2T251 Vol 2. Air Freight

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?

    • SF Form 361, Discrepancy Report (TDR).
    • SF Form 364, Report of Discrepancy (ROD).
    • AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo.
    • DD Form 1387, Military Shipment Label (MSL).
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2T251 Vol 2. Air Freight - Quiz
About This Quiz

This 2T251 Vol 2. Air Freight quiz assesses knowledge on the use of transportation documents like ATCMD and TCMD within the Defense Transportation System. It evaluates understanding of roles such as shippers and consignees, and the process of cargo clearance by the ACA.


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  • 2. 

    You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a center of balance (C/B)?

    • Single pallet.

    • Small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 pounds.

    • Shipment of pipes that are 13 feet long.

    • Three-pallet train.

    Correct Answer
    A. Single pallet.
    Explanation
    The center of balance (C/B) is typically marked on shipments that have the potential to become unbalanced during transportation. In this case, the single pallet is the only item that does not have any specific characteristics that would affect its balance. The small piece of rolling stock, being a moving object, may have a different center of balance that needs to be marked. The shipment of pipes, being long and potentially unevenly distributed, may also require marking the C/B. The three-pallet train, being a larger and more complex shipment, may also need the C/B marked to ensure balance. Therefore, the single pallet is the only item that does not require marking the C/B.

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  • 3. 

    What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you?

    • How the shipment is packaged.

    • The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated.

    • Whether shipments have one or more outsized dimensions.

    • The specific method of transportation for each segment of movement.

    Correct Answer
    A. The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated.
    Explanation
    The air commodity and special handling codes provide information about the nature of the shipment and how it should be treated. These codes help in identifying any special requirements or precautions that need to be taken during the transportation process. They may indicate if the shipment contains hazardous materials, perishable items, fragile goods, or any other specific handling instructions. By understanding these codes, logistics personnel can ensure that the shipment is handled appropriately to avoid any damage or safety risks.

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  • 4. 

    During explosives operations, to reduce electrostatic discharge, aircraft is

    • Vented.

    • Braced.

    • Cleaned.

    • Grounded.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grounded.
    Explanation
    During explosives operations, grounding the aircraft is necessary to reduce the risk of electrostatic discharge. Grounding involves connecting the aircraft to the earth or a conductive surface to provide a path for the dissipation of static electricity. This helps prevent the buildup of static charge on the aircraft, which could potentially ignite explosive materials. By grounding the aircraft, any static electricity that may have accumulated is safely discharged, minimizing the risk of an accidental explosion.

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  • 5. 

    You are operating a 60K loader and the spotter communicates the signal shown in figure T–2. What is the spotter telling you to do?

    • Roll right.

    • Right turn.

    • Side shift right.

    • Front yaw right.

    Correct Answer
    A. Side shift right.
    Explanation
    The spotter is communicating the signal shown in figure T-2, which indicates that the loader should perform a side shift to the right. This means that the loader should move its position to the right without changing its direction or turning.

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  • 6. 

    When a shipment arrives at the air terminal, your first job is to ensure the

    • Cargo is frustrated properly.

    • Shipment will fit on a given aircraft.

    • Shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal.

    • Driver has the required personal protective equipment (PPE).

    Correct Answer
    A. Shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal." This means that your first job when a shipment arrives at the air terminal is to make sure that the shipment is actually intended to come to your specific air terminal. This is important because if the shipment is not meant for your terminal, it will need to be redirected to the correct location.

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  • 7. 

    What must be considered when building a multi-pallet train?

    • Immigration clearance.

    • Supply of pallet covers.

    • Materials handling equipment (MHE) required to handle the pallet train.

    • Multi-pallets in back log.

    Correct Answer
    A. Materials handling equipment (MHE) required to handle the pallet train.
    Explanation
    When building a multi-pallet train, it is important to consider the materials handling equipment (MHE) required to handle the train. This means ensuring that the necessary equipment, such as forklifts or pallet jacks, is available and suitable for the size and weight of the pallets. Without proper MHE, the efficient movement and transportation of the pallet train could be compromised, leading to delays and potential damage to the pallets and their contents. The other options listed, such as immigration clearance, supply of pallet covers, and multi-pallets in backlog, are not directly related to the construction or operation of the pallet train.

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  • 8. 

    When placarding aircraft, how must hazardous materials placards be displayed?

    • Front only and at entry points.

