Blood Bank Final
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The secretor gene is
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Rh null
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Se
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Those who have the Bombay phenotype
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The 'BLOOD BANK FINAL' quiz assesses knowledge on Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA), focusing on types, mechanisms, and clinical implications. It is crucial for learners in medical and laboratory sciences, enhancing their understanding of blood bank procedures and autoimmune responses.
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- 2.
Packed RBCs are transfused to treat deficiency in O2 carrying capacity
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Packed RBCs, or packed red blood cells, are transfused to treat deficiency in oxygen carrying capacity. This is because red blood cells contain hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen and carries it to the body's tissues. When a person has a deficiency in red blood cells or hemoglobin, their ability to transport oxygen is impaired. Transfusing packed RBCs can help restore the oxygen carrying capacity and improve oxygen delivery to the tissues. Therefore, the statement "Packed RBCs are transfused to treat deficiency in O2 carrying capacity" is true.Rate this question:
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- 3.
For disease testing, "RPR" is for testing
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Hepatitis C
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Hepatitis B
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Syphilis
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Zika
Correct Answer
A. SyphilisExplanation
RPR stands for Rapid Plasma Reagin, which is a blood test used to detect antibodies produced by the body in response to the bacteria that causes syphilis. Therefore, RPR is specifically used for testing syphilis, not Hepatitis C, Hepatitis B, or Zika.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Is [your statement here] true or false?
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 5.
When does GVHD occur?
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When the donor and the recipient share the same blood type
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When the donor is homozygous for one of the recipients HLA haplotypes
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When the blood has been sitting out for too long
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When the unit is close to expiring
Correct Answer
A. When the donor is homozygous for one of the recipients HLA haplotypesExplanation
GVHD (Graft-versus-host disease) occurs when the donor's immune cells recognize the recipient's tissues as foreign and attack them. This happens when the donor is homozygous for one of the recipient's HLA (human leukocyte antigen) haplotypes. HLA molecules are responsible for immune system regulation and matching between donor and recipient is important to prevent GVHD. Homozygosity increases the likelihood of a match and therefore increases the risk of GVHD.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Prewarm testing is done to...
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Remove the C3b
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Determine whether there are leukocytes presesnt
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Determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody
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Determines host versus graft
Correct Answer
A. Determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibodyExplanation
Prewarm testing is done to determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody. This test helps in identifying the presence of antibodies that react at warmer temperatures and can cause adverse reactions in blood transfusions or organ transplants. By detecting these antibodies, healthcare professionals can take necessary precautions and select compatible blood or organs for transplantation to ensure the safety and success of the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 7.
- Symptoms: mild jaundice, fever and decrease hct/hgb
- Anamnestic response - previously sensitized
- Extravascular
- No complement activation
- DAT positive
- Occurs 3 - 7 days after transfusion
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Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn
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Febrile
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Transfusion related acute lung Injury
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Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn
Correct Answer
A. Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion RxnExplanation
The given symptoms of mild jaundice, fever, and decrease in hct/hgb suggest a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction occurs when the recipient has been previously sensitized to the donor's red blood cell antigens, leading to destruction of the transfused red blood cells. It is an extravascular reaction, meaning it occurs outside of the bloodstream. There is no complement activation in this type of reaction, and the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is positive. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions typically occur 3-7 days after transfusion.Rate this question:
- 8.
Leukocyte Reduction/filtration is done to
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Prevent CMV infection and HLA alloimmunization
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Prevent an overload of volume
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To prevent iron overload
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To prevent disease transmission
Correct Answer
A. Prevent CMV infection and HLA alloimmunizationExplanation
Leukocyte Reduction/filtration is done to prevent CMV infection and HLA alloimmunization. CMV (Cytomegalovirus) is a common viral infection that can be transmitted through blood transfusion, and it can cause severe complications in immunocompromised patients. HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) alloimmunization refers to the development of antibodies against foreign HLA antigens, which can lead to transfusion reactions and difficulty in finding compatible blood for future transfusions. Leukocyte reduction/filtration removes white blood cells from the blood product, reducing the risk of CMV transmission and the likelihood of HLA alloimmunization.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Symptoms include: erythema, pruritis, hives IgEVery mild and non-life threateningTreat with benadryl
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Febrile
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TRALI
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TACO
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Allergic
Correct Answer
A. AllergicExplanation
The symptoms described in the question, such as erythema, pruritis, and hives, are characteristic of an allergic reaction. The mention of IgE suggests that this reaction is mediated by immunoglobulin E, which is commonly involved in allergic responses. Additionally, the fact that the symptoms are described as very mild and non-life threatening indicates that this is likely an allergic reaction rather than a more severe condition like febrile, TRALI, or TACO. The suggested treatment of benadryl further supports the idea that this is an allergic reaction.Rate this question:
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- 10.
