3P051: Trivia Questions Test On Security Forces Journeyman! Quiz

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3P051: Trivia Questions Test On Security Forces Journeyman! Quiz

Below is a 3p051: Trivia Questions Test on Security Forces Journeyman! Once you are done with this course, you will be charged with force protection duties, guarding weapons, airbases, and Air Force. Do you feel like you have been attentive enough to pass this quiz? How about you give it a try and see how true that is.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What standard did the US Supreme Court establish for assessing use of force?
    • A. 

      Objective reasonableness

    • B. 

      Subjective reasoning

    • C. 

      Reasonable certainty

    • D. 

      Objective certainty

  • 2. 
    Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas?
    • A. 

      Concentric circle

    • B. 

      Item-to-item

    • C. 

      Zone or sector

    • D. 

      Strip and grid

  • 3. 
    If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol you may…
    • A. 

      Enter the building to prevent injury or damage.

    • B. 

      Enter the building only to identify suspects.

    • C. 

      Not enter until the flight chief arrives.

    • D. 

      Not enter until you witness an assault.

  • 4. 
    Why is it important to keep suspects and witnesses separated?
    • A. 

      So you can interrogate them alone to get the truth.

    • B. 

      So you cannot distort each other’s impression.

    • C. 

      So you can plea bargain with them

    • D. 

      Standing orders.

  • 5. 
    What year was the name of the career field changed to “Security Police”?
    • A. 

      1950

    • B. 

      1966

    • C. 

      1971

    • D. 

      1985

  • 6. 
    The Security Police shield started out as a/an…
    • A. 

      Distinctive hat worn only by Military Police.

    • B. 

      Military Police/ Air Police brassard.

    • C. 

      4x4 laminated identification card.

    • D. 

      Air police function badge.

  • 7. 
    One of the elements of signal operating instructions (SOI) is...
    • A. 

      Accurate supplemental instructions.

    • B. 

      Complete supplemental instructions.

    • C. 

      Brief supplemental instructions.

    • D. 

      Clear supplemental instructions.

  • 8. 
    Signal operating instructions (SOI) will allow base defense forces to ensure that communications are…
    • A. 

      Fairly accurate and speedy.

    • B. 

      Concise and accurate.

    • C. 

      Speedy and in-depth.

    • D. 

      Speedy and simplistic.

  • 9. 
    Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications?
    • A. 

      Brevity codes.

    • B. 

      Authentic transmissions.

    • C. 

      Localized decoding procedures

    • D. 

      Localized encoding procedures.

  • 10. 
    OPSEC enables friendly force information superiority by…
    • A. 

      Attacking adversary information systems with viruses.

    • B. 

      Neutralizing adversary information activities.

    • C. 

      Randomly inspecting OPSEC programs.

    • D. 

      Controlling the output of information.

  • 11. 
    What is the last step in the Operations Security (OPSEC) process?
    • A. 

      Application of appropriate measures

    • B. 

      Risk assessment

    • C. 

      Threat analysis

    • D. 

      Reconditioning

  • 12. 
    Specific items of information are usually only critical for a prescribed?
    • A. 

      Time phased classification

    • B. 

      Monthly inspection

    • C. 

      Period of time

    • D. 

      Limitation

  • 13. 
    The centerpiece of Operations Security (OPSEC) is…
    • A. 

      Threat analysis.

    • B. 

      Risk Management.

    • C. 

      Communications safety.

    • D. 

      Information security.

  • 14. 
    What are the four major groups for transmission of communicable diseases?
    • A. 

      Contact, internal, waterborne, insect and animal borne.

    • B. 

      Contact, external, waterborne, insect and animal borne.

    • C. 

      Contact, inhaling, waterborne, insect and animal borne.

    • D. 

      Contact, intestinal, waterborne, insect and animal borne.

  • 15. 
    An effective way of defeating crawling insects is…
    • A. 

      Not wearing socks.

    • B. 

      Spraying your boots with Windex.

    • C. 

      Not washing your pants bottoms.

    • D. 

      Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots.

  • 16. 
    What is the RX RF bandwidth programmable for?
    • A. 

      133-154 MHz and 203-270 MHz receiver.

    • B. 

      136-174 MHz and 403-470 MHz receiver.

    • C. 

      139-194 MHz and 603-670 MHz receiver.

    • D. 

      154-214 MHz and 803-870 MHz receiver.

  • 17. 
    Which statement is a step in base-station installation?
    • A. 

      Finding a good grounding location.

