Healthcare Quiz: Medicines And Vaccines

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  • 1/80 Questions

    PNEUMOVAX 23 is indicated for vaccination against?

    • Coccal disease
    • Influenza type b
    • Bacterial meningitis
    • Pneumococcal disease
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About This Quiz

If you are pursuing your career or had completed your healthcare course, you can test your knowledge on medicines and vaccines. Here in this Healthcare Quiz: Medicines and Vaccines, you can answer the questions to get the perfect score. After completing the quiz, you will get your results along with a lot of knowledge. So, all the best for your scores.

Healthcare Quiz: Medicines And Vaccines - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    If Hepatitis B is given at birth, the third (6-18 month) dose is not needed.

    • True 

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because even if Hepatitis B is given at birth, a third dose is still needed between 6-18 months. The birth dose provides some initial protection, but additional doses are necessary to ensure long-term immunity. The third dose is important for boosting the immune response and providing complete protection against Hepatitis B.

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  • 3. 

    Which vaccine follows a Three (3) doses regimen with the first dose at elected date, second dose one (1) month later, third six months after the first dose?

    • Gardasil

    • Hepatitis A

    • Polio

    • Hepatitis B

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis B
    Explanation
    Hepatitis B vaccine follows a three-dose regimen with the first dose administered at an elected date, the second dose given one month later, and the third dose given six months after the first dose. This vaccination schedule is recommended to ensure optimal protection against Hepatitis B virus infection.

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  • 4. 

    Zostavax is indicated for prevention of what?

    • Human papilloma virus

    • Herpes Zoster

    • Chicken pox

    • Yellow fever

    Correct Answer
    A. Herpes Zoster
    Explanation
    Zostavax is indicated for the prevention of Herpes Zoster, also known as shingles. Herpes Zoster is a viral infection caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. Zostavax is a vaccine that helps to reduce the risk of developing shingles and its associated complications, such as postherpetic neuralgia. It is recommended for individuals aged 50 years and older.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following are brand names of Haemophilus Influenza B?

    • HibTITER

    • PedvaxHIB

    • ActHIB

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options mentioned - HibTITER, PedvaxHIB, and ActHIB - are brand names of vaccines that protect against Haemophilus Influenza B (Hib). These vaccines are used to prevent infections caused by the Haemophilus Influenza B bacteria, which can lead to serious illnesses such as meningitis, pneumonia, and epiglottitis. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above".

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  • 6. 

    What immunizations are in Proquad?

    • MMR and yellow fever

    • Dtap and IPV

    • Varicella and zostervax

    • MMR and Varicella

    Correct Answer
    A. MMR and Varicella
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MMR and Varicella. Proquad is a combination vaccine that provides immunization against measles, mumps, rubella (MMR), and varicella (chickenpox). Therefore, the correct answer is MMR and Varicella.

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  • 7. 

    Anaphylaxis is what type of response?

    • Chemical Response

    • Mental Response

    • Blood pressure response

    • Antibody response

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibody response
    Explanation
    Anaphylaxis is an allergic reaction that occurs when the immune system overreacts to a specific allergen. During anaphylaxis, the body produces large amounts of antibodies, specifically immunoglobulin E (IgE), in response to the allergen. These antibodies trigger the release of chemicals, such as histamine, which cause symptoms like hives, swelling, difficulty breathing, and a drop in blood pressure. Therefore, anaphylaxis is an antibody response.

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  • 8. 

    ⦁    When should a TB skin test be read?

    • ⦁    24-48hrs

    • ⦁    24-72hrs

    • ⦁    48-72hrs

    • ⦁    Later that same day

    Correct Answer
    A. ⦁    48-72hrs
    Explanation
    A TB skin test should be read 48-72 hours after it is administered. This is because it takes this amount of time for a reaction to occur if the person has been exposed to tuberculosis. Reading the test too early or too late may result in inaccurate results.

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  • 9. 

    What does the acronym VAERS stand for?

