Security Force Journeyman Volume 3. Ure

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1. Cleaner, Lubricant, Preservative (CLP) or Lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

Explanation

The Cleaner, Lubricant, Preservative (CLP) or Lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) is used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This is because steel is prone to rust when exposed to moisture or humidity. By applying CLP or LSA, a protective layer is formed on the steel surface, preventing moisture from coming into direct contact with the steel and therefore reducing the risk of rust formation.

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About This Quiz
Security Force Journeyman Volume 3. Ure - Quiz

CDC 3P051 Security Forces Journeyman Vol. 3
9/21/2014
All answers have been double checked.

2. The acronym SPORTS stands for?

Explanation

The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot". The acronym SPORTS is commonly used in the context of firearms training, specifically for the sequence of actions involved in shooting a firearm. Slap refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, pull refers to pulling the slide to chamber a round, observe refers to observing the target and surroundings, release refers to releasing the safety or trigger, tap refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and shoot refers to pulling the trigger to discharge the firearm.

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3. How many range cards are prepared for each position?

Explanation

Each position requires two range cards to be prepared.

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4. What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

Explanation

On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets. This information is important for identifying potential targets and planning your firing strategy. By including these features on the sketch, you can effectively analyze the terrain and make informed decisions about where to aim and deploy your firepower.

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5. Which action the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

Explanation

When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the firing action. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, causing the round to ignite and propel the bullet out of the barrel. Firing is the action that actually causes the weapon to discharge and is the result of squeezing the trigger.

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6. The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

Explanation

The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in the close-quarters battle role. This is because shotguns excel in short-range combat, where their wide spread of pellets can inflict devastating damage on targets in close proximity. In tight spaces or urban environments, where engagements often occur at close range, shotguns provide a high level of stopping power and are effective for room clearing and self-defense purposes.

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7. In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?

Explanation

The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are all fixed weapons that require a range card. This means that in addition to the M4, these weapons also need a range card to accurately engage targets at different distances. A range card is a document that provides information on the weapon's effective range, maximum range, and adjustments needed for different target distances. It helps the shooter to make accurate shots by providing the necessary data to compensate for bullet drop and windage.

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8. Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

Explanation

The MK19 features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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9. What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most accurate and effective in hitting targets at a distance of up to 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol decrease significantly.

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10. When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a?

Explanation

The claymore is treated as a one-shot weapon when employed in a controlled role. This means that it is designed to be used once and then discarded or replaced. It is not intended for multiple uses or for continuous firing. The term "one-shot" refers to the fact that the claymore is typically used to deliver a single, powerful blast or explosion, after which it becomes ineffective or inoperable.

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11. How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

Explanation

The correct answer is "100 round bandoleer, split-link belt." The M240B is a belt-fed machine gun, meaning that ammunition is fed into the weapon using a belt system. The bandoleer refers to the container or pouch that holds the ammunition belt. In this case, the M240B is fed using a 100 round bandoleer, which means that the bandoleer can hold up to 100 rounds of ammunition. The split-link belt is a type of ammunition belt where the links are split in the middle, allowing the rounds to be easily fed into the weapon.

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12. Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be?

Explanation

When faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, it is important to react quickly and without conscious thought. The word "instinctive" suggests that the actions taken should be automatic and natural, indicating that immediate response is necessary in such situations. This implies that any delay or conscious decision-making could be detrimental, making the other options of "impossible," "incredible," and "ineffective" incorrect.

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13. What does the acronym FPL stand for?

Explanation

The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to the last line of defense that is established to stop enemy advances and protect a specific area or position. The Final Protective Line is strategically positioned and heavily fortified to ensure maximum protection and firepower against enemy forces.

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14. What is maximum range for M9 pistol?

Explanation

The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1800 meters. This means that it can effectively hit a target at a distance of up to 1800 meters. It is important to note that the maximum range does not necessarily guarantee accuracy or effectiveness at that distance, as factors such as wind, bullet drop, and shooter skill can affect the actual performance. Nonetheless, the M9 pistol is designed to have a maximum effective range of 1800 meters.

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15. Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of?

Explanation

A stoppage refers to any interruption in the cycle of operations. It can occur due to various reasons such as a malfunction, a failure to fire, or an operational failure. In any case, a stoppage indicates that the normal flow of operations has been halted or disrupted.

