3P051: Trivia Questions Test On Security Forces Journeyman! Quiz
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- 1.What standard did the US Supreme Court establish for assessing use of force?
- A.
Objective reasonableness
- B.
Subjective reasoning
- C.
Reasonable certainty
- D.
Objective certainty
- 2.Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas?
- A.
Concentric circle
- B.
Item-to-item
- C.
Zone or sector
- D.
Strip and grid
- 3.If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol you may…
- A.
Enter the building to prevent injury or damage.
- B.
Enter the building only to identify suspects.
- C.
Not enter until the flight chief arrives.
- D.
Not enter until you witness an assault.
- 4.Why is it important to keep suspects and witnesses separated?
- A.
So you can interrogate them alone to get the truth.
- B.
So you cannot distort each other’s impression.
- C.
So you can plea bargain with them
- D.
Standing orders.
- 5.What year was the name of the career field changed to “Security Police”?
- A.
1950
- B.
1966
- C.
1971
- D.
1985
- 6.The Security Police shield started out as a/an…
- A.
Distinctive hat worn only by Military Police.
- B.
Military Police/ Air Police brassard.
- C.
4x4 laminated identification card.
- D.
Air police function badge.
- 7.One of the elements of signal operating instructions (SOI) is...
- A.
Accurate supplemental instructions.
- B.
Complete supplemental instructions.
- C.
Brief supplemental instructions.
- D.
Clear supplemental instructions.
- 8.Signal operating instructions (SOI) will allow base defense forces to ensure that communications are…
- A.
Fairly accurate and speedy.
- B.
Concise and accurate.
- C.
Speedy and in-depth.
- D.
Speedy and simplistic.
- 9.Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications?
- A.
Brevity codes.
- B.
Authentic transmissions.
- C.
Localized decoding procedures
- D.
Localized encoding procedures.
- 10.OPSEC enables friendly force information superiority by…
- A.
Attacking adversary information systems with viruses.
- B.
Neutralizing adversary information activities.
- C.
Randomly inspecting OPSEC programs.
- D.
Controlling the output of information.
- 11.What is the last step in the Operations Security (OPSEC) process?
- A.
Application of appropriate measures
- B.
Risk assessment
- C.
Threat analysis
- D.
Reconditioning
- 12.Specific items of information are usually only critical for a prescribed?
- A.
Time phased classification
- B.
Monthly inspection
- C.
Period of time
- D.
Limitation
- 13.The centerpiece of Operations Security (OPSEC) is…
- A.
Threat analysis.
- B.
Risk Management.
- C.
Communications safety.
- D.
Information security.
- 14.What are the four major groups for transmission of communicable diseases?
- A.
Contact, internal, waterborne, insect and animal borne.
- B.
Contact, external, waterborne, insect and animal borne.
- C.
Contact, inhaling, waterborne, insect and animal borne.
- D.
Contact, intestinal, waterborne, insect and animal borne.
- 15.An effective way of defeating crawling insects is…
- A.
Not wearing socks.
- B.
Spraying your boots with Windex.
- C.
Not washing your pants bottoms.
- D.
Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots.
- 16.What is the RX RF bandwidth programmable for?
- A.
133-154 MHz and 203-270 MHz receiver.
- B.
136-174 MHz and 403-470 MHz receiver.
- C.
139-194 MHz and 603-670 MHz receiver.
- D.
154-214 MHz and 803-870 MHz receiver.
- 17.Which statement is a step in base-station installation?
- A.
Finding a good grounding location.
- B.
Inspecting the strap assembly.
- C.
Installing the power supply.
- D.
Setting up the operations tent.
- 18.When installing the power supply, select a flat surface…
- A.
Near the external loudspeaker.
- B.
10 feet from the generator unit.
- C.
Next to the battery recharger.
- D.
6 feet from the base station.
- 19.What do we call arranging material around an object so that it appears to be part of line background?
- A.
Hiding
- B.
Blending
- C.
Deceiving
- D.
Natural forming
- 20.An example of artificial cover is a...
- A.
Foxhole.
- B.
Ravine.
- C.
Bush.
- D.
Tree.
- 21.What type of cover are ravines, reverse slopes and hollows?
- A.
Artificial
- B.
Foxholes
- C.
Natural
- D.
Walls
- 22.Bushes, grass, and shadows are examples of…
- A.
Artificial concealment.
- B.
Natural concealment.
- C.
Manmade obstacles.
- D.
Natural cover.
- 23.Secure PL1 resources by…
- A.
Providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.
- B.
Posting sentries when IDS is not installed or operational.
- C.
Ensuring proper training of assigned personnel.