For those who are platelet donors, they must..
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Take aspirin before the donation and have HCT levels of < 36%
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Avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation wit HCT levels of 36%
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Fast 48 hours before donation
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Have hematocrit levels greater than 38%
Correct Answer
A. Avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation wit HCT levels of 36%Explanation
Platelet donors must avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation with HCT levels of 36% because aspirin can affect platelet function and increase the risk of bleeding during the donation process. HCT levels below 36% may indicate anemia, which can also affect the ability to donate platelets. Therefore, it is important for platelet donors to abstain from aspirin and ensure their HCT levels are within the appropriate range to ensure a safe and successful donation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Bombay phenotypes..
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Have H, ABO antigens
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Have Z antigens
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Lack H and therefore lacks ABO antigens
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Can be transfused with any other blood types
Correct Answer
A. Lack H and therefore lacks ABO antigensExplanation
The given answer states that Bombay phenotypes lack the H antigen, which is necessary for the presence of ABO antigens. As a result, they also lack ABO antigens. This means that Bombay phenotypes do not have the typical A, B, or AB blood types. However, since they lack the H antigen, they can be transfused with any other blood types, as they do not have any antibodies against the ABO antigens.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity.
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Transfusion related acute lung injury
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Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
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Bacterial contamination
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Transfusion associated circulatory overload
Correct Answer
A. Transfusion associated circulatory overloadExplanation
Transfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO) occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity due to a rapid or excessive transfusion of blood products. This can lead to fluid overload and pulmonary edema, causing symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and chest pain. TACO is a serious complication of blood transfusion and requires prompt recognition and management to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 13.
—64 yr old M admitted for GI bleed. Hx of intestinal cancer. Samples sent for T/S and 2 RBCs STAT.What is the discrepancy? Anti AAnti BA1 cellsB cells 4+1+ 04+
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A sub group
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B acquired phenotype
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Rouleaux
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Newborns
Correct Answer
A. B acquired phenotypeExplanation
The correct answer is B acquired phenotype. The term "acquired phenotype" refers to a change in the expression of certain characteristics or traits in cells due to external factors or influences. In this case, the discrepancy is likely related to the acquired phenotype of the cells observed in the samples sent for T/S and 2 RBCs STAT. This could be indicative of a change in the antigenic properties of the cells, possibly due to the patient's medical history of intestinal cancer or other factors.Rate this question:
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- 14.
- The transfusion of the donor's antibodies to the recipient white cells
- Complement is activated
- Symptoms: chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distress
- X-ray would show pulmonary edema
- Give leuko reduced
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Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn
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Delayed hemolytic transfusion rxn
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Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury
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Anaphylactic
Correct Answer
A. Transfusion Related Acute Lung InjuryExplanation
Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is the correct answer because the symptoms mentioned, such as chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distress, and pulmonary edema on X-ray, are consistent with TRALI. TRALI occurs when transfused antibodies react with the recipient's white blood cells, leading to an inflammatory response in the lungs. This can result in fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing respiratory distress. Leuko reduction, which involves removing white blood cells from the transfusion product, is a preventive measure for TRALI.Rate this question:
- 15.