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16. The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

Explanation

Dead space refers to the area that cannot be targeted or engaged with grazing fire. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to areas that are shielded or protected from direct fire due to obstacles or terrain features. These areas can provide cover for enemy forces or hinder the effectiveness of grazing fire.

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17. What is the function of the forward assist?

Explanation

The forward assist on a firearm is used to lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures. Immediate action procedures are used in situations where the bolt does not fully lock into place, such as a malfunction or failure to feed. By using the forward assist, the shooter can ensure that the bolt is fully locked and ready to fire.

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18. Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

Explanation

Sharpshooters will be well trained in the tactical use of terrain because it plays a crucial role in their ability to effectively engage targets. Terrain provides natural cover and concealment, allowing sharpshooters to position themselves strategically and remain hidden from the enemy. They must understand how to utilize different types of terrain, such as hills, valleys, and buildings, to their advantage in order to maximize their accuracy and minimize their exposure. By understanding the terrain, sharpshooters can also anticipate the movement of targets and adjust their shooting positions accordingly.

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19. What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

Explanation

The acronym BFA stands for Blank Firing Adapter. This device is used on firearms to allow them to cycle and function properly when firing blank ammunition. Blank ammunition does not contain a projectile, so the BFA is necessary to create enough back pressure to cycle the firearm's action. This ensures that the firearm functions as intended and provides a realistic firing experience without the risk of firing live rounds.

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20. On the M9 pistol, the dual pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and?

Explanation

The correct answer is the loaded chamber indicator. On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is to serve as both a case extractor and a loaded chamber indicator. This means that it not only helps to extract spent casings from the chamber but also indicates whether there is a round in the chamber or not. This is important for safety and allows the user to quickly determine the status of the pistol without having to manually check the chamber.

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21. Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Under no circumstances." This means that there are no situations or circumstances in which you would use MK19 ammunition in the M203. The MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for use with the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not the M203 grenade launcher. Therefore, it would be inappropriate and unsafe to use MK19 ammunition in the M203.

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22. Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?

Explanation

Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), it is important to check the backblast area. The backblast area is the area behind the weapon where the rocket exhaust is expelled. It is crucial to ensure that there are no obstructions or personnel in the backblast area, as the rocket exhaust can cause serious injury or damage. Checking the backblast area helps to ensure the safety of both the operator and others in the vicinity of the weapon.

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23. A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

Explanation

The black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates that it is a High explosive (HE) antiarmor round. This color combination is used to visually distinguish the type of ammunition and to ensure proper identification and handling. The black and yellow band serves as a safety measure to prevent any confusion or accidental use of the wrong type of ammunition, especially in high-pressure situations where quick and accurate identification is crucial.

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24. Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior?

Explanation

Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with precise specifications, ensuring consistency in size, weight, and shape. By maintaining these strict tolerances, the ammunition can consistently hit the target with precision, minimizing any deviation or error. This is crucial for snipers who rely on accuracy to effectively engage targets at long distances. Therefore, producing ammunition to stringent tolerances enhances the overall accuracy of snipers' shots.

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25. The primary purpose of the preventive maintenance is to keep weapons?

Explanation

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent any malfunctions or damage that may occur due to dirt, debris, or lack of lubrication. By regularly cleaning and lubricating the weapons, their performance and longevity can be maintained, ensuring they are ready for use when needed.

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26. Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?

Explanation

Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets, increasing the chances of hitting the target in close-quarters combat. The spread of the pellets provides a wider coverage area, making it easier to engage multiple targets or clear a room with thick vegetation where visibility may be limited. This round is specifically designed for short-range engagements, making it ideal for these scenarios.

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27. Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

Explanation

The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team is responsible for focusing their fire and surveillance on the area where the enemy is most likely to attack. By assigning the primary sector of fire to the gun team, they can effectively engage and neutralize any enemy threats that come from that direction, providing the most comprehensive coverage and protection for their defensive position.

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28. Range cards are a record of?

Explanation

Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide essential information such as target coordinates, distance, elevation, windage, and other factors that need to be considered when firing artillery or other long-range weapons. These cards are used by military personnel to ensure accurate and effective targeting during training exercises or combat situations.

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29. The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from?

Explanation

The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from concealed positions. This means that snipers are trained to hide and blend into their surroundings, making it difficult for the enemy to detect their presence. By operating from concealed positions, snipers can effectively engage targets without being easily seen or targeted themselves. This allows them to provide valuable support to their team by taking out key enemy personnel or disrupting enemy operations from a position of advantage and safety.

