1s051 Volume II Pretest (For Reference Use Only)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (221) All Air Force personnel must wear seatbelts at all times with the exception of

    • Off-duty military personnel driving off base.
    • Civilians performing official duties off base.
    • Military personnel in base housing areas.
    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations agents performing protective services.
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USAF Safety Journeyman Volume II Pretest (FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY)

1s051 Volume II Pretest (For Reference Use Only) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (213) Which type of hammer should be used for heading rivets?

    • Claw.

    • Mallet.

    • Sledge.

    • Ball peen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ball peen.
    Explanation
    A ball peen hammer should be used for heading rivets because it has a rounded end and a flat end. The rounded end is used to shape the rivet and the flat end is used to strike the rivet, creating a secure and tight fit. The ball peen hammer is specifically designed for metalworking tasks like riveting, making it the most suitable choice for this purpose.

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  • 3. 

    (219) In a machine shop, how many inches wide should aisles be to permit free movement of workers and equipment?

    • 12.

    • 18.

    • 24.

    • 36.

    Correct Answer
    A. 36.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 36. In a machine shop, it is important to have wide aisles to allow for free movement of workers and equipment. A wider aisle ensures that there is enough space for workers to maneuver around machinery and for equipment to be safely transported. A narrower aisle may restrict movement and increase the risk of accidents or damage to equipment. Therefore, a width of 36 inches is recommended to provide ample space for safe and efficient movement in a machine shop.

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  • 4. 

    (221) What is the speed limit for forklifts inside of warehouses?

    • 20 miles per hour (mph).

    • 15 mph.

    • 10 mph.

    • 5 mph.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 mph.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5 mph. Forklifts have a lower speed limit inside warehouses to ensure safety. Operating at a slower speed allows for better control and maneuverability, reducing the risk of accidents or collisions in the confined space of a warehouse. Additionally, a lower speed limit helps to minimize damage to goods and equipment that may be present in the warehouse.

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  • 5. 

    (225) Which is an example of ionizing radiation?

    • Visible light.

    • Gamma rays.

    • Microwaves.

    • Sound waves.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gamma rays.
    Explanation
    Gamma rays are an example of ionizing radiation because they have high energy and can remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, creating ions. This process can cause damage to living cells and genetic material. Visible light, microwaves, and sound waves, on the other hand, are non-ionizing radiation and do not have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms.

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  • 6. 

    (211) During an inspection, if you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, you should

    • Have additional extinguishers installed.

    • Submit AF Form 979 to the installation manager.

    • Refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel.

    • Have all flammable and explosive substances removed from the building.

    Correct Answer
    A. Refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel.
    Explanation
    If during an inspection, you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, the correct course of action is to refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel. Fire prevention personnel are trained and knowledgeable in fire safety regulations and can assess the facility's fire extinguisher needs and provide guidance on the appropriate number and placement of extinguishers. They can also assist in ensuring that the facility is in compliance with fire safety regulations. Having additional extinguishers installed or submitting AF Form 979 to the installation manager may not be the appropriate actions without consulting fire prevention personnel. Having all flammable and explosive substances removed from the building is not directly related to the issue of inadequate fire extinguishers.

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  • 7. 

    (213) Which hammer is made for heavy hitting?

    • Claw.

    • Mallet.

    • Sledge.

    • Ball peen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sledge.
    Explanation
    A sledge hammer is specifically designed for heavy hitting. It has a large, heavy head that is used for tasks that require a lot of force, such as breaking through concrete or driving in stakes. The weight and size of the sledge hammer allow for maximum impact, making it the ideal choice for heavy-duty jobs. The other options, such as the claw hammer, mallet, and ball peen hammer, are not designed for heavy hitting and are better suited for different tasks.

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  • 8. 

    (214) What common behavior creates safety hazards when using screwdrivers?

    • Holding the screwdriver incorrectly.

    • Using the wrong kind of screwdriver for the task.

    • Not using required personal protective equipment.