    • Vaccine Adverse Event Report System

    • Vaccine Action Event Reporting System

    • Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System
    Explanation
    VAERS stands for Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System. This system is used to collect and analyze information about adverse events that occur after vaccination. It serves as a tool for monitoring the safety of vaccines and identifying any potential risks or side effects. By reporting adverse events to VAERS, healthcare professionals and the public contribute to the ongoing surveillance and evaluation of vaccine safety.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is one of the body’s most important defense mechanisms?

    • Skin

    • Hair

    • Sweat glands

    • Epidermis

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin
    Explanation
    Skin is one of the body's most important defense mechanisms because it acts as a physical barrier that prevents the entry of harmful pathogens, toxins, and other foreign substances into the body. The outermost layer of the skin, called the epidermis, is composed of tightly packed cells that provide protection against infections. Additionally, the skin produces sweat through sweat glands, which helps to regulate body temperature and flush out toxins. Hair on the skin also serves as a protective barrier by trapping dirt and bacteria. Overall, the skin plays a crucial role in defending the body against external threats.

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  • 11. 

    What route is the flumist given?

    • Subcutaneous

    • Intradermal

    • Intranasal

    • Orally

    Correct Answer
    A. Intranasal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Intranasal." Flumist, which is a nasal spray vaccine, is administered through the nose. This method allows the vaccine to be delivered directly to the nasal passages and stimulate the immune system to provide protection against influenza.

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  • 12. 

    Why are vaccines not given in the gluteal area?

    • Some people have limited amount of muscle in that area

    • Due to close proximity to the Sciatic nerve

    • The gluteal area is full of large blood vessels

    • Most clinics do not carry gluteal needles

    Correct Answer
    A. Due to close proximity to the Sciatic nerve
    Explanation
    Vaccines are not given in the gluteal area due to the close proximity to the Sciatic nerve. The Sciatic nerve is the longest and thickest nerve in the body, and it runs through the gluteal area. Injecting vaccines in this area can potentially damage or irritate the nerve, leading to severe pain, numbness, or even paralysis in the leg. Therefore, vaccines are typically administered in areas with less risk of nerve injury, such as the deltoid muscle in the upper arm.

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  • 13. 

    Why is the vaccine DT given instead of DTaP/DTP?

    • For children who cannot tolerate Pertussis.

    • DT is licensed for 2 months- 6 years and DTaP is not

    • DTaP/DTP may not be available

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. For children who cannot tolerate Pertussis.
    Explanation
    The vaccine DT is given instead of DTaP/DTP for children who cannot tolerate Pertussis. This is because DTaP/DTP contains the Pertussis component, which may cause adverse reactions in some individuals. DT, on the other hand, does not contain the Pertussis component, making it a suitable alternative for those who cannot tolerate it. Additionally, DT is licensed for use in children aged 2 months to 6 years, whereas DTaP is not. It is also possible that DTaP/DTP may not be available at the time, further supporting the use of DT in such cases.

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  • 14. 

    When transcribing immunizations records only transcribe the last dose given in a series.

    • True

    • False

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    When transcribing immunization records, it is not correct to only transcribe the last dose given in a series. It is important to accurately record all doses given in a series to ensure that the patient's immunization history is complete and up to date. This information is crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of vaccines and determining if any additional doses are needed.

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  • 15. 

    Which type of immunity is a short-term immunity occurring through the administration, typically by injection or IV, of antibodies that are not produced by the recipient's own immune cells. Immune Globulin, or Gamma Globulin as it is more commonly known, is an example of this?

    • Artificially Acquired- Active immunity

    • Naturally Acquired -Passive Immunity

    • Artificially Acquired- Passive Immunity

    • Naturally Acquired- Active immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Artificially Acquired- Passive Immunity
    Explanation
    Artificially Acquired- Passive Immunity is the correct answer because it refers to the short-term immunity that occurs through the administration of antibodies that are not produced by the recipient's own immune cells. Immune Globulin, or Gamma Globulin, is an example of this type of immunity. This type of immunity is called passive because the recipient does not produce their own antibodies, but rather receives them from an external source.

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  • 16. 