HDFN occurs when
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Maternal antigens react with fetal antibodies
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Fetal antibodies react with maternal antibodies
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Maternal antibodies react with fetal antigens
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Fetal antigens reacts with maternal antigens
Correct Answer
A. Maternal antibodies react with fetal antigensExplanation
HDFN, or Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn, occurs when maternal antibodies react with fetal antigens. This happens when the mother's immune system recognizes the antigens on the surface of the fetal red blood cells as foreign and produces antibodies against them. These antibodies can then cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells, leading to hemolysis and potential complications for the fetus or newborn.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A fetal screen is done on
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Every Rh positive women who delivers a Rh positive baby or a baby
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All Rh negative mothers
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Every Rh negative women who delivers a Rh positive baby or a baby of an unknown Rh
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All Rh positive mothers regardless of the babies Rh
Correct Answer
A. Every Rh negative women who delivers a Rh positive baby or a baby of an unknown RhExplanation
A fetal screen is done on every Rh negative women who delivers a Rh positive baby or a baby of an unknown Rh. This is because Rh negative women who carry Rh positive babies are at risk of developing Rh sensitization, where the mother's immune system may produce antibodies against the Rh factor in the baby's blood. This can lead to complications in future pregnancies if the mother becomes pregnant with another Rh positive baby. Therefore, it is important to screen these women to monitor their Rh status and provide appropriate medical interventions if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When are crossmatches done on neonates?
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Always
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Only every 3 days
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When they are scheduled for surgery
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When the mother has a known Antibody
Correct Answer
A. When the mother has a known AntibodyExplanation
Crossmatches are done on neonates when the mother has a known Antibody. This is because the mother's antibodies can potentially cross the placenta and cause harm to the baby. By performing a crossmatch, healthcare providers can determine if there is compatibility between the mother's antibodies and the baby's blood, and take appropriate measures to prevent any adverse reactions.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Adsol would give RBCs a ___ expiration
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42 day
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30 day
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7 day
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21 day
Correct Answer
A. 42 dayExplanation
Adsol is a solution used for the preservation of red blood cells (RBCs). It contains various components that help maintain the viability and function of RBCs. The expiration period refers to the time until which the solution can effectively preserve the RBCs without compromising their quality. Therefore, Adsol would give RBCs a 42-day expiration, meaning that the RBCs can be stored and used for transfusion purposes for up to 42 days when preserved in Adsol solution.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Shortens the life span of RBCs to 28 days
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Washing red cells
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Irradiating red cells
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Creating an open system
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Sterilize connecting
Correct Answer
A. Irradiating red cellsExplanation
Irradiating red cells is the correct answer because it shortens the life span of RBCs to 28 days. This process involves exposing the red cells to radiation, which damages their DNA and prevents them from dividing and replicating. As a result, the irradiated red cells have a shorter lifespan compared to non-irradiated cells. This is important in certain medical procedures, such as blood transfusions, where it is necessary to use red cells with a limited lifespan to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 20.
When whole blood is collected using CPDA-1, what is the expiration
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21 days
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35 days
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42 days
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1 year
Correct Answer
A. 35 daysExplanation
CPDA-1 is an anticoagulant solution used to preserve whole blood for transfusion purposes. It contains citrate, phosphate, dextrose, and adenine. The expiration period of whole blood collected using CPDA-1 is 35 days. This is because CPDA-1 helps to prevent clotting and maintain the viability of red blood cells, but it does not provide long-term preservation like other solutions. After 35 days, the quality and safety of the blood may start to deteriorate, making it unsuitable for transfusion. Therefore, whole blood collected using CPDA-1 should be used within this timeframe to ensure its effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A single vial of RhIG can suppress how mL of fetal hemorrhage?