    • Front and rear only and at entry points.

    • Cargo loading end and both sides only.

    • Front, rear, both sides and at entry points.

    Correct Answer
    A. Front, rear, both sides and at entry points.
    Explanation
    Hazardous materials placards must be displayed on the front, rear, both sides, and at entry points when placarding aircraft. This is necessary to ensure that the hazardous materials are clearly identified and visible from all angles and entry points. Displaying the placards in these locations helps to alert and inform personnel and emergency responders about the presence of hazardous materials on the aircraft, ensuring their safety and the proper handling of the materials.

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  • 9. 

    You are driving a Next Generation Small Loader (NGSL) and the spotter communicates the signal shown in figure T–1. What must you do?

    • Stop.

    • Shut down.

    • Slow down.

    • Tilt mast back.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop.
    Explanation
    Based on the given signal in figure T-1, the spotter is communicating the instruction to stop. This means that the driver of the NGSL should immediately bring the vehicle to a halt and not proceed any further.

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  • 10. 

    When is a shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, considered cleared by the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA)?

    • When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice.

    • When you have scanned the bar-coded label and determined it is not in the Defense Transportation System (DTS).

    • When the Consolidation and Containerization Point (CCP) has delivered an airlift-ready pallet to the Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE).

    • When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) date shipped field.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) date shipped field.
    Explanation
    A shipment is considered cleared by the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) when they do not challenge the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field. This means that as long as the ACA does not raise any concerns or issues with the shipment within the specified time frame, it is considered cleared. This indicates that all necessary checks and procedures have been completed, and the shipment is ready to proceed.

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  • 11. 

    You must obtain a signature from everyone who picks up terminating cargo, except

    • Traffic Management Office (TMO) personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.

    • Postal authorities, when picking up registered mail.

    • Aircrew members, when using cargo manifest.

    • Truck drivers, who have shown their IDs at the front gate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Traffic Management Office (TMO) personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Traffic Management Office (TMO) personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility. According to the given information, everyone who picks up terminating cargo must obtain a signature, except for TMO personnel who are under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility. This exception implies that TMO personnel are not required to obtain a signature when picking up terminating cargo in this specific scenario.

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  • 12. 

    The Army receives approval to green sheet a piece of cargo. The cargo will move ahead of

    • All other Army cargo.

    • A Navy piece of 999 cargo.

    • All other cargo in the air terminal.

    • An Air Force piece of purple sheet cargo.

    Correct Answer
    A. All other Army cargo.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "all other Army cargo." This means that the approved piece of cargo will be prioritized and move ahead of all other cargo that belongs to the Army. This indicates that the Army cargo will have the highest priority in terms of movement and transportation.

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  • 13. 

    Who is responsible for weighing and marking each item with the correct gross weight and center of balance (C/B) point?

    • Load Planner.

    • Shipper.

    • Load master.

    • Joint Inspector.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shipper.
    Explanation
    The shipper is responsible for weighing and marking each item with the correct gross weight and center of balance (C/B) point. This is because the shipper is the one who is in charge of preparing the items for shipment and ensuring that they are properly labeled and documented. The shipper is responsible for providing accurate information about the weight and balance of the items so that they can be loaded and transported safely. The load planner, load master, and joint inspector may also play a role in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the shipper.

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  • 14. 

    Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    Hazardous materials class 1 consists of explosive materials.

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  • 15. 

    What is the minimum number of fire extinguishers a vehicle must contain while transporting explosives?

    • None.

    • One.

    • Two.

    • Three.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two.
    Explanation
    The minimum number of fire extinguishers a vehicle must contain while transporting explosives is two. This is important to ensure the safety of the vehicle and its surroundings in case of a fire or explosion. Having two fire extinguishers allows for a backup in case one fails or is not enough to control the fire. It also helps to comply with safety regulations and guidelines for transporting hazardous materials.

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  • 16. 

    You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?

    • Clear.

    • Spotter.

    • Loading.

    • Engine operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spotter.
    Explanation
    If you are within 10 feet of an aircraft, you are considered to be in the spotter zone. A spotter is someone who is responsible for observing and ensuring the safety of personnel and equipment in the vicinity of the aircraft. Being in this zone indicates that you have a specific role and responsibility to fulfill in terms of monitoring and safeguarding the aircraft and its operations.

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  • 17. 