    What is the does and route of Gardasil and who can receive it?

    • 1.0ml, intramuscular and males only

    • 1.0ml, subcutaneous and both males and females

    • 0.5ml, intramuscular and males only

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
  • 17. 

    Influenza is an optional vaccine for Active duty members and healthcare workers?

    • True

    • False

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because influenza is not an optional vaccine for active duty members and healthcare workers. Influenza vaccination is usually mandatory for these individuals due to the high risk of exposure and transmission in their line of work. It is important for them to be vaccinated to protect themselves and prevent the spread of the virus to vulnerable populations.

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  • 18. 

    Measles Mumps Rubella is what type of vaccine?

    • Inactive

    • Live

    • Polysaccharide

    • Conjugate

    Correct Answer
    A. Live
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Live. Measles Mumps Rubella (MMR) vaccine is a live vaccine. Live vaccines are made from weakened or attenuated forms of the virus or bacteria that cause the disease. These vaccines stimulate a strong immune response and provide long-lasting immunity. Live vaccines are usually administered through injection or oral route.

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  • 19. 

    What is the route of Pneumovax 23?

    • Subcutaneous

    • Intradermal

    • Intramuscular

    • Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and C
    Explanation
    The route of Pneumovax 23 is both subcutaneous and intramuscular. This means that the vaccine can be administered either under the skin or into the muscle. Both routes are commonly used for vaccine administration depending on the specific vaccine and patient's age or condition.

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  • 20. 

    What is the primary schedule for the Prevnar vaccine?

    • Birth, 2 months , 4 months, 12-15 months

    • 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 12-15 months

    • 2 month, 4 months, 6 months, 24 months

    • Prevnar is a one-time vaccine, with a booster at five years

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 12-15 months
    Explanation
    The primary schedule for the Prevnar vaccine is 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 12-15 months. This means that the vaccine should be given to a child at 2 months of age, followed by doses at 4 months, 6 months, and finally at 12-15 months. This schedule is recommended to ensure that the child receives optimal protection against the diseases targeted by the vaccine.

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  • 21. 

    Kinrix is a combination of what two vaccines?

    • Pediarix and IPV

    • DTaP and IPV

    • Polio and DTP

    • DTaP, IPV and Hib

    Correct Answer
    A. DTaP and IPV
    Explanation
    Kinrix is a combination vaccine that includes DTaP (which stands for diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis) and IPV (which stands for inactivated polio vaccine). This combination vaccine provides protection against four different diseases: diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, and polio. By combining these two vaccines into one shot, it helps to simplify the vaccination process and reduce the number of injections needed for children.

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  • 22. 

    The MILVAX Agency website is also available for vaccine requirements. What is the website?

    • Www.vaccines.mil

    • Www.milvax.com

    • Www.vaccines.gov

    • Www.milvax.gov

    Correct Answer
    A. Www.vaccines.mil
    Explanation
    The correct answer is www.vaccines.mil. This is because the question asks for the website for the MILVAX Agency, and www.vaccines.mil is the only option that includes the MILVAX name in the website address. The other options do not mention MILVAX and are therefore not the correct website for the agency.

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  • 23. 

    Waivers from private physicians based on personal beliefs or attitudes are not authorized.

    • True

    • False

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Private physicians are not authorized to grant waivers based on personal beliefs or attitudes. This means that individuals cannot seek exemptions from certain requirements or regulations based on their own personal beliefs or attitudes when it comes to private physicians. Therefore, the statement "Waivers from private physicians based on personal beliefs or attitudes are not authorized" is true.

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  • 24. 

    Should a military person refuse an immunization you should obtain all of the following except?

    • SSN

    • Birth date

    • Squadron

    • Rank

    Correct Answer
    A. Birth date
    Explanation
    If a military person refuses an immunization, the information that should be obtained includes their SSN, squadron, and rank. The birth date is not necessary in this context as it is unrelated to the refusal of immunization.

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  • 25. 

    The USAF Medical Service uses what system as its standard for documenting immunizations delivered both inside and out an MTF?