- D.
Posting external response force elements.
- 24.What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn’t fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or military department?
- A.
Controlled
- B.
Restricted
- C.
Disaster response
- D.
National Defense
- 25.What is the function of the augmentation force if a nuclear weapon has been taken?
- A.
To protect the remaining nuclear weapons that have not been taken.
- B.
Let the response force and backup force handle the situation.
- C.
To setup base defense positions around the perimeter.
- D.
To assist in recapture and recovery operations.
- 26.One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet is to...
- A.
Transmit letters and numbers.
- B.
Always transmit letters, not numbers.
- C.
Remember the last letter you receive must be even and set
- D.
Remember that the first three letters you pass or receive must be set letters.
- 27.Why should you recover field wire after an operation?
- A.
So the next deployment squad doesn’t use it.
- B.
Leaving used wire makes future operations easier.
- C.
So that the enemy can use it or interfere with other operations.
- D.
So that you won’t have to figure out which wires are being used.
- 28.After the conductors have been cut, how many inches should they be staggered when splicing field wire?
- A.
6
- B.
8
- C.
10
- D.
12
- 29.Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with…
- A.
Too much money, divorce, and work problems.
- B.
Pending legal action, work problems, or having fun.
- C.
Loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce.
- D.
Relationship difficulties, divorce, and going on vacation.
- 30.Microorganisms in blood that cause disease are?
- A.
“A” cells
- B.
White blood cells
- C.
Cancer causing cells
- D.
Blood borne pathogens
- 31.The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?
- A.
Sweat
- B.
Blood
- C.
Syringes
- D.
Body fluids
- 32.What has the tendency to cause rusting and malfunctions in radios?
- A.
Submersion in 6 inches of water
- B.
Dead batteries
- C.
Bad antennas
- D.
Weapons oil
- 33.What is the first step in erecting the antenna mast?
- A.
Selecting a wooded area for concealment.
- B.
Assembling the antenna mast anchors.
- C.
Selecting an unobstructed site.
- D.
Camouflaging the antenna.
- 34.What position should you assume to observe around corners of buildings?
- A.
Crouching
- B.
Standing
- C.
Kneeling
- D.
Prone
- 35.What method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required?
- A.
Cornering
- B.
Skipping
- C.
Bursting
- D.
Pie-ing
- 36.Likelihood of enemy contact we divide into three categories;
- A.
Expected, possible and likely.
- B.
Likely, expected and observed.
- C.
Not likely, possible and expected.
- D.
Threat analysis, not likely and ambushes.
- 37.What areas do you avoid because they outline you against the lighter sky?
- A.
Ditches
- B.
Skylines
- C.
Windows
- D.
Reverse slopes
- 38.Where is the guard receiver-transmitter installed in the base station?
- A.
On top
- B.
Left side
- C.
Right side
- D.
Center slot
- 39.When is the programming cable used with the base station?
- A.
For headset use.
- B.
In desert climates.
- C.
When using giant voice connections.
- D.
For external programming of the portable radio communication (PRC) 139.
- 40.What is one of the causes for failure of the push-to-talk (PTT) button on the portable radio communication (PRC) 139?
- A.
Lack of power
- B.
Operator error
- C.
Dry circuits
- D.
Dirt
- 41.Factors we use to determine movement techniques are control, dispersion, speed and…
- A.
Cover.
- B.
Security.
- C.
Fire support.
- D.
Concealment.
- 42.Which movement technique do we use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely?
- A.
Traveling
- B.
Wedge formation
- C.
Traveling overwatch
- D.
Bounding overwatch
- 43.In the traveling formation the team leader is best located?
- A.
With the lead fire team.
- B.
At the rear of the formation.
- C.
Out in the front of the formation.
- D.
Between the first and second fire team.
- 44.Where would the two-person concept apply with respect to security forces performing entry control duties?
- A.
No-lone zone
- B.
Restricted zone
- C.
Controlled area
- D.
Two-person zone
- 45.The first step in connecting the lines to the TA-312 is…
- A.
Strip away 1 inch of insulation from the ends of the two wires.
- B.
Seat the handset firmly in the retaining cradle.
- C.
Adjust buzzer volume control knob to loud.
- D.
Turn the INT-EXT switch to INT.
- 46.To operate the TA-312/PT in the LB mode you must…
- A.
Remove H60? PT from the cradle and wait for the operator to answer.
- B.
Press the press-to-talk switch and release to listen.
- C.
Place the INT/EXT switch to INT position.
- D.
Ensure the INT/EXT switch is on EXT.
- 47.When operating the SB-22, the operator uses the generator hand wheel to…
- A.