    • Using screwdrivers that have not been approved by the Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. Using the wrong kind of screwdriver for the task.
    Explanation
    Using the wrong kind of screwdriver for the task can create safety hazards. Different types of screwdrivers are designed for specific purposes, such as Phillips, flathead, or Torx screwdrivers. Using the wrong type of screwdriver can result in the tool slipping or not fitting properly, leading to accidents such as injuries to the user or damage to the screw or surrounding materials. It is important to use the appropriate screwdriver to ensure proper and safe use.

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  • 9. 

    (219) The floor loading capacity of a machine shop is determined by the

    • Installation bioenvironmental engineer.

    • Installation civil engineer.

    • Shop supervisor.

    • Safety personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation civil engineer.
    Explanation
    The installation civil engineer is responsible for determining the floor loading capacity of a machine shop. This is because the civil engineer specializes in the design, construction, and maintenance of structures, including the calculation of load-bearing capacities. They have the expertise to assess the structural integrity of the floor and ensure that it can support the weight of the machinery and equipment in the shop. The bioenvironmental engineer, shop supervisor, and safety personnel may have roles related to safety and environmental factors, but they are not specifically trained in determining floor loading capacities.

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  • 10. 

    (201) The amount of light to be provided in a given location is based on

    • The purpose for which the location is used.

    • The availability of supplementary lighting.

    • Factors such as harsh glare and shadows.

    • The quality of the available lighting.

    Correct Answer
    A. The purpose for which the location is used.
    Explanation
    The amount of light to be provided in a given location is determined by the purpose for which the location is used. Different activities require different levels of lighting. For example, a workspace may require bright and focused lighting to ensure productivity, while a relaxation area may require softer and dimmer lighting to create a calming atmosphere. Therefore, the purpose of the location plays a crucial role in determining the appropriate amount of light needed.

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  • 11. 

    (203) What solution is a last resort for controlling exposure to hazards?

    • Personal protective equipment.

    • Substitution.

    • Revision.

    • Isolation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal protective equipment.
    Explanation
    Personal protective equipment (PPE) is the last resort for controlling exposure to hazards because it provides a physical barrier between the worker and the hazard. PPE includes items such as gloves, safety glasses, helmets, and respirators, which help to minimize the risk of injury or illness. While other control measures like substitution, revision, or isolation may be more effective in eliminating or reducing hazards, PPE is used when these measures are not feasible or do not provide sufficient protection. PPE acts as a final line of defense to ensure the safety and well-being of workers in hazardous environments.

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  • 12. 

    (205) Who must sign the entry permit prior to workers entering a confined space?

    • Entrants only.

    • Attendant only.

    • Supervisor only.

    • Supervisor and entrants.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor and entrants.
    Explanation
    The supervisor and entrants must sign the entry permit prior to workers entering a confined space. This is important to ensure that all parties involved are aware of the risks and safety measures associated with entering the confined space. The supervisor's signature indicates that they have assessed the conditions and deemed it safe for workers to enter, while the entrants' signature signifies their understanding and agreement to follow the necessary protocols for their own safety.

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  • 13. 

    (208) Which equipment protects the upper part of the foot from hot metal splashes?

    • Spats.

    • Toe guards.

    • Safety toe shoes.

    • Conductive shoes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spats.
    Explanation
    Spats are protective equipment that cover the upper part of the foot, providing protection from hot metal splashes. They are typically made of heat-resistant materials and are designed to shield the foot from potential burns or injuries caused by molten metal. Toe guards, safety toe shoes, and conductive shoes may offer protection to some extent, but they do not specifically protect the upper part of the foot from hot metal splashes like spats do.

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  • 14. 

    (220) Which traffic safety course may be commander directed for personnel who are convicted of serious traffic violations?

    • I.

    • II.

    • IVB.

    • V.

    Correct Answer
    A. V.
  • 15. 

    (221) Who determines (or designates someone to determine) when and where off road vehicles may operate on base?

    • Chief of safety.

    • Traffic safety engineer.

    • Ground safety manager.

    • Installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for determining when and where off-road vehicles may operate on base. They have the authority to designate someone to make these determinations on their behalf. The chief of safety, traffic safety engineer, and ground safety manager may have roles in ensuring the safe operation of off-road vehicles, but the ultimate decision-making authority lies with the installation commander.

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  • 16. 