    Non-unitized warehouse skids or individual containers of explosives will be secured to forklifts for movement. The exemption for this is when

    • Bumped cargo requires expeditious movement.

    • Movement is within the 25 feet circle of safety parameter.

    • Container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures.

    • Shift supervisor declares supplemental restraint to be in “relaxed” conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures. This means that if the skids or pallets used to transport explosives have a built-in enclosure that covers all sides of the tines of the forklift, they do not need to be secured to the forklift for movement. This ensures that the explosives are safely contained and reduces the risk of accidents or damage during transportation.

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  • 18. 

    You are deployed and a cargo user has offered several dirty cargo pallets for air transportation. Which one of the following is considered acceptable?

    • Chunks of mud under a vehicle.

    • No amount of dirt is acceptable.

    • Dirt and sand that you can pinch with your fingers.

    • A thin film of road dust.

    Correct Answer
    A. A thin film of road dust.
    Explanation
    A thin film of road dust is considered acceptable because it is a common occurrence during transportation and does not pose any significant risk or damage to the cargo or the aircraft. It can easily be cleaned off and does not affect the integrity or safety of the cargo pallets.

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  • 19. 

    You are loading a trailer on a C–5 that is very long, very tall, and has extremely low ground clearances. In order to reduce the ramp angle this vehicle must travel during on-load, which type of shoring would you use?

    • Bridge shoring.

    • Sleeper shoring.

    • Parking shoring.

    • Approach shoring.

    Correct Answer
    A. Approach shoring.
    Explanation
    Approach shoring would be used in this situation to reduce the ramp angle that the trailer must travel during on-load. Approach shoring is specifically designed to provide support and stability to the trailer as it approaches the loading ramp, helping to decrease the angle and ensure a smooth loading process. This type of shoring is particularly useful for trailers that are very long, very tall, and have extremely low ground clearances, as mentioned in the question.

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  • 20. 

    Your supervisor has asked you to restrain four pallets in the warehouse with varying weights and heights. Which pallet is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set?

    • A 38-inch high pallet weighing 6,500 pounds.

    • A 94-inch high pallet weighing 10,500 pounds.

    • A 100-inch high pallet weighing 12,150 pounds.

    • An 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    A. An 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds.
    Explanation
    The 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds is the most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set because it is the lightest pallet with the lowest height. The net set is designed to secure and restrain items, and in this case, the lighter weight and lower height of the pallet make it easier to effectively secure using the net set. The taller and heavier pallets would require a stronger and more robust restraint system to ensure effective securing.

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  • 21. 

    The area surrounding aircraft transporting hazardous materials must be placarded to

    • Let the explosives handlers know which aircraft to take the shipments.

    • Warn flight line personnel to stay outside of a 50-yard radius of the aircraft.

    • Warn the aircrew that they will be transporting hazardous shipments to their next destination.

    • Let emergency response and other personnel know of hazardous materials and explosives presence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Let emergency response and other personnel know of hazardous materials and explosives presence.
    Explanation
    The area surrounding aircraft transporting hazardous materials must be placarded to let emergency response and other personnel know of the presence of hazardous materials and explosives. This is important for the safety of everyone involved, as it allows for proper precautions to be taken in case of an emergency or accident. By clearly indicating the presence of hazardous materials, emergency response teams can quickly and effectively respond to any potential incidents and take appropriate measures to mitigate risks and ensure the safety of all individuals in the vicinity.

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  • 22. 

    What is the maximum number of human remains (HR) transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463L pallet if absolutely necessary?

    • 3.

    • 4.

    • 6.

    • 12.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 because the 463L pallet is designed to hold a maximum weight of 10,000 pounds. Assuming that each human remains transfer case weighs approximately 800 pounds, it would be safe to transport 12 cases on one pallet (12 cases * 800 pounds = 9,600 pounds), which is below the maximum weight limit of the pallet.

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  • 23. 

    You and your team are loading very heavy pallets on a C–5. Which of the following is the correct way to load the pallets?

    • Load team personnel pulling them.

    • Load team personnel pushing them.

    • Gravity feeding them from the K-loader.

    • Pushing the pallets out of control at excessive speeds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Load team personnel pushing them.
    Explanation
    The correct way to load the pallets on a C-5 is by having the load team personnel push them. This ensures that the pallets are being guided and controlled during the loading process. Pulling the pallets may cause them to become unstable or difficult to maneuver. Gravity feeding from the K-loader may not provide enough control over the pallets. Pushing the pallets out of control at excessive speeds is unsafe and can lead to accidents. Therefore, the safest and most effective method is to have the load team personnel push the pallets.

