.

      AFI and technical order.

    • D.

      Facilities and health.

    Correct Answer
    A. Program management and facilities.
    Explanation
    For a safety inspection, two types of checklists that should be available are program management and facilities. Program management checklist ensures that all necessary safety protocols and procedures are in place and being followed, while the facilities checklist ensures that the physical environment is safe and compliant with safety regulations. These checklists cover different aspects of safety inspection, addressing both administrative and physical aspects.

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  • 5. 

    (801) Which inspection is conducted to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization?

    • A.

      Spot.

    • B.

      Annual.

    • C.

      High interest.

    • D.

      Staff assistance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spot.
    Explanation
    Spot inspections are conducted to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization. These inspections are carried out randomly and without prior notice, allowing the inspector to assess the current conditions and identify any immediate hazards or violations. Spot inspections help ensure that the organization is maintaining a safe and healthy environment for its employees and visitors on a regular basis.

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  • 6. 

    (802) How often will the Air Force Safety Center conduct a staff assistance visit on a MAJCOM?

    • A.

      Once a year.

    • B.

      Once every two years.

    • C.

      On a continuous rotating basis.

    • D.

      Once the MAJCOM requests a SAV.

    Correct Answer
    C. On a continuous rotating basis.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Safety Center conducts staff assistance visits (SAVs) on a continuous rotating basis. This means that they regularly visit different MAJCOMs in a systematic and ongoing manner, rather than only visiting once a year or once every two years. This approach allows the Safety Center to provide consistent support and guidance to all MAJCOMs and ensures that safety practices are regularly assessed and improved upon.

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  • 7. 

    (803) Which agency requires higher headquarters to evaluate the safety program management of organizations at or above wing level?

    • A.

      DOD.

    • B.

      USAF.

    • C.

      AFSC.

    • D.

      OSHA.

    Correct Answer
    D. OSHA.
    Explanation
    OSHA, which stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration, requires higher headquarters to evaluate the safety program management of organizations at or above wing level. OSHA is a regulatory agency under the United States Department of Labor, responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees. It sets and enforces standards, conducts inspections, and provides training and education to promote workplace safety. In this case, OSHA is the agency that specifically requires higher headquarters to evaluate safety programs in organizations at or above wing level.

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  • 8. 

    (803) Once a report of a safety program evaluation is written, to whom is it sent?

    • A.

      Safety staff of the organization evaluated.

    • B.

      Commander of the organization evaluated.

    • C.

      Commander and safety staff of the organization evaluated.

    • D.

      Commander, safety staff and unit safety representatives of the organization evaluated.

    Correct Answer
    C. Commander and safety staff of the organization evaluated.
    Explanation
    After completing a safety program evaluation, the report is sent to the commander and safety staff of the organization being evaluated. This ensures that the individuals responsible for overseeing the organization's safety protocols and procedures are informed of the evaluation's findings and recommendations. By sharing the report with both the commander and safety staff, it allows for a comprehensive understanding of the evaluation results and facilitates the implementation of any necessary improvements to the safety program.

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  • 9. 

    (804) A primary objective of the Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ESOHCAMP) is to

    • A.

      Forecast future compliance requirements.

    • B.

      Eliminate ESOH related problems through root cause analysis.

    • C.

      Restore, sustain, and modernize mission compliance at each installation.

    • D.

      Accommodate the common interest through assessing environment, safety and occupational health programs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Restore, sustain, and modernize mission compliance at each installation.
    Explanation
    The primary objective of the Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ESOHCAMP) is to restore, sustain, and modernize mission compliance at each installation. This means that the program aims to ensure that each installation is in compliance with environmental, safety, and occupational health regulations, and to continuously improve and update these compliance measures to meet current standards. The program focuses on maintaining and improving mission compliance, rather than simply forecasting future requirements or eliminating problems through root cause analysis.

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  • 10. 

    (804) Internal Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program assessments are conducted at least

    • A.

      Biannually.

    • B.

      Annually.

    • C.

      Every two years (biennially).

    • D.