    • B. 

      Inspecting the strap assembly.

    • C. 

      Installing the power supply.

    • D. 

      Setting up the operations tent.

  • 18. 
    When installing the power supply, select a flat surface…
    • A. 

      Near the external loudspeaker.

    • B. 

      10 feet from the generator unit.

    • C. 

      Next to the battery recharger.

    • D. 

      6 feet from the base station.

  • 19. 
    What do we call arranging material around an object so that it appears to be part of line background?
    • A. 

      Hiding

    • B. 

      Blending

    • C. 

      Deceiving

    • D. 

      Natural forming

  • 20. 
    An example of artificial cover is a...
    • A. 

      Foxhole.

    • B. 

      Ravine.

    • C. 

      Bush.

    • D. 

      Tree.

  • 21. 
    What type of cover are ravines, reverse slopes and hollows?
    • A. 

      Artificial

    • B. 

      Foxholes

    • C. 

      Natural

    • D. 

      Walls

  • 22. 
    Bushes, grass, and shadows are examples of…
    • A. 

      Artificial concealment.

    • B. 

      Natural concealment.

    • C. 

      Manmade obstacles.

    • D. 

      Natural cover.

  • 23. 
    Secure PL1 resources by…
    • A. 

      Providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.

    • B. 

      Posting sentries when IDS is not installed or operational.

    • C. 

      Ensuring proper training of assigned personnel.

    • D. 

      Posting external response force elements.

  • 24. 
    What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn’t fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or military department?
    • A. 

      Controlled

    • B. 

      Restricted

    • C. 

      Disaster response

    • D. 

      National Defense

  • 25. 
    What is the function of the augmentation force if a nuclear weapon has been taken?
    • A. 

      To protect the remaining nuclear weapons that have not been taken.

    • B. 

      Let the response force and backup force handle the situation.

    • C. 

      To setup base defense positions around the perimeter.

    • D. 

      To assist in recapture and recovery operations.

  • 26. 
    One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet is to...
    • A. 

      Transmit letters and numbers.

    • B. 

      Always transmit letters, not numbers.

    • C. 

      Remember the last letter you receive must be even and set

    • D. 

      Remember that the first three letters you pass or receive must be set letters.

  • 27. 
    Why should you recover field wire after an operation?
    • A. 

      So the next deployment squad doesn’t use it.

    • B. 

      Leaving used wire makes future operations easier.

    • C. 

      So that the enemy can use it or interfere with other operations.

    • D. 

      So that you won’t have to figure out which wires are being used.

  • 28. 
    After the conductors have been cut, how many inches should they be staggered when splicing field wire?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      12

  • 29. 
    Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with…
    • A. 

      Too much money, divorce, and work problems.

    • B. 

      Pending legal action, work problems, or having fun.

    • C. 

      Loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce.

    • D. 

      Relationship difficulties, divorce, and going on vacation.

  • 30. 
    Microorganisms in blood that cause disease are?
    • A. 

      “A” cells

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Cancer causing cells

    • D. 

      Blood borne pathogens

  • 31. 
    The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?
    • A. 

      Sweat

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Syringes

    • D. 

      Body fluids

  • 32. 
    What has the tendency to cause rusting and malfunctions in radios?
    • A. 

      Submersion in 6 inches of water

    • B. 

      Dead batteries

    • C. 

      Bad antennas

    • D. 

      Weapons oil

  • 33. 
    What is the first step in erecting the antenna mast?
    • A. 

      Selecting a wooded area for concealment.

    • B. 

      Assembling the antenna mast anchors.

    • C. 

      Selecting an unobstructed site.

    • D. 

      Camouflaging the antenna.

  • 34. 
    What position should you assume to observe around corners of buildings?
    • A. 

      Crouching

    • B. 

      Standing

    • C. 

      Kneeling

    • D. 

      Prone

  • 35. 
    What method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required?
    • A. 

      Cornering

    • B. 

      Skipping

    • C. 

      Bursting

    • D. 

      Pie-ing

  • 36. 
    Likelihood of enemy contact we divide into three categories;
    • A. 

      Expected, possible and likely.

    • B. 

      Likely, expected and observed.

    • C. 

      Not likely, possible and expected.

    • D. 

      Threat analysis, not likely and ambushes.

  • 37. 
    What areas do you avoid because they outline you against the lighter sky?
    • A. 

      Ditches

    • B. 

      Skylines

    • C. 

      Windows

    • D. 