    (223) A traffic engineering study would be useful when

    • A hazard report identifies an intersection with a high number of accidents.

    • A special event will increase the volume of traffic on base.

    • The commander wants to know what percentage of Airmen are wearing seat belts.

    • A large number of students fail traffic safety courses.

    Correct Answer
    A. A hazard report identifies an intersection with a high number of accidents.
    Explanation
    A traffic engineering study would be useful when a hazard report identifies an intersection with a high number of accidents because it would allow traffic engineers to analyze the intersection and determine the causes of the accidents. They can then propose and implement appropriate measures to improve the safety of the intersection, such as installing traffic signals, adjusting speed limits, or adding signage. The study would help in identifying the specific issues contributing to the accidents and finding effective solutions to prevent future accidents at that location.

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  • 17. 

    (208) Which type glove must be used as outer protection when rubber insulating gloves are being used?

    • Cotton.

    • Wool.

    • Leather.

    • Synthetic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Leather.
    Explanation
    When rubber insulating gloves are being used, leather gloves must be worn as outer protection. Leather gloves provide additional protection against physical hazards such as cuts, abrasions, and punctures. They also offer good grip and dexterity, making them suitable for handling tools and equipment. Cotton and wool gloves do not provide the same level of protection as leather gloves, while synthetic gloves may not have the same durability and resistance to wear and tear. Therefore, leather gloves are the most appropriate choice for outer protection in this scenario.

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  • 18. 

    (208) Which class safety-toe shoe is the only one approved for use by Air Force personnel?

    • Class 25.

    • Class 35.

    • Class 50.

    • Class 75.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class 75.
    Explanation
    Class 75 is the only safety-toe shoe approved for use by Air Force personnel. This suggests that the Air Force has specific safety requirements that must be met, and Class 75 shoes meet these requirements. The other classes (25, 35, and 50) are not approved for use, indicating that they do not meet the necessary standards for Air Force personnel.

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  • 19. 

    (214) Which type of pliers is used for general electric work where space is limited?

    • Adjustable combination.

    • Diagonal-cutting.

    • Side-cutting.

    • Long-nose.

    Correct Answer
    A. Long-nose.
    Explanation
    Long-nose pliers are used for general electric work where space is limited because of their slim and elongated jaws. These pliers have a pointed tip that allows for better access and maneuverability in tight spaces. They are commonly used for tasks such as bending wires, gripping small objects, and reaching into confined areas. The other types of pliers mentioned, such as adjustable combination, diagonal-cutting, and side-cutting, may have their own specific uses but are not specifically designed for work in limited spaces.

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  • 20. 

    (214) What factor controls the “binding” of hacksaw blades?

    • Angle of approach to the stock.

    • Type of frame used.

    • Oiling of the blade.

    • Set of the teeth.

    Correct Answer
    A. Set of the teeth.
    Explanation
    The factor that controls the "binding" of hacksaw blades is the set of the teeth. The set refers to the alternate bending of the teeth in opposite directions, creating a slight angle between them. This allows the blade to cut a wider kerf and prevents the blade from getting stuck or binding in the material being cut.

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  • 21. 

    (215) When using a portable sander, what should be done to protect the motor from overheating?

    • Tilt the sanding disk so the entire disk does not contact the surface at the same time.

    • Limit the work area to no more than 18 inches at a time.

    • Switch the sander on before placing it on the work.

    • Apply only light pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply only light pressure.
    Explanation
    Applying only light pressure when using a portable sander helps to protect the motor from overheating. Excessive pressure can cause the motor to work harder, generating more heat and potentially leading to overheating. By applying only light pressure, the motor can operate at a more optimal level, reducing the risk of overheating and prolonging the lifespan of the sander.

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  • 22. 

    (218) If a machine guard opens when stock is moved into the danger area and returns to a rest position when the stock is removed, that guard is

    • Fixed.

    • Adjustable.

    • Interlocking.

    • Self-adjusting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-adjusting.
    Explanation
    A self-adjusting machine guard is one that opens automatically when stock is moved into the danger area and returns to its original position when the stock is removed. This type of guard does not require any manual adjustment or intervention from the operator. It is designed to adapt to the movement of the stock, providing continuous protection without the need for constant adjustment.

