3P051: Trivia Questions Test On Security Forces Journeyman! Quiz

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3P051: Trivia Questions Test On Security Forces Journeyman! Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What standard did the US Supreme Court establish for assessing use of force?
    • A. 

      Objective reasonableness

    • B. 

      Subjective reasoning

    • C. 

      Reasonable certainty

    • D. 

      Objective certainty

  • 2. 
    Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas?
    • A. 

      Concentric circle

    • B. 

      Item-to-item

    • C. 

      Zone or sector

    • D. 

      Strip and grid

  • 3. 
    If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol you may…
    • A. 

      Enter the building to prevent injury or damage.

    • B. 

      Enter the building only to identify suspects.

    • C. 

      Not enter until the flight chief arrives.

    • D. 

      Not enter until you witness an assault.

  • 4. 
    Why is it important to keep suspects and witnesses separated?
    • A. 

      So you can interrogate them alone to get the truth.

    • B. 

      So you cannot distort each other’s impression.

    • C. 

      So you can plea bargain with them

    • D. 

      Standing orders.

  • 5. 
    What year was the name of the career field changed to “Security Police”?
    • A. 

      1950

    • B. 

      1966

    • C. 

      1971

    • D. 

      1985

  • 6. 
    The Security Police shield started out as a/an…
    • A. 

      Distinctive hat worn only by Military Police.

    • B. 

      Military Police/ Air Police brassard.

    • C. 

      4x4 laminated identification card.

    • D. 

      Air police function badge.

  • 7. 
    One of the elements of signal operating instructions (SOI) is...
    • A. 

      Accurate supplemental instructions.

    • B. 

      Complete supplemental instructions.

    • C. 

      Brief supplemental instructions.

    • D. 

      Clear supplemental instructions.

  • 8. 
    Signal operating instructions (SOI) will allow base defense forces to ensure that communications are…
    • A. 

      Fairly accurate and speedy.

    • B. 

      Concise and accurate.

    • C. 

      Speedy and in-depth.

    • D. 

      Speedy and simplistic.

  • 9. 
    Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications?
    • A. 

      Brevity codes.

    • B. 

      Authentic transmissions.

    • C. 

      Localized decoding procedures

    • D. 

      Localized encoding procedures.

  • 10. 
    OPSEC enables friendly force information superiority by…
    • A. 

      Attacking adversary information systems with viruses.

    • B. 

      Neutralizing adversary information activities.

    • C. 

      Randomly inspecting OPSEC programs.

    • D. 

      Controlling the output of information.

  • 11. 
    What is the last step in the Operations Security (OPSEC) process?
    • A. 

      Application of appropriate measures

    • B. 

      Risk assessment

    • C. 

      Threat analysis

    • D. 

      Reconditioning

  • 12. 
    Specific items of information are usually only critical for a prescribed?
    • A. 

      Time phased classification

    • B. 

      Monthly inspection

    • C. 

      Period of time

    • D. 

      Limitation

  • 13. 
    The centerpiece of Operations Security (OPSEC) is…
    • A. 

      Threat analysis.

    • B. 

      Risk Management.

    • C. 

      Communications safety.

    • D. 

      Information security.

  • 14. 
    What are the four major groups for transmission of communicable diseases?
    • A. 

      Contact, internal, waterborne, insect and animal borne.

    • B. 

      Contact, external, waterborne, insect and animal borne.

    • C. 

      Contact, inhaling, waterborne, insect and animal borne.

    • D. 

      Contact, intestinal, waterborne, insect and animal borne.

  • 15. 
    An effective way of defeating crawling insects is…
    • A. 

      Not wearing socks.

    • B. 

      Spraying your boots with Windex.

    • C. 

      Not washing your pants bottoms.

    • D. 

      Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots.

  • 16. 
    What is the RX RF bandwidth programmable for?
    • A. 

      133-154 MHz and 203-270 MHz receiver.

    • B. 

      136-174 MHz and 403-470 MHz receiver.

    • C. 

      139-194 MHz and 603-670 MHz receiver.

    • D. 

      154-214 MHz and 803-870 MHz receiver.

  • 17. 
    Which statement is a step in base-station installation?
    • A. 

      Finding a good grounding location.

    • B. 

      Inspecting the strap assembly.

    • C. 

      Installing the power supply.

    • D. 

      Setting up the operations tent.

  • 18. 
    When installing the power supply, select a flat surface…
    • A. 