      Reverse slopes

  • 38. 
    Where is the guard receiver-transmitter installed in the base station?
    • A. 

      On top

    • B. 

      Left side

    • C. 

      Right side

    • D. 

      Center slot

  • 39. 
    When is the programming cable used with the base station?
    • A. 

      For headset use.

    • B. 

      In desert climates.

    • C. 

      When using giant voice connections.

    • D. 

      For external programming of the portable radio communication (PRC) 139.

  • 40. 
    What is one of the causes for failure of the push-to-talk (PTT) button on the portable radio communication (PRC) 139?
    • A. 

      Lack of power

    • B. 

      Operator error

    • C. 

      Dry circuits

    • D. 

      Dirt

  • 41. 
    Factors we use to determine movement techniques are control, dispersion, speed and…
    • A. 

      Cover.

    • B. 

      Security.

    • C. 

      Fire support.

    • D. 

      Concealment.

  • 42. 
    Which movement technique do we use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely?
    • A. 

      Traveling

    • B. 

      Wedge formation

    • C. 

      Traveling overwatch

    • D. 

      Bounding overwatch

  • 43. 
    In the traveling formation the team leader is best located?
    • A. 

      With the lead fire team.

    • B. 

      At the rear of the formation.

    • C. 

      Out in the front of the formation.

    • D. 

      Between the first and second fire team.

  • 44. 
    Where would the two-person concept apply with respect to security forces performing entry control duties?
    • A. 

      No-lone zone

    • B. 

      Restricted zone

    • C. 

      Controlled area

    • D. 

      Two-person zone

  • 45. 
    The first step in connecting the lines to the TA-312 is…
    • A. 

      Strip away 1 inch of insulation from the ends of the two wires.

    • B. 

      Seat the handset firmly in the retaining cradle.

    • C. 

      Adjust buzzer volume control knob to loud.

    • D. 

      Turn the INT-EXT switch to INT.

  • 46. 
    To operate the TA-312/PT in the LB mode you must…
    • A. 

      Remove H60? PT from the cradle and wait for the operator to answer.

    • B. 

      Press the press-to-talk switch and release to listen.

    • C. 

      Place the INT/EXT switch to INT position.

    • D. 

      Ensure the INT/EXT switch is on EXT.

  • 47. 
    When operating the SB-22, the operator uses the generator hand wheel to…
    • A. 

      Ring forward or ring back when extending off telephone circuits.

    • B. 

      Provide connection for the operator’s telephone set.

    • C. 

      Signal the called party when calls are extended.

    • D. 

      Answer incoming calls.

  • 48. 
    What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?
    • A. 

      Waterproof clothing bags

    • B. 

      Change them frequently

    • C. 

      Tree branches

    • D. 

      Mosquito nets

  • 49. 
    What is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field?
    • A. 

      Fires

    • B. 

      Stress

    • C. 

      Major accidents

    • D. 

      Traffic accidents

  • 50. 
    Which Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) uses physical presence to demonstrate US resolve?
    • A. 

      Arms control

    • B. 

      Show of force

    • C. 

      Enforcement sanctions

    • D. 

      Foreign humanitarian assistance

  • 51. 
    What is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
    • A. 

      Department of State

    • B. 

      Department of Justice

    • C. 

      Department of Defense

    • D. 

      Federal Bureau of Investigation

  • 52. 
    Which is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur inside of the US?
    • A. 

      Department of State

    • B. 

      Department of Justice

    • C. 

      Department of Defense

    • D. 

      Central Intelligence Agency

  • 53. 
    On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and…
    • A. 

      Loaded chamber indicator.

    • B. 

      Reset the firing pin block.

    • C. 

      Chambering.

    • D. 

      Releasing slide.

  • 54. 
    What ball is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
    • A. 

      M862

    • B. 

      M882

    • C. 

      M855

    • D. 

      M856

  • 55. 
    M822 ammunition is used against what type of target?
    • A. 

      Antipersonnel vehicle

    • B. 

      Personnel

    • C. 

      Vehicles

    • D. 

      Tanks

  • 56. 
    How much candlepower illumination does the M49A1 give off?
    • A. 

      15,000

    • B. 

      20,000

    • C. 

      30,000

    • D. 

      40,000

  • 57. 
    What is the purpose of the safety clip on the M49A1?
    • A. 

      Secures the spoon

    • B. 

      Holds the detonator

    • C. 

      Used to secure the flare

    • D. 

      Secures the safety clip holes

  • 58. 
    When moving tactically, your survival depends largely on your ability to…
    • A. 