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40
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10
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30
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100
Correct Answer
A. 30Explanation
A single vial of RhIG can suppress 30 mL of fetal hemorrhage.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A good Document Control Plan:
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Requires blood bank staff to carry copies of procedures in their lab coat pockets
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Includes storage locations for outdated versions of blood bank forms in case we run out of the current version
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Ensures that only current versions of forms and procedures are in use
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Allows all staff members to make hand-written corrections in written procedures
Correct Answer
A. Ensures that only current versions of forms and procedures are in useExplanation
The correct answer is "Ensures that only current versions of forms and procedures are in use". This is because a good Document Control Plan should ensure that outdated versions of forms and procedures are not being used. By ensuring that only current versions are in use, it helps to maintain accuracy and consistency in the documentation process. It also helps to prevent any potential errors or confusion that may arise from using outdated information.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood, the correct order of centrifugation is
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Hard spin followed by hard spin
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Light spin followed by hard spin
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Hard spin followed by light spin
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Light spin followed by light spin
Correct Answer
A. Light spin followed by hard spinExplanation
The correct order of centrifugation for preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood is first performing a light spin followed by a hard spin. This order ensures that the platelets are separated from the other components of the blood in an efficient manner. The light spin helps to separate the red and white blood cells from the plasma, while the hard spin further concentrates the platelets at the bottom of the tube. This sequential centrifugation process allows for the isolation of a higher concentration of platelets for further use.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Deacetylating enzyme alters N-acetylgalactosamine(A-antigen) by removing the acetyl group, N-galactosamine resembles D-galactose (B-antigen) and cross reacts with B reagents
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Group A with acquired B Ag
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B(A) phenotype
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Missing antigen
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Weak antigen
Correct Answer
A. Group A with acquired B AgExplanation
In this scenario, the individual is classified as "Group A with acquired B Ag." This means that the person's blood type is A, but they have acquired the B antigen. The explanation for this is that the deacetylating enzyme has altered the N-acetylgalactosamine (A-antigen) by removing the acetyl group. As a result, N-galactosamine, which resembles D-galactose (B-antigen), is formed and cross-reacts with B reagents. This leads to the presence of the B antigen in the individual's blood, even though their blood type is A.Rate this question:
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- 25.
- Caused by antibodies in the host to the donors WCs
- Give leuko reduced or washed, deglyced cells
- Can be pretreated with anti-pyretics
- Increase in 1C without any causes
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IHTR
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TRALI
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Febrile
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DHTR
Correct Answer
A. FebrileExplanation
Febrile reactions are caused by antibodies in the host to the donor's leuko reduced or washed, deglyced cells. These reactions can be pretreated with anti-pyretics. Febrile reactions are characterized by an increase in body temperature (1C) without any identifiable causes.Rate this question:
- 26.
Transfusion of donor IgA to a patient with IgA antibodies, can be characterized with NO FEVER & abdominal cramps. Symptoms also includes coughing, dyspnea, nausea, flushing, chest pain.
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TRALI
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Anaphylactic
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TACO
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Bacterial contamination
Correct Answer
A. AnaphylacticExplanation
The symptoms described in the question, including coughing, dyspnea, nausea, flushing, and chest pain, are consistent with an anaphylactic reaction. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur when a person is exposed to an allergen, in this case, donor IgA. This reaction can cause a range of symptoms, including respiratory distress, gastrointestinal symptoms, and cardiovascular symptoms. The absence of fever and abdominal cramps suggests that the reaction is not due to bacterial contamination or TRALI (transfusion-related acute lung injury). TACO (transfusion-associated circulatory overload) is also unlikely as it typically presents with symptoms such as fluid overload and pulmonary edema, which are not mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 27.
RBCs that have been frozen are stored at which minimum temperature and maximum storage of time?
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- 65C for 5 years
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- 65 C for 10 years
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-85C for 10 years
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-80 C for 10 years
Correct Answer
A. - 65 C for 10 yearsExplanation
RBCs (red blood cells) that have been frozen are stored at a minimum temperature of -65°C for a maximum storage time of 10 years. This temperature and duration ensures the preservation of the RBCs and maintains their viability for future use. Freezing RBCs helps to extend their shelf life and allows for their storage in blood banks or medical facilities for an extended period, ensuring a steady supply of blood for transfusions when needed.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Hydatid cyst fluid is a neutralizing substance for
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P1
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ABO
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Sda
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Chido
Correct Answer
A. P1Explanation
Hydatid cyst fluid is a neutralizing substance for P1 antigen.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which antibodies are not a risk of HDFN
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Anti-Lea
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Anti-C
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Anti-K
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Anti-S
Correct Answer
A. Anti-LeaExplanation
Anti-Lea antibodies are not a risk of Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN). HDFN occurs when the mother's antibodies cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of the fetus. However, anti-Lea antibodies do not typically cause severe hemolytic reactions and are not commonly associated with HDFN. Therefore, they do not pose a risk in this context.Rate this question:
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- 30.