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30. Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

Explanation

The ogive is the curved part of the round that connects the body to the nose. In the case of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker rounds, the color of the smoke produced is indicated by the ogive.

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31. What cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

Explanation

The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. This means that the M856 cartridge will continue to emit a visible trace for a longer distance after being fired from the M4 carbine. This can be useful for tracking the trajectory of the bullet and adjusting aim or for identifying the location of the shooter.

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32. When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a?

Explanation

The claymore is considered a mine or booby trap when employed in an uncontrolled role. This means that it is set up to be triggered by an unsuspecting individual, causing an explosion and inflicting damage or harm. In this context, the claymore is not being used as a precision engagement weapon, an active force multiplier, or a lethal force weapon. Instead, it is being utilized as a hidden explosive device, intended to catch the enemy off guard and cause casualties.

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33. How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 because the question asks about the number of types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9. Since the answer options are limited to 4, it implies that there are indeed 4 types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9.

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34. Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

Explanation

The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. It is the main housing that holds and connects various parts of the firearm, including the barrel, bolt, trigger mechanism, and stock. Without the receiver assembly, the other components would not be able to function properly or be securely attached to the firearm. Therefore, the receiver assembly plays a crucial role in the overall operation and stability of the M249.

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35. Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include?

Explanation

The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. These capabilities are essential for effective engagement and support in various scenarios. Response refers to the ability to react quickly and effectively to threats or situations. Overwatch involves providing cover and support to friendly forces from a vantage point. Screening is the act of providing protection and concealment for friendly forces. Lastly, reconnaissance is crucial for gathering information and intelligence about the enemy's movements and positions.

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36. How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?

Explanation

In the training environment, live fragmentation grenades must be thrown overhand. This throwing technique allows for maximum distance and accuracy, ensuring that the grenade reaches its intended target effectively. Throwing overhand also minimizes the risk of the grenade hitting obstacles or falling short of the target. It provides a more controlled and powerful throw, making it the preferred method for handling live grenades in training scenarios.

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37. Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

Explanation

The marginal data area is typically used to record additional information that may be useful for navigation or other purposes. Sketching in magnetic north data in this area would allow the user to quickly reference and align their range card with magnetic north, aiding in accurate navigation and orientation.

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38. From what position is the M240B loaded?

Explanation

The M240B can be loaded from either the bolt being opened or closed. This means that the weapon can be loaded with the bolt in either position, providing flexibility and ease of use for the operator.

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39. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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40. Searching fire is most often used on?

Explanation

Searching fire is most often used on level or evenly sloping ground because it allows for better visibility and maneuverability. Level ground provides a stable platform for the search team to move quickly and efficiently, while evenly sloping ground allows for easier navigation without obstacles or steep inclines. This type of terrain facilitates a systematic search pattern and ensures that no areas are missed during the search operation.

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41. The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for?

Explanation

The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for single or dual priming. This means that the claymore can be armed and detonated using either one or two detonators, providing flexibility in the priming process.

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42. What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical?

Explanation

The M199 Dummy ammunition is used during mechanical training. Dummy ammunition is specifically designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition but does not contain any explosive or propellant charge. It is used for training purposes to safely practice loading, unloading, and handling procedures without the risk of accidental discharge.

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43. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

Explanation

The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with a tripod. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod.

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44. The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is?

Explanation

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the focus is on identifying and engaging any potential threats or hostile individuals within the designated area. The goal is to ensure that the field is clear of any potential danger and that the individual is prepared to engage and neutralize any threats that may arise.

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45. The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an?

Explanation

The claymore mine is classified as a defensive weapon because its main purpose is to be set up as a trap or barrier to defend a specific area. It is typically used by military forces to protect their positions or to create a defensive perimeter. The claymore mine is designed to be detonated remotely, causing a directional blast that is effective in stopping or slowing down enemy advances. Its defensive nature is further emphasized by its limited range and the fact that it is not designed for mobility or offensive maneuvers.

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46. How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

Explanation

An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds.

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47. When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

Explanation

When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at a safe distance from your position and work forward to ensure maximum coverage and minimize the risk of being exposed to enemy fire. Starting at a distance of 100 meters allows for a wider field of view and provides ample room for maneuvering and engaging targets effectively. This distance also provides a buffer zone for safety and allows for better situational awareness.