      Every three years (triennially).

    Correct Answer
    B. Annually.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is annually. Internal Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program assessments are conducted once a year. This allows for regular monitoring and evaluation of the organization's compliance with internal environmental, safety, and occupational health standards. Conducting these assessments annually helps ensure that any issues or non-compliance are identified and addressed in a timely manner, promoting a safe and healthy work environment for employees.

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  • 11. 

    (804) External Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program assessments are conducted at least

    • A.

      Biannually.

    • B.

      Annually.

    • C.

      Every other year (biennially).

    • D.

      Every three years (triennially).

    Correct Answer
    D. Every three years (triennially).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is every three years (triennially). This means that assessments for External Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Management Program are conducted once every three years.

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  • 12. 

    (804) Who is responsible for arranging external Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program assessments?

    • A.

      MAJCOM.

    • B.

      Installation Commander.

    • C.

      Installation Civil Engineer.

    • D.

      HQ Air Force Center for Environmental Excellence.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM.
    Explanation
    MAJCOM, which stands for Major Command, is responsible for arranging external Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program assessments. This means that the Major Command is in charge of organizing and ensuring compliance with environmental, safety, and occupational health regulations and assessments at the external level.

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  • 13. 

    (804) During which Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program assessment activity does the team conduct record searches, interviews, and site surveys to determine the compliance of the installation to comply with regulations and instructions?

    • A.

      Assessment activities.

    • B.

      Pre-assessment activities.

    • C.

      Site assessment activities.

    • D.

      Post-assessment activities.

    Correct Answer
    C. Site assessment activities.
    Explanation
    During site assessment activities, the team conducts record searches, interviews, and site surveys to determine the compliance of the installation with regulations and instructions. This involves physically visiting the site, gathering information, and assessing the current state of compliance.

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  • 14. 

    (804) During which Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program assessment activity does the MAJCOM followup on site activities?

    • A.

      Assessment.

    • B.

      Pre-assessment.

    • C.

      Site assessment.

    • D.

      Post-assessment.

    Correct Answer
    D. Post-assessment.
    Explanation
    During the post-assessment phase of the Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program, the MAJCOM follows up on site activities. This means that after the initial assessment has taken place, the MAJCOM conducts a review to ensure that any identified issues or deficiencies have been addressed and corrected. This follow-up is important for maintaining compliance with environmental, safety, and occupational health regulations and ensuring that any necessary improvements are made.

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  • 15. 

    (804) Who is the approval authority to deem an installation exempt from Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program assessments?

    • A.

      Installation commander.

    • B.

      MAJCOM commander.

    • C.

      Secretary of the Air Force.

    • D.

      HQ Air Force Center for Environmental Excellence.

    Correct Answer
    B. MAJCOM commander.
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM commander is the approval authority to deem an installation exempt from Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Compliance Assessment and Management Program assessments. This means that the commander at the major command level has the authority to decide whether or not an installation needs to undergo these assessments. The installation commander, Secretary of the Air Force, and HQ Air Force Center for Environmental Excellence do not have the same level of authority in this matter.

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  • 16. 

    (805) To be effective, safety inspections must be all of the following except

    • A.

      Practical.

    • B.

      Productive.

    • C.

      Faultfinding.

    • D.

      Constructive.

    Correct Answer
    C. Faultfinding.
    Explanation
    Safety inspections must be practical, productive, and constructive in order to be effective. Practicality ensures that the inspections are feasible and can be implemented efficiently. Productivity ensures that the inspections result in meaningful improvements and tangible outcomes. Constructiveness ensures that the inspections focus on identifying and addressing safety issues rather than simply finding faults. Therefore, faultfinding is not a characteristic of effective safety inspections.

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  • 17. 

    (805) The purpose of an outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss

    • A.

      Hardware writeups.

    • B.

      All superior performers.

    • C.

      Your findings and recommendations.

    • D.

      The commander’s utilization of assigned manpower.