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  • 23. 

    (222) What is a good way to gauge the impact of your restraint awareness program?

    • Perform a restraint usage survey before and after the program.

    • Have squadron safety representatives survey their personnel.

    • Interview several base personnel about the impact of the program.

    • Ask security forces how many tickets are written for failure to wear seat belts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform a restraint usage survey before and after the program.
    Explanation
    Performing a restraint usage survey before and after the program is a good way to gauge the impact of the restraint awareness program. This method allows for objective measurement of the program's effectiveness by comparing the usage of restraints by individuals before and after the program. It provides quantitative data that can indicate whether the program has successfully increased awareness and compliance with restraint usage. This approach is more reliable and accurate than relying on subjective opinions or anecdotal evidence from interviews or surveys conducted by squadron safety representatives or base personnel. Additionally, asking security forces about the number of tickets written for failure to wear seat belts may not provide a comprehensive picture of the program's impact as it only focuses on one aspect of restraint usage.

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  • 24. 

    (210) If during an annual inspection of the child development center you identify and document several fire deficiencies, what should be your next course of action?

    • Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action.

    • Report them to the child development center management for action.

    • Take immediate action to correct the fire deficiencies.

    • Assign risk assessment codes as required.

    Correct Answer
    A. Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action.
    Explanation
    If during an annual inspection of the child development center you identify and document several fire deficiencies, the next course of action should be to report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action. This is because the fire department is responsible for ensuring fire safety and can take appropriate measures to address the deficiencies and mitigate any potential risks. Reporting to the child development center management may also be necessary, but involving the fire department is crucial to ensure prompt and effective action. Taking immediate action to correct the fire deficiencies may not be feasible without the expertise and resources of the fire department. Assigning risk assessment codes is not mentioned as a necessary step in the given scenario.

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  • 25. 

    (214) Which precaution must you take to avoid possible injury, as well as damage to the saw, when you are cutting stock?

    • Use personal protective equipment and guards.

    • Cut the stock parallel to the grain.

    • Cut the stock across the grain.

    • Adequately secure the stock.

    Correct Answer
    A. Adequately secure the stock.
    Explanation
    To avoid possible injury and damage to the saw when cutting stock, it is important to adequately secure the stock. This ensures that the stock does not move or shift during the cutting process, reducing the risk of accidents or mistakes. By securely holding the stock in place, it allows for more precise and controlled cuts, preventing potential injuries and damage to the saw. Using personal protective equipment and guards is also important for safety, but the most immediate precaution to take in this scenario is to secure the stock properly.

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  • 26. 

    (215) On an electric drill, the chuck

    • Must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit.

    • Must be released before the drill is turned on.

    • Should be loosely attached to the drill bit.

    • Must be depressed to release the lock.

    Correct Answer
    A. Must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit.
    Explanation
    The chuck of an electric drill must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit to ensure stability and prevent the bit from slipping or becoming loose during operation. This allows for accurate drilling and reduces the risk of accidents or damage to the workpiece.

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  • 27. 

    (215) A twist drill bit with four flutes should only be used to

    • Start holes in sheet metal.

    • Start holes in plaster.

    • Enlarge cored holes.

    • Drill into plaster.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enlarge cored holes.
    Explanation
    A twist drill bit with four flutes is designed to remove material quickly and efficiently. It is not suitable for starting holes in sheet metal or plaster as it may cause the material to crack or break. Instead, it is specifically designed to enlarge cored holes, which are pre-existing holes that need to be made larger. This type of drill bit is able to remove material from the sides of the hole and create a larger opening without causing damage to the surrounding material.

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  • 28. 

    (216) Maintenance on soldering irons and guns is primarily centered on the

    • Tips.

    • Handle.

    • Shank.

    • Power cord.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tips.
    Explanation
    Maintenance on soldering irons and guns primarily focuses on the tips because the tip is the part of the soldering iron that comes into direct contact with the solder and the components being soldered. Over time, the tip can become dirty, corroded, or worn out, which can affect the quality of the solder joints. Regular maintenance of the tips includes cleaning, tinning, and replacing them when necessary to ensure proper heat transfer and efficient soldering. The handle, shank, and power cord are also important components, but they generally require less maintenance compared to the tips.