      Near the external loudspeaker.

    • B. 

      10 feet from the generator unit.

    • C. 

      Next to the battery recharger.

    • D. 

      6 feet from the base station.

  • 19. 
    What do we call arranging material around an object so that it appears to be part of line background?
    • A. 

      Hiding

    • B. 

      Blending

    • C. 

      Deceiving

    • D. 

      Natural forming

  • 20. 
    An example of artificial cover is a...
    • A. 

      Foxhole.

    • B. 

      Ravine.

    • C. 

      Bush.

    • D. 

      Tree.

  • 21. 
    What type of cover are ravines, reverse slopes and hollows?
    • A. 

      Artificial

    • B. 

      Foxholes

    • C. 

      Natural

    • D. 

      Walls

  • 22. 
    Bushes, grass, and shadows are examples of…
    • A. 

      Artificial concealment.

    • B. 

      Natural concealment.

    • C. 

      Manmade obstacles.

    • D. 

      Natural cover.

  • 23. 
    Secure PL1 resources by…
    • A. 

      Providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.

    • B. 

      Posting sentries when IDS is not installed or operational.

    • C. 

      Ensuring proper training of assigned personnel.

    • D. 

      Posting external response force elements.

  • 24. 
    What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn’t fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or military department?
    • A. 

      Controlled

    • B. 

      Restricted

    • C. 

      Disaster response

    • D. 

      National Defense

  • 25. 
    What is the function of the augmentation force if a nuclear weapon has been taken?
    • A. 

      To protect the remaining nuclear weapons that have not been taken.

    • B. 

      Let the response force and backup force handle the situation.

    • C. 

      To setup base defense positions around the perimeter.

    • D. 

      To assist in recapture and recovery operations.

  • 26. 
    One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet is to...
    • A. 

      Transmit letters and numbers.

    • B. 

      Always transmit letters, not numbers.

    • C. 

      Remember the last letter you receive must be even and set

    • D. 

      Remember that the first three letters you pass or receive must be set letters.

  • 27. 
    Why should you recover field wire after an operation?
    • A. 

      So the next deployment squad doesn’t use it.

    • B. 

      Leaving used wire makes future operations easier.

    • C. 

      So that the enemy can use it or interfere with other operations.

    • D. 

      So that you won’t have to figure out which wires are being used.

  • 28. 
    After the conductors have been cut, how many inches should they be staggered when splicing field wire?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      12

  • 29. 
    Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with…
    • A. 

      Too much money, divorce, and work problems.

    • B. 

      Pending legal action, work problems, or having fun.

    • C. 

      Loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce.

    • D. 

      Relationship difficulties, divorce, and going on vacation.

  • 30. 
    Microorganisms in blood that cause disease are?
    • A. 

      “A” cells

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Cancer causing cells

    • D. 

      Blood borne pathogens

  • 31. 
    The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?
    • A. 

      Sweat

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Syringes

    • D. 

      Body fluids

  • 32. 
    What has the tendency to cause rusting and malfunctions in radios?
    • A. 

      Submersion in 6 inches of water

    • B. 

      Dead batteries

    • C. 

      Bad antennas

    • D. 

      Weapons oil

  • 33. 
    What is the first step in erecting the antenna mast?
    • A. 

      Selecting a wooded area for concealment.

    • B. 

      Assembling the antenna mast anchors.

    • C. 

      Selecting an unobstructed site.

    • D. 

      Camouflaging the antenna.

  • 34. 
    What position should you assume to observe around corners of buildings?
    • A. 

      Crouching

    • B. 

      Standing

    • C. 

      Kneeling

    • D. 

      Prone

  • 35. 
    What method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required?
    • A. 

      Cornering

    • B. 

      Skipping

    • C. 

      Bursting

    • D. 

      Pie-ing

  • 36. 
    Likelihood of enemy contact we divide into three categories;
    • A. 

      Expected, possible and likely.

    • B. 

      Likely, expected and observed.

    • C. 

      Not likely, possible and expected.

    • D. 

      Threat analysis, not likely and ambushes.

  • 37. 
    What areas do you avoid because they outline you against the lighter sky?
    • A. 

      Ditches

    • B. 

      Skylines

    • C. 

      Windows

    • D. 

      Reverse slopes

  • 38. 
    Where is the guard receiver-transmitter installed in the base station?
    • A. 

      On top

    • B. 

      Left side

    • C. 

      Right side

    • D. 

