Security Force Journeyman Volume 3. Ure

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  • 1/75 Questions

    How many range cards are prepared for each position?

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About This Quiz

CDC 3P051 Security Forces Journeyman Vol. 3
9/21/2014
All answers have been double checked.

Security Force Journeyman Volume 3. Ure - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The acronym SPORTS stands for?

    • Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot

    • Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot

    • Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot

    • We all know the correct answer. Seriously.

    Correct Answer
    A. Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot". The acronym SPORTS is commonly used in the context of firearms training, specifically for the sequence of actions involved in shooting a firearm. Slap refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, pull refers to pulling the slide to chamber a round, observe refers to observing the target and surroundings, release refers to releasing the safety or trigger, tap refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and shoot refers to pulling the trigger to discharge the firearm.

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  • 3. 

    Cleaner, Lubricant, Preservative (CLP) or Lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

    • Aluminum

    • Rubber

    • Plastic

    • Steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Steel
    Explanation
    The Cleaner, Lubricant, Preservative (CLP) or Lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) is used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This is because steel is prone to rust when exposed to moisture or humidity. By applying CLP or LSA, a protective layer is formed on the steel surface, preventing moisture from coming into direct contact with the steel and therefore reducing the risk of rust formation.

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  • 4. 

    What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

    • Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets

    • Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target

    • Prominent man-made features that will be a definite target

    • Natural synthetic features only that could be a target

    Correct Answer
    A. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
    Explanation
    On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets. This information is important for identifying potential targets and planning your firing strategy. By including these features on the sketch, you can effectively analyze the terrain and make informed decisions about where to aim and deploy your firepower.

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  • 5. 

    In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?

    • M240B, MK19 and .50cal

    • M248, .50 cal, and MK19

    • M9, M203, and MK19

    • MK19, .50 cal and M17

    Correct Answer
    A. M240B, MK19 and .50cal
    Explanation
    The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are all fixed weapons that require a range card. This means that in addition to the M4, these weapons also need a range card to accurately engage targets at different distances. A range card is a document that provides information on the weapon's effective range, maximum range, and adjustments needed for different target distances. It helps the shooter to make accurate shots by providing the necessary data to compensate for bullet drop and windage.

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  • 6. 

    What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

    • 50 meters

    • 60 meters

    • 70 meters

    • 80 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 meters
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most accurate and effective in hitting targets at a distance of up to 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol decrease significantly.

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  • 7. 

    Which action the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

    • Ejecting

    • Extracting

    • Cocking

    • Firing

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing
    Explanation
    When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the firing action. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, causing the round to ignite and propel the bullet out of the barrel. Firing is the action that actually causes the weapon to discharge and is the result of squeezing the trigger.

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  • 8. 

    Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

    • M240B

    • M249

    • M780

    • MK19

    Correct Answer
    A. MK19
    Explanation
    The MK19 features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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  • 9. 

    The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

    • The open-quarters battle role

    • The close-quarters battle role

    • High-density, low-visibility role

    • Long-range fighting, heavy-combatant role

    Correct Answer
    A. The close-quarters battle role
    Explanation
    The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in the close-quarters battle role. This is because shotguns excel in short-range combat, where their wide spread of pellets can inflict devastating damage on targets in close proximity. In tight spaces or urban environments, where engagements often occur at close range, shotguns provide a high level of stopping power and are effective for room clearing and self-defense purposes.

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  • 10. 

    What does the acronym FPL stand for?

    • Final protective line

    • Fire patrol liaison

    • First protective line

    • Fire proficiency line

    Correct Answer
    A. Final protective line
    Explanation
    The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to the last line of defense that is established to stop enemy advances and protect a specific area or position. The Final Protective Line is strategically positioned and heavily fortified to ensure maximum protection and firepower against enemy forces.

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  • 11. 

    What is maximum range for M9 pistol?

