Healthcare Quiz: Medicines And Vaccines

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Healthcare Quiz: Medicines And Vaccines - Quiz

If you are pursuing your career or had completed your healthcare course, you can test your knowledge on medicines and vaccines. Here in this Healthcare Quiz: Medicines and Vaccines, you can answer the questions to get the perfect score. After completing the quiz, you will get your results along with a lot of knowledge. So, all the best for your scores.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is not a sign of Anaphylaxis?

    • A.

      Difficulty breathing

    • B.

      Hives or Urticaria

    • C.

      Pale skin

    • D.

      Itching

    Correct Answer
    C. Pale skin
    Explanation
    Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can affect multiple systems in the body. It is characterized by symptoms such as difficulty breathing, hives or urticaria, and itching. However, pale skin is not typically considered a sign of anaphylaxis. In anaphylaxis, the skin may become flushed or develop a rash, but it is not commonly associated with paleness.

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  • 2. 

    Anaphylaxis is what type of response?

    • A.

      Chemical Response

    • B.

      Mental Response

    • C.

      Blood pressure response

    • D.

      Antibody response

    Correct Answer
    D. Antibody response
    Explanation
    Anaphylaxis is an allergic reaction that occurs when the immune system overreacts to a specific allergen. During anaphylaxis, the body produces large amounts of antibodies, specifically immunoglobulin E (IgE), in response to the allergen. These antibodies trigger the release of chemicals, such as histamine, which cause symptoms like hives, swelling, difficulty breathing, and a drop in blood pressure. Therefore, anaphylaxis is an antibody response.

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  • 3. 

    What is the first step in the treatment of Anaphylaxis?

    • A.

      Administer Oxygen

    • B.

      Maintain Airway

    • C.

      Treat for shock

    • D.

      Administer Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    D. Administer Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Administering epinephrine is the first step in the treatment of anaphylaxis because it helps to reverse the severe allergic reaction and stabilize the patient. Epinephrine is a fast-acting medication that constricts blood vessels, relaxes smooth muscles, and improves breathing. It also helps to alleviate symptoms such as low blood pressure, hives, and swelling. Administering epinephrine promptly can be life-saving and should be followed by other measures such as maintaining the airway, administering oxygen, and treating for shock.

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  • 4. 

    What is the w/v dilution and dose for and Adult when administering Epinephrine?

    • A.

      1:10,000w/v and .30ml

    • B.

      1:100 w/v and .15 ml

    • C.

      1:1000 w/v and .30ml

    • D.

      1:1 w/v and .15ml

    Correct Answer
    C. 1:1000 w/v and .30ml
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1:1000 w/v and .30ml. This means that the solution is prepared by diluting 1 part of the active ingredient (Epinephrine) with 1000 parts of water (w/v). The dose to be administered is 0.30ml.

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  • 5. 

    What is the w/v dilution and dose for and Children when administering Epinephrine?

    • A.

      1:200w/v

    • B.

      1:20w/v

    • C.

      1:2000w/v

    • D.

      1:2 w/v

    Correct Answer
    C. 1:2000w/v
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1:2000w/v. This ratio indicates that 1 part of the drug (Epinephrine) is diluted in 2000 parts of water or another diluent. This dilution is used for children when administering Epinephrine.

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  • 6. 

    Epinephrine is an adrenaline that causes two things. Which of the following are correct?

    • A.

      Bronchoconstriction and Vasoconstriction

    • B.

      Vasodilatation and Bronchoconstriction

    • C.

      Vasoconstriction and Bronchodilation

    • D.

      Bronchodilation and Vasodilation

    Correct Answer
    C. Vasoconstriction and Bronchodilation
    Explanation
    Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, causes vasoconstriction and bronchodilation. Vasoconstriction refers to the narrowing of blood vessels, which helps increase blood pressure and redirect blood flow to vital organs. Bronchodilation, on the other hand, refers to the relaxation and widening of the bronchial tubes in the lungs, allowing for increased airflow and improved breathing.