      Center slot

  • 39. 
    When is the programming cable used with the base station?
    • A. 

      For headset use.

    • B. 

      In desert climates.

    • C. 

      When using giant voice connections.

    • D. 

      For external programming of the portable radio communication (PRC) 139.

  • 40. 
    What is one of the causes for failure of the push-to-talk (PTT) button on the portable radio communication (PRC) 139?
    • A. 

      Lack of power

    • B. 

      Operator error

    • C. 

      Dry circuits

    • D. 

      Dirt

  • 41. 
    Factors we use to determine movement techniques are control, dispersion, speed and…
    • A. 

      Cover.

    • B. 

      Security.

    • C. 

      Fire support.

    • D. 

      Concealment.

  • 42. 
    Which movement technique do we use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely?
    • A. 

      Traveling

    • B. 

      Wedge formation

    • C. 

      Traveling overwatch

    • D. 

      Bounding overwatch

  • 43. 
    In the traveling formation the team leader is best located?
    • A. 

      With the lead fire team.

    • B. 

      At the rear of the formation.

    • C. 

      Out in the front of the formation.

    • D. 

      Between the first and second fire team.

  • 44. 
    Where would the two-person concept apply with respect to security forces performing entry control duties?
    • A. 

      No-lone zone

    • B. 

      Restricted zone

    • C. 

      Controlled area

    • D. 

      Two-person zone

  • 45. 
    The first step in connecting the lines to the TA-312 is…
    • A. 

      Strip away 1 inch of insulation from the ends of the two wires.

    • B. 

      Seat the handset firmly in the retaining cradle.

    • C. 

      Adjust buzzer volume control knob to loud.

    • D. 

      Turn the INT-EXT switch to INT.

  • 46. 
    To operate the TA-312/PT in the LB mode you must…
    • A. 

      Remove H60? PT from the cradle and wait for the operator to answer.

    • B. 

      Press the press-to-talk switch and release to listen.

    • C. 

      Place the INT/EXT switch to INT position.

    • D. 

      Ensure the INT/EXT switch is on EXT.

  • 47. 
    When operating the SB-22, the operator uses the generator hand wheel to…
    • A. 

      Ring forward or ring back when extending off telephone circuits.

    • B. 

      Provide connection for the operator’s telephone set.

    • C. 

      Signal the called party when calls are extended.

    • D. 

      Answer incoming calls.

  • 48. 
    What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?
    • A. 

      Waterproof clothing bags

    • B. 

      Change them frequently

    • C. 

      Tree branches

    • D. 

      Mosquito nets

  • 49. 
    What is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field?
    • A. 

      Fires

    • B. 

      Stress

    • C. 

      Major accidents

    • D. 

      Traffic accidents

  • 50. 
    Which Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) uses physical presence to demonstrate US resolve?
    • A. 

      Arms control

    • B. 

      Show of force

    • C. 

      Enforcement sanctions

    • D. 

      Foreign humanitarian assistance

  • 51. 
    What is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
    • A. 

      Department of State

    • B. 

      Department of Justice

    • C. 

      Department of Defense

    • D. 

      Federal Bureau of Investigation

  • 52. 
    Which is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur inside of the US?
    • A. 

      Department of State

    • B. 

      Department of Justice

    • C. 

      Department of Defense

    • D. 

      Central Intelligence Agency

  • 53. 
    On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and…
    • A. 

      Loaded chamber indicator.

    • B. 

      Reset the firing pin block.

    • C. 

      Chambering.

    • D. 

      Releasing slide.

  • 54. 
    What ball is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
    • A. 

      M862

    • B. 

      M882

    • C. 

      M855

    • D. 

      M856

  • 55. 
    M822 ammunition is used against what type of target?
    • A. 

      Antipersonnel vehicle

    • B. 

      Personnel

    • C. 

      Vehicles

    • D. 

      Tanks

  • 56. 
    How much candlepower illumination does the M49A1 give off?
    • A. 

      15,000

    • B. 

      20,000

    • C. 

      30,000

    • D. 

      40,000

  • 57. 
    What is the purpose of the safety clip on the M49A1?
    • A. 

      Secures the spoon

    • B. 

      Holds the detonator

    • C. 

      Used to secure the flare

    • D. 

      Secures the safety clip holes

  • 58. 
    When moving tactically, your survival depends largely on your ability to…
    • A. 

      Move quickly.

    • B. 

      Camouflage yourself.