    • 600 meters

    • 800 meters

    • 1100 meters

    • 1800 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 1800 meters
    Explanation
    The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1800 meters. This means that it can effectively hit a target at a distance of up to 1800 meters. It is important to note that the maximum range does not necessarily guarantee accuracy or effectiveness at that distance, as factors such as wind, bullet drop, and shooter skill can affect the actual performance. Nonetheless, the M9 pistol is designed to have a maximum effective range of 1800 meters.

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  • 12. 

    Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be?

    • Impossible

    • Incredible

    • Ineffective

    • Instinctive

    Correct Answer
    A. Instinctive
    Explanation
    When faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, it is important to react quickly and without conscious thought. The word "instinctive" suggests that the actions taken should be automatic and natural, indicating that immediate response is necessary in such situations. This implies that any delay or conscious decision-making could be detrimental, making the other options of "impossible," "incredible," and "ineffective" incorrect.

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  • 13. 

    How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

    • 50 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • 100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt

    • 50 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "100 round bandoleer, split-link belt." The M240B is a belt-fed machine gun, meaning that ammunition is fed into the weapon using a belt system. The bandoleer refers to the container or pouch that holds the ammunition belt. In this case, the M240B is fed using a 100 round bandoleer, which means that the bandoleer can hold up to 100 rounds of ammunition. The split-link belt is a type of ammunition belt where the links are split in the middle, allowing the rounds to be easily fed into the weapon.

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  • 14. 

    When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a?

    • One-shot weapon

    • Two-shot weapon

    • Three-shot weapon

    • Four-shot weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. One-shot weapon
    Explanation
    The claymore is treated as a one-shot weapon when employed in a controlled role. This means that it is designed to be used once and then discarded or replaced. It is not intended for multiple uses or for continuous firing. The term "one-shot" refers to the fact that the claymore is typically used to deliver a single, powerful blast or explosion, after which it becomes ineffective or inoperable.

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  • 15. 

    Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of?

    • Stoppage

    • A malfunction

    • A failure to fire

    • An operational failure

    Correct Answer
    A. Stoppage
    Explanation
    A stoppage refers to any interruption in the cycle of operations. It can occur due to various reasons such as a malfunction, a failure to fire, or an operational failure. In any case, a stoppage indicates that the normal flow of operations has been halted or disrupted.

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  • 16. 

    The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

    • Dead zone

    • Dead area

    • Dead space

    • Dead spot

    Correct Answer
    A. Dead space
    Explanation
    Dead space refers to the area that cannot be targeted or engaged with grazing fire. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to areas that are shielded or protected from direct fire due to obstacles or terrain features. These areas can provide cover for enemy forces or hinder the effectiveness of grazing fire.

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  • 17. 

    What is the function of the forward assist?

    • Lock the charging handle in the place prior to immediate action procedures

    • Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure

    • Unlock bolt and secure the charging handle

    • Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure
    Explanation
    The forward assist on a firearm is used to lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures. Immediate action procedures are used in situations where the bolt does not fully lock into place, such as a malfunction or failure to feed. By using the forward assist, the shooter can ensure that the bolt is fully locked and ready to fire.

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  • 18. 

    What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

    • Big flash adapter

    • Blank flash adapter

    • Blank firing adapter

    • Bandoleer flap adapter

    Correct Answer
    A. Blank firing adapter
    Explanation
    The acronym BFA stands for Blank Firing Adapter. This device is used on firearms to allow them to cycle and function properly when firing blank ammunition. Blank ammunition does not contain a projectile, so the BFA is necessary to create enough back pressure to cycle the firearm's action. This ensures that the firearm functions as intended and provides a realistic firing experience without the risk of firing live rounds.

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  • 19. 

    Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

    • Ammunitiion

    • Vehicles

    • Terrain

    • Time

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrain
    Explanation
    Sharpshooters will be well trained in the tactical use of terrain because it plays a crucial role in their ability to effectively engage targets. Terrain provides natural cover and concealment, allowing sharpshooters to position themselves strategically and remain hidden from the enemy. They must understand how to utilize different types of terrain, such as hills, valleys, and buildings, to their advantage in order to maximize their accuracy and minimize their exposure. By understanding the terrain, sharpshooters can also anticipate the movement of targets and adjust their shooting positions accordingly.