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  • 7. 

    Vasovagal is also known as_______.

    • A.

      Anaphylaxis

    • B.

      Syncope

    • C.

      Swelling at the site

    • D.

      Allergy

    Correct Answer
    B. Syncope
    Explanation
    Vasovagal is a term used to describe a specific type of fainting or loss of consciousness. Syncope is the medical term for this condition. It occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain. This can be triggered by various factors such as emotional stress, pain, or standing up too quickly. Therefore, the correct answer for the given question is Syncope.

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  • 8. 

    The most dangerous aspect of a vasovagal episode is?

    • A.

      Drop in blood pressure

    • B.

      Loss of consciousness

    • C.

      Generalized muscle weakness

    • D.

      Injuries sustained in a fall

    Correct Answer
    D. Injuries sustained in a fall
    Explanation
    During a vasovagal episode, the most dangerous aspect is the potential for injuries sustained in a fall. This is because vasovagal episodes often lead to a sudden loss of consciousness, causing the person to fall without being able to protect themselves. The fall can result in various injuries, including fractures, head trauma, or internal injuries. Therefore, the risk of injuries sustained in a fall is the most concerning aspect of a vasovagal episode.

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  • 9. 

    What does the acronym VAERS stand for?

    • A.

      Vaccine Adverse Event Report System

    • B.

      Vaccine Action Event Reporting System

    • C.

      Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System
    Explanation
    VAERS stands for Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System. This system is used to collect and analyze information about adverse events that occur after vaccination. It serves as a tool for monitoring the safety of vaccines and identifying any potential risks or side effects. By reporting adverse events to VAERS, healthcare professionals and the public contribute to the ongoing surveillance and evaluation of vaccine safety.

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  • 10. 

    What are the basic components of the syringe?

    • A.

      Hub, barrel, and tip

    • B.

      Barrel, plunger, and tip

    • C.

      Needle, shaft, and hub

    • D.

      Shaft, barrel and plunger

    Correct Answer
    B. Barrel, plunger, and tip
    Explanation
    The basic components of a syringe are the barrel, plunger, and tip. The barrel is the cylindrical part of the syringe that holds the medication or fluid. The plunger is the rod-like part that fits inside the barrel and is used to push or pull the medication in or out of the syringe. The tip is the narrow, pointed end of the syringe where the needle is attached. These three components work together to allow for the precise measurement and administration of medication or fluids.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following syringes are the most common?

    • A.

      Prepackaged

    • B.

      Plastic

    • C.

      Glass

    • D.

      Insulin

    Correct Answer
    B. Plastic
    Explanation
    Plastic syringes are the most common because they are lightweight, cost-effective, and easy to use. They are also disposable, which reduces the risk of contamination and infection. Plastic syringes are widely used in healthcare settings for various purposes, including administering medications, vaccinations, and drawing blood. They are also preferred by patients who self-administer injections at home due to their convenience and safety.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following needle sizes are most commonly used for Intramuscular injections?

    • A.

      23-25 gauge 5/8 inch

    • B.

      26-27 gauge 3/8-5/8 inch

    • C.

      22-25 gauge 1-1 ½  inches

    • D.

      23-25 gauge 1-1 ½ inches

    Correct Answer
    C. 22-25 gauge 1-1 ½  inches
    Explanation
    Intramuscular injections are commonly administered using needle sizes ranging from 22 to 25 gauge and 1-1 ½ inches in length. These sizes are preferred because they allow for the efficient delivery of medication into the muscle tissue. The larger gauge size (22-25) ensures that the needle is wide enough to accommodate the medication, while the longer length (1-1 ½ inches) ensures that the medication reaches the muscle layer. This combination of gauge and length is considered to be the most suitable for intramuscular injections.

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  • 13. 

    At what angle is a subcutaneous injection administered?

    • A.

      45 degree angle

    • B.

      90 degree angle

    • C.

      15 degree angle

    • D.