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  • 29. 

    (217) To prevent mishaps involving machinery, the best action, which should be pursued first, is to

    • Educate the worker.

    • Engineer hazards out.

    • Use machine guards for existing hazards.

    • Provide personal protective equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineer hazards out.
    Explanation
    The best action to prevent mishaps involving machinery is to engineer hazards out. This means identifying and eliminating or reducing potential hazards in the design and construction of machinery. By addressing the root cause of the hazards, it is possible to create a safer working environment and minimize the risk of accidents or injuries. Educating workers, using machine guards, and providing personal protective equipment are important measures as well, but they should be implemented after engineering hazards out to ensure comprehensive safety.

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  • 30. 

    (224) Who is responsible for the initial classification of new lasers?

    • A panel of industry and defense personnel.

    • National Laser Safety Institute.

    • The manufacturer.

    • The user.

    Correct Answer
    A. The manufacturer.
    Explanation
    The manufacturer is responsible for the initial classification of new lasers because they are the ones who design, produce, and distribute the lasers. They have the expertise and knowledge to determine the appropriate classification based on factors such as power output, wavelength, and potential hazards. The manufacturer must ensure that the laser meets the necessary safety standards and guidelines before it is sold or used by the customers.

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  • 31. 

    (203) Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation illustrates the hazard control method of

    • Isolation.

    • Revision.

    • Substitution.

    • Personal protective equipment (PPE).

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolation.
    Explanation
    Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation is a method of isolating the worker from the hazard. This physical barrier acts as a form of protection by preventing direct contact between the worker and the hazardous operation, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries. Isolation is an effective hazard control method as it eliminates or minimizes the worker's exposure to the hazard, ensuring their safety.

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  • 32. 

    (205) All members of confined-space rescue teams must have hands-on training in removing victims at least every

    • Six months.

    • 12 months.

    • 18 months.

    • 24 months.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 months.
    Explanation
    Confined-space rescue teams need to have hands-on training in removing victims regularly to ensure they are prepared and proficient in their skills. The correct answer is 12 months, which means that the members of these teams should receive this training at least once every year. This frequency allows them to stay updated with the latest techniques and protocols, ensuring their ability to safely and effectively rescue victims from confined spaces.

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  • 33. 

    (206) A toxic gas and vapor concentration of three percent is considered

    • Low.

    • Normal.

    • Moderately high.

    • Very high.

    Correct Answer
    A. Very high.
    Explanation
    A toxic gas and vapor concentration of three percent is considered very high because it poses a significant risk to human health. At this concentration, exposure to the gas or vapor can cause severe health effects and even be life-threatening. It is crucial to take immediate action to minimize exposure and evacuate the area to ensure the safety of individuals.

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  • 34. 

    (209) What is the minimum distance a strip of insulating matting must extend past each end of a work area?

    • Two feet.

    • Three feet.

    • Four feet.

    • Five feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two feet.
    Explanation
    Insulating matting is used to provide electrical insulation and protect workers from electric shocks. The minimum distance that a strip of insulating matting must extend past each end of a work area is two feet. This ensures that there is enough coverage to prevent accidental contact with live electrical parts. Extending the matting beyond the work area provides an additional safety buffer and reduces the risk of electrical accidents.

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  • 35. 

    (210) What elements must be present in order for a fire to start?

    • Fuel, heat, carbon dioxide, and chemical reaction.

    • Fuel, oxygen, combustible, and chemical reaction.

    • Fuel, heat, carbon dioxide, and oxygen.

    • Fuel, heat, oxygen, and chemical reaction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel, heat, oxygen, and chemical reaction.
    Explanation
    In order for a fire to start, four elements must be present: fuel, heat, oxygen, and a chemical reaction. Fuel provides the material to burn, heat provides the energy to initiate the reaction, oxygen acts as the oxidizing agent, and the chemical reaction is the process of combustion that releases heat and light. Without any of these elements, a fire cannot occur.

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  • 36. 

    (212) Which color code is used for piping system containers that contain radioactive substances?  

    • Lime yellow.