    • C. 

      Execute basic movements.

    • D. 

      Crawl for long periods of time.

  • 59. 
    What could you use as a hasty firing position in built up areas?
    • A. 

      Roof

    • B. 

      Field

    • C. 

      Culvert

    • D. 

      Sandbags

  • 60. 
    While on the offensive, the squad uses obstacles to…
    • A. 

      Evade the enemy.

    • B. 

      Isolate objectives.

    • C. 

      Protect defending units.

    • D. 

      Slow the enemy’s advance.

  • 61. 
    How many meters is the kill radius for high explosive rounds?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 62. 
    Under what conditions would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
    • A. 

      Under no circumstances

    • B. 

      When directed

    • C. 

      Emergencies

    • D. 

      Last resort

  • 63. 
    What type of M249 ammunition is used during dry-fire exercises?
    • A. 

      M199 Dummy

    • B. 

      M200 Blank

    • C. 

      M855 Ball

    • D. 

      M856 Tracer

  • 64. 
    There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?
    • A. 

      Personal life and job

    • B. 

      Personal life and nightclubs

    • C. 

      Job and recreational activities

    • D. 

      Job and off-duty employment

  • 65. 
    What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
    • A. 

      Finding the right stress medication

    • B. 

      Recognizing stressors

    • C. 

      Running daily

    • D. 

      Relaxing

  • 66. 
    What is the main disadvantage of direct observation?
    • A. 

      You can’t approach an area without being detected.

    • B. 

      Observer looks directly at object for along period of time.

    • C. 

      Observer can readily see movement of personnel or equipment.

    • D. 

      Physical condition of the observer may affect power of observation.

  • 67. 
    The minimum and maximum grade authorized before being considered for sharpshooter is?
    • A. 

      Amn - SrA

    • B. 

      SrA - SSgt

    • C. 

      SSgt - TSgt

    • D. 

      SrA - MSgt

  • 68. 
    M24 is effective against point targets out to how many meters?
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      600

    • C. 

      800

    • D. 

      1,000

  • 69. 
    What are the three common characteristics hand grenades share?
    • A. 

      Mid-range employment and delay element for throwing.

    • B. 

      Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing.

    • C. 

      Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.

    • D. 

      Medium employment range, short casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.

  • 70. 
    Which movement technique is preferred when you are under enemy observation or fire?
    • A. 

      Rush

    • B. 

      Roll

    • C. 

      Crawl

    • D. 

      High crawl

  • 71. 
    Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner we call?
    • A. 

      Flagging

    • B. 

      Marking

    • C. 

      Posting

    • D. 

      Stabbing

  • 72. 
    All personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will…
    • A. 

      Receive firearms training based their duty tasking.

    • B. 

      Receive firearms training based their rank and status.

    • C. 

      Receive firearms training based on use of force requirements.

    • D. 

      Receive firearms training based their assigned arming group (Group A & B)

  • 73. 
    Individual weapons training programs are outlined in?
    • A. 

      AFI 31-201, Security Police Procedures.

    • B. 

      AFI 31-101, Installation Security Programs.

    • C. 

      AFMAN 31-201, Volume 1, Security Forces History and Organization.

    • D. 

      AFMAN 36-2226, Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons.

  • 74. 
    What forms is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
    • A. 

      AF Form 522 Ground Weapon Training Data.

    • B. 

      AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt.

    • C. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard.

    • D. 

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

  • 75. 
    How many meters is the average person is capable of throwing a hand grenade?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 76. 
    The hand grenade safety clip prevents the safety lever from…
    • A. 

      Springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed.

    • B. 

      Accidentally breaking loose if dropped inadvertently.

    • C. 

      Accidentally arming the grenade when being removed.

    • D. 

      Springing open if the safety pin is damaged.

  • 77. 
    How can the M72 LAW employed and fired?
    • A. 

      Shoulder, sitting, and only prone position.

    • B. 

      Sitting, kneeling, and over barricade position.

    • C. 

      Standing, kneeling, and over barricade position.

    • D. 

      Shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling.

  • 78. 
    The use of prowords in radio communication help…
    • A. 

      Aids in transmitting and reception.

    • B. 

      Clarify understanding of the message being sent.

    • C. 

      Distract and confuse unauthorized listeners.

    • D. 

      Shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception.

  • 79. 
    Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they…
    • A. 

      Are of the same sex as inmate.

    • B. 