      Percutaneous

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 degree angle
    Explanation
    A subcutaneous injection is administered at a 45 degree angle. This angle allows the medication to be injected into the fatty tissue layer just below the skin. Injecting at a 45 degree angle ensures that the medication is absorbed properly and does not reach the muscle or blood vessels, which could cause complications.

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  • 14. 

    Why are vaccines not given over tattoos when possible?

    • A.

      Vaccines can permanently damage a tattoo

    • B.

      It makes reading adverse reactions difficult

    • C.

      It increases the chance of infection

    • D.

      Both B and C

    Correct Answer
    B. It makes reading adverse reactions difficult
    Explanation
    When vaccines are given over tattoos, it becomes difficult to read adverse reactions. Adverse reactions are important to monitor after vaccination to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the vaccine. If a vaccine is administered over a tattoo, it may be challenging to distinguish between any adverse reactions and the normal healing process of the tattoo. This can lead to complications in identifying and addressing any potential side effects or adverse events. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid giving vaccines over tattoos whenever possible.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is one of the body’s most important defense mechanisms?

    • A.

      Skin

    • B.

      Hair

    • C.

      Sweat glands

    • D.

      Epidermis

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin
    Explanation
    Skin is one of the body's most important defense mechanisms because it acts as a physical barrier that prevents the entry of harmful pathogens, toxins, and other foreign substances into the body. The outermost layer of the skin, called the epidermis, is composed of tightly packed cells that provide protection against infections. Additionally, the skin produces sweat through sweat glands, which helps to regulate body temperature and flush out toxins. Hair on the skin also serves as a protective barrier by trapping dirt and bacteria. Overall, the skin plays a crucial role in defending the body against external threats.

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  • 16. 

    Why should the vaccine packaging be inspected before administration? 

    • A.

      To verify the vaccine has not been opened or damaged

    • B.

      To ensure the vaccine doesn’t have a cloudy appearance

    • C.

      To ensure the vaccine is not expired

    • D.

      Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and C
    Explanation
    The vaccine packaging should be inspected before administration to ensure that the vaccine has not been opened or damaged, and to ensure that the vaccine is not expired. By checking the packaging for any signs of tampering or damage, we can ensure that the vaccine has not been compromised. Additionally, checking the expiration date of the vaccine is crucial to ensure its effectiveness and safety. Therefore, both options A and C are correct as they highlight the importance of inspecting the vaccine packaging before administration.

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  • 17. 

    What is the most commonly used location for subcutaneous injections in adults?

    • A.

      Tricep region

    • B.

      Deltoid

    • C.

      Vastus lateralis

    • D.

      Gluteus Maximus 

    Correct Answer
    A. Tricep region
    Explanation
    The tricep region is the most commonly used location for subcutaneous injections in adults. This area is easily accessible and has a sufficient amount of subcutaneous tissue for injection. Additionally, the tricep region is less sensitive compared to other areas such as the deltoid or gluteus maximus, making it a more comfortable option for injections. The vastus lateralis is another commonly used site for injections, especially in infants and young children.

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  • 18. 

    Why are vaccines not given in the gluteal area?

    • A.

      Some people have limited amount of muscle in that area

    • B.

      Due to close proximity to the Sciatic nerve

    • C.

      The gluteal area is full of large blood vessels

    • D.

      Most clinics do not carry gluteal needles

    Correct Answer
    B. Due to close proximity to the Sciatic nerve
    Explanation
    Vaccines are not given in the gluteal area due to the close proximity to the Sciatic nerve. The Sciatic nerve is the longest and thickest nerve in the body, and it runs through the gluteal area. Injecting vaccines in this area can potentially damage or irritate the nerve, leading to severe pain, numbness, or even paralysis in the leg. Therefore, vaccines are typically administered in areas with less risk of nerve injury, such as the deltoid muscle in the upper arm.

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  • 19. 

    What route is the Smallpox vaccine administered?

    • A.

      IM

    • B.

      Percutaneous

    • C.