      Move quickly.

    • B. 

      Camouflage yourself.

    • C. 

      Execute basic movements.

    • D. 

      Crawl for long periods of time.

  • 59. 
    What could you use as a hasty firing position in built up areas?
    • A. 

      Roof

    • B. 

      Field

    • C. 

      Culvert

    • D. 

      Sandbags

  • 60. 
    While on the offensive, the squad uses obstacles to…
    • A. 

      Evade the enemy.

    • B. 

      Isolate objectives.

    • C. 

      Protect defending units.

    • D. 

      Slow the enemy’s advance.

  • 61. 
    How many meters is the kill radius for high explosive rounds?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 62. 
    Under what conditions would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
    • A. 

      Under no circumstances

    • B. 

      When directed

    • C. 

      Emergencies

    • D. 

      Last resort

  • 63. 
    What type of M249 ammunition is used during dry-fire exercises?
    • A. 

      M199 Dummy

    • B. 

      M200 Blank

    • C. 

      M855 Ball

    • D. 

      M856 Tracer

  • 64. 
    There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?
    • A. 

      Personal life and job

    • B. 

      Personal life and nightclubs

    • C. 

      Job and recreational activities

    • D. 

      Job and off-duty employment

  • 65. 
    What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
    • A. 

      Finding the right stress medication

    • B. 

      Recognizing stressors

    • C. 

      Running daily

    • D. 

      Relaxing

  • 66. 
    What is the main disadvantage of direct observation?
    • A. 

      You can’t approach an area without being detected.

    • B. 

      Observer looks directly at object for along period of time.

    • C. 

      Observer can readily see movement of personnel or equipment.

    • D. 

      Physical condition of the observer may affect power of observation.

  • 67. 
    The minimum and maximum grade authorized before being considered for sharpshooter is?
    • A. 

      Amn - SrA

    • B. 

      SrA - SSgt

    • C. 

      SSgt - TSgt

    • D. 

      SrA - MSgt

  • 68. 
    M24 is effective against point targets out to how many meters?
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      600

    • C. 

      800

    • D. 

      1,000

  • 69. 
    What are the three common characteristics hand grenades share?
    • A. 

      Mid-range employment and delay element for throwing.

    • B. 

      Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing.

    • C. 

      Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.

    • D. 

      Medium employment range, short casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.

  • 70. 
    Which movement technique is preferred when you are under enemy observation or fire?
    • A. 

      Rush

    • B. 

      Roll

    • C. 

      Crawl

    • D. 

      High crawl

  • 71. 
    Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner we call?
    • A. 

      Flagging

    • B. 

      Marking

    • C. 

      Posting

    • D. 

      Stabbing

  • 72. 
    All personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will…
    • A. 

      Receive firearms training based their duty tasking.

    • B. 

      Receive firearms training based their rank and status.

    • C. 

      Receive firearms training based on use of force requirements.

    • D. 

      Receive firearms training based their assigned arming group (Group A & B)

  • 73. 
    Individual weapons training programs are outlined in?
    • A. 

      AFI 31-201, Security Police Procedures.

    • B. 

      AFI 31-101, Installation Security Programs.

    • C. 

      AFMAN 31-201, Volume 1, Security Forces History and Organization.

    • D. 

      AFMAN 36-2226, Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons.

  • 74. 
    What forms is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
    • A. 

      AF Form 522 Ground Weapon Training Data.

    • B. 

      AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt.

    • C. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard.

    • D. 

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

  • 75. 
    How many meters is the average person is capable of throwing a hand grenade?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 76. 
    The hand grenade safety clip prevents the safety lever from…
    • A. 

      Springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed.

    • B. 

      Accidentally breaking loose if dropped inadvertently.

    • C. 

      Accidentally arming the grenade when being removed.

    • D. 

      Springing open if the safety pin is damaged.

  • 77. 
    How can the M72 LAW employed and fired?
    • A. 

      Shoulder, sitting, and only prone position.

    • B. 

      Sitting, kneeling, and over barricade position.

    • C. 

      Standing, kneeling, and over barricade position.

    • D. 

      Shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling.

  • 78. 
    The use of prowords in radio communication help…
    • A. 

      Aids in transmitting and reception.

    • B. 

      Clarify understanding of the message being sent.

    • C. 

      Distract and confuse unauthorized listeners.

    • D. 

      Shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception.

  • 79. 
    Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they…
    • A. 