    • ASIMS

    • AHLTA

    • CHCS

    • AFCITA

    Correct Answer
    A. ASIMS
    Explanation
    The USAF Medical Service uses ASIMS as its standard for documenting immunizations delivered both inside and outside an MTF.

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  • 26. 

    What is produced as paper documentation for the immunizations medical record?

    • 2766

    • 2766C

    • 601

    • 422

    Correct Answer
    A. 2766C
    Explanation
    2766C is produced as paper documentation for the immunizations medical record.

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  • 27. 

    The proper procedure for annotating immunization records is governed by AFJI 48–110 and?

    • ACIP guidelines

    • The National Injury and Compensation Act

    • The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act

    • CDC guidelines

    Correct Answer
    A. The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act. The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act governs the proper procedure for annotating immunization records. This act provides a compensation program for individuals who experience vaccine-related injuries. It also requires healthcare providers to report adverse events following immunization and maintain accurate immunization records. The act aims to ensure the safety and effectiveness of childhood vaccines.

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  • 28. 

    What is the age range and dose for Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine?

    • 17 and older 0.5ml

    • 18 and older 0..5ml

    • 17 and older 1.0ml

    • 18 and older 1.0ml

    Correct Answer
    A. 17 and older 0.5ml
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 17 and older 0.5ml. This suggests that the age range for the Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine is 17 years and older. The recommended dose for individuals within this age range is 0.5ml.

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  • 29. 

    What is the w/v dilution and dose for and Adult when administering Epinephrine?

    • 1:10,000w/v and .30ml

    • 1:100 w/v and .15 ml

    • 1:1000 w/v and .30ml

    • 1:1 w/v and .15ml

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:1000 w/v and .30ml
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1:1000 w/v and .30ml. This means that the solution is prepared by diluting 1 part of the active ingredient (Epinephrine) with 1000 parts of water (w/v). The dose to be administered is 0.30ml.

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  • 30. 

    At what angle is a subcutaneous injection administered?

    • 45 degree angle

    • 90 degree angle

    • 15 degree angle

    • Percutaneous

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 degree angle
    Explanation
    A subcutaneous injection is administered at a 45 degree angle. This angle allows the medication to be injected into the fatty tissue layer just below the skin. Injecting at a 45 degree angle ensures that the medication is absorbed properly and does not reach the muscle or blood vessels, which could cause complications.

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  • 31. 

    Why should the vaccine packaging be inspected before administration? 

    • To verify the vaccine has not been opened or damaged

    • To ensure the vaccine doesn’t have a cloudy appearance

    • To ensure the vaccine is not expired

    • Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and C
    Explanation
    The vaccine packaging should be inspected before administration to ensure that the vaccine has not been opened or damaged, and to ensure that the vaccine is not expired. By checking the packaging for any signs of tampering or damage, we can ensure that the vaccine has not been compromised. Additionally, checking the expiration date of the vaccine is crucial to ensure its effectiveness and safety. Therefore, both options A and C are correct as they highlight the importance of inspecting the vaccine packaging before administration.

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  • 32. 

    At what age can 0.5 mL of the influenza vaccine be administered intramuscularly?

    • 3 years old

    • 5 years old

    • 35 months

    • 6 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 years old
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 years old because intramuscular administration of the influenza vaccine requires a certain level of muscle development and coordination, which is typically achieved by the age of 3. Administering the vaccine at a younger age may not be safe or effective.

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  • 33. 

    Theater Surgeon Generals (SG) generally determine immunization requirements for reporting to their specific?

    • Unit of Responsibility

    • Place of Responsibility

    • Area of responsibility

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Area of responsibility
    Explanation
    The answer "Area of responsibility" is correct because Theater Surgeon Generals (SG) are responsible for a specific geographical area, such as a theater of operations or a specific region. Within their designated area, they have the authority to determine immunization requirements for reporting, ensuring that all personnel in their jurisdiction are properly vaccinated. This allows for effective disease prevention and control measures to be implemented, tailored to the specific needs and risks of the area.

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  • 34. 