    Correct Answer
    C. Your findings and recommendations.
    Explanation
    The purpose of an outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss the findings and recommendations. This allows the inspector to provide a summary of their observations and assessments, as well as any suggestions for improvement or corrective actions. It is an opportunity to communicate the results of the inspection and provide guidance to the relevant parties on how to address any identified issues or areas of improvement.

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  • 18. 

    (805) Which person is most responsible for carrying out the recommended corrective actions of an inspection report?

    • A.

      Commander.

    • B.

      Area supervisor.

    • C.

      Area superintendent.

    • D.

      Area functional manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander.
    Explanation
    The commander is the person who holds the highest level of authority and responsibility within an organization or unit. As such, they are ultimately responsible for ensuring that the recommended corrective actions from an inspection report are carried out. They have the authority to delegate tasks and allocate resources to address any issues identified in the report. The area supervisor, superintendent, and functional manager may also play a role in implementing the corrective actions, but the commander has the ultimate responsibility for overseeing the process.

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  • 19. 

    (805) What AF Form is used to identify the existence of a hazardous condition that could result in death, disability, or a lost-workday mishap?

    • A.

      797.

    • B.

      979.

    • C.

      1118.

    • D.

      1811.

    Correct Answer
    C. 1118.
  • 20. 

    (805) What AF form is used to temporarily identify a hazardous condition?

    • A.

      797.

    • B.

      979.

    • C.

      1118.

    • D.

      1811.

    Correct Answer
    B. 979.
  • 21. 

    (805) Who determines that the placement of a danger tag is required?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Safety staff.

    • C.

      Commander.

    • D.

      Functional manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor determines that the placement of a danger tag is required. This is because the supervisor is responsible for overseeing the safety of the workplace and ensuring that all necessary safety measures are taken. They have the authority to identify potential hazards and take appropriate actions, such as placing danger tags, to prevent accidents or injuries. Safety staff may assist in implementing safety protocols, but the ultimate decision lies with the supervisor. The commander and functional manager may have their roles in the overall safety management, but they may not have the direct responsibility for determining the need for danger tags.

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  • 22. 

    (806) The second part of an inspection report contains

    • A.

      Identification.

    • B.

      Findings and causes.

    • C.

      Recommendations.

    • D.

      Corrective actions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Findings and causes.
    Explanation
    The second part of an inspection report contains findings and causes. This section provides a detailed analysis of the issues identified during the inspection process, including any deficiencies, non-compliance, or areas of improvement. It outlines the specific findings and their underlying causes, allowing for a comprehensive understanding of the inspection results. This information is crucial for further decision-making and developing appropriate recommendations and corrective actions to address the identified issues.

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  • 23. 

    (806) The third part of an inspection report contains  

    • A.

      Findings.

    • B.

      Introduction.

    • C.

      Identification.

    • D.

      Corrective actions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Corrective actions.
    Explanation
    The third part of an inspection report contains corrective actions. This section of the report outlines the steps that need to be taken to address any issues or deficiencies that were identified during the inspection. It provides recommendations and suggestions for how to correct the problems and improve the situation. This information is crucial for ensuring that the necessary actions are taken to address any issues and prevent them from recurring in the future.

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  • 24. 

    (806) The action taken to make certain that reported discrepancies have been or are being corrected is called

    • A.

      Followup action.

    • B.

      Corrective action.

    • C.

      An inspection analysis.

    • D.

      An inspection survey. Please

    Correct Answer
    A. Followup action.
    Explanation
    The action taken to make certain that reported discrepancies have been or are being corrected is called followup action. This involves checking and ensuring that the necessary steps have been taken to address the reported issues and that they have been resolved effectively. It may involve further investigation, monitoring, and verification to ensure that the corrective measures have been implemented and are effective in resolving the discrepancies.

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  • 25. 

    (807) Why are safety investigations and legal investigations conducted separately?

    • A.

      To protect the legal information in the report.

    • B.

      To protect privileged safety information in the report.

    • C.

      To prevent the safety information from getting in the wrong hands.

    • D.

      To prevent the reports from being for anything other than mishap prevention.