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  • 20. 

    On the M9 pistol, the dual pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and?

    • Loaded chamber indicator

    • Reset firing pin block

    • Chambering

    • Releasing side

    Correct Answer
    A. Loaded chamber indicator
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the loaded chamber indicator. On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is to serve as both a case extractor and a loaded chamber indicator. This means that it not only helps to extract spent casings from the chamber but also indicates whether there is a round in the chamber or not. This is important for safety and allows the user to quickly determine the status of the pistol without having to manually check the chamber.

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  • 21. 

    Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

    • Under no circumstances

    • When directed

    • Emergencies

    • Last resort

    Correct Answer
    A. Under no circumstances
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Under no circumstances." This means that there are no situations or circumstances in which you would use MK19 ammunition in the M203. The MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for use with the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not the M203 grenade launcher. Therefore, it would be inappropriate and unsafe to use MK19 ammunition in the M203.

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  • 22. 

    The primary purpose of the preventive maintenance is to keep weapons?

    • Clean, dry, and lubricated

    • Fully oiled and lubricated

    • Clean, dry, and lubricated

    • Clean and properly lubricated

    Correct Answer
    A. Clean and properly lubricated
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent any malfunctions or damage that may occur due to dirt, debris, or lack of lubrication. By regularly cleaning and lubricating the weapons, their performance and longevity can be maintained, ensuring they are ready for use when needed.

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  • 23. 

    Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?

    • White star cluster

    • Ground market

    • Star parachute

    • Buckshot

    Correct Answer
    A. Buckshot
    Explanation
    Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets, increasing the chances of hitting the target in close-quarters combat. The spread of the pellets provides a wider coverage area, making it easier to engage multiple targets or clear a room with thick vegetation where visibility may be limited. This round is specifically designed for short-range engagements, making it ideal for these scenarios.

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  • 24. 

    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior?

    • Quality

    • Accuracy

    • Killing ratio

    • Stopping power

    Correct Answer
    A. Accuracy
    Explanation
    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with precise specifications, ensuring consistency in size, weight, and shape. By maintaining these strict tolerances, the ammunition can consistently hit the target with precision, minimizing any deviation or error. This is crucial for snipers who rely on accuracy to effectively engage targets at long distances. Therefore, producing ammunition to stringent tolerances enhances the overall accuracy of snipers' shots.

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  • 25. 

    Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?

    • Wind

    • Temperature

    • Weapon trajectory

    • Backblast Area

    Correct Answer
    A. Backblast Area
    Explanation
    Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), it is important to check the backblast area. The backblast area is the area behind the weapon where the rocket exhaust is expelled. It is crucial to ensure that there are no obstructions or personnel in the backblast area, as the rocket exhaust can cause serious injury or damage. Checking the backblast area helps to ensure the safety of both the operator and others in the vicinity of the weapon.

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  • 26. 

    A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

    • Field handling trainer

    • Tracer bullet trainer

    • HD antiarmor round

    • High explosive (HE) antiarmor round

    Correct Answer
    A. High explosive (HE) antiarmor round
    Explanation
    The black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates that it is a High explosive (HE) antiarmor round. This color combination is used to visually distinguish the type of ammunition and to ensure proper identification and handling. The black and yellow band serves as a safety measure to prevent any confusion or accidental use of the wrong type of ammunition, especially in high-pressure situations where quick and accurate identification is crucial.

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  • 27. 

    Range cards are a record of?

    • Range data.

    • Firing data.

    • Call signs

    • Training

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing data.
    Explanation
    Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide essential information such as target coordinates, distance, elevation, windage, and other factors that need to be considered when firing artillery or other long-range weapons. These cards are used by military personnel to ensure accurate and effective targeting during training exercises or combat situations.

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  • 28. 

    What cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

    • M249

    • M199

    • M855

    • M856

    Correct Answer
    A. M856
    Explanation
    The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. This means that the M856 cartridge will continue to emit a visible trace for a longer distance after being fired from the M4 carbine. This can be useful for tracking the trajectory of the bullet and adjusting aim or for identifying the location of the shooter.