      Are of opposite sex of the inmate.

    • C. 

      Have unfavorable information file.

    • D. 

      Are personally involved with the inmate.

  • 80. 
    What principle of employment reduces the enemy’s ability to remove or breach obstacles?
    • A. 

      Support the tactical plan

    • B. 

      Constructed in depth

    • C. 

      Covered by observation and fire

    • D. 

      Employed for surprise

  • 81. 
    At what intervals are restricted area signs displayed along the restricted area boundary?
    • A. 

      25 foot

    • B. 

      50 foot

    • C. 

      75 foot

    • D. 

      100 foot

  • 82. 
    How many lines of detection must Security Forces (SF) establish for PL non-nuclear?
    • A. 

      One line at the structure or exposed resources.

    • B. 

      Two lines at the restricted area boundary only.

    • C. 

      One line at the restricted area boundary and one line at the structure.

    • D. 

      Two lines at the restricted area boundary and two lines at the structure.

  • 83. 
    All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either…
    • A. 

      Pretrial detainee, post-trial inmates, or casual.

    • B. 

      Pretrial detainee or post-trail detainee.

    • C. 

      Post-trial inmate or trial inmate.

    • D. 

      Pretrial casual or casual.

  • 84. 
    All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within…
    • A. 

      24 hours.

    • B. 

      24 hours or the next duty day.

    • C. 

      48 hours.

    • D. 

      72 hours or as soon as possible.

  • 85. 
    What can you use to clean your mouth effectively in the absence of other means?
    • A. 

      Salt water

    • B. 

      Sulfuric acid

    • C. 

      Tree branches

    • D. 

      Weapons cleaning brush

  • 86. 
    The sights of the AT4 resemble the sights of what other weapon?
    • A. 

      M-16 rifle

    • B. 

      M-4 carbine

    • C. 

      M240B machine gun

    • D. 

      M249 SAW

  • 87. 
     In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located…
    • A. 

      10 meters from the front.

    • B. 

      In front of the team leader.

    • C. 

      50 meters behind the lead fire team.

    • D. 

      100 meters behind the lead fire team.

  • 88. 
    When moving as a fire team in an urban area; the fire team crosses open areas…
    • A. 

      One by one

    • B. 

      Two at a time.

    • C. 

      One every five minutes.

    • D. 

      In a group.

  • 89. 
    In a near ambush, when do airman in the kill zone assault through the ambush using fire and movement?
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      Immediately

    • C. 

      When directed

    • D. 

      After all clear is sounded

  • 90. 
    What is the minimum number of feet from the base perimeter for locating a restricted area fence containing protection level 1 resources?
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      225

    • C. 

      250

    • D. 

      275

  • 91. 
    When employed in a physical security role the m870 is effective because?
    • A. 

      It can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipment.

    • B. 

      Entry controllers can stop or slow down vehicles.

    • C. 

      Of its close quarters capabilities.

    • D. 

      Of its psychological effect.

  • 92. 
    How does the leader prevent vehicles from skylining?
    • A. 

      Make use of natural cover and concealment.

    • B. 

      Park on a ridge or crest to prevent silhouetting.

    • C. 

      Drive slowly and deliberately down dark roads.

    • D. 

      Use camouflage paint to break up vehicle outline.

  • 93. 
    Which method of movement is used when enemy contact is possible and speed is desirable?
    • A. 

      Bounding overwatch

    • B. 

      Traveling overwatch

    • C. 

      Bounding

    • D. 

      Traveling

  • 94. 
    If vehicles are not already painted to blend with the terrain, what can you use to break the outline?
    • A. 

      A. Rags

    • B. 

      B. Mud

    • C. 

      C. Tarp

    • D. 

      D. Burlap

  • 95. 
    What are the two basic formations for an ambush?
    • A. 

      Linear and L-shaped

    • B. 

      Linear and column

    • C. 

      Column and flight

    • D. 

      Deep and liner

  • 96. 
    When does the security element rejoin the flight after a hasty ambush?
    • A. 

      A. Upon the squad leader’s discretion.

    • B. 

      When signaled to do so by the flight leader.

    • C. 

      Before the force leader clears the kill zone.

    • D. 

      After the assault element clears the kill zone.

  • 97. 
    What is a retrograde operation?
    • A. 

      Disengaging away from the enemy.

    • B. 

      Retreating to a safe place on the flank.

    • C. 

      Organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.

    • D. 

      Unorganized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.