    Correct Answer
    B. To protect privileged safety information in the report.
    Explanation
    Safety investigations and legal investigations are conducted separately to protect privileged safety information in the report. Privileged safety information refers to sensitive and confidential details that are crucial for preventing future mishaps. By conducting separate investigations, the privileged safety information can be safeguarded and kept confidential, ensuring that it does not fall into the wrong hands or be used for any purpose other than mishap prevention. This separation helps maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the safety investigation process.

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  • 26. 

    (807) Who is responsible for preserving evidence during a mishap investigation?

    • A.

      Convening authority.

    • B.

      On-scene commander.

    • C.

      Interim safety board president.

    • D.

      Commander of the mishap unit.

    Correct Answer
    C. Interim safety board president.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Interim safety board president." The interim safety board president is responsible for preserving evidence during a mishap investigation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that all relevant evidence is collected, documented, and protected to determine the cause of the mishap accurately. This includes securing the accident site, preserving physical evidence, and coordinating with other parties involved in the investigation. The interim safety board president's actions are essential in maintaining the integrity of the investigation and preventing any tampering or loss of evidence.

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  • 27. 

    (807) Who is responsible to ensure toxicology testing is performed?

    • A.

      Convening authority.

    • B.

      On scene commander.

    • C.

      Interim safety board president.

    • D.

      Commander of the mishap unit.

    Correct Answer
    D. Commander of the mishap unit.
    Explanation
    The commander of the mishap unit is responsible for ensuring that toxicology testing is performed. This individual is in charge of overseeing the investigation and response to any mishap or accident that occurs. Toxicology testing is an important part of determining the cause and contributing factors of a mishap, as it can help identify any substances or chemicals that may have played a role. Therefore, it is the responsibility of the commander of the mishap unit to ensure that this testing is carried out.

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  • 28. 

    (808) A Single Investigation Officer would investigate what type of mishaps?

    • A.

      Class A, B, and C.

    • B.

      Class B, C, and D.

    • C.

      Class C, D, and E.

    • D.

      Class D, E, and HAPs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Class C, D, and E.
    Explanation
    A Single Investigation Officer would investigate mishaps classified as Class C, D, and E.

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  • 29. 

    (809) Which agency determines accountability when multiple MAJCOMs have assets involved in a mishap and cannot reach an agreement as to who is accountable?

    • A.

      HQ USAF/SE.

    • B.

      HQ USAF/JA.

    • C.

      HQ AFSC/SE.

    • D.

      HQ AFSC/JA.

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ USAF/SE.
    Explanation
    When multiple MAJCOMs (Major Commands) have assets involved in a mishap and cannot agree on who is accountable, the agency responsible for determining accountability is HQ USAF/SE (Headquarters United States Air Force/ Safety Directorate). They have the authority and expertise to review the situation, gather evidence, and make a final determination on who should be held accountable for the mishap.

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  • 30. 

    (809) When a mishap occurs involving a foreign exchange student, what agency is held accountable?

    • A.

      The Air Force at large.

    • B.

      The base closest to the site of the mishap.

    • C.

      The base where the student is currently stationed.

    • D.

      The MAJCOM of the base where the student is currently stationed.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Air Force at large.
    Explanation
    When a mishap occurs involving a foreign exchange student, the agency that is held accountable is the Air Force at large. This means that the overall responsibility lies with the entire Air Force organization, rather than any specific base or MAJCOM (Major Command). This accountability ensures that the Air Force as a whole takes responsibility for the incident and takes appropriate actions to address it.

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  • 31. 

    (810) Information that is exempt by statute or case law from being released outside the Air Force community is known as

    • A.

      Secret.

    • B.

      Top secret.

    • C.

      Privileged.

    • D.

      Confidential.

    Correct Answer
    C. Privileged.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "privileged." Information that is exempt by statute or case law from being released outside the Air Force community is considered privileged. This means that it is protected from disclosure and can only be accessed by authorized individuals within the Air Force.

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  • 32. 

    (810) When mishap reports are no longer needed, dispose of them IAW with

    • A.

      Air Force instructions.