After the “best” solution has been implemented in a Process Improvement undertaking, you should:
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Pat yourself on the back
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Collect data to assess the impact
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Report your efforts to the FDA as soon as possible
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Apply the same solution to all blood bank procedures
Correct Answer
A. Collect data to assess the impactExplanation
After implementing the "best" solution in a Process Improvement undertaking, it is important to collect data to assess the impact. This allows for the evaluation of whether the implemented solution has achieved the desired results and improvements. Collecting data helps in measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the solution, identifying any potential issues or areas for further improvement, and providing evidence-based feedback for future decision-making. It is a crucial step in the continuous improvement process to ensure that the implemented solution is truly effective and beneficial.Rate this question:
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- 31.
FFP is prepared within how many hours of collection?
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16
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24
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48
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8
Correct Answer
A. 8Explanation
FFP, or Fresh Frozen Plasma, is prepared within 8 hours of collection. This means that after the plasma is collected, it is processed and frozen within a time frame of 8 hours. This is important to maintain the quality and effectiveness of the plasma, as it needs to be frozen at a specific temperature to preserve its clotting factors and other important components. If the plasma is not frozen within this time frame, it may lose its efficacy and become unsuitable for transfusion purposes.Rate this question:
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- 32.
RhIG should be administered within how many hours of delivery?
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6
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24
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72
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48
Correct Answer
A. 72Explanation
RhIG (Rh immune globulin) should be administered within 72 hours of delivery. This is because RhIG is given to Rh-negative mothers who have given birth to Rh-positive infants in order to prevent the mother's immune system from producing antibodies that could harm future pregnancies. Administering RhIG within 72 hours helps to ensure that the mother's immune system does not have enough time to develop an immune response and produce antibodies against Rh-positive blood.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Rz
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CDE
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CDe
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Ce
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CE
Correct Answer
A. CDEExplanation
The given answer "CDE" is the correct answer because it includes all the letters that are present in the given options. The letters "C", "D", and "E" are present in the options "CDE", "CDe", "ce", and "CE", while the letter "R" is not present in any of the options. Therefore, "CDE" is the only option that includes all the required letters.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Calibration is an important part of cGMPs because it:
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Provides information regarding the accuracy of our measuring devices
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Ensures that all procedures are up to date
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Documents the functionality of all blood bank equipment
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Gives us confidence that all staff have been adequately trained
Correct Answer
A. Provides information regarding the accuracy of our measuring devicesExplanation
Calibration is an important part of cGMPs because it provides information regarding the accuracy of our measuring devices. It ensures that the measurements taken with these devices are reliable and trustworthy. By calibrating the devices, we can determine if they are functioning correctly and if any adjustments or corrections are needed. This helps to maintain the quality and integrity of the data collected and ensures that the products or processes being measured are within acceptable limits. Calibration also helps to identify any potential issues or errors in the measuring devices, allowing for timely maintenance or replacement to prevent any negative impact on the quality of the final product.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Intact red cell is removed from circulation by RE system; coated with IgG
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Intravascular
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Extravascular
Correct Answer
A. ExtravascularExplanation
The correct answer is "Extravascular." This means that intact red cells, which are coated with IgG, are removed from circulation by the reticuloendothelial (RE) system outside of the blood vessels. This process occurs outside of the bloodstream, suggesting that the removal of these cells happens in tissues or organs rather than within the blood vessels themselves.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The principle of the Kleihauer Betke test is that
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Fetal hgb resists acid elution
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Adult hgb resists acid elution
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Fetal red cells lose hgb under alkaline conditions
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Adult red cells accept dye under alkaline conditions
Correct Answer
A. Fetal hgb resists acid elutionExplanation
The principle of the Kleihauer Betke test is based on the fact that fetal hemoglobin (hgb) resists acid elution. Acid elution is a technique used to differentiate between fetal and adult red blood cells. In this test, a maternal blood sample is treated with acid to remove adult red blood cells, leaving behind fetal red blood cells. These fetal red blood cells are then stained and counted to determine the amount of fetal blood that has mixed with maternal blood, which is important in cases of fetomaternal hemorrhage.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which cells have the least amount of H antigens?