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  • 29. 

    Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

    • Canopy

    • Elangee

    • Ogive

    • Fin

    Correct Answer
    A. Ogive
    Explanation
    The ogive is the curved part of the round that connects the body to the nose. In the case of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker rounds, the color of the smoke produced is indicated by the ogive.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

    • Dead space protective line

    • Final protective line

    • Primary sector of fire

    • Secondary sector of fire

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary sector of fire
    Explanation
    The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team is responsible for focusing their fire and surveillance on the area where the enemy is most likely to attack. By assigning the primary sector of fire to the gun team, they can effectively engage and neutralize any enemy threats that come from that direction, providing the most comprehensive coverage and protection for their defensive position.

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  • 31. 

    The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from?

    • Aircraft

    • Anywhere

    • Rooftop positions

    • Concealed positions

    Correct Answer
    A. Concealed positions
    Explanation
    The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from concealed positions. This means that snipers are trained to hide and blend into their surroundings, making it difficult for the enemy to detect their presence. By operating from concealed positions, snipers can effectively engage targets without being easily seen or targeted themselves. This allows them to provide valuable support to their team by taking out key enemy personnel or disrupting enemy operations from a position of advantage and safety.

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  • 32. 

    When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a?

    • Precision engagement weapon

    • Active force multiplier

    • Lethal force weapon

    • Mine or booby trap

    Correct Answer
    A. Mine or booby trap
    Explanation
    The claymore is considered a mine or booby trap when employed in an uncontrolled role. This means that it is set up to be triggered by an unsuspecting individual, causing an explosion and inflicting damage or harm. In this context, the claymore is not being used as a precision engagement weapon, an active force multiplier, or a lethal force weapon. Instead, it is being utilized as a hidden explosive device, intended to catch the enemy off guard and cause casualties.

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  • 33. 

    How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 because the question asks about the number of types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9. Since the answer options are limited to 4, it implies that there are indeed 4 types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9.

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  • 34. 

    Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

    • Slide assembly

    • Receiver assembly

    • Trigger mechanism assembly

    • Return rod and transfer assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver assembly
    Explanation
    The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. It is the main housing that holds and connects various parts of the firearm, including the barrel, bolt, trigger mechanism, and stock. Without the receiver assembly, the other components would not be able to function properly or be securely attached to the firearm. Therefore, the receiver assembly plays a crucial role in the overall operation and stability of the M249.

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  • 35. 

    Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include?

    • Squad leaders

    • Support element sniper

    • Reconnaissance and close precision support

    • Response, overwatch, screening and reconnaissance

    Correct Answer
    A. Response, overwatch, screening and reconnaissance
    Explanation
    The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. These capabilities are essential for effective engagement and support in various scenarios. Response refers to the ability to react quickly and effectively to threats or situations. Overwatch involves providing cover and support to friendly forces from a vantage point. Screening is the act of providing protection and concealment for friendly forces. Lastly, reconnaissance is crucial for gathering information and intelligence about the enemy's movements and positions.

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  • 36. 

    How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?

    • Underhand

    • Overhand

    • Overhead

    • Sidearm

    Correct Answer
    A. Overhand
    Explanation
    In the training environment, live fragmentation grenades must be thrown overhand. This throwing technique allows for maximum distance and accuracy, ensuring that the grenade reaches its intended target effectively. Throwing overhand also minimizes the risk of the grenade hitting obstacles or falling short of the target. It provides a more controlled and powerful throw, making it the preferred method for handling live grenades in training scenarios.

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  • 37. 

    Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

    • Where you can locate it quickly

    • Marginal data area

    • Upper right corner

    • Part one

    Correct Answer
    A. Marginal data area
    Explanation
    The marginal data area is typically used to record additional information that may be useful for navigation or other purposes. Sketching in magnetic north data in this area would allow the user to quickly reference and align their range card with magnetic north, aiding in accurate navigation and orientation.

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  • 38. 

    From what position is the M240B loaded?