      ID

    • D.

      Subcut

    Correct Answer
    B. Percutaneous
    Explanation
    The Smallpox vaccine is administered through the percutaneous route.

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  • 20. 

    What type of needle is used to administer Smallpox and how many jabs should be made?

    • A.

      Bifurcated needle: 5 jabs

    • B.

      Percutaneous needle: 15 jabs

    • C.

      Bifurcated needle: 15 jabs

    • D.

      Percutaneous needle: 5 jabs

    Correct Answer
    C. Bifurcated needle: 15 jabs
  • 21. 

    Comvax is a combination vaccine that contains which of the following?

    • A.

      Hep A&B

    • B.

      Hib and prevnar

    • C.

      MMR and Varicella

    • D.

      Hep B and Hib

    Correct Answer
    D. Hep B and Hib
    Explanation
    Comvax is a combination vaccine that contains Hep B and Hib. This means that the vaccine includes components to protect against Hepatitis B and Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) infections. By combining these two vaccines into one, Comvax simplifies the immunization process and reduces the number of shots required.

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  • 22. 

    Why is the vaccine DT given instead of DTaP/DTP?

    • A.

      For children who cannot tolerate Pertussis.

    • B.

      DT is licensed for 2 months- 6 years and DTaP is not

    • C.

      DTaP/DTP may not be available

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. For children who cannot tolerate Pertussis.
    Explanation
    The vaccine DT is given instead of DTaP/DTP for children who cannot tolerate Pertussis. This is because DTaP/DTP contains the Pertussis component, which may cause adverse reactions in some individuals. DT, on the other hand, does not contain the Pertussis component, making it a suitable alternative for those who cannot tolerate it. Additionally, DT is licensed for use in children aged 2 months to 6 years, whereas DTaP is not. It is also possible that DTaP/DTP may not be available at the time, further supporting the use of DT in such cases.

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  • 23. 

    Kinrix is a combination of what two vaccines?

    • A.

      Pediarix and IPV

    • B.

      DTaP and IPV

    • C.

      Polio and DTP

    • D.

      DTaP, IPV and Hib

    Correct Answer
    B. DTaP and IPV
    Explanation
    Kinrix is a combination vaccine that includes DTaP (which stands for diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis) and IPV (which stands for inactivated polio vaccine). This combination vaccine provides protection against four different diseases: diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, and polio. By combining these two vaccines into one shot, it helps to simplify the vaccination process and reduce the number of injections needed for children.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following are brand names of Haemophilus Influenza B?

    • A.

      HibTITER

    • B.

      PedvaxHIB

    • C.

      ActHIB

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options mentioned - HibTITER, PedvaxHIB, and ActHIB - are brand names of vaccines that protect against Haemophilus Influenza B (Hib). These vaccines are used to prevent infections caused by the Haemophilus Influenza B bacteria, which can lead to serious illnesses such as meningitis, pneumonia, and epiglottitis. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above".

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  • 25. 

    ActHIB is a three shot series.

    • A.

      True 

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement "ActHIB is a three shot series" is false. ActHIB is actually a four-shot series. The vaccine is given to infants and young children to protect against Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) disease, which can cause serious infections such as meningitis. The recommended schedule for ActHIB vaccination includes a dose at 2 months, another at 4 months, a third dose at 6 months, and a final booster dose at 12-15 months of age. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 26. 

    If Hepatitis B is given at birth, the third (6-18 month) dose is not needed.

    • A.

      True 

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because even if Hepatitis B is given at birth, a third dose is still needed between 6-18 months. The birth dose provides some initial protection, but additional doses are necessary to ensure long-term immunity. The third dose is important for boosting the immune response and providing complete protection against Hepatitis B.

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  • 27. 

    What does and route is IPV administered?

    • A.

      0.5 mL: IM

    • B.

      1.0 mL: IM

    • C.

      0.5 mL: SQ

    • D.

      Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both A and C" because IPV (Inactivated Poliovirus Vaccine) can be administered in two different ways. It can be given via intramuscular (IM) injection, with a dosage of either 0.5 mL or 1.0 mL. It can also be administered subcutaneously (SQ) with a dosage of 0.5 mL. Therefore, both options A and C are correct.

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  • 28. 

    At what age can 0.5 mL of the influenza vaccine be administered intramuscularly?

    • A.

      3 years old

    • B.

      5 years old

    • C.

      35 months

    • D.

      6 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 years old
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 years old because intramuscular administration of the influenza vaccine requires a certain level of muscle development and coordination, which is typically achieved by the age of 3. Administering the vaccine at a younger age may not be safe or effective.

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  • 29. 

    Theater Surgeon Generals (SG) generally determine immunization requirements for reporting to their specific?

    • A.

      Unit of Responsibility

    • B.

      Place of Responsibility

    • C.

      Area of responsibility

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Area of responsibility
    Explanation
    The answer "Area of responsibility" is correct because Theater Surgeon Generals (SG) are responsible for a specific geographical area, such as a theater of operations or a specific region. Within their designated area, they have the authority to determine immunization requirements for reporting, ensuring that all personnel in their jurisdiction are properly vaccinated. This allows for effective disease prevention and control measures to be implemented, tailored to the specific needs and risks of the area.

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  • 30. 

    Where can the baseline for all Active Duty requirements be found?

    • A.

      In the CDC website

    • B.

      In AFI 48-123

    • C.

      In the continuity guide at your facility

    • D.

      In AFJI 48-110

    Correct Answer
    D. In AFJI 48-110
    Explanation
    The baseline for all Active Duty requirements can be found in AFJI 48-110.

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  • 31. 

    The MILVAX Agency website is also available for vaccine requirements. What is the website?

    • A.

      Www.vaccines.mil

    • B.

      Www.milvax.com

    • C.

      Www.vaccines.gov

    • D.

      Www.milvax.gov

    Correct Answer
    A. Www.vaccines.mil
    Explanation
    The correct answer is www.vaccines.mil. This is because the question asks for the website for the MILVAX Agency, and www.vaccines.mil is the only option that includes the MILVAX name in the website address. The other options do not mention MILVAX and are therefore not the correct website for the agency.

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  • 32. 

    At what point is a medical exemption considered permanent?

    • A.

      After 30 days

    • B.

      After 365 days

    • C.

      After 10 days

    • D.

      All medical exemptions are permanent

    Correct Answer
    B. After 365 days
    Explanation
    A medical exemption is considered permanent after 365 days because this duration signifies a significant period of time for evaluating the medical condition. After a year, it is assumed that the medical condition has been thoroughly assessed and determined to be a long-term or permanent condition. This timeframe allows for proper observation, treatment, and assessment of the individual's medical situation, ensuring that the exemption is granted only when necessary and justified.

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  • 33. 

    What type on exemption would you give a patient that has evidence of immunity based on serologic tests, documented infection, or similar circumstances?

    • A.

      Medical exemption

    • B.

      Administrative exemption

    • C.

      No exemption is needed

    • D.

      Temporary exemption

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical exemption
    Explanation
    A patient with evidence of immunity based on serologic tests, documented infection, or similar circumstances would be given a medical exemption. This exemption acknowledges that the patient already has immunity to a certain disease and therefore does not need to receive any additional vaccinations or treatments. It is a recognition of their existing medical condition and exempts them from any further requirements or interventions related to that specific disease.

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  • 34. 

    Waivers from private physicians based on personal beliefs or attitudes are not authorized.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Private physicians are not authorized to grant waivers based on personal beliefs or attitudes. This means that individuals cannot seek exemptions from certain requirements or regulations based on their own personal beliefs or attitudes when it comes to private physicians. Therefore, the statement "Waivers from private physicians based on personal beliefs or attitudes are not authorized" is true.

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  • 35. 

    AD members who refuse required vaccinations are subject to administrative actions under what?

    • A.