    • B.

      Air Force policy directives.

    • C.

      Air Force Records and Distribution Schedule.

    • D.

      Air Force Occupational Safety and Health Standards.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Records and Distribution Schedule.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Records and Distribution Schedule. This is because the Air Force Records and Distribution Schedule provides guidelines and instructions for the disposal of various types of records, including mishap reports. By following the guidelines outlined in this schedule, the Air Force ensures that mishap reports are disposed of properly and in accordance with established procedures.

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  • 33. 

    (810) Which agency can approve the release of privileged information outside the Air Force?

    • A.

      DOD.

    • B.

      HQ USAF/SE.

    • C.

      HQ AFSC/SE.

    • D.

      HQ AFSC/JA.

    Correct Answer
    B. HQ USAF/SE.
    Explanation
    HQ USAF/SE is the correct answer because this agency has the authority to approve the release of privileged information outside the Air Force. The other options, DOD, HQ AFSC/SE, and HQ AFSC/JA, do not have the specific authority to approve the release of privileged information outside the Air Force.

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  • 34. 

    (810) Hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations is called

    • A.

      Washing the report.

    • B.

      Scrubbing the report.

    • C.

      Sanitizing the report.

    • D.

      Disassociating the report.

    Correct Answer
    C. Sanitizing the report.
    Explanation
    Sanitizing the report refers to the act of hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations. It involves removing or concealing any information that could reveal the true nature of the incident or the parties involved. This term is commonly used in situations where there is a need to protect the reputation or privacy of individuals or organizations by obscuring the details of the report.

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  • 35. 

    (810) What is the purpose of giving a witness a promise of confidentiality during a mishap investigation?

    • A.

      To protect the identity of a witness.

    • B.

      To ensure that the witness will not be prosecuted.

    • C.

      To ensure that the witness tells the truth under oath.

    • D.

      To encourage open and frank communication with the witnesses.

    Correct Answer
    D. To encourage open and frank communication with the witnesses.
    Explanation
    The purpose of giving a witness a promise of confidentiality during a mishap investigation is to encourage open and frank communication with the witnesses. By assuring the witness that their identity will be protected and their testimony will be kept confidential, they are more likely to feel comfortable sharing all relevant information without fear of reprisal or negative consequences. This helps to ensure a thorough and accurate investigation.

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  • 36. 

    (810) For which mishap is a promise of confidentiality authorized?

    • A.

      Space.

    • B.

      Explosives.

    • C.

      Chemical agents.

    • D.

      Off-duty military.

    Correct Answer
    A. Space.
    Explanation
    A promise of confidentiality is authorized for mishaps related to space. This means that if any accidents or incidents occur within the realm of space exploration or activities, individuals involved can be assured that their information will be kept confidential. This could include incidents related to space missions, satellite launches, or any other events that take place in outer space.

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  • 37. 

    (810) Which system is used to transmit the majority of mishap reports?

    • A.

      Intrabase System.

    • B.

      Electronic Mail System.

    • C.

      Defense Message System.

    • D.

      Air Force Safety Automated System.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Safety Automated System.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Safety Automated System is used to transmit the majority of mishap reports. This system is specifically designed for reporting and analyzing safety-related incidents in the Air Force. It allows for efficient and standardized reporting, ensuring that mishap information is accurately collected and shared across the organization. By using this system, the Air Force can effectively track and address safety issues, leading to improved safety practices and prevention of future mishaps.

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  • 38. 

    (811) Who must notify the wing safety office of mishaps as soon as possible?

    • A.

      Supervisors only.

    • B.

      Commanders only.

    • C.

      Functional managers only.

    • D.

      Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors.

    Correct Answer
    D. Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors.
    Explanation
    Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors must notify the wing safety office of mishaps as soon as possible. This is because they are responsible for ensuring the safety of their personnel and operations within their respective areas of authority. By promptly reporting mishaps to the wing safety office, they can initiate investigations, implement corrective actions, and prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.

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  • 39. 

    (811) The most practical way of establishing an initial mishap notification system is

    • A.