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A2B
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A1B
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A2
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O
Correct Answer
A. A1BExplanation
A1B blood type has the least amount of H antigens. The presence of H antigens determines the blood type, and A1B has a weaker expression of these antigens compared to the other options. This means that A1B blood type has a lower concentration of H antigens on the surface of its red blood cells.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Eight units of platelets were pooled without a sterile connecting device. The new expiration is
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24 hours
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6 hours
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4 hours
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2 hours
Correct Answer
A. 4 hoursExplanation
When platelets are pooled without a sterile connecting device, there is an increased risk of bacterial contamination. Bacteria can multiply rapidly in the pooled platelets, leading to a higher chance of infection when transfused to a patient. To minimize this risk, the pooled platelets should be used within a shorter timeframe. In this case, the new expiration is set at 4 hours, which allows for a safer transfusion and reduces the risk of bacterial contamination.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which one of these are naturally occuring Abs?
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Anti-Fya
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Anti-Jka
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Anti-M
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Anti-Lua
Correct Answer
A. Anti-MExplanation
Anti-M is a naturally occurring antibody. The term "naturally occurring" refers to antibodies that are present in an individual's blood without any prior exposure to foreign antigens. Anti-M is commonly found in the serum of individuals who lack the M antigen on their red blood cells. This antibody can cause hemolytic transfusion reactions or hemolytic disease of the newborn if a person with M-positive blood receives blood from an M-negative donor or if an M-negative mother carries an M-positive fetus.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What blood group antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?
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Anti-P
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Anti-P1
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Anti - B
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Anti - lea
Correct Answer
A. Anti-PExplanation
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is a rare autoimmune hemolytic anemia that is associated with the presence of anti-P antibodies. These antibodies bind to the P antigen on red blood cells, causing them to be destroyed. The P antigen is a complex carbohydrate found on the surface of red blood cells, and the presence of anti-P antibodies can lead to complement-mediated destruction of red blood cells, especially in cold temperatures. Therefore, the correct answer is Anti-P.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Rouleaux can..
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Be related to increase serum protein levels
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Resemble stacked coins under microscopic examination
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Be resolved involving a saline replacement
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Be positive after a saline replacement
Correct Answer(s)
A. Be related to increase serum protein levels
A. Resemble stacked coins under microscopic examination
A. Be resolved involving a saline replacementExplanation
Rouleaux refers to the stacking of red blood cells in a column-like formation, resembling stacked coins when viewed under a microscope. This phenomenon can be related to an increase in serum protein levels, as high levels of certain proteins can cause the red blood cells to stick together. In some cases, rouleaux formation can be resolved by replacing the saline solution surrounding the cells with a different solution.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Washed red cells would most likely be given to patients who
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Who have antibodies against the WBCs that they were transfused with
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Are lacking the D antigen
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Are IgA deficient & have made anti-IgA
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Who have been transfused with antibodies
Correct Answer
A. Are IgA deficient & have made anti-IgAExplanation
Washed red cells would most likely be given to patients who are IgA deficient and have made anti-IgA. This is because washing the red cells removes any remaining plasma, including IgA antibodies. IgA deficiency is a condition where the body does not produce enough IgA antibodies, and in some cases, the patient may develop antibodies against IgA. Giving washed red cells helps prevent a transfusion reaction in these patients by removing any IgA antibodies that may be present in the transfused blood.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Complications that can occur with transfusing sickle cell patients include
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Iron overload
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Sensitization of RBCS
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Rejection of the RBCs
Correct Answer
A. Iron overloadExplanation
Transfusing sickle cell patients can lead to complications such as iron overload. This is because these patients require regular blood transfusions, which can cause an accumulation of iron in the body over time. Iron overload can lead to organ damage and other health problems. Sensitization of RBCs refers to the development of antibodies against red blood cells, which can cause transfusion reactions. Rejection of the RBCs is not a common complication in sickle cell patients.Rate this question:
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- 44.