    • Magenta.

    • Orange.

    • Yellow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Magenta.
    Explanation
    Magenta is the color code used for piping system containers that contain radioactive substances. This color is chosen because it is easily distinguishable and helps to alert individuals to the potential danger associated with radioactive materials. It serves as a visual indicator to ensure proper handling and safety protocols are followed when dealing with these substances.

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  • 37. 

    (226) Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, is caused by

    • Activities that require rotation of the forearm and bending of the wrist at the same time.

    • The repeated tensing of a muscle while overusing the wrist.

    • Activities that require twisting motions of the hands.

    • Activities that have jerky throwing motions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Activities that have jerky throwing motions.
    Explanation
    Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, is caused by activities that have jerky throwing motions. This condition is characterized by inflammation and pain on the outside of the elbow. The repetitive and forceful motions involved in jerky throwing can strain the tendons in the elbow, leading to the development of tennis elbow. Activities such as throwing a ball or participating in certain sports like tennis or baseball can put individuals at risk for this condition.

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  • 38. 

    (227) For a shop where workers are exposed to bloodborne pathogens, when must the exposure control plan be reviewed and updated?

    • Six months prior to a safety inspection.

    • Monthly or whenever an exposure occurs.

    • Annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure.

    • Twice annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure.
    Explanation
    The exposure control plan for a shop where workers are exposed to bloodborne pathogens must be reviewed and updated annually. Additionally, it should also be updated whenever modified tasks affect exposure. This is important to ensure that the plan remains effective and up to date with any changes in the work environment or tasks that may impact the exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

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  • 39. 

    (202) Noise exposure limits are established by the

    • Bioenvironmental engineering office.

    • Director of base medical services.

    • USAF surgeon general.

    • Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    A. USAF surgeon general.
    Explanation
    The USAF surgeon general is responsible for establishing noise exposure limits. This individual oversees the medical services of the entire Air Force and has the authority to set guidelines and regulations to ensure the health and safety of personnel. As noise exposure can have detrimental effects on hearing and overall well-being, it is within the purview of the surgeon general to establish these limits. The bioenvironmental engineering office, director of base medical services, and installation commander may have involvement in implementing and enforcing these limits, but the ultimate authority lies with the USAF surgeon general.

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  • 40. 

    (202) In the hearing conservation program, the safety professional

    • Designates noise-hazard areas.

    • Decides who has to be tested for hearing loss.

    • Implements noise protection in building design.

    • Conducts follow-up inspections to ensure program compliance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conducts follow-up inspections to ensure program compliance.
    Explanation
    In the hearing conservation program, the safety professional conducts follow-up inspections to ensure program compliance. This means that after implementing the necessary measures to protect against noise hazards and testing individuals for hearing loss, the safety professional is responsible for conducting regular inspections to ensure that the program is being followed and that all necessary precautions are being taken to prevent hearing loss. This helps to ensure the effectiveness of the program and maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 41. 

    (204) What agency reviews the initial design for any ventilation system to be used in Air Force environments?

    • Wing safety.

    • Public health.

    • Base medical services.

    • Bioenvironmental engineering.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental engineering.
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental engineering is the correct answer because this agency is responsible for reviewing the initial design of ventilation systems in Air Force environments. They ensure that the systems meet the necessary safety and health standards to protect the personnel and maintain a suitable environment.

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  • 42. 

    (205) Which of the following conditions creates a hazardous atmosphere?

    • The presence of flammable gas in any amount.

    • Any space that is not designed for continuous occupancy.

    • The presence of an atmospheric oxygen concentration of 20 percent.

    • The presence of a flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower explosive limit.

    Correct Answer
    A. The presence of a flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower explosive limit.
    Explanation
    The presence of a flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower explosive limit creates a hazardous atmosphere. Flammable gases can ignite and cause explosions if they reach a certain concentration in the air. The lower explosive limit is the minimum concentration of a gas or vapor that is required to ignite in the presence of an ignition source. If the concentration of a flammable gas exceeds 10 percent of its lower explosive limit, it poses a significant risk of causing an explosion, making the atmosphere hazardous.

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  • 43. 