    At what point is a medical exemption considered permanent?

    • After 30 days

    • After 365 days

    • After 10 days

    • All medical exemptions are permanent

    Correct Answer
    A. After 365 days
    Explanation
    A medical exemption is considered permanent after 365 days because this duration signifies a significant period of time for evaluating the medical condition. After a year, it is assumed that the medical condition has been thoroughly assessed and determined to be a long-term or permanent condition. This timeframe allows for proper observation, treatment, and assessment of the individual's medical situation, ensuring that the exemption is granted only when necessary and justified.

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  • 35. 

    What type on exemption would you give a patient that has evidence of immunity based on serologic tests, documented infection, or similar circumstances?

    • Medical exemption

    • Administrative exemption

    • No exemption is needed

    • Temporary exemption

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical exemption
    Explanation
    A patient with evidence of immunity based on serologic tests, documented infection, or similar circumstances would be given a medical exemption. This exemption acknowledges that the patient already has immunity to a certain disease and therefore does not need to receive any additional vaccinations or treatments. It is a recognition of their existing medical condition and exempts them from any further requirements or interventions related to that specific disease.

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  • 36. 

    Which type of immunity occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune, because of the primary immune response?

    • Naturally Acquired- Active immunity

    • Artificially Acquired- Passive Immunity

    • Naturally Acquired -Passive Immunity

    • Artificially Acquired- Active immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Naturally Acquired- Active immunity
    Explanation
    Naturally Acquired- Active immunity occurs when a person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune as a result of the primary immune response. This type of immunity is natural because it happens through natural exposure to the pathogen, and it is active because the person's immune system actively responds by producing antibodies and memory cells to fight off the infection.

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  • 37. 

    What is the dose and route for an Active duty member in need of Hepatitis A who is 18yrs old?

    • 0.5ml and subcutaneous

    • 0.5ml and intramuscular

    • 1.0ml and subcutaneous

    • 1.0ml and intramuscular

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5ml and intramuscular
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.5ml and intramuscular. This means that an active duty member who is 18 years old and in need of Hepatitis A vaccination should receive a dose of 0.5ml administered through the intramuscular route.

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  • 38. 

    All of the following are common side effects of TDap except?

    • Swelling at site

    • Pain at site

    • Numbness at site

    • Lump at site

    Correct Answer
    A. Numbness at site
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Numbness at site." TDap is a vaccine that protects against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis. Swelling, pain, and a lump at the injection site are common side effects of this vaccine. However, numbness at the site is not typically reported as a side effect.

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  • 39. 

    What vaccines are in Twinrix?

    • Hib and Hep B

    • Dtap and IPV

    • DTP and Hib

    • Hep A and Hep B

    Correct Answer
    A. Hep A and Hep B
    Explanation
    Twinrix is a combination vaccine that provides protection against both Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B. This vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by these two viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is Hep A and Hep B.

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  • 40. 

    What is the route and does of Proquad?

    • 0.5ml and subcutaneous

    • 1.0ml and subcutaneous

    • 0.5ml and intramuscular

    • 1.0ml and subcutaneous

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5ml and subcutaneous
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.5ml and subcutaneous. This means that the route of administration for Proquad is subcutaneous, which refers to injecting the medication just beneath the skin. The dose of Proquad is 0.5ml, indicating the volume of the medication that should be administered.

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  • 41. 

    When applied correctly, the TB test has an accuracy rate of?

    • ⦁    70%

    • ⦁    80%

    • ⦁    90%

    • ⦁    95%

    Correct Answer
    A. ⦁    95%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 95%. When the TB test is applied correctly, it has an accuracy rate of 95%. This means that in 95% of cases, the test will accurately identify whether a person has tuberculosis or not. It is important to note that this accuracy rate is based on the correct administration and interpretation of the test, as well as other factors such as the sensitivity and specificity of the test itself.

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  • 42. 

    What is the first step in the treatment of Anaphylaxis?