      By written directive.

    • B.

      Through AFOSH council meetings.

    • C.

      By distributing mishap prevention checklists.

    • D.

      Through use of the base public announcement system.

    Correct Answer
    A. By written directive.
    Explanation
    The most practical way of establishing an initial mishap notification system is by written directive. This means that a formal written document would be issued to outline the procedures and protocols for reporting and notifying about mishaps. This method ensures clear communication and consistency in the notification process, making it an effective and practical approach.

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  • 40. 

    (811) The main reason safety responds to all major accidents and disaster sites is to

    • A.

      Identify witnesses.

    • B.

      Ensure the evidence is not disturbed.

    • C.

      Observe conditions as they were at the time of the mishap.

    • D.

      Provide technical support and consultation to commanders.

    Correct Answer
    D. Provide technical support and consultation to commanders.
    Explanation
    Safety responds to all major accidents and disaster sites to provide technical support and consultation to commanders. This is important because commanders need expert guidance and advice to effectively handle the situation and make informed decisions. Safety professionals can offer their expertise in assessing the risks, implementing safety measures, and ensuring that the response actions are carried out in a safe and efficient manner. Their presence also helps in coordinating efforts, communicating information, and ensuring that the overall response is well-coordinated and effective.

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  • 41. 

    (811) What tool should every safety office have when responding to a mishap?

    • A.

      Checklists.

    • B.

      Pen and paper.

    • C.

      Mishap investigation kit.

    • D.

      Personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Mishap investigation kit.
    Explanation
    A mishap investigation kit is essential for a safety office when responding to a mishap. This kit typically includes tools and equipment necessary for collecting evidence, conducting interviews, and documenting the scene of the incident. It helps in gathering crucial information and evidence to determine the cause of the mishap and prevent future occurrences. Having a mishap investigation kit ensures that the safety office can effectively and efficiently carry out their duties in investigating and analyzing incidents.

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  • 42. 

    (811) When you are investigating a mishap, what is the first thing you should do once you are allowed into the mishap site?

    • A.

      Identify witnesses to interview.

    • B.

      Stabilize the site to preserve evidence.

    • C.

      Have photos taken of the mishap scene.

    • D.

      Conduct a familiarization walk through.

    Correct Answer
    D. Conduct a familiarization walk through.
    Explanation
    Conducting a familiarization walk through is the first thing you should do once you are allowed into the mishap site when investigating a mishap. This involves getting acquainted with the site, observing the surroundings, and identifying any potential hazards or factors that may have contributed to the mishap. It helps in gaining a better understanding of the incident and provides valuable information for further investigation. This step is crucial in gathering initial information and setting the foundation for a thorough investigation.

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  • 43. 

    (811) How long after a Class A mishap occurs must the status message be sent?

    • A.

      Eight Hours.

    • B.

      24 hours.

    • C.

      Seven days.

    • D.

      10 days.

    Correct Answer
    D. 10 days.
    Explanation
    After a Class A mishap occurs, the status message must be sent within 10 days. This allows for sufficient time to gather all the necessary information and complete a thorough investigation of the incident before reporting it. It is important to promptly communicate the details of the mishap to ensure appropriate actions can be taken to prevent similar incidents in the future.

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  • 44. 

    (811) What mishap class requires a preliminary message report within six days after the mishap?

    • A.

      A.

    • B.

      B.

    • C.

      C.

    • D.

      D.

    Correct Answer
    C. C.
    Explanation
    Mishap class C requires a preliminary message report within six days after the mishap. This suggests that mishap class C refers to a specific type of incident or accident that is considered less severe compared to other mishap classes. The requirement for a preliminary message report within six days indicates the urgency and importance of promptly reporting and investigating mishaps in order to gather necessary information and take appropriate actions.

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  • 45. 

    (812) Which investigative technique is a reconstruction of the events and circumstances that led to the mishap?

    • A.

      Operational analysis.

    • B.

      Fire pattern analysis.

    • C.

      Maintenance analysis.

    • D.