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  • 24. 

    Another name for a receiver is a

    • Transshipper.

    • Consignor.

    • Vendor.

    • Consignee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consignee.
    Explanation
    A receiver is someone who receives or takes delivery of goods or products. In the context of shipping or logistics, a receiver is commonly referred to as a consignee. The consignee is the person or entity to whom the goods are being shipped or delivered. Therefore, the correct answer is consignee.

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  • 25. 

    What is the formula to determine the cube of a shipment?

    • Length × width ÷ 1385.

    • Length × width ÷ 1728.

    • Length × width × height ÷ 1385.

    • Length × width × height ÷ 1728.

    Correct Answer
    A. Length × width × height ÷ 1728.
    Explanation
    The formula to determine the cube of a shipment is obtained by multiplying the length, width, and height of the shipment and then dividing the result by 1728. This is because there are 1728 cubic inches in a cubic foot, and dividing by 1728 converts the volume of the shipment from cubic inches to cubic feet.

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  • 26. 

    A short shipment is a shipment that

    • Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut.

    • Is listed on the manifests, but did not arrive at the air terminal.

    • Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifests.

    • Arrived at the air terminal, but removed due to suspicion of pilferage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is listed on the manifests, but did not arrive at the air terminal.
    Explanation
    A short shipment refers to a situation where a shipment is listed on the manifests, indicating that it should have arrived at the air terminal, but in reality, it did not. This could be due to various reasons such as miscommunication, errors in documentation, or even theft. Regardless of the cause, a short shipment means that the expected goods did not reach the intended destination as planned.

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  • 27. 

    In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "X" means these articles

    • Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.

    • Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility.

    • Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together.

    • Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the articles must not be loaded, transported, or stored together. This means that if an article is marked with the letter "X" in the hazardous materials compatibility tables, it is not compatible with any other articles and should not be placed in close proximity to them. This is to prevent any potential reactions or dangers that could occur if incompatible materials come into contact with each other.

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  • 28. 

    Before performing any concurrent servicing operations, who is required to ground themselves to a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft?

    • The loadmaster only.

    • All personnel involved in the operation.

    • The loadmaster and load team chief only.

    • The concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS) only.

    Correct Answer
    A. All personnel involved in the operation.
    Explanation
    All personnel involved in the operation are required to ground themselves to a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft. This is necessary to prevent the buildup of static electricity and to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment during concurrent servicing operations. Grounding helps to dissipate any static charges that may be present and reduces the risk of electrical sparks that could potentially ignite fuel vapors or cause damage to sensitive electronic equipment. Therefore, it is important for all personnel involved in the operation to follow this safety procedure.

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  • 29. 

    Which agency challenges shipments in the Defense Transportation System (DTS) and is the critical link between the shipper, transshipper, and receiver?

    • Consolidation and Containerization Point (CCP).

    • Direct vendor delivery (DVD) agency.

    • Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).

    • Customer service branch (CSB).

    Correct Answer
    A. Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).
    Explanation
    The Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) is the agency that challenges shipments in the Defense Transportation System (DTS) and serves as the critical link between the shipper, transshipper, and receiver. They ensure that all necessary clearances and approvals are obtained for the transportation of goods via airlift, coordinating with various stakeholders to ensure smooth and efficient movement of shipments. The ACA plays a vital role in ensuring the timely delivery of goods and maintaining the integrity of the DTS.

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  • 30. 

    You can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC) when

    • You cannot gain access to the DODAAC website.

    • You do not have a clear-text address to send the shipment.

    • The consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC.

    • You are in a deployed location and do not know how to query the location.

    Correct Answer
    A. The consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC.
    Explanation
    When the consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC, you can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC). This means that in situations where the consignor or consignee does not have a specific DODAAC, the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros can be used as an alternative method for addressing and sending the shipment.

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  • 31. 

    In how many copies of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, must be prepared?

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 5.

    • 6.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.
    Explanation
    Three copies of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, must be prepared. This form is used to report any cargo that was unable to be delivered due to various reasons. Having three copies allows for distribution to the appropriate personnel and departments involved in handling the frustrated cargo.

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  • 32. 

    Using manual procedures, when you annotate the Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD), what does it represent?

    • The block time of the aircraft.