    • Administer Oxygen

    • Maintain Airway

    • Treat for shock

    • Administer Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Administer Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Administering epinephrine is the first step in the treatment of anaphylaxis because it helps to reverse the severe allergic reaction and stabilize the patient. Epinephrine is a fast-acting medication that constricts blood vessels, relaxes smooth muscles, and improves breathing. It also helps to alleviate symptoms such as low blood pressure, hives, and swelling. Administering epinephrine promptly can be life-saving and should be followed by other measures such as maintaining the airway, administering oxygen, and treating for shock.

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  • 43. 

    What is the w/v dilution and dose for and Children when administering Epinephrine?

    • 1:200w/v

    • 1:20w/v

    • 1:2000w/v

    • 1:2 w/v

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:2000w/v
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1:2000w/v. This ratio indicates that 1 part of the drug (Epinephrine) is diluted in 2000 parts of water or another diluent. This dilution is used for children when administering Epinephrine.

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  • 44. 

    Vasovagal is also known as_______.

    • Anaphylaxis

    • Syncope

    • Swelling at the site

    • Allergy

    Correct Answer
    A. Syncope
    Explanation
    Vasovagal is a term used to describe a specific type of fainting or loss of consciousness. Syncope is the medical term for this condition. It occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain. This can be triggered by various factors such as emotional stress, pain, or standing up too quickly. Therefore, the correct answer for the given question is Syncope.

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  • 45. 

    What are the basic components of the syringe?

    • Hub, barrel, and tip

    • Barrel, plunger, and tip

    • Needle, shaft, and hub

    • Shaft, barrel and plunger

    Correct Answer
    A. Barrel, plunger, and tip
    Explanation
    The basic components of a syringe are the barrel, plunger, and tip. The barrel is the cylindrical part of the syringe that holds the medication or fluid. The plunger is the rod-like part that fits inside the barrel and is used to push or pull the medication in or out of the syringe. The tip is the narrow, pointed end of the syringe where the needle is attached. These three components work together to allow for the precise measurement and administration of medication or fluids.

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  • 46. 

    ActHIB is a three shot series.

    • True 

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement "ActHIB is a three shot series" is false. ActHIB is actually a four-shot series. The vaccine is given to infants and young children to protect against Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) disease, which can cause serious infections such as meningitis. The recommended schedule for ActHIB vaccination includes a dose at 2 months, another at 4 months, a third dose at 6 months, and a final booster dose at 12-15 months of age. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 47. 

    AD members who refuse required vaccinations are subject to administrative actions under what?

    • LOAC

    • Geneva conventions

    • UCMJ

    • State Laws and regulations

    Correct Answer
    A. UCMJ
    Explanation
    AD members who refuse required vaccinations are subject to administrative actions under the UCMJ (Uniform Code of Military Justice). The UCMJ is a set of laws that governs the conduct of members of the military. Refusing required vaccinations can be seen as a violation of orders and can result in disciplinary actions, including administrative actions. This is because vaccinations are crucial for maintaining the health and readiness of military personnel, and refusing them can put the individual and others at risk.

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  • 48. 

    What can you do to ensure you will not be detrimental to the patient’s health or their family members’ health?

    • Review the patient’s medical record prior to every vaccination

    • Vaccines cannot harm patients

    • Both A and B

    • Screen the patient by asking questions

    Correct Answer
    A. Screen the patient by asking questions
    Explanation
    To ensure that you will not be detrimental to the patient's health or their family members' health, it is important to screen the patient by asking questions. This allows you to gather relevant information about the patient's medical history, allergies, and any other factors that could potentially impact their health or the safety of the vaccination. By asking questions, you can identify any potential contraindications or precautions that need to be taken into consideration before administering the vaccine, thus minimizing the risk of harm to the patient or their family members.

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  • 49. 

    What is the approved age range for Anthrax?

    • 18 and up

    • 17 and up

    • 18-65yrs

    • 18-64yrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 18-65yrs
    Explanation
    The approved age range for Anthrax is 18-65 years. This means that individuals who are at least 18 years old and up to 65 years old are eligible for Anthrax vaccination or treatment.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 11, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3

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