Ring forward or ring back when extending off telephone circuits.
- B.
Provide connection for the operator’s telephone set.
- C.
Signal the called party when calls are extended.
- D.
Answer incoming calls.
- 48.What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?
- A.
Waterproof clothing bags
- B.
Change them frequently
- C.
Tree branches
- D.
Mosquito nets
- 49.What is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field?
- A.
Fires
- B.
Stress
- C.
Major accidents
- D.
Traffic accidents
- 50.Which Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) uses physical presence to demonstrate US resolve?
- A.
Arms control
- B.
Show of force
- C.
Enforcement sanctions
- D.
Foreign humanitarian assistance
- 51.What is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
- A.
Department of State
- B.
Department of Justice
- C.
Department of Defense
- D.
Federal Bureau of Investigation
- 52.Which is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur inside of the US?
- A.
Department of State
- B.
Department of Justice
- C.
Department of Defense
- D.
Central Intelligence Agency
- 53.On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and…
- A.
Loaded chamber indicator.
- B.
Reset the firing pin block.
- C.
Chambering.
- D.
Releasing slide.
- 54.What ball is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
- A.
M862
- B.
M882
- C.
M855
- D.
M856
- 55.M822 ammunition is used against what type of target?
- A.
Antipersonnel vehicle
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Vehicles
- D.
Tanks
- 56.How much candlepower illumination does the M49A1 give off?
- A.
15,000
- B.
20,000
- C.
30,000
- D.
40,000
- 57.What is the purpose of the safety clip on the M49A1?
- A.
Secures the spoon
- B.
Holds the detonator
- C.
Used to secure the flare
- D.
Secures the safety clip holes
- 58.When moving tactically, your survival depends largely on your ability to…
- A.
Move quickly.
- B.
Camouflage yourself.
- C.
Execute basic movements.
- D.
Crawl for long periods of time.
- 59.What could you use as a hasty firing position in built up areas?
- A.
Roof
- B.
Field
- C.
Culvert
- D.
Sandbags
- 60.While on the offensive, the squad uses obstacles to…
- A.
Evade the enemy.
- B.
Isolate objectives.
- C.
Protect defending units.
- D.
Slow the enemy’s advance.
- 61.How many meters is the kill radius for high explosive rounds?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
- 62.Under what conditions would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
- A.
Under no circumstances
- B.
When directed
- C.
Emergencies
- D.
Last resort
- 63.What type of M249 ammunition is used during dry-fire exercises?
- A.
M199 Dummy
- B.
M200 Blank
- C.
M855 Ball
- D.
M856 Tracer
- 64.There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?
- A.
Personal life and job
- B.
Personal life and nightclubs
- C.
Job and recreational activities
- D.
Job and off-duty employment
- 65.What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
- A.
Finding the right stress medication
- B.
Recognizing stressors
- C.
Running daily
- D.
Relaxing
- 66.What is the main disadvantage of direct observation?
- A.
You can’t approach an area without being detected.
- B.
Observer looks directly at object for along period of time.
- C.
Observer can readily see movement of personnel or equipment.
- D.
Physical condition of the observer may affect power of observation.
- 67.The minimum and maximum grade authorized before being considered for sharpshooter is?
- A.
Amn - SrA
- B.
SrA - SSgt
- C.
SSgt - TSgt
- D.
SrA - MSgt
- 68.M24 is effective against point targets out to how many meters?
- A.
400
- B.
600
- C.
800
- D.
1,000
- 69.What are the three common characteristics hand grenades share?
- A.
Mid-range employment and delay element for throwing.
- B.
Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing.
- C.
Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.
- D.
Medium employment range, short casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.
- 70.Which movement technique is preferred when you are under enemy observation or fire?
- A.
Rush
- B.
Roll
- C.
Crawl
- D.
High crawl
- 71.Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner we call?
- A.
Flagging
- B.
Marking
- C.
Posting
- D.
Stabbing
- 72.All personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will…
- A.
Receive firearms training based their duty tasking.
- B.
Receive firearms training based their rank and status.
- C.
Receive firearms training based on use of force requirements.
- D.
Receive firearms training based their assigned arming group (Group A & B)
- 73.Individual weapons training programs are outlined in?
- A.
AFI 31-201, Security Police Procedures.
- B.
AFI 31-101, Installation Security Programs.
- C.
AFMAN 31-201, Volume 1, Security Forces History and Organization.
- D.
AFMAN 36-2226, Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons.
- 74.What forms is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
- A.
AF Form 522 Ground Weapon Training Data.
- B.
AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt.
- C.
AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard.
- D.
AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
- 75.How many meters is the average person is capable of throwing a hand grenade?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
40
- 76.The hand grenade safety clip prevents the safety lever from…
- A.
Springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed.
- B.
Accidentally breaking loose if dropped inadvertently.
- C.
Accidentally arming the grenade when being removed.
- D.
Springing open if the safety pin is damaged.
- 77.How can the M72 LAW employed and fired?
- A.
Shoulder, sitting, and only prone position.
- B.
Sitting, kneeling, and over barricade position.
- C.
Standing, kneeling, and over barricade position.
- D.
Shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling.
- 78.The use of prowords in radio communication help…
- A.
Aids in transmitting and reception.
- B.
Clarify understanding of the message being sent.
- C.
Distract and confuse unauthorized listeners.
- D.
Shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception.
- 79.Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they…
- A.
Are of the same sex as inmate.
- B.
Are of opposite sex of the inmate.
- C.
Have unfavorable information file.
- D.
Are personally involved with the inmate.
- 80.What principle of employment reduces the enemy’s ability to remove or breach obstacles?
- A.
Support the tactical plan
- B.
Constructed in depth
- C.
Covered by observation and fire
- D.
Employed for surprise
- 81.At what intervals are restricted area signs displayed along the restricted area boundary?
- A.
25 foot
- B.
50 foot
- C.
75 foot
- D.
100 foot
- 82.How many lines of detection must Security Forces (SF) establish for PL non-nuclear?
- A.
One line at the structure or exposed resources.
- B.
Two lines at the restricted area boundary only.
- C.
One line at the restricted area boundary and one line at the structure.
- D.
Two lines at the restricted area boundary and two lines at the structure.
- 83.All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either…
- A.
Pretrial detainee, post-trial inmates, or casual.
- B.
Pretrial detainee or post-trail detainee.
- C.
Post-trial inmate or trial inmate.
- D.
Pretrial casual or casual.
- 84.All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within…
- A.
24 hours.
- B.
24 hours or the next duty day.
- C.
48 hours.
- D.
72 hours or as soon as possible.
- 85.What can you use to clean your mouth effectively in the absence of other means?
- A.
Salt water
- B.
Sulfuric acid
- C.
Tree branches
- D.
Weapons cleaning brush
- 86.The sights of the AT4 resemble the sights of what other weapon?
- A.
M-16 rifle
- B.
M-4 carbine
- C.
M240B machine gun
- D.
M249 SAW
- 87.In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located…
- A.
10 meters from the front.
- B.
In front of the team leader.
- C.
50 meters behind the lead fire team.
- D.
100 meters behind the lead fire team.
- 88.When moving as a fire team in an urban area; the fire team crosses open areas…
- A.
One by one
- B.
Two at a time.
- C.
One every five minutes.
- D.
In a group.
- 89.In a near ambush, when do airman in the kill zone assault through the ambush using fire and movement?
- A.
Never
- B.
Immediately
- C.
When directed
- D.
After all clear is sounded
- 90.What is the minimum number of feet from the base perimeter for locating a restricted area fence containing protection level 1 resources?
- A.
200
- B.
225
- C.
250
- D.
275
- 91.When employed in a physical security role the m870 is effective because?
- A.
It can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipment.
- B.
Entry controllers can stop or slow down vehicles.
- C.
Of its close quarters capabilities.
- D.
Of its psychological effect.
- 92.How does the leader prevent vehicles from skylining?
- A.
Make use of natural cover and concealment.
- B.
Park on a ridge or crest to prevent silhouetting.
- C.
Drive slowly and deliberately down dark roads.
- D.
Use camouflage paint to break up vehicle outline.
- 93.Which method of movement is used when enemy contact is possible and speed is desirable?
- A.
Bounding overwatch
- B.
Traveling overwatch
- C.
Bounding
- D.
Traveling
- 94.If vehicles are not already painted to blend with the terrain, what can you use to break the outline?
- A.
A. Rags
- B.
B. Mud
- C.
C. Tarp
- D.
D. Burlap
- 95.What are the two basic formations for an ambush?
- A.
Linear and L-shaped
- B.
Linear and column
- C.
Column and flight
- D.
Deep and liner
- 96.When does the security element rejoin the flight after a hasty ambush?
- A.
A. Upon the squad leader’s discretion.
- B.
When signaled to do so by the flight leader.
- C.
Before the force leader clears the kill zone.
- D.
After the assault element clears the kill zone.
- 97.What is a retrograde operation?
- A.
Disengaging away from the enemy.
- B.
Retreating to a safe place on the flank.
- C.
Organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.
- D.
Unorganized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.
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