    • Bolt OPEN

    • Bolt CLOSED

    • Bolt OPENED or CLOSED

    • Blide OPENED or CLOSED

    Correct Answer
    A. Bolt OPENED or CLOSED
    Explanation
    The M240B can be loaded from either the bolt being opened or closed. This means that the weapon can be loaded with the bolt in either position, providing flexibility and ease of use for the operator.

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  • 39. 

    Searching fire is most often used on?

    • Level ground only

    • Even ground only

    • Sloped or hilly ground

    • Level or evenly sloping ground

    Correct Answer
    A. Level or evenly sloping ground
    Explanation
    Searching fire is most often used on level or evenly sloping ground because it allows for better visibility and maneuverability. Level ground provides a stable platform for the search team to move quickly and efficiently, while evenly sloping ground allows for easier navigation without obstacles or steep inclines. This type of terrain facilitates a systematic search pattern and ensures that no areas are missed during the search operation.

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  • 40. 

    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
  • 41. 

    What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical?

    • M199 Dummy

    • M200 Blank

    • M856 Tracer

    • M855 Ball

    Correct Answer
    A. M199 Dummy
    Explanation
    The M199 Dummy ammunition is used during mechanical training. Dummy ammunition is specifically designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition but does not contain any explosive or propellant charge. It is used for training purposes to safely practice loading, unloading, and handling procedures without the risk of accidental discharge.

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  • 42. 

    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

    • 200

    • 400

    • 600

    • 800

    Correct Answer
    A. 800
    Explanation
    The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with a tripod. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod.

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  • 43. 

    The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for?

    • Single or multiple priming

    • Multiple or dual priming

    • Single or dual priming

    • Single, dual, and multiple priming

    Correct Answer
    A. Single or dual priming
    Explanation
    The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for single or dual priming. This means that the claymore can be armed and detonated using either one or two detonators, providing flexibility in the priming process.

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  • 44. 

    The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is?

    • Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

    • Engage only those persons determined to be hostile

    • Engage predetermined targets in the area

    • Detect the enemy and notify the chief, security forces (CSF)

    Correct Answer
    A. Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
    Explanation
    The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the focus is on identifying and engaging any potential threats or hostile individuals within the designated area. The goal is to ensure that the field is clear of any potential danger and that the individual is prepared to engage and neutralize any threats that may arise.

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  • 45. 

    The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an?

    • Offensive weapon

    • Defensive weapon

    • Passive defensive weapon

    • Active defensive weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. Defensive weapon
    Explanation
    The claymore mine is classified as a defensive weapon because its main purpose is to be set up as a trap or barrier to defend a specific area. It is typically used by military forces to protect their positions or to create a defensive perimeter. The claymore mine is designed to be detonated remotely, causing a directional blast that is effective in stopping or slowing down enemy advances. Its defensive nature is further emphasized by its limited range and the fact that it is not designed for mobility or offensive maneuvers.

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  • 46. 

    When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 100
    Explanation
    When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at a safe distance from your position and work forward to ensure maximum coverage and minimize the risk of being exposed to enemy fire. Starting at a distance of 100 meters allows for a wider field of view and provides ample room for maneuvering and engaging targets effectively. This distance also provides a buffer zone for safety and allows for better situational awareness.

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  • 47. 

    How many different types of ammunition are the for the M4 carbine?

    • 6

    • 8

    • 10

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The M4 carbine has 10 different types of ammunition available.

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  • 48. 

    If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

    • Approximate aiming point method

    • Adjusted aiming point method

    • Advanced aiming point method

    • Altitude aiming point method

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjusted aiming point method
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Adjusted aiming point method." When firing the M9, shooters are required to use the adjusted aiming point method in order to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the aiming point based on factors such as distance, wind speed, and target size. It allows the shooter to compensate for these variables and increase the chances of hitting the target accurately.

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  • 49. 

    What is the standard cartridge used with the M9 pistol?

    • M855

    • M856

    • M882

    • M917

    Correct Answer
    A. M882
    Explanation
    The standard cartridge used with the M9 pistol is the M882.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 21, 2014
    Quiz Created by
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