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48. What is the standard cartridge used with the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The standard cartridge used with the M9 pistol is the M882.

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49. Which M9 ammunition round is only issued to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?

Explanation

The MK243 MOD0 ammunition round is only issued to specific personnel, such as security forces, OSI detachments, and USAF personnel involved in air operations security (anti-jacking) duties. This suggests that the MK243 MOD0 round is specifically designed and used for these specialized security purposes.

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50. If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Adjusted aiming point method." When firing the M9, shooters are required to use the adjusted aiming point method in order to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the aiming point based on factors such as distance, wind speed, and target size. It allows the shooter to compensate for these variables and increase the chances of hitting the target accurately.

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51. How many different types of ammunition are the for the M4 carbine?

Explanation

The M4 carbine has 10 different types of ammunition available.

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52. Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?

Explanation

A final protective line (FPL) is fixed in both direction and elevation. It is a predetermined line on the ground, beyond which direct fire is not allowed to pass. The purpose of the FPL is to provide a defensive line that can effectively engage enemy targets and protect friendly forces. The direction and elevation of the FPL are carefully planned and set to ensure maximum coverage and effectiveness against potential threats.

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53. What are tree common characteristics hand grenades share?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing." This means that hand grenades are designed to be thrown over a short distance, causing damage within a small area, and have a delay element that allows the user to safely throw it before it detonates.

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54. An interruption in the cycle of the operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?

Explanation

A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations caused by a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. It can occur when the weapon fails to cycle properly, resulting in a failure to feed, extract, or eject ammunition. This interruption can be caused by various issues such as a jammed round, a misfire, or a failure to properly chamber a round. In order to resolve the stoppage, the operator may need to clear the weapon and take appropriate remedial action.

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55. At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of?

Explanation

The M240B should be cleaned after firing a basic load of 900 to 1,200 rounds. This is necessary to maintain the weapon's performance and prevent malfunctions. Cleaning the firearm removes carbon buildup and debris that can accumulate during firing, ensuring that the weapon operates smoothly and reliably. Regular cleaning also helps to prolong the lifespan of the firearm and maintain its accuracy.

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56. The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal?

Explanation

The M136 AT4's warhead is designed to have excellent penetration ability, meaning it can effectively penetrate through armored targets. After penetrating the armor, it also has lethal after-armor effects, which refers to its ability to cause damage and destruction to the target and its surroundings. This suggests that the warhead is highly effective in neutralizing armored threats and has a significant impact even after penetrating the armor.

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57. What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B?

Explanation

The correct answer is sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire. Sluggish operation refers to the weapon not functioning properly or smoothly, which can be caused by various factors such as dirt, debris, or lack of proper maintenance. Uncontrolled fire refers to the weapon firing continuously without the shooter's control, which can occur due to a malfunctioning trigger or firing mechanism. These two malfunctions are commonly observed in the M240B and can significantly impact its effectiveness and safety.

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58. Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and?

Explanation

In the offense, the primary objective is to advance, occupy, and hold the enemy position. This means that once the offensive force has advanced and occupied the enemy position, their goal is to maintain control and prevent the enemy from retaking it. Holding the enemy position allows the offensive force to establish a strong foothold and potentially launch further attacks or consolidate their position. It is a crucial step in achieving the overall objective of the offense, which is to defeat the enemy and gain control of the territory.

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59. The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of?

Explanation

The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of the short recoil principle. This means that when the rifle is fired, the force generated by the explosion of the cartridge pushes the bullet and the bolt assembly rearward. The bolt then recoils against a spring, which absorbs the energy and returns the bolt and the barrel to their original positions. This allows for the extraction of the spent cartridge and the chambering of a new round, enabling rapid and efficient firing.

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60. When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?

Explanation

Predetermined fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners when selecting crew-served weapons positions. This type of fire involves pre-planned target areas and firing points that are predetermined based on the analysis of the battlefield. It allows the gunners to have a strategic advantage by having predetermined locations to engage the enemy and control the battlefield effectively. By having predetermined firing positions, the gunners can quickly and efficiently engage targets, coordinate fire support, and maintain a tactical advantage.

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61. Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target?

Explanation

Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to quickly and accurately aim or adjust fire on the target. By using concise and standardized commands, the gunner can communicate their instructions efficiently, saving time in the process. Additionally, having access to previously recorded data allows the gunner to make precise adjustments based on past experiences and knowledge. This combination of speed and accuracy ensures that the gunner can effectively engage the target without wasting time or ammunition.