    • The system entry time (SET).

    • The required delivery date (RDD).

    • The time the shipment was frustrated.

    Correct Answer
    A. The system entry time (SET).
    Explanation
    When annotating the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, it represents the system entry time (SET). This means that it indicates the time when the shipment or transportation control was entered into the system.

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  • 33. 

    When internal slingable unit (ISU) containers are damaged during deployments, they may be accepted for airlift so the ISU can be returned to the depot for repair. How must they be prepared for airlift?

    • Fully loaded on base support pallets.

    • Loaded with no more than 5,000 lbs.

    • Empty and placed on base support pallet.

    • Loaded with no more than 5,000 lbs on base support pallet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Empty and placed on base support pallet.
  • 34. 

    When building multi-pallet trains, you may need to use dunnage to help distribute the weight evenly. The weight of the dunnage is annotated as what kind of weight?

    • Net.

    • Tare.

    • Gross plus.

    • Not annotated.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tare.
    Explanation
    When building multi-pallet trains, dunnage is used to distribute weight evenly. The weight of the dunnage is annotated as "Tare" weight. Tare weight refers to the weight of the packaging or container that holds the goods, excluding the weight of the goods themselves. In this case, the weight of the dunnage is considered as part of the tare weight, which helps in accurately calculating the total weight of the shipment.

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  • 35. 

    You received a vaccine shipment that can be removed from refrigeration for short periods of time. Which form must be on the shipment to identify this requirement?

    • DD Form 1502, Frozen Medical Material Shipment.

    • DD Form 1502–1, Chilled Medical Material Shipment.

    • DD Form 1502–2, Limited Unrefrigerated Medical Material Shipment.

    • DD Form 1502–3, Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1502–2, Limited Unrefrigerated Medical Material Shipment.
  • 36. 

    The Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) is not used to

    • Allow Aerial Ports of Embarkation (APOE) to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment.

    • Provide notification to the Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE) that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer.

    • Provide a way to process a shipment through the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).

    • Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg Allowable Cabin Load (ACL) information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg Allowable Cabin Load (ACL) information.
    Explanation
    The Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) is not used to allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg Allowable Cabin Load (ACL) information. This document serves a different purpose and does not provide the necessary information or tools for cargo processors to calculate ACL information.

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  • 37. 

    Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) explains how to fill out a Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) block-by-block?

    • L.

    • M.

    • O.

    • P.

    Correct Answer
    A. M.
    Explanation
    Appendix M in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) provides a detailed explanation of how to fill out a Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) block-by-block. This appendix serves as a guide for personnel involved in transportation operations to ensure accurate and complete documentation when preparing TCMDs. It outlines the specific information that needs to be included in each block of the document, such as shipment details, consignee information, and transportation modes. By referring to Appendix M, individuals can ensure compliance with the DTR and facilitate the smooth movement of goods and personnel.

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  • 38. 

    The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the

    • Three-digit Julian date.

    • Estimated time of arrival (ETA) code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • GMT hour code and the ETA code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date. This is because the three-position date shipped code is made up of the GMT hour code, which represents the time the item was shipped, and the last two digits of the Julian date, which represents the day of the year. This combination provides a specific and accurate timestamp for when the item was shipped.

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  • 39. 

    You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal

    • Always; no exceptions.

    • When the shipper delivers the cargo.

    • When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.

    • When the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.
    Explanation
    When the discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal is minor and can be corrected on the spot, it is necessary to address and rectify the issue. This implies that any small deviations or inconsistencies in the shipment should be immediately resolved without any exceptions.

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  • 40. 

    An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?

    • 25,000.

    • 7,500.

    • 5,000.

    • 10,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 7,500.
    Explanation
    Each ring on a 463L pallet can restrain up to 7,500 pounds of weight. This means that if the cargo on the pallet weighs 8,000 pounds, the rings on the pallet will be able to provide enough restraint to secure the cargo and ensure its safe transportation to the aircraft.

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  • 41. 

    You are issuing three GBU-1/B straps to an Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) C-130. Which form would you use to maintain accountability for the items issued to the aircraft?

    • Pallet and Net Monitor Local Custodial Log.

    • AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

    • AF IMT 4069, Tie-down Equipment Checklist.

    • AMC Form 8001, AMC Key Asset and Equipment Report.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, would be used to maintain accountability for the items issued to the aircraft. This form is commonly used to document temporary issues of equipment and serves as a receipt for the items being issued. It allows for tracking and accountability of the items throughout their use and ensures that they are returned or properly disposed of when no longer needed.