      LOAC

    • B.

      Geneva conventions

    • C.

      UCMJ

    • D.

      State Laws and regulations

    Correct Answer
    C. UCMJ
    Explanation
    AD members who refuse required vaccinations are subject to administrative actions under the UCMJ (Uniform Code of Military Justice). The UCMJ is a set of laws that governs the conduct of members of the military. Refusing required vaccinations can be seen as a violation of orders and can result in disciplinary actions, including administrative actions. This is because vaccinations are crucial for maintaining the health and readiness of military personnel, and refusing them can put the individual and others at risk.

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  • 36. 

    Should a military person refuse an immunization you should obtain all of the following except?

    • A.

      SSN

    • B.

      Birth date

    • C.

      Squadron

    • D.

      Rank

    Correct Answer
    B. Birth date
    Explanation
    If a military person refuses an immunization, the information that should be obtained includes their SSN, squadron, and rank. The birth date is not necessary in this context as it is unrelated to the refusal of immunization.

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  • 37. 

    The USAF Medical Service uses what system as its standard for documenting immunizations delivered both inside and out an MTF?

    • A.

      ASIMS

    • B.

      AHLTA

    • C.

      CHCS

    • D.

      AFCITA

    Correct Answer
    A. ASIMS
    Explanation
    The USAF Medical Service uses ASIMS as its standard for documenting immunizations delivered both inside and outside an MTF.

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  • 38. 

    What is produced as paper documentation for the immunizations medical record?

    • A.

      2766

    • B.

      2766C

    • C.

      601

    • D.

      422

    Correct Answer
    B. 2766C
    Explanation
    2766C is produced as paper documentation for the immunizations medical record.

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  • 39. 

    What can you do to ensure you will not be detrimental to the patient’s health or their family members’ health?

    • A.

      Review the patient’s medical record prior to every vaccination

    • B.

      Vaccines cannot harm patients

    • C.

      Both A and B

    • D.

      Screen the patient by asking questions

    Correct Answer
    D. Screen the patient by asking questions
    Explanation
    To ensure that you will not be detrimental to the patient's health or their family members' health, it is important to screen the patient by asking questions. This allows you to gather relevant information about the patient's medical history, allergies, and any other factors that could potentially impact their health or the safety of the vaccination. By asking questions, you can identify any potential contraindications or precautions that need to be taken into consideration before administering the vaccine, thus minimizing the risk of harm to the patient or their family members.

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  • 40. 

    The proper procedure for annotating immunization records is governed by AFJI 48–110 and?

    • A.

      ACIP guidelines

    • B.

      The National Injury and Compensation Act

    • C.

      The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act

    • D.

      CDC guidelines

    Correct Answer
    C. The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act. The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act governs the proper procedure for annotating immunization records. This act provides a compensation program for individuals who experience vaccine-related injuries. It also requires healthcare providers to report adverse events following immunization and maintain accurate immunization records. The act aims to ensure the safety and effectiveness of childhood vaccines.

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  • 41. 

    When transcribing immunizations records only transcribe the last dose given in a series.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    When transcribing immunization records, it is not correct to only transcribe the last dose given in a series. It is important to accurately record all doses given in a series to ensure that the patient's immunization history is complete and up to date. This information is crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of vaccines and determining if any additional doses are needed.

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  • 42. 

    Which type of immunity occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune, because of the primary immune response?

    • A.

      Naturally Acquired- Active immunity

    • B.

      Artificially Acquired- Passive Immunity

    • C.

      Naturally Acquired -Passive Immunity

    • D.

      Artificially Acquired- Active immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Naturally Acquired- Active immunity
    Explanation
    Naturally Acquired- Active immunity occurs when a person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune as a result of the primary immune response. This type of immunity is natural because it happens through natural exposure to the pathogen, and it is active because the person's immune system actively responds by producing antibodies and memory cells to fight off the infection.

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  • 43. 