      Are of the same sex as inmate.

    • B. 

      Are of opposite sex of the inmate.

    • C. 

      Have unfavorable information file.

    • D. 

      Are personally involved with the inmate.

  • 80. 
    What principle of employment reduces the enemy’s ability to remove or breach obstacles?
    • A. 

      Support the tactical plan

    • B. 

      Constructed in depth

    • C. 

      Covered by observation and fire

    • D. 

      Employed for surprise

  • 81. 
    At what intervals are restricted area signs displayed along the restricted area boundary?
    • A. 

      25 foot

    • B. 

      50 foot

    • C. 

      75 foot

    • D. 

      100 foot

  • 82. 
    How many lines of detection must Security Forces (SF) establish for PL non-nuclear?
    • A. 

      One line at the structure or exposed resources.

    • B. 

      Two lines at the restricted area boundary only.

    • C. 

      One line at the restricted area boundary and one line at the structure.

    • D. 

      Two lines at the restricted area boundary and two lines at the structure.

  • 83. 
    All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either…
    • A. 

      Pretrial detainee, post-trial inmates, or casual.

    • B. 

      Pretrial detainee or post-trail detainee.

    • C. 

      Post-trial inmate or trial inmate.

    • D. 

      Pretrial casual or casual.

  • 84. 
    All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within…
    • A. 

      24 hours.

    • B. 

      24 hours or the next duty day.

    • C. 

      48 hours.

    • D. 

      72 hours or as soon as possible.

  • 85. 
    What can you use to clean your mouth effectively in the absence of other means?
    • A. 

      Salt water

    • B. 

      Sulfuric acid

    • C. 

      Tree branches

    • D. 

      Weapons cleaning brush

  • 86. 
    The sights of the AT4 resemble the sights of what other weapon?
    • A. 

      M-16 rifle

    • B. 

      M-4 carbine

    • C. 

      M240B machine gun

    • D. 

      M249 SAW

  • 87. 
     In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located…
    • A. 

      10 meters from the front.

    • B. 

      In front of the team leader.

    • C. 

      50 meters behind the lead fire team.

    • D. 

      100 meters behind the lead fire team.

  • 88. 
    When moving as a fire team in an urban area; the fire team crosses open areas…
    • A. 

      One by one

    • B. 

      Two at a time.

    • C. 

      One every five minutes.

    • D. 

      In a group.

  • 89. 
    In a near ambush, when do airman in the kill zone assault through the ambush using fire and movement?
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      Immediately

    • C. 

      When directed

    • D. 

      After all clear is sounded

  • 90. 
    What is the minimum number of feet from the base perimeter for locating a restricted area fence containing protection level 1 resources?
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      225

    • C. 

      250

    • D. 

      275

  • 91. 
    When employed in a physical security role the m870 is effective because?
    • A. 

      It can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipment.

    • B. 

      Entry controllers can stop or slow down vehicles.

    • C. 

      Of its close quarters capabilities.

    • D. 

      Of its psychological effect.

  • 92. 
    How does the leader prevent vehicles from skylining?
    • A. 

      Make use of natural cover and concealment.

    • B. 

      Park on a ridge or crest to prevent silhouetting.

    • C. 

      Drive slowly and deliberately down dark roads.

    • D. 

      Use camouflage paint to break up vehicle outline.

  • 93. 
    Which method of movement is used when enemy contact is possible and speed is desirable?
    • A. 

      Bounding overwatch

    • B. 

      Traveling overwatch

    • C. 

      Bounding

    • D. 

      Traveling

  • 94. 
    If vehicles are not already painted to blend with the terrain, what can you use to break the outline?
    • A. 

      A. Rags

    • B. 

      B. Mud

    • C. 

      C. Tarp

    • D. 

      D. Burlap

  • 95. 
    What are the two basic formations for an ambush?
    • A. 

      Linear and L-shaped

    • B. 

      Linear and column

    • C. 

      Column and flight

    • D. 

      Deep and liner

  • 96. 
    When does the security element rejoin the flight after a hasty ambush?
    • A. 

      A. Upon the squad leader’s discretion.

    • B. 

      When signaled to do so by the flight leader.

    • C. 

      Before the force leader clears the kill zone.

    • D. 

      After the assault element clears the kill zone.

  • 97. 
    What is a retrograde operation?
    • A. 

      Disengaging away from the enemy.

    • B. 

      Retreating to a safe place on the flank.

    • C. 

      Organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.

    • D. 

      Unorganized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.