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  • 42. 

    Active radio frequency  identification (RFID) technology offers long-range interrogation form permanently mounted interrogators. What minimum distance is considered "long range"?

    • 300 feet.

    • 100 feet.

    • 10 feet.

    • 3 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. 300 feet.
    Explanation
    Active radio frequency identification (RFID) technology allows for long-range interrogation, meaning it can read RFID tags from a significant distance away. The minimum distance considered "long range" in this case is 300 feet. This suggests that the technology is capable of effectively communicating with RFID tags even when they are located up to 300 feet away from the interrogators.

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  • 43. 

    When you attach the radio frequency identification (RFID) tag to a pallet, ensure it is attached

    • Near the highest priority piece of cargo.

    • Outside of any plastic or over wrapping.

    • On the bottom right corner of the pallet.

    • Inside the pallet cover.

    Correct Answer
    A. Outside of any plastic or over wrapping.
    Explanation
    When attaching an RFID tag to a pallet, it is important to ensure that it is attached outside of any plastic or over wrapping. This is because plastic or over wrapping can interfere with the RFID signal, making it difficult for the tag to be read accurately. By attaching the tag outside of any plastic or over wrapping, it can have a clear line of sight with the RFID reader, allowing for accurate and efficient tracking of the pallet.

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  • 44. 

    Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?

    • Aft of non-jettisonable cargo.

    • Forward on non-jettisonable cargo.

    • Anywhere, as long as it is compatible.

    • On the right side only, as long as it is compatible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aft of non-jettisonable cargo.
    Explanation
    Hazardous materials should be loaded aft of non-jettisonable cargo on an aircraft. This is because non-jettisonable cargo cannot be easily removed in case of an emergency, so it is safer to have hazardous materials located behind them. Placing hazardous materials in this position helps to minimize the risk of them causing harm or damage in the event of an emergency situation.

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  • 45. 

    When can passengers enter or exit an aircraft during concurrent servicing operations?

    • When a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the opposite side of the aircraft.

    • When a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the same side of the aircraft.

    • When the cargo load team chief tells them to.

    • Never.

    Correct Answer
    A. When a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the opposite side of the aircraft.
    Explanation
    Passengers can enter or exit an aircraft during concurrent servicing operations when a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the opposite side of the aircraft. This ensures that passengers are not in close proximity to the refueling operations, reducing the risk of accidents or incidents. Using a jet way or stairs on the opposite side of the aircraft allows for a safe and controlled pathway for passengers to board or disembark without interfering with the refueling process.

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  • 46. 

    After the Customer Service Branch (CSB)/Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions must the work center take?

    • Initial both copies and retain them for their files.

    • Retain one copy for their files and discard the original.

    • Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file them both.

    • Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file the original.

    Correct Answer
    A. Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file them both.
    Explanation
    The work center must compare the corrected AMC Form 33 with the copy they have on file to ensure that all discrepancies have been corrected. They should retain both copies for their files.

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  • 47. 

    You are building a multi-pallet train using one-inch couplers. Which aircraft can this train be loaded on, assuming it is properly configured?

    • C-130.

    • C-17.

    • C-5.

    • DC-10.

    Correct Answer
    A. DC-10.
    Explanation
    The DC-10 is the correct answer because it is a wide-body aircraft with a large cargo hold that can accommodate the multi-pallet train. The other aircraft mentioned, such as the C-130, C-17, and C-5, are military transport aircraft that may not have the necessary space or configuration to carry the multi-pallet train.

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  • 48. 

    You must break down an originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo if there is a difference of how many pounds between the documented and actual weight?

    • 355.

    • 150.

    • 200.

    • 100.

    Correct Answer
    A. 150.
    Explanation
    If there is a difference of 150 pounds between the documented and actual weight of the cargo, it is necessary to break down the originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo. This is done to accurately determine the weight of each item and identify any discrepancies. By weighing each piece individually, it becomes easier to identify the specific item or items that are contributing to the difference in weight.

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  • 49. 

    Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?

    • One.

    • Two.

    • Three.

    • Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. Three.
    Explanation
    When applied properly, tie down provides restraint for up to three angles. This means that it can secure an object or structure from movement in three different directions, providing stability and preventing it from shifting or tipping over.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 25, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Stephanie Kimbrell
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