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62. Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?

Explanation

The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19. This tripod is specifically designed to support the weight and recoil of the MK19 machine gun, providing stability and accuracy during firing. The M1, M2, and M4 tripods are not commonly used for this purpose, making the M3 the correct answer.

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63. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire team-sized area targets?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire team-sized area targets is 350 meters. This means that the M203 can accurately engage and hit targets within a radius of 350 meters, making it an effective weapon for engaging multiple targets in a concentrated area.

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64. What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?

Explanation

The waiting period of 30 seconds before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203 is necessary to ensure safety. After a failure, such as a misfire or a round not detonating, there may still be a risk of the round detonating or causing harm. Waiting for 30 seconds allows time for any potential danger to dissipate, reducing the risk to the operator.

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65. Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fire weapons?

Explanation

The target reference point (TRP) is primarily used to control direct-fire weapons by providing a specific location for the engagement of enemy targets. However, it may also be used for indirect-fire weapons as a reference point for adjusting fire. The TRP helps to ensure accurate and effective engagement of targets by providing a known location that can be easily communicated to the firing unit. This allows for coordinated and synchronized fire support to be delivered on the enemy.

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66. What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?

Explanation

The maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod with the M249 is 600 meters. This means that the weapon is designed to accurately engage and hit a specific target at distances of up to 600 meters when utilizing a bipod for stability.

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67. In meters, what is the maximum ranger of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?

Explanation

The correct answer is 640. This suggests that the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round is 640 meters.

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68. What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M791 practice round used in the M203?

Explanation

The danger radius for the M791 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters. This means that within a radius of 20 meters from the point of impact, there is a risk of danger or harm.

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69. What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caiber machine gun?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 2,000 yards.

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70. What is the standard round for the MK19?

Explanation

The standard round for the MK19 is the M430.

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71. What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?

Explanation

The M61 ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets. This type of ammunition is specifically designed to penetrate and inflict damage on lightly-armored vehicles or personnel. It is commonly used in various military applications, such as machine guns and aircraft cannons, to effectively engage and neutralize these types of targets.

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72. In what year was the M18A, claymore mine standardized?

Explanation

The M18A claymore mine was standardized in the year 1960.

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73. The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?

Explanation

The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to 700 meters. This means that the fire can spread up to a distance of 700 meters from its source.

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74. Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive line of areas?

Explanation

Final Protective Fire is the correct answer because it refers to a prearranged barrier of fire that is immediately available to stop enemy movement across a defensive line of areas. This tactic involves concentrating a high volume of fire on a specific area to prevent enemy forces from advancing. It is a crucial element in defensive operations and is used to disrupt and neutralize enemy movements, providing a significant deterrent to their progress.

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75. In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team sized area targets?

Explanation

The maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team sized area targets is 150 meters.

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Cleaner, Lubricant, Preservative (CLP) or Lubricating oil, semi-fluid...
The acronym SPORTS stands for?
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain...
Which action the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by...
The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed...
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after...
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a?
How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage...
What does the acronym FPL stand for?
What is maximum range for M9 pistol?
Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of?
The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
What is the function of the forward assist?
Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the...
What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
On the M9 pistol, the dual pistol, the dual purpose of the...
Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type...
Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure...
The primary purpose of the preventive maintenance is to keep weapons?
Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for...
Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most...
Range cards are a record of?
The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by...
Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds...
What cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except...
When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is...
How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9?
Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE)...
How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training...
Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
From what position is the M240B loaded?
How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
Searching fire is most often used on?
The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for?
What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical?
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a...
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is?
The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an?
How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start...
What is the standard cartridge used with the M9 pistol?
Which M9 ammunition round is only issued to security forces, Office of...
If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the...
How many different types of ammunition are the for the M4 carbine?
Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
What are tree common characteristics hand grenades share?
An interruption in the cycle of the operations caused by faulty action...
At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of?
The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and...
What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B?
Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the...
The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of?
When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire...
Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the...
Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for...
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when...
What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure...
Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire...
What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point...
In meters, what is the maximum ranger of the M870 shotgun using...
What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M791...
What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caiber machine gun?
What is the standard round for the MK19?
What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
In what year was the M18A, claymore mine standardized?
The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged...
In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging...
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