    (207) Which type of goggles is designed to protect the eyes from relatively large particles flying from any direction?

    • Wire screen.

    • Spectacle.

    • Chippers.

    • Welding.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chippers.
    Explanation
    Chippers goggles are designed to protect the eyes from relatively large particles flying from any direction. This type of goggles typically has a wraparound design with side shields to provide maximum coverage and protection. The goggles are made with impact-resistant materials and have a snug fit to prevent any particles from entering the eyes. They are commonly used in industries such as construction, woodworking, and metalworking where there is a high risk of flying debris.

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  • 44. 

    (208) Who is responsible for testing rubber insulating gloves and ensuring relevant records are maintained?

    • Safety professional.

    • Civil engineering electric shop.

    • Individual user.

    • Supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for testing rubber insulating gloves and ensuring relevant records are maintained. This is because the supervisor oversees the safety protocols and equipment used by the workers. They have the authority and knowledge to conduct tests on the gloves and keep records to ensure the safety of the workers. The other options, such as the safety professional, civil engineering electric shop, and individual user, may have roles in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the supervisor.

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  • 45. 

    (212) In color coding, black lettering should not be used on which background(s)?

    • Magenta.

    • Orange.

    • Yellow and white.

    • Red and green.

    Correct Answer
    A. Red and green.
    Explanation
    The question asks about color coding and states that black lettering should not be used on which background(s). The answer is red and green. This means that black lettering can be used on all backgrounds except red and green.

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  • 46. 

    (218) Which type of machine guard is preferable to all others?

    • Fixed.

    • Interlock.

    • Adjustable.

    • Self-adjusting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed.
    Explanation
    Fixed machine guards are preferable to all others because they provide a permanent physical barrier that cannot be easily bypassed or tampered with. Unlike adjustable or self-adjusting guards, fixed guards cannot be altered or moved, ensuring consistent protection for operators and preventing unauthorized access to hazardous areas. Interlock guards may be effective in certain situations, but they rely on the proper functioning of interlocking mechanisms, which can be prone to failure. Overall, fixed guards offer the highest level of safety and reliability in machine guarding.

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  • 47. 

    (202) When a procedure or piece of equipment exceeds the limits of safe noise exposure, what is the best course of action?

    • Isolate the procedure or equipment from personnel.

    • Require personnel to wear earmuffs or earplugs.

    • Warn personnel about the noise hazard.

    • Conduct a sound-level survey.

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolate the procedure or equipment from personnel.
    Explanation
    The best course of action when a procedure or piece of equipment exceeds the limits of safe noise exposure is to isolate the procedure or equipment from personnel. This means physically separating the procedure or equipment from the workers to minimize their exposure to the excessive noise. By doing so, the risk of hearing damage or other health issues related to noise exposure can be reduced. This solution is more effective than simply requiring personnel to wear earmuffs or earplugs, warning personnel about the noise hazard, or conducting a sound-level survey.

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  • 48. 

    (206) Which type of self-contained breathing apparatus is simple to use and requires less regular maintenance than the other SCBAs?

    • Demand type.

    • Self-generating.

    • Pressure demand.

    • Oxygen cylinder re-breathing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-generating.
    Explanation
    A self-generating self-contained breathing apparatus is simple to use and requires less regular maintenance compared to other SCBAs. This type of SCBA generates its own oxygen supply, eliminating the need for external sources. It typically uses a chemical reaction to produce oxygen, making it convenient and reliable. This eliminates the need for regular refilling or replacement of oxygen cylinders, reducing maintenance requirements.

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  • 49. 

    (214) When using files, what action frequently leads to puncture wounds?

    • Failure to use gloves.

    • Improper maintenance.

    • Failure to use a handle.

    • Cleaning the teeth too often.

    Correct Answer
    A. Failure to use a handle.
    Explanation
    Failure to use a handle when using files can frequently lead to puncture wounds. When files are used without a handle, there is a higher risk of losing grip or control over the file, which can result in the file slipping and causing puncture wounds. Using a handle provides a secure grip and helps maintain control over the file, reducing the chances of accidents and injuries.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Feb 5, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 05, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 05, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Kahlbanor
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