    Which type of immunity occurs during pregnancy, in which certain antibodies pass through the placenta from the maternal into the fetal bloodstream. These antibody levels fall rapidly in the child’s first new months following birth.

    • A.

      Naturally Acquired- Active immunity

    • B.

      Artificially Acquired- Passive Immunity

    • C.

      Naturally Acquired -Passive Immunity

    • D.

      Artificially Acquired- Active immunity

    Correct Answer
    C. Naturally Acquired -Passive Immunity
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, certain antibodies from the mother are able to pass through the placenta and enter the fetal bloodstream. This type of immunity is known as naturally acquired passive immunity. The antibodies provide temporary protection to the baby against various infections and diseases. However, these antibody levels decline rapidly in the first few months after birth, as the baby's own immune system starts to develop. This type of immunity is different from active immunity, where the body produces its own antibodies in response to an infection or vaccination.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of immunity is a short-term immunity occurring through the administration, typically by injection or IV, of antibodies that are not produced by the recipient's own immune cells. Immune Globulin, or Gamma Globulin as it is more commonly known, is an example of this?

    • A.

      Artificially Acquired- Active immunity

    • B.

      Naturally Acquired -Passive Immunity

    • C.

      Artificially Acquired- Passive Immunity

    • D.

      Naturally Acquired- Active immunity

    Correct Answer
    C. Artificially Acquired- Passive Immunity
    Explanation
    Artificially Acquired- Passive Immunity is the correct answer because it refers to the short-term immunity that occurs through the administration of antibodies that are not produced by the recipient's own immune cells. Immune Globulin, or Gamma Globulin, is an example of this type of immunity. This type of immunity is called passive because the recipient does not produce their own antibodies, but rather receives them from an external source.

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  • 45. 

    What is the approved age range for Anthrax?

    • A.

      18 and up

    • B.

      17 and up

    • C.

      18-65yrs

    • D.

      18-64yrs

    Correct Answer
    C. 18-65yrs
    Explanation
    The approved age range for Anthrax is 18-65 years. This means that individuals who are at least 18 years old and up to 65 years old are eligible for Anthrax vaccination or treatment.

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  • 46. 

    What is the dose and route for an Active duty member in need of Hepatitis A who is 18yrs old?

    • A.

      0.5ml and subcutaneous

    • B.

      0.5ml and intramuscular

    • C.

      1.0ml and subcutaneous

    • D.

      1.0ml and intramuscular

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.5ml and intramuscular
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.5ml and intramuscular. This means that an active duty member who is 18 years old and in need of Hepatitis A vaccination should receive a dose of 0.5ml administered through the intramuscular route.

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  • 47. 

    Which vaccine follows a Three (3) doses regimen with the first dose at elected date, second dose one (1) month later, third six months after the first dose?

    • A.

      Gardasil

    • B.

      Hepatitis A

    • C.

      Polio

    • D.

      Hepatitis B

    Correct Answer
    D. Hepatitis B
    Explanation
    Hepatitis B vaccine follows a three-dose regimen with the first dose administered at an elected date, the second dose given one month later, and the third dose given six months after the first dose. This vaccination schedule is recommended to ensure optimal protection against Hepatitis B virus infection.

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  • 48. 

    What is the does and route of Gardasil and who can receive it?

    • A.

      1.0ml, intramuscular and males only

    • B.

      1.0ml, subcutaneous and both males and females

    • C.

      0.5ml, intramuscular and males only

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
  • 49. 

    The Gardasil vaccine protects against all of the following types of HPV except?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      16

    • D.

      11

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    The Gardasil vaccine protects against HPV types 6, 11, and 16, but not type 12.

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  • 50. 

    Influenza is an optional vaccine for Active duty members and healthcare workers?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because influenza is not an optional vaccine for active duty members and healthcare workers. Influenza vaccination is usually mandatory for these individuals due to the high risk of exposure and transmission in their line of work. It is important for them to be vaccinated to protect themselves and prevent the spread of the virus to vulnerable populations.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 11, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3
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