      System and subsystem analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational analysis.
    Explanation
    Operational analysis is the investigative technique that reconstructs the events and circumstances leading to a mishap. This technique involves examining the operational procedures, human factors, and other factors that may have contributed to the mishap. It focuses on understanding the sequence of events and identifying any failures or errors in the operational process that led to the mishap. Fire pattern analysis, maintenance analysis, and system and subsystem analysis may be relevant in specific cases, but they do not specifically address the reconstruction of events and circumstances as operational analysis does.

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  • 46. 

    (812) Which investigative technique is used to look for too many parts, or evidence of foreign object damage?

    • A.

      Operational analysis.

    • B.

      Fire pattern analysis.

    • C.

      Maintenance analysis.

    • D.

      System and subsystem analysis.

    Correct Answer
    D. System and subsystem analysis.
    Explanation
    System and subsystem analysis is the investigative technique used to look for too many parts or evidence of foreign object damage. This technique involves analyzing the entire system or subsystem to identify any abnormalities or signs of damage caused by foreign objects. It helps in identifying any potential issues or risks that could affect the performance or integrity of the system or subsystem. Operational analysis, fire pattern analysis, and maintenance analysis may be relevant in other investigative contexts, but they are not specifically focused on identifying too many parts or foreign object damage.

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  • 47. 

    (813) When should you arrange a personal interview with a witness?

    • A.

      Promptly.

    • B.

      Whenever it is convenient for you.

    • C.

      Whenever it is convenient for the witness.

    • D.

      Whenever it is convenient for you and the witness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Promptly.
    Explanation
    Arranging a personal interview with a witness promptly is important because it allows for timely collection of information and ensures that the witness's memory of the event is fresh. Delaying the interview may result in the witness forgetting important details or being influenced by external factors. Additionally, prompt interviews can help prevent the witness from being influenced or coerced by others, thereby ensuring the accuracy and reliability of their testimony.

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  • 48. 

    (813) Once you set up a time and date for the interview, it is important to avoid postponements because

    • A.

      Your time is too valuable.

    • B.

      The witness’ time is too valuable.

    • C.

      Witness’ memories degrade as time passes.

    • D.

      Witnesses tend to want to back out of the interview the longer its put off.

    Correct Answer
    C. Witness’ memories degrade as time passes.
    Explanation
    It is important to avoid postponements for an interview because witnesses' memories degrade as time passes. This means that the longer the interview is delayed, the more likely it is that the witness will forget important details or their recollection of events may become less accurate. To ensure the accuracy and reliability of the information obtained during the interview, it is crucial to conduct it as soon as possible after setting up the time and date.

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  • 49. 

    (813) The best location to conduct an interview is

    • A.

      Where the witness was during the mishap.

    • B.

      A location where the witness will feel most comfortable.

    • C.

      A location where the investigator will feel most comfortable.

    • D.

      A neutral location where both the witness and investigator will feel most comfortable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Where the witness was during the mishap.
    Explanation
    The best location to conduct an interview is where the witness was during the mishap because being in the same environment can help the witness recall details more accurately. The surroundings can trigger memories and provide context that may be crucial for the investigation. Additionally, conducting the interview in the same location can help establish a sense of familiarity and comfort for the witness, which can lead to a more open and accurate testimony.

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  • 50. 

    (813) Multiple interviewers can be intimidating and generally should not be used except for when

    • A.

      A witness is hostile.

    • B.

      The interview is formal.

    • C.

      The interview has to be recorded.

    • D.

      One of the interviewers is in training.

    Correct Answer
    B. The interview is formal.
    Explanation
    In a formal interview, multiple interviewers may be used to ensure a thorough assessment of the candidate's qualifications and suitability for the position. This can also help in obtaining diverse perspectives and reducing bias. However, in other scenarios such as when a witness is hostile, the interview has to be recorded, or one of the interviewers is in training, multiple interviewers may not be necessary or appropriate. Therefore, the correct answer is that multiple interviewers should be used when the interview is formal.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 24, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 05, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Kahlbanor
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