How does the indicator cells work in Fetal screens?
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They are D negative cells that bind to anti-D generated by the mother
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They are positive D cells that bind to antibodies made by the fetus
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They are positive D cells that bind to the abs that are already coating the positive fetal cells
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They are negative D cells that do not bind to anything
Correct Answer
A. They are positive D cells that bind to the abs that are already coating the positive fetal cellsExplanation
The indicator cells in Fetal screens are positive D cells that bind to the antibodies (abs) that are already coating the positive fetal cells. This binding allows for the detection and identification of the antibodies present in the maternal blood that may be harmful to the fetus. By observing the interaction between the indicator cells and the antibodies, healthcare professionals can determine the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn and take appropriate measures to ensure the health of the fetus.Rate this question:
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- 45.
- Screening tests for unexpected antibodies are negative
- High titer IgG - anti penicillin antibody is always present in the serum
- DAT is strong due to IgG coating
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Drug adsorption
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Immune complex adsorption
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Non-immune adsorption of proteins
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Induction of autoimmunity
Correct Answer
A. Drug adsorptionExplanation
The correct answer is drug adsorption. Drug adsorption refers to the binding of drugs to proteins in the blood, which can result in the formation of immune complexes. In this case, the high titer IgG anti-penicillin antibody is present in the serum due to the drug adsorption phenomenon. The screening tests for unexpected antibodies are negative because the antibodies are bound to the drug and not freely circulating in the blood. This can also explain the strong direct antiglobulin test (DAT) due to the IgG coating on the drug-protein complexes.Rate this question:
- 46.
- Most common @ 4C
- Low titer @ 4C
- <64
- Negative DAT
- Can interfere with ABO typing, Rh and DAT
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Benign Cold Auto
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Pathologic cold Auto
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PCH
Correct Answer
A. Benign Cold AutoExplanation
The correct answer is "Benign Cold Auto" because it is the most common type of cold autoantibody. It is characterized by a low titer at 4C (Rate this question:
- 47.
Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatibility is acceptable for which of the following components?
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Cryoprecipitated AHF
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Apheresis PLTS
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Apheresis Granulocytes
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PF24
Correct Answer
A. Cryoprecipitated AHFExplanation
ABO compatibility is preferred for all blood components, but ABO incompatibility can be acceptable for Cryoprecipitated AHF. Cryoprecipitated AHF is a blood product that contains high levels of clotting factors, including fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII. It is primarily used in the treatment of bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia. ABO incompatibility in this case refers to the fact that the donor's blood type may not match the recipient's blood type. However, because Cryoprecipitated AHF is a concentrated product, the small amount of ABO antibodies present in the donor's plasma is unlikely to cause a significant reaction in the recipient.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Objectives for performing an exchange transfusion include all of the following except to:
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Decrease the level of maternal antibody
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Reduce the level of indirect bilirubin
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Provide platelets to prevent disseminated intravascular coagulation
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Provide compatible RBCs to correct anemia
Correct Answer
A. Provide platelets to prevent disseminated intravascular coagulationExplanation
The objective of performing an exchange transfusion is to decrease the level of maternal antibody, reduce the level of indirect bilirubin, and provide compatible RBCs to correct anemia. However, it does not involve providing platelets to prevent disseminated intravascular coagulation.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which antibodies are not effected by proteolytic enzymes?
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Kell
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Duffys
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Lewis
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Kidd
Correct Answer
A. KellExplanation
Kell antibodies are not affected by proteolytic enzymes. This means that the activity and effectiveness of Kell antibodies remain unchanged even in the presence of proteolytic enzymes. On the other hand, Duffys, Lewis, and Kidd antibodies can be affected and their activity may be altered or reduced when exposed to proteolytic enzymes.Rate this question:
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Jan 06, 2025Quiz Edited by
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Nov 14, 2017Quiz Created by